Chapter 58: Caring for Clients with Disorders of the Kidneys and Ureters- UNIT 8 Prep U

The critical care nurse is monitoring the client's urine output and drains following renal surgery. What should the nurse promptly report to the primary provider?

Absence of drain output Explanation: Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Decreased or absent drainage is promptly reported because it may indicate obstruction that could cause pain, infection, and disruption of the suture lines. Reporting increased pain on movement has nothing to do with the scenario described. Increased urine output and serosanguineous drainage are expected.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been receiving erythropoietin injections as prescribed. Which outcome would indicate to the nurse that this medication has been effective?

Absence of pallor Explanation: Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. The absence of pallor indicates that this treatment has been effective. Lack of a paradoxical pulse indicates the absence of a pericardial effusion. Blood pressure within normal limits indicates treatment for hypertension has been effective. Formed and solid bowel movements indicate the potassium level is within normal limits.

A client undergoes dialysis as a part of treatment for kidney failure, and is administered heparin during dialysis to achieve therapeutic levels. Which step should the nurse take to allow heparin to be metabolized and excreted in the client?

Avoid administering injections for 2 to 4 hours after heparin administration. Explanation: After dialysis is completed, do not administer injections for 2 to 4 hours. This allows time for the metabolism and excretion of heparin, which is administered during dialysis, to reach safe levels. Amount of rest and use of dialysate solutions do not impact heparin metabolism. The nurse avoids puncturing the same site that was used previously.

Which of the following is a term used to describe excessive nitrogenous waste in the blood, as seen in acute glomerulonephritis?

Azotemia Explanation: The primary presenting features of acute glomerulonephritis are hematuria, edema, azotemia (excessive nitrogenous wastes in the blood), and proteinuria (>3 to 5 g/day). Bacteremia is excessive bacteria in the blood.

A patient admitted with electrolyte imbalance has carpopedal spasm, ECG changes, and a positive Chvostek sign. What deficit does the nurse suspect the patient has?

Calcium Explanation: Calcium deficit is associated with abdominal and muscle cramps, stridor, carpopedal spasm, hyperactive reflexes, tetany, positive Chvostek's or Trousseau's sign, tingling of fingers and around mouth, and ECG changes.

A client is in end-stage chronic renal failure and is being added to the transplant list. The nurse explains to the client how donors are found for clients needing kidneys. Which statement is accurate?

Donors are selected from compatible living or deceased donors. Explanation: Donors are selected from compatible living donors. Donors do not have to be relatives as long as they are compatible. Potential donors with a history of hypertension, malignant disease, or diabetes are excluded from donation. Each local hospital does not have its own transplant list, instead the client will be placed on a national computerized transplant waiting list.

Which of the following causes should the nurse suspect in a client diagnosed with intrarenal failure?

Glomerulonephritis Explanation: Intrarenal causes of renal failure include prolonged renal ischemia, nephrotoxic agents, and infectious processes such as acute glomerulonephritis.

The nurse recognizes which condition as an integumentary manifestation of chronic renal failure?

Gray-bronze skin color Explanation: Integumentary manifestations of chronic renal failure include a gray-bronze skin color. Other manifestations are dry, flaky skin, pruritus, ecchymosis, purpura, thin, brittle nails, and coarse, thinning hair. Asterixis, tremors, and seizures are neurologic manifestations of chronic renal failure.

A football player is thought to have sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind. The ER nurse caring for the client reviews the initial orders and notes an order to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. The nurse understands that this nursing intervention is important for what reason?

Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. Explanation: Hematuria is the most common manifestation of kidney trauma; its presence after trauma suggests renal injury. Hematuria may not occur, or it may be detectable only on microscopic examination. All urine should be saved and sent to the laboratory for analysis to detect RBCs and to evaluate the course of bleeding. Measuring intake and output is not a function of the laboratory. The laboratory does not save urine to test creatinine clearance at a later time. The laboratory does not monitor the urine for sodium or potassium concentrations.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

Increased BUN Explanation: The intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI) encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low-normal specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium. Intrarenal AKI is the result of actual parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or kidney tubules. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN), AKI in which there is damage to the kidney tubules, is the most common type of intrinsic AKI. Characteristics of ATN are intratubular obstruction, tubular back leak (abnormal reabsorption of filtrate and decreased urine flow through the tubule), vasoconstriction, and changes in glomerular permeability. These processes result in a decrease of GFR, progressive azotemia, and fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute renal failure?

