Chapter 49: Nursing Management: Patients With Eye and Vision Disorders

Which client statement would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing bacterial conjunctivitis? "My eyelids were stuck together this morning." "My eyes hurt when I'm in the bright sunlight." "My eyes feel like they are on fire." "It feels like there is something stuck in my eye."

"My eyelids were stuck together this morning." Burning, a sensation of a foreign body, and pain in bright light (photophobia) are signs and symptoms associated with any type of conjunctivitis. The drainage related to bacterial conjunctivitis is usually present in the morning, and the eyes may be difficult to open because of adhesions caused by the exudate.

A client has undergone a cataract extraction with an intraocular lens implant. After providing discharge instructions, the nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching based on which statement? "My vision will be back to normal immediately after surgery." "I should wear the eye patch for the first 24 hours after surgery." "I might feel a scratchy sensation for the first couple of days." " I need to wear sunglasses if I'm outside."

"My vision will be back to normal immediately after surgery." After surgery, the client's vision gradually improves as the eye heals. Although clients with intraocular implants have functional vision on the first day after surgery, vision is stabilized when the eye is completely healed, usually within 6 to 12 weeks. To prevent accidental rubbing or poking of the eye, the client wears a protective eye patch for 24 hours after surgery, followed by eyeglasses worn during the day and a metal shield worn at night for 1 to 4 weeks. Sunglasses should be worn while outdoors during the day because the eye is sensitive to light. Slight morning discharge, some redness, and a scratchy feeling may be expected for a few days.

A nurse is discussing vision loss with a group of participants at a community-based health fair. The nurse knows that many individuals are unaware of the deleterious effects of glaucoma and is briefly explaining the disease to the group. What should the nurse teach these participants about the signs and symptoms of glaucoma? "Glaucoma causes excess tear production as the high-pressure fluid in the eye is shunted away." "Unfortunately, many people have no idea they have glaucoma until their vision is affected." "Many people with glaucoma get itchy, reddened eyes but attribute it to a cold or allergies." "Glaucoma causes significant pain when it first occurs but many people neglect to seek care or treatment."

"Unfortunately, many people have no idea they have glaucoma until their vision is affected." Glaucoma is often called the "silent thief of sight" because most patients are unaware that they have the disease until they have experienced visual changes and vision loss. Pain is a late sign, and it does not result in increased tear production. The disease does not normally cause itchy, reddened eyes.

On ocular examination, the health care provider notes severely elevated IOP, corneal edema, and a pupil that is fixed in a semi-dilated position. The nurse knows that these clinical signs are diagnostic of the type of glaucoma known as: Chronic open-angle. Acute angle-closure. Chronic angle-closure. Normal tension.

Acute angle-closure. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by the symptoms listed, as well as by being rapidly progressive and accompanied by pain.

A major role for nursing in the management of glaucoma is health education. Which of the following is the most important teaching point that the nurse should advise the patient of? Participate in the decision-making process. Keep a record of eye pressure measurements. Keep all follow-up appointments. Adhere to the medication regimen.

Adhere to the medication regimen. All of the teaching points are important but the most important is emphasizing the strict adherence to the medication regimen because glaucoma cannot be cured but its progression can be slowed.

The nurse is demonstrating how to perform punctal occlusion. Which activities does the nurse perform? Applies firm pressure to the upper and lower eyelids at the outer edges to keep eyelids in approximation Applies gentle pressure bilaterally on the bridge of the nose to the inner canthus of each eye Applies gentle pressure to the upper eyelid to keep the lid open while telling the client to gaze upward Holds down the lower lid of the eye by applying pressure on the eyeball and the cheekbone

Applies gentle pressure bilaterally on the bridge of the nose to the inner canthus of each eye Punctal occlusion is done by applying gentle pressure to the inner canthus of each eye for 1 to 2 minutes immediately after eye drops are instilled. The nurse does not apply pressure to the eyeball when administering medications. The lower eyelid is held down to expose the conjunctival sac. The other action described will not aid in the retention or absorption of medication.

A client who is blind is awaiting elective surgery. What should the nurse do to promote this client's control over their hospital environment? Open all containers without prompting to be helpful. Keep personal care items where the nurse knows their location. Arrange the meal tray in a way that is easiest for the nurse to assist the client. Ask the client where to store his or her self-care items.

Ask the client where to store his or her self-care items. Ask the client's preference for where to store hygiene articles and other objects needed for self-care. Involving the client promotes his or her control over the environment. Personal care items should be kept in the same location at all times to provide the client with the ability to locate toiletries easily. At mealtime, describe where food is on the plate using the positions on the face of a clock. This measure assists the client to identify the location of food. Allow the client to open containers and offer help if needed. Having a choice facilitates independence.

Following cataract removal, discharge instructions will be provided to the client. Which of the following instructions is most important? Only sleep on back. Avoid any activity that can increase intraocular pressure. Avoid washing face and eyes for first 24 hours. Apply protective patch to both eyes at bedtime.

Avoid any activity that can increase intraocular pressure. For approximately 1 week, the client should avoid any activity that can cause an increase in intraocular pressure. Clients may sleep on back or unaffected side. Clients may use a clean damp cloth to remove eye discharge and wash face. An eye shield is often ordered for the first 24 hours and during the night to prevent rubbing or trauma to the operative eye.

An 80-year-old woman has just undergone cataract surgery at an outpatient surgical center and is being prepared for discharge home. When providing relevant health education, the nurse should teach the patient to: Remain on bed rest for the next 2 to 3 days, if possible Irrigate her eye with normal saline solution every 4 to 6 hours Avoid bending over for an extended period until the eye has healed Expect significant pain for the next 24 to 48 hours

Avoid bending over for an extended period until the eye has healed After cataract surgery, the patient should avoid bending or stooping for an extended period. Bed rest is not necessary, and irrigation is contraindicated. Pain is an abnormal finding that would warrant prompt follow-up.

A nurse instructs a client to refrain from blinking after administering eye drops based on which rationale? Blinking causes the eye drop to be expelled from the conjunctival sac. Blinking slows absorption of the instilled eye drops. Blinking limits the size of the conjunctival sac for the needed amount of eye drop. Blinking keeps substances from entering the eye.

Blinking causes the eye drop to be expelled from the conjunctival sac. Blinking expels an instilled eye drop from the conjunctival sac, which interferes with the efficacy of the medication. Blood-ocular barriers keep foreign substances from entering the eye. The size of the conjunctival sac does change with blinking. It can hold only 50 uL.

An ophthalmologist diagnoses a patient with myopia. The nurse explains that this type of impaired vision is a refractive error characterized by: Eyes that are shallow. A shorter depth to the eyeball. Farsightedness. Blurred distance vision.

Blurred distance vision. People who have myopia are said to be nearsighted. They have deeper eyeballs; thus, the distant visual image focuses in front of, or short of, the retina. Myopic people experience blurred distance vision.

A client who had a corneal transplant a few months ago arrives at the emergency department reporting eye discomfort. When assessing the client, which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect graft failure? Halos around lights Blurred vision Reduced tearing Pale conjunctiva

Blurred vision Signs and symptoms of graft failure include eye discomfort, blurred vision, tearing, and redness of the eye. Halos around lights are associated with glaucoma.

The nurse is administering an ophthalmic ointment to a patient with conjunctivitis. What disadvantage of the application of an ointment does the nurse explain to the patient? It does not work as rapidly as eye drops do. It has more side effects than eye drops. It has a lower concentration than eye drops. Blurred vision results after application.

Blurred vision results after application. Ophthalmic ointments have extended retention time in the conjunctival sac and provide a higher concentration than eye drops. The major disadvantage of ointments is the blurred vision that results after application. In general, eyelids and eyelid margins are best treated with ointments.

The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient home. During discharge teaching, the nurse realizes that the patient is not able to read the medication bottles and has not been taking her medications at home. How should the nurse intervene appropriately in this situation? By informing the patient that she will need to go to a rehabilitation facility for vision training By asking the social worker to investigate nursing home placement By informing that patient that surgery will correct the vision problem By asking the social worker to investigate community support agencies

By asking the social worker to investigate community support agencies Managing low vision involves magnification and image enhancement through the use of low-vision aids and strategies and referrals to social services and community agencies serving those with visual impairment. Community agencies, such as The Lighthouse National Center for Vision and Aging, offer services to low vision patients that include training in independent living skills and a variety of assistive devices for vision enhancement, and orientation and mobility to keep patients from needing to enter a nursing facility. A rehabilitation facility is generally not needed by patients to learn to use assistive devices or gain a greater degree of independence. Surgery is also generally not a necessary component to independent living for this group of patients.

A patient is given atropine to dilate the pupil of her right eye to treat an acute iritis. The nurse is aware that a major consideration is to: Assess for cardiac dysrhythmias. Observe for signs of disorientation or delirium. Check for signs and symptoms of glaucoma. Monitor the patient for indicators of hypertension.

Check for signs and symptoms of glaucoma. The nurse should watch the patient for signs and symptoms of glaucoma. Refer to Table 49-4 in the text.

Which of the following medication classifications increases aqueous fluid outflow in the patient with glaucoma? Alpha-adrenergic agonists Beta blockers Cholinergics Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Cholinergics Cholinergics increase aqueous fluid outflow by contracting the ciliary muscle, causing miosis and opening the trabecular meshwork. Beta blockers decrease aqueous humor production. Alpha-adrenergic agonists decrease aqueous humor production. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease aqueous humor production.

Which of the following medications needs to be withheld for 5 to 7 days prior to cataract surgery? Coumadin Glucophage Lasix Prednisone

Coumadin It has been common practice to withhold any anticoagulant therapy such as Coumadin to reduce the risk for retrobulbar hemorrhage (after retrobulbar injection) for 5 to 7 days before surgery.

What type of medication would the nurse use in combination with mydriatics to dilate the patient's pupil? NSAIDs Corticosteroids Anti-infectives Cycloplegics

Cycloplegics Mydriasis, or pupil dilation, is the main objective of the administration of mydriatics and cycloplegics (Table 63-3). These two types of medications function differently and are used in combination to achieve the maximal dilation that is needed during surgery and fundus examinations to give the ophthalmologist a better view of the internal eye structures.

The nurse is providing care to a client who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of an infection. The client is visually impaired. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when interacting with the client? Touch the client before identifying himself or herself. Talk to the client in a loud tone of voice. Avoid using the terms "see" or "look." Face the client when speaking directly to him.

Face the client when speaking directly to him. When interacting with a client with a visual impairment, the nurse should face the client and speak directly to the client using a normal tone of voice. It is not necessary to raise the voice unless the client asks the nurse to do so and it is not necessary to avoid the terms, "see" or "look" when interacting with the client. The nurse should identify himself or herself when approaching the client and before making any physical contact.

The nurse should monitor for which manifestation in a client who has had LASIK surgery? Halos and glare Cataract formation Excessive tearing Stye formation

Halos and glare After LASIK surgery, symptoms of central islands and decentered ablations can occur that include monocular diplopia or ghost images, halos, glare, and decreased visual acuity. These procedures do not cause excessive tearing or result in cataract or stye formation.

The nurse should monitor for which manifestation in a client who has undergone LASIK? Cataract formation Halos and glare Excessive tearing Stye formation

Halos and glare Symptoms of central islands and decentered ablations can occur after LASIK surgery; these include monocular diplopia or ghost images, halos, glare, and decreased visual acuity. These procedures do not cause excessive tearing or result in cataract or stye formation.

A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is now presenting with eye pain and intraocular pressure of 50 mm Hg. An immediate iridotomy is scheduled. Which of the following describes the desired effects of this procedure? Restore vision To relieve pain Reverse optic nerve damage Improve outflow drainage

Improve outflow drainage Laser iridotomy or standard iridotomy is a surgical procedure that provides additional outlet drainage of aqueous humor. This is done to lower the IOP as quickly as possible since permanent vision loss can occur in 1 to 2 days. Once optic nerve damage occurs, it cannot be reversed, and vision is not restored. Pain that occurs with rising IOP will be controlled once pressure is lowered through improved outflow drainage.

A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is now presenting with eye pain and intraocular pressure of 50 mm Hg. An immediate iridotomy is scheduled. Which of the following describes the desired effects of this procedure? Reverse optic nerve damage To relieve pain Improve outflow drainage Restore vision

Improve outflow drainage Laser iridotomy or standard iridotomy is a surgical procedure that provides additional outlet drainage of aqueous humor. This is done to lower the IOP as quickly as possible since permanent vision loss can occur in 1 to 2 days. Once optic nerve damage occurs, it cannot be reversed, and vision is not restored. Pain that occurs with rising IOP will be controlled once pressure is lowered through improved outflow drainage.

A client who has come to the clinic for an evaluation is diagnosed with glaucoma. The client asks the nurse, "What is this disease?" Which information would the nurse most likely include in the response? Increased pressure in the eye causes damage to the optic nerve. The conjunctiva becomes inflamed and irritated. The lens becomes cloudy, causing vision to be impaired. The retina separates from the sensory layers of the eye.

Increased pressure in the eye causes damage to the optic nerve. Glaucoma is a group of ocular conditions characterized by optic nerve damage that is related to the increased intraocular pressure caused by congestion of the aqueous humor in the eye. A cataract is a clouding of the lens. Retinal detachment occurs when the retina separates from the sensory layer. Conjunctivitis refers to an inflammation of the conjunctiva.

A male patient with a history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes has experienced an accelerated deterioration in his vision and is now considered to be legally blind. When planning this patient's care, the nurse should recognize the possibility of what nursing diagnosis? Ineffective coping Unilateral neglect Decisional conflict Moral distress

Ineffective coping Although every patient will respond differently to a decrease in visual acuity, ineffective coping has been identified as a common phenomenon. This is more likely than unilateral neglect, moral distress, or decisional conflict.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group comparing photorefractive keratectomy and LASIK refractive surgeries. Which of the following would the nurse include? PRK requires that a thin flap be made to allow access to the cornea. PRK is used primarily for people without an astigmatism. LASIK is appropriate for people with very thin corneas. LASIK involves working with the cornea on a deeper level.

LASIK involves working with the cornea on a deeper level. LASIK involves the creation of a corneal flap to allow access to the corneal stroma at a deeper level. PRK is used to treat myopia and hyperopia with or without an astigmatism and is now reserved for clients unsuitable for LASIK, such as those with very thin corneas.

Which surgical procedure involves flattening the anterior curvature of the cornea by removing a stromal lamella? Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) Keratoplasty Keratoconus

Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) LASIK involves flattening the anterior curvature of the cornea by removing a stromal lamella or layer. PRK is used to treat myopia and hyperopia with or without astigmatism. Keratoconus is a cone-shaped deformity of the cornea. Keratoplasty involves replacing abnormal host tissue with healthy donor (cadaver) corneal tissue.

A nurse is teaching a client about medications for glaucoma. What is the main marker of glaucoma control with medication? Reducing the appearance of optic nerve head Changing the opacity of the lens Lowering intraocular pressure to target pressure Increasing the visual field

Lowering intraocular pressure to target pressure The main marker of the efficacy of the medication in glaucoma control is lowering of the intraocular pressure to the target pressure. Opacity of the lenses relates to cataract formation. The appearance of the optic nerve head and the visual field are not goals with glaucoma medication.

During an initial assessment, the nurse notes a symptom of a mild case of bacterial conjunctivitis and documents in the electronic medical record that the client is displaying which of the following ? Blurred vision Elevated intraocular pressure Severe pain Mucopurulent ocular discharge

Mucopurulent ocular discharge Bacterial conjunctivitis manifests with an acute onset of redness, burning, and discharge. Purulent discharge occurs in severe acute bacterial infections, whereas mucopurulent discharge appears in mild cases.

To avoid the side effects of corticosteroids, which medication classification is used as an alternative to treat inflammatory conditions of the eyes? Mydriatics NSAIDs Cycloplegics Miotics

NSAIDs NSAIDs are used as an alternative in controlling inflammatory eye conditions and postoperatively to reduce inflammation. Miotics are used to cause the pupil to constrict. Mydriatics cause the pupil to dilate. Cycloplegics cause paralysis of the iris sphincter.

A patient is being discharged home from the ambulatory surgical center after cataract surgery. In reviewing the discharge instructions with the patient, the nurse instructs the patient to immediately call the office if he experiences what? Mild redness of the eye New floater in vision Scratchy feeling in the eye Sight morning discharge from the eye

New floater in vision Cataract surgery increases the risk of retinal detachment, and the patient must be instructed to notify the surgeon if new floaters in vision, flashing lights, decrease in vision, pain, or increase in redness occurs. Slight morning discharge, some redness, and a scratchy feeling may be expected for a few days after surgery.

When an impaled object is in the eye, which of the following steps should be taken to ensure that no further damage occurs? Select all that apply. Apply a patch to the eye Apply gentle pressure to the eye Protect object from jarring No attempt should be made to remove the object Use metal shield

No attempt should be made to remove the object Protect object from jarring Use metal shield With a foreign body, no attempt should be made to remove it. The object should be protected from jarring or movement to prevent further ocular damage. No pressure or patch should be applied to the affected eye. All traumatic eye injuries should be protected with a metal shield if available.

To avoid the side effects of corticosteroids, which medication classification is used as an alternative to treating inflammatory conditions of the eyes? Mydriatics Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Cycloplegics Miotics

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) NSAIDs are used as an alternative in controlling inflammatory eye conditions and postoperatively to reduce inflammation. Miotics are used to cause the pupil to constrict. Mydriatics cause the pupil to dilate. Cycloplegics cause paralysis of the iris sphincter.

A legally blind client is in pre-op area prior to an appendectomy. What steps does the nurse take to effectively communicate with this client ? Inform the client that the nurse will be working nearby. Sit near the client to provide reassurance of the strange surroundings. Make direct eye contact with the client when communicating. Notify the client prior to touching the client.

Notify the client prior to touching the client. The nurse should announce upon arrival the bedside every time because many voices sound similar. The nurse should use the client's name initially so the client knows the nurse is communicating with the client directly. The nurse should speak before touching the client as not to startle the client. The nurse should notify the client when approaching and leaving the bedside each time. Orient the client to their surroundings using verbal descriptions and directions such as left, or right.

Which term refers to swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure? Photophobia Papilledema Chemosis Ptosis

Papilledema Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure. Chemosis is edema of the conjunctiva. Ptosis is a drooping eyelid. Photophobia is ocular pain on exposure to light.

Which of the following surgical procedures involves taking a piece of silicone plastic or sponge and sewing it onto the sclera at the site of a retinal tear? Pneumatic retinopexy Pars plana vitrectomy Scleral buckle Phacoemulsification

Scleral buckle The scleral buckle is a procedure in which a piece of silicone plastic or sponge is sewn onto the sclera at the site of the retinal tear. The buckle holds the retina against the sclera until scarring seals the tear. The other surgeries do not use this type of procedure.

A patient visits a clinic for an eye examination. He describes his visual changes and mentions a specific diagnostic clinical sign of glaucoma. What is that clinical sign? Diminished acuity The presence of halos around lights A significant loss of central vision Pain associated with a purulent discharge

The presence of halos around lights Colored halos around lights is a classic symptom of acute-closure glaucoma.

When conducting an eye exam, the nurse practitioner is aware that a diagnostic clinical manifestation of glaucoma is: Diminished acuity. A significant loss of central vision. The presence of halos around lights. Pain associated with a purulent discharge.

The presence of halos around lights. Most patients are unaware that they have glaucoma until they experience visual changes and vision loss. Usually the patient notices blurred vision and the presence of "halos" around lights.

A client comes to the clinic for an ophthalmologic screening, which will include measurement of intraocular pressure (IOP) with a tonometer. Which statement about this procedure is true? A topical anesthetic will be administered after the examination. The client should wear dark glasses for several hours after the procedure. The client will direct the gaze forward while the physician rests the tonometer on the scleral surface. The tonometer will register the force required to indent or flatten the corneal apex.

The tonometer will register the force required to indent or flatten the corneal apex. The tonometer will register the force required to indent (using Schiotz's tonometer) or flatten (using an applanation tonometer) the corneal apex. This force varies with firmness of the eye, which fluctuates with IOP. Although the client does direct the gaze forward during tonometry, the tonometer rests on the surface of the cornea, not the sclera. Topical anesthetic drops are administered before, not after, the examination. The client should wear dark glasses after pupil dilation, not tonometry, to protect the eyes from light.

A client accidentally splashes chemicals into one eye. The nurse knows that eye irrigation with plain tap water should begin immediately and continue for 15 to 20 minutes. What is the primary purpose of this first aid treatment? To serve as a stopgap measure until help arrives To eliminate the need for medical care To hasten formation of scar tissue To prevent vision loss

To prevent vision loss Prolonged eye irrigation after a chemical burn is the most effective way to prevent formation of permanent scar tissue and thus help prevent vision loss. After a potentially serious eye injury, the victim should always seek medical care. Eye irrigation isn't considered a stopgap measure.

A boy has been brought to the clinic by his mother because of redness, swelling, and tenderness in the conjunctiva of his left eye. The nurse's inspection of the boy's eye also reveals the presence of purulent discharge in his left medial canthus. The nurse should anticipate that the boy will require what intervention? Topical antibiotics Instillation of a hypertonic solution Application of a colloidal silver pad Oral antiviral medication

Topical antibiotics This patient's signs and symptoms are characteristic of bacterial conjunctivitis, which is frequently treated with topical antibiotics. Viral conjunctivitis typically produces watery eye discharge. Hypertonic solutions and colloidal silver are not normally used in the treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis.

A patient is suspected of having retinal detachment. The nurse would expect to prepare the patient for which of the following? Select all that apply. Fluorescein angiography Slit lamp biomicroscopy Indirect ophthalmoscopy Tonometry Visual acuity testing Amsler grid testing

Visual acuity testing Indirect ophthalmoscopy Slit lamp biomicroscopy Fluorescein angiography Testing for retinal detachment includes visual acuity testing, indirect ophthalmoscopy, slit lamp biomicroscopy, and fluorescein angiography. The Amsler grid is used to evaluate for macular degeneration. Tonometry is used to evaluate for glaucoma.

A client is color blind. The nurse understands that this client has a problem with: rods. lens. aqueous humor. cones.

cones. Cones provide daylight color vision, and their stimulation is interpreted as color. If one or more types of cones are absent or defective, color blindness occurs. Rods are sensitive to low levels of illumination but can't discriminate color. The lens is responsible for focusing images. Aqueous humor is a clear watery fluid and isn't involved with color perception.

A client has just been diagnosed with early glaucoma. During a teaching session, the nurse should: demonstrate eyedrop instillation. assess the client's visual acuity. provide instructions on eye patching. teach about intraocular lens cleaning.

demonstrate eyedrop instillation. Eyedrop instillation is a critical component of self-care for a client with glaucoma. After demonstrating eyedrop instillation to the client and family, the nurse should verify their ability to perform this measure properly. An eye patch isn't necessary unless the client has undergone surgery. Visual acuity assessment isn't necessary before discharge. Intraocular lenses aren't implanted in clients with glaucoma.

A client has noticed recently having clearer vision at a distance than up close. What is the term used to describe this client's visual condition? hyperopia astigmatism myopia emmetropia

hyperopia Hyperopia is farsightedness. People who are hyperopic see objects that are far away better than objects that are close.

The nurse realizes that a client understands how to correctly instill ophthalmic medications when the client: wipes the lids and lashes prior to instillation in a direction toward the nose with moistened, soft gauze. allows the tip of the container to touch the eyelid while administering the medication. pulls the tissue near the cheek downward to instill medication. rubs the eye after administering medication.

pulls the tissue near the cheek downward to instill medication. Pull the cheek downward to form a sack in the lower lid. Instill the drops into the conjunctival pocket. The lid and lashes would be wiped in a direction away from the nose to avoid contamination. The tip of the container will be contaminated if it touches eye or eyelid. Do not rub the eye because it may irritate the eye.

A client is prescribed eye drops which cause mydriasis. When evaluating the effect of these drops, the nurse would assess for: reduced conjunctival redness. pupil dilation. reduced intraocular pressure. pupil constriction.

pupil dilation. Mydriatic agents cause pupil dilation; miotic agents cause pupil constriction. Drops used to treat glaucoma lower intraocular pressure. Anti-inflammatory drops aid in reducing redness and irritation of the conjunctiva.

After a fall at home, a client hits their head on the corner of a table. Shortly after the accident, the client arrives at the ED, unable to see out of their left eye. The client tells the nurse that symptoms began with seeing spots or moving particles in the field of vision but that there was no pain in the eye. The client is very upset that the vision will not return. What is the most likely cause of this client's symptoms? angle-closure glaucoma eye trauma chalazion retinal detachment

retinal detachment A detached retina is associated with a hole or tear in the retina caused by stretching or degenerative changes. Retinal detachment may follow a sudden blow, penetrating injury, or eye surgery.

When the client tells the nurse that his vision is 20/200 and then asks what that means, the nurse informs the client that a person with 20/200 vision sees an object from 20 feet away just like a person with normal vision. sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. sees an object from 200 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 20 feet away. sees an object from 200 feet away just like a person with normal vision.

sees an object from 20 feet away that a person with normal vision sees from 200 feet away. The fraction 20/20 is considered the standard of normal vision. Most people can see the letters on an eye chart designated as 20/20 from a distance of 20 feet.

When assessing the pressure of the anterior chamber of the eye, a nurse normally expects to find a pressure of: 20 to 30 mm Hg. 5 to 10 mm Hg. over 30 mm Hg. 10 to 20 mm Hg.

10 to 20 mm Hg. Normally, pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye remains relatively constant at 10 to 20 mm Hg.

A nurse practitioner examines a patient and documents a best corrected visual acuity (BCVA) ratio in his better eye that qualifies him for government financial assistance based on the definition of legal blindness. What is that ratio? 20/160 20/120 20/140 20/200

20/200 Legal blindness is a condition of impaired vision in which a person has a BCVA that does not exceed 20/200 in the better eye or whose widest visual field diameter is 20 degrees or less.

A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several clients who have come to the clinic. Each of the clients wears corrective lenses. For the client with which corrected visual acuity would the nurse need to include additional devices and strategies to address low vision? 20/40 20/60 20/80 20/20

20/80 Low vision is defined as a best corrected visual acuity (BCVA) of 20/70 to 20/200. Low vision is a general term describing visual impairment that requires clients to use devices and strategies in addition to corrective lenses to perform visual tasks.