Chapter 53 PrepU

The nurse is explaining the steps for collecting a clean catch urine specimen to a client. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching? "I'll start to urinate for a few seconds and then start to collect the specimen." "After I clean the area, I can let go of my labia to hold the container." "I need to collect at least 100 mL of urine for the specimen." "I need to use one antiseptic wipe to clean the sides and down the middle."

"I'll start to urinate for a few seconds and then start to collect the specimen." When collecting a clean catch urine specimen, the client would begin voiding for a few seconds and then collect 30 to 50 mL of the midstream urine into the container. The client would use one antiseptic towelette to clean the one side of the urethra, one to clean the other side of the urethra, and then a third to clean the center. The labia are held apart during the cleaning process and throughout the voiding until after the specimen is collected.

A female client presents to the health clinic for a routine physical examination. The nurse observes that the client's urine is bright yellow. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client? "Have you noticed any vaginal bleeding?" "Do you take phenytoin daily?" "Do you take multiple vitamin preparations?" "Have you had a recent urinary tract infection?"

"Do you take multiple vitamin preparations?" Explanation: Urine that is bright yellow is an anticipated abnormal finding in the client taking a multivitamin preparation. Urine that is orange may be caused by intake of phenytoin or other medications. Orange- to amber-colored urine may also indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or fever. Urine that is pink to red may indicate lower urinary tract bleeding. Yellow to milky white urine may indicate infection, pyuria, or, in the female client, the use of vaginal creams.

The nurse is completing a full exam of the renal system. Which assessment finding best documents the need to offer the use of the bathroom? Tenderness over the kidneys Bruits noted over the abdominal area A dull sound when percussing over the bladder The ingestion of 8 oz of water

A dull sound when percussing over the bladder A dull sound when percussing over the bladder indicates a full bladder. Because the bladder is full, the nurse would offer for the client to use the bathroom. Tenderness over the kidney can indicate an infection or stones. Bruits are an abnormal vascular sound that does not indicate the need to use the bathroom. Ingesting water does not mean that the client has to void at this time.

A patient has an increase in blood osmolality when the nurse reviews the laboratory work. What can this increase indicate for the patient? ADH stimulation An increase in urine volume Diuresis Less reabsorption of water

ADH stimulation Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, is a hormone that is secreted by the posterior portion of the pituitary gland in response to changes in osmolality of the blood. With decreased water intake, blood osmolality tends to increase, stimulating ADH release.

Which of the following diagnostic tests would the nurse expect to be ordered to determine the details of the arterial supply to the kidneys? Angiography Cystoscopy Radiography Computed tomography (CT scan)

Angiography Angiography provides the details of the arterial supply to the kidneys, specifically the number and location of renal arteries. Radiography shows the size and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. A CT scan is useful in identifying calculi, congenital abnormalities, obstruction, infections, and polycystic diseases. Cystoscopy is used for providing a visual examination of the internal bladder.

As women age, many experience an increased sense of urgency to void, as well as an increased risk of incontinence. This is usually the result of age-related changes in which part of the renal system? Kidney Nephron Tubule system Bladder

Bladder With increased age, bladder tone and capacity is decreased. In women, this is compounded by a decrease in estrogen, which causes changes to the urethral sphincter.

The nurse is providing care to a client who has had a kidney biopsy. The nurse would need to be alert for signs and symptoms of which of the following? Bleeding Infection Dehydration Allergic reaction

Bleeding Explanation: Renal biopsy carries the risk of post procedure bleeding, because the kidneys receive up to 25% of the cardiac output each minute. Therefore, the nurse would need to be alert for signs and symptoms of bleeding. Although infection is also a risk, the risk for bleeding is greater. Dehydration and allergic reaction are not associated with a renal biopsy.

The nurse is monitoring a client who has undergone cystoscopy because the client's history indicates urinary infection. Which of the following would the nurse need to report to the physician? Chills and fever Dysuria and discolored or malodorous urine Hematoma and frank bleeding Flank pain and rapid pulse

Chills and fever The nurse should monitor for chills, fever, and septicemia in a client who has a history of urinary infection after cystoscopy. These symptoms should be observed and the physician should be notified of the findings. Hematoma formation and frank bleeding would be indications to notify the physician after a renal angiography. The nurse should inform the client who is discharged after a renal biopsy to report dysuria, discolored or malodorous urine, flank pain, and rapid pulse to the physician.

Which value does the nurse recognize as the best clinical measure of renal function? Creatinine clearance Circulating ADH concentration Volume of urine output Urine-specific gravity

Creatinine clearance Explanation: Creatinine clearance is a good measure of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), the amount of plasma filtered through the glomeruli per unit of time. Creatinine clearance is the best approximation of renal function. As renal function declines, both creatinine clearance and renal clearance (the ability to excrete solutes) decrease.

A creatinine clearance test is ordered for a client with possible renal insufficiency. The nurse must collect which serum concentration midway through the 24-hour urine collection? Blood urea nitrogen Creatinine Osmolality Hemoglobin

Creatinine Explanation: To calculate creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine specimen is collected. The serum creatinine concentration is measured midway through the collection. The other concentrations are not measured during this test.

A client develops decreased renal function and requires a change in antibiotic dosage. On which factor should the physician base the dosage change? GI absorption rate Therapeutic index Creatinine clearance Liver function studies

Creatinine clearance

A client develops decreased renal function and requires a change in antibiotic dosage. On which factor should the physician base the dosage change? GI absorption rate Therapeutic index Creatinine clearance Liver function studies

Creatinine clearance Explanation: The physician should base changes to antibiotic dosages on creatinine clearance test results, which gauge the kidney's glomerular filtration rate; this factor is important because most drugs are excreted at least partially by the kidneys. The GI absorption rate, therapeutic index, and liver function studies don't help determine dosage change in a client with decreased renal function.

Which value does the nurse recognize as the best clinical measure of renal function? Creatinine clearance Circulating ADH concentration Volume of urine output Urine-specific gravity

Creatinine clearance Creatinine clearance is a good measure of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), the amount of plasma filtered through the glomeruli per unit of time. Creatinine clearance is the best approximation of renal function. As renal function declines, both creatinine clearance and renal clearance (the ability to excrete solutes) decrease.

The nurse is completing a routine urinalysis using a dipstick. The test reveals an increased specific gravity. The nurse should suspect which condition? Decreased fluid intake Increased fluid intake Glomerulonephritis Diabetes insipidus

Decreased fluid intake Explanation: When fluid intake decreases, specific gravity normally increases. With high fluid intake, specific gravity decreases. Disorders or conditions that cause decreased urine-specific gravity include diabetes insipidus, glomerulonephritis, and severe renal damage. Disorders that can cause increased specific gravity include diabetes, nephritis, and fluid deficit.

The wall of the bladder is comprised of four layers. Which of the following is the layer responsible for micturition? Adventitia (connective tissue) Detrusor muscle Submucosal layer of connective tissue Inner layer of epithelium

Detrusor muscle Explanation: The bladder wall contains four layers. The smooth muscle layer beneath the adventitia is known as the detrusor layer. When this muscle contracts, urine is released from the bladder. When the bladder is relaxed, the muscle fibers are closed and act as a sphincter.

The nurse reviews a client's history and notes that the client has a history of hyperparathyroidism. The nurse would identify that this client most likely would be at risk for which of the following? Kidney stones Fistula Chronic renal failure Neurogenic bladder

Kidney stones A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for kidney stones. The client with diabetes mellitus is a risk factor for developing chronic renal failure and neurogenic bladder. A client with radiation to the pelvis is at risk for urinary tract fistula.

The wall of the bladder has four layers. Which of the following layers contains a membrane that prevents reabsorption of urine stored in the bladder? Mucosal Adventitia Detrusor Connective tissue

Mucosal Explanation: Beneath the detrusor is a submucosal layer of loose connective tissue that serves as an interface between the detrusor and the innermost layer, a mucosal lining. This inner layer contains specialized transitional cell epithelium, a membrane that is impermeable to water and prevents reabsorption of urine stored in the bladder.

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus? Renin Aldosterone Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Calcitonin

Renin Explanation: Renin is a hormone directly involved in the control of arterial blood pressure; it is essential for proper functioning of the glomerulus. ADH, also known as vasopressin, plays a key role in the regulation of extracellular fluid by excreting or retaining water. Calcitonin regulates calcium and phosphorous metabolism.

The nurse is aware, when caring for patients with renal disease, that which substance made in the glomeruli directly controls blood pressure? Cortisol Vasopressin Albumin Renin

Renin Explanation: Renin is directly involved in the control of arterial blood pressure. It is also essential for the proper functioning of the glomerulus and management of the body's renin-angiotensin system (RAS).

Which nursing assessment finding indicates the client has not met expected outcomes? The client reports a pain rating of 3 two hours post-kidney biopsy. The client has blood-tinged urine following brush biopsy. The client consumes 75% of lunch following an intravenous pyelogram. The client voids 75 cc four hours post cystoscopy.

The client voids 75 cc four hours post cystoscopy. Urinary retention is an undesirable outcome following cystoscopy. A pain rating of 3 is an achievable and expected outcome following kidney biopsy. Blood-tinged urine is an expected finding following cystoscopy due to trauma of the procedure. A client would be expected to eat and retain a meal following an intravenous pyelogram.

The nurse is caring for a client who is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious outside in hot weather. Dehydration is suspected. Baseline lab work including a urine specific gravity is ordered. Which relation between the client's symptoms and urine specific gravity is anticipated? The specific gravity will be inversely proportional The specific gravity will equal to one The specific gravity will be high. The specific gravity will be low

The specific gravity will be high. The nurse assesses all of the data to make an informed decision on client status. On a hot day, the client found outside will be perspiring. When dehydration occurs, a client will have low urine output and increased specific gravity of urine. Normal specific gravity is inversely proportional. The density of distilled water is one. A low specific gravity is noted in a client with high fluid intake and who is not losing systemic fluid.

The most frequent reason for admission to skilled care facilities includes which of the following? Urinary incontinence Congestive heart failure Stroke Myocardial infarction

Urinary incontinence Urinary incontinence is the most common reason for admission to skilled nursing facilities.

The nurse is caring for a client who is describing urinary symptoms of needing to go to the bathroom with little notice. When the nurse is documenting these symptoms, which medical term will the nurse document? Urinary stasis Urinary urgency Urinary incontinence Urinary frequency

Urinate urgency The nurse would document urinary urgency. Urinary frequency is urinating more frequently than normal often times due to inadequate emptying of the bladder. Urinary incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine. Urinary stasis is a stoppage or diminution of flow.

A client in a short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should: keep the client's knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours. apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes. check the client's pedal pulses frequently. remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.

check the client's pedal pulses frequently. Explanation: After renal angiography involving a femoral puncture site, the nurse should check the client's pedal pulses frequently to detect reduced circulation to the feet caused by vascular injury. The nurse also should monitor vital signs for evidence of internal hemorrhage and should observe the puncture site frequently for fresh bleeding. The client should be kept on bed rest for several hours so the puncture site can seal completely. Keeping the client's knee bent is unnecessary. By the time the client returns to the short-procedure unit, manual pressure over the puncture site is no longer needed because a pressure dressing is in place. The nurse should leave this dressing in place for several hours — and only remove it if instructed to do so.

An older adult's most recent laboratory findings indicate a decrease in creatinine clearance. When performing an assessment related to potential causes, the nurse should: confirm all of the medications and supplements normally taken. assess the client's usual intake of sodium. confirm which beverages the client normally consumes. palpate the client's bladder before and after voiding.

confirm all of the medications and supplements normally taken. Explanation: Adverse effects of medications are a common cause of decreased renal function in older adults. Quantity, rather than type, of beverages is relevant. Sodium intake does not normally cause decreased renal function. Bladder palpation can be used to confirm urinary retention, but this does not normally affect renal function as much as medications.

When the bladder contains 400 to 500 mL of urine, this is referred to as anuria. specific gravity. functional capacity. renal clearance.

functional capacity. Explanation: A marked sense of fullness and discomfort with a strong desire to void usually occurs when the bladder contains 400 to 500 mL of urine, referred to as the "functional capacity." Anuria is a total urine output less than 50 mL in 24 hours. Specific gravity reflects the weight of particles dissolved in the urine. Renal clearance refers to the ability of the kidneys to clear solutes from the plasma.

A client with a history of bladder retention hasn't voided for 8 hours. A nurse concerned that the client is retaining urine notifies the physician. He orders a bladder ultrasonic scan and placement of an indwelling catheter if the residual urine is greater than 350 mL. The nurse knows that using the bladder ultrasonic scan to measure residual urine instead of placing a straight catheter reduces the risk of: microorganism transfer. prostate irritation. client discomfort. incorrect urine output values.

microorganism transfer. Explanation: Bladder ultrasonic scanning, a noninvasive way of calculating the amount of urine in the bladder, reduces the risk of transferring microorganisms into the bladder. Use of a straight catheter to measure residual urine increases the transfer of microorganisms into the bladder, and increases, rather than reduces, client discomfort. A bladder ultrasonic scan doesn't reduce the risk of prostate irritation or incorrect urine output values.

The term used to describe total urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour is oliguria. anuria. nocturia. dysuria.

oliguria. Explanation: Oliguria is decreased urine output that is associated with acute and chronic renal failure. Anuria is used to describe total urine output less than 50 mL in 24 hours. Nocturia refers to awakening at night to urinate. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination.

When fluid intake is normal, the specific gravity of urine should be: 1.000 Less than 1.010 Greater than 1.025 1.010 to 1.025

1.010 to 1.025 Urine-specific gravity is a measurement of the kidneys' ability to concentrate urine. The specific gravity of water is 1.000. A urine-specific gravity less than 1.010 may indicate inadequate fluid intake. A urine-specific gravity greater than 1.025 may indicate dehydration.

A patient has undergone a renal biopsy. After the test, while the patient is resting, the patient reports severe pain in the back, arms, and shoulders. Which intervention should be offered by the nurse? Assess the patient's back and shoulder areas for signs of internal bleeding. Distract the patient's attention from the pain. Provide analgesics to the patient. Enable the patient to sit up and ambulate.

Assess the patient's back and shoulder areas for signs of internal bleeding. Explanation: After a renal biopsy, the patient is on bed rest. It is important to assess the dressing frequently for signs of bleeding and evaluate the type and severity of pain. Severe pain in the back, shoulder, or abdomen may indicate bleeding. In such a case, the nurse should notify the physician about these signs and symptoms. Distracting the patient's attention, helping the patient to sit up or ambulate, and providing analgesics may only aggravate the patient's pain and, therefore, should not be performed by the nurse.

The nurse at the diabetes clinic is instructing a client who is struggling with compliance to the diabetic diet. When discussing disease progression, which manifestation of the disease process on the urinary system is most notable? Clients have frequent urinary tract infections. Clients develop a neurogenic bladder. Clients have urinary frequency. Clients have chronic renal failure.

Clients have chronic renal failure. Explanation: Although all of the options may occur in the client with diabetes mellitus, the option which is most notable, and potentially life threatening, is chronic renal failure.

An appropriate nursing intervention for the client following a nuclear scan of the kidney is to: Encourage high fluid intake. Strain all urine for 48 hours. Apply moist heat to the flank area. Monitor for hematuria.

Encourage high fluid intake. Explanation: A nuclear scan of the kidney involves the IV administration of a radioisotope. Fluid intake is encouraged to flush the urinary tract to promote excretion of the isotope. Monitoring for hematuria, applying heat, and straining urine do not address the potential renal complications associated with the radioisotope.

Which substance stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells? Erythropoietin Prostaglandin E Prostacyclin Renin

Erythropoietin Explanation: Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells, thereby increasing the amount of hemoglobin available to carry oxygen. The kidneys produce prostaglandin E and prostacyclin, which have vasodilatory effect and are important in maintaining renal blood flow. Renin is involved in controlling arterial blood pressure.

The term used to describe total urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour is anuria. dysuria. nocturia. oliguria.

Oliguria Oliguria is the production of small amounts of urine associated with acute and chronic renal failure. Anuria is used to describe total urine output less than 50 mL in 24 hours. Nocturia refers to awakening at night to urinate. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination.

Urine specific gravity is a measurement of the kidney's ability to concentrate and excrete urine. The specific gravity measures urine concentration by measuring the density of urine and comparing it with the density of distilled water. Which is an example of how urine concentration is affected? On a hot day, a person who is perspiring profusely and taking little fluid has low urine output with a high specific gravity. On a hot day, a person who is perspiring profusely and taking little fluid has high urine output with a low specific gravity. A person who has a high fluid intake and who is not losing excessive water from perspiration, diarrhea, or vomiting has scant urine output with a high specific gravity. When the kidneys are diseased, the ability to concentrate urine may be impaired

On a hot day, a person who is perspiring profusely and taking little fluid has low urine output with a high specific gravity. On a hot day, a person who is perspiring profusely and taking little fluid has low urine output with a high specific gravity. A person who has a high fluid intake and who is not losing excessive water from perspiration, diarrhea, or vomiting has copious urine output with a low specific gravity. When the kidneys are diseased, the ability to concentrate urine may be impaired and the specific gravity remains relatively constant.

Retention of which electrolyte is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure? Calcium Sodium Potassium Phosphorous

Potassium Retention of potassium is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure.

The nurse is caring for a client who has presented to the walk-in clinic. The client verbalizes pain on urination, feelings of fatigue, and diffuse back pain. When completing a head-to-toe assessment, at which specific location would the nurse assess the client's kidneys for tenderness? Above the symphysis pubis Around the umbilicus The costovertebral angle The upper abdominal quadrants on the left and right side

The costovertebral angle (CVA) is located on your back at the bottom of your ribcage at the 12th rib. The nurse is correct to assess the kidneys for tenderness at the costovertebral angle. The other options are incorrect.