Increased BUN Explanation: The intrarenal category of acute renal failure encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). What does the nurse know would be the daily urine output?

Less than 400 mL Explanation: The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of normal metabolic waste products is 400 mL. In this phase, uremic symptoms first appear and life-threatening conditions such as hyperkalemia develop.

The nurse is caring for a client after kidney surgery. When assessing for bleeding, what assessment parameter should the nurse evaluate?

Level of consciousness Explanation: Bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery. The nurse's role is to observe for these complications, to report their signs and symptoms, and to administer prescribed parenteral fluids and blood and blood components. Monitoring of vital signs, skin condition, the urinary drainage system, the surgical incision, and the level of consciousness is necessary to detect evidence of bleeding, decreased circulating blood, and fluid volume and cardiac output. Bleeding is not normally evidenced by changes in pain or oral intake.

Two weeks after being diagnosed with a streptococcal infection, a client develops fatigue, a low-grade fever, and shortness of breath. The nurse auscultates bilateral crackles and observes jugular vein distention. Urinalysis reveals red and white blood cells and protein. After the physician diagnoses poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, the client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which immediate action should the nurse take?

Provide a high-protein, fluid-monitored diet. Explanation: The nurse must provide a high-protein diet to supply energy and reduce catabolism of protein. The nurse must also closely monitor the client's fluid intake and output. It isn't necessary for the client to be on bed rest. Because of the risk of altered urinary elimination related to oliguria, this client may require hemodialysis or plasmapheresis for several weeks until renal function improves; however, a Tenckhoff catheter is used in peritoneal dialysis, not hemodialysis. Although providing comfort measures (such as placing the client on a sheepskin) are important, this action isn't a priority.

A client with chronic kidney disease is completing an exchange during peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is draining slowly and that the client's abdomen is increasing in girth. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Reposition the client to facilitate drainage. Explanation: If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the client from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. It would be unsafe to aspirate or to infuse more dialysate.

A 15-year-old is admitted to the renal unit with a diagnosis of postinfectious glomerular disease. The nurse should recognize that this form of kidney disease may have been precipitated by what event?

Streptococcal infection Explanation: Postinfectious causes of postinfectious glomerular disease are group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the throat that precedes the onset of glomerulonephritis by 2 to 3 weeks. Menarche, stress, and hypersensitivity are not typical causes.

The nurse performs acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis (PD) on a client who is experiencing uremic signs and symptoms. The peritoneal fluid is not draining as expected. What is the best response by the nurse?

Turn the client from side to side. Explanation: If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the client from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. Other measures to promote drainage include checking the patency of the catheter by inspecting for kinks, closed clamps, or an air lock.

Which clinical finding should a nurse look for in a client with chronic renal failure?

Uremia Explanation: Uremia is the buildup of nitrogenous wastes in the blood, evidenced by an elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels. Uremia, anemia, and acidosis are consistent clinical manifestations of chronic renal failure. Metabolic acidosis results from the inability to excrete hydrogen ions. Anemia results from a lack of erythropoietin. Hypertension (from fluid overload) may or may not be present in chronic renal failure. Hypotension, metabolic alkalosis, and polycythemia aren't present in renal failure.

A nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?

Urine output of 20 ml/hour Explanation: Because kidney transplantation carries the risk of transplant rejection, infection, and other serious complications, the nurse should monitor the client's urinary function closely. A decrease from the normal urine output of 30 ml/hour is significant and warrants immediate physician notification. A serum potassium level of 4.9 mEq/L, a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, and a temperature of 99.2° F are normal assessment findings.

A client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. IV fluid is being infused at 150 mL/hour. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)?

Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours Explanation: ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is characterized by a urine output of 250 ml/24 hours. A serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl isn't diagnostic of ARF. A BUN level of 22 mg/dl or a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) wouldn't result from this disorder.

What is used to decrease potassium level seen in acute renal failure?

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate Explanation: The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

A client with chronic kidney disease weighs 209 lbs (95 kg) and is prescribed 1.2 grams of protein per kg per day. Which amount of protein will the client ingest per day?

114 Explanation: To calculate the amount of protein the client is to ingest per day, first determine the client's weight in kg by dividing the weight in lbs by 2.2 or 209/2.2 = 95 kg. Then multiply the client's weight in kg by 1.2 or 95 x 1.2 = 114 grams. The client is to ingest 114 grams of protein per day.

The nurse is planning client teaching for a client with end-stage kidney disease who is scheduled for the creation of a fistula. The nurse should teach the client what information about the fistula?

"A vein and an artery in your arm will be attached surgically." Explanation: The fistula joins an artery and a vein, either side-to-side or end-to-end. This access will need several weeks to "mature" before it can be used. The client is encouraged to perform exercises to increase the size of the affected vessels (e.g., squeezing a rubber ball for forearm fistulas). Two needles will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment.

The client with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The best response by the nurse is:

"As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy." Explanation: There is no cure for polycystic kidney disease. Medical management includes therapies to control blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and pain. Renal replacement therapy is indicated as the kidneys fail.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease. The patient has gained 4 kg in the past 3 days. In milliliters, how much fluid retention does this equal? Enter your response as a whole number.

4000 Explanation: A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid. 4 kg × 1,000 = 4,000. The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded.

A patient has stage 3 chronic kidney failure. What would the nurse expect the patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to be?

A GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2 Explanation: Stage 3 of chronic kidney disease is defined as having a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2

A nurse is caring for a client on bedrest with end-stage kidney disease. What major manifestation of uremia should the nurse expect to decrease with an exercise plan?

Bone demineralization Explanation: Uremic bone disease, often called renal osteodystrophy, develops from the complex changes in calcium, phosphate, and parathormone balance. Clients on bedrest with end-stage kidney disease will have increased bone demineralization. Bone disease will cause a retention of phosphorus, low serum calcium levels, abnormal vitamin D metabolism, and elevated aluminum levels. Hypoparathyroidism and decreased secretion of the parathormone will occur with the client on bedrest.

An 84-year-old woman diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit for surgical treatment. The client has been on chemotherapeutic agents to decrease the tumor size prior to the planned surgery. The nurse caring for the client is aware that what precipitating factors in this client may contribute to AKI? Select all that apply.

Age-related physiologic changes Chronic systemic disease Explanation: Changes in kidney function with normal aging increase the susceptibility of elderly clients to kidney dysfunction and kidney injury. In addition, the presence of chronic, systemic diseases increases the risk of AKI. Low BMI and anxiety are not risk factors for acute renal disease. NPO status is not a risk, provided adequate parenteral hydration is given.

The nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the postsurgical suite after postanesthetic recovery from a nephrectomy. The nurse's most recent hourly assessment reveals a significant drop in level of consciousness and BP as well as scant urine output over the past hour. What is the nurse's best response?

Assess the client for signs of bleeding and inform the primary provider. Explanation: Bleeding may be suspected when the client experiences fatigue and when urine output is less than 30 mL/hr. The care provider must be made aware of this finding promptly. Palpating the client's flanks would cause intense pain that is of no benefit to assessment.

When caring for the patient with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?

Cola-colored urine Explanation: Cola-colored urine is a typical symptom of glomerulonephritis. Flank pain on the affected side, not left upper quadrant pain, would be present. Pyuria is a symptom of pyelonephritis, not glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure typically elevates in glomerulonephritis

A client with end-stage renal disease receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Inform the health care provider and assess the client for signs of infection. Explanation: Peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The first sign of peritonitis is cloudy dialysate drainage fluid, so prompt reporting to the primary provider and rapid assessment for other signs of infection are warranted. Administration of an IV bolus is not necessary or appropriate and the physician would determine whether removal of the catheter is required. Flushing the catheter does not address the risk for infection.

The nurse helps a client to correctly perform peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about the procedure. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client?

Keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets Explanation: It is important to keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets, because the supplies may be dangerous for them. A mask is generally worn only while performing exchanges, especially when a client has an upper respiratory infection. The catheter insertion site should be cleaned daily with an antiseptic such as povidone-iodine, not with soap. In addition, the catheter should be stabilized to the abdomen above the belt line, not below the belt line, to avoid constant rubbing.

A client is brought to the renal unit from the PACU status postresection of a renal tumor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse prioritize in the care of this client?

Managing postoperative pain Explanation: The client requires frequent analgesia during the postoperative period and assistance with turning, coughing, use of incentive spirometry, and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis and other pulmonary complications. Increasing oral intake and mobility are not priority nursing actions in the immediate postoperative care of this client. Dialysis is not necessary following kidney surgery.

What is a hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

Proteinuria Explanation: Proteinuria (predominantly albumin) exceeding 3.5 g per day is the hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Hypoalbuminemia, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia may occur.

Hyperkalemia is a serious side effect of acute renal failure. Identify the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that is diagnostic for hyperkalemia.

Tall, peaked T waves Explanation: Characteristic ECG signs of hyperkalemia are tall, tented, or peaked T waves, absent P waves, and a widened QRS complex.

The nurse is caring for acutely ill client. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to inform the physician that the client may be exhibiting signs of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

The client's average urine output has been 10 mL/hr for several hours. Explanation: Oliguria (<500 mL/day of urine) is the most common clinical situation seen in AKI. Flank pain and inability to initiate voiding are not characteristic of AKI. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine is suggestive of a urinary tract infection.

Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem?

White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Explanation: An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia (evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus who has been recently diagnosed with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). The client has an elevated phosphorus level and has been prescribed calcium acetate to bind the phosphorus. The nurse should teach the client to take the prescribed medication at what time?

With each meal Explanation: Both calcium carbonate and calcium acetate are medications that bind with the phosphate and assist in excreting the phosphate from the body, in turn lowering the phosphate levels. Phosphate-binding medications must be given with food to be effective.

The nurse is administering calcium acetate (PhosLo) to a patient with end-stage renal disease. When is the best time for the nurse to administer this medication?

With food Explanation: Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia are treated with medications that bind dietary phosphorus in the GI tract. Binders such as calcium carbonate (Os-Cal) or calcium acetate (PhosLo) are prescribed, but there is a risk of hypercalcemia. The nurse administers phosphate binders with food for them to be effective.

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) has developed faulty red blood cell (RBC) production. The nurse should monitor this client for:

fatigue and weakness. Explanation: RBCs carry oxygen throughout the body. Decreased RBC production diminishes cellular oxygen, leading to fatigue and weakness. Nausea and vomiting may occur in CRF but don't result from faulty RBC production. Dyspnea and cyanosis are associated with fluid excess, not CRF. Thrush, which signals fungal infection, and circumoral pallor, which reflects decreased oxygenation, aren't signs of CRF.

A client has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. This condition causes:

proteinuria. Explanation: The disruption of membrane permeability causes red blood cells (RBCs) and protein molecules to filter from the glomeruli into Bowman's capsule and eventually become lost in the urine. Pyuria is pus in the urine. Polyuria is an increased volume of urine voided.

One of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic renal failure is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. This would include:

restricting sources of potassium. Explanation: The nurse will teach the client to restrict sources of potassium, such as fresh fruits and vegetables, because hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening changes. The client will restrict sodium intake as ordered; doing so prevents fluid accumulation. Prescribed iron and folic acid supplements or Epogen should be taken; iron and folic acid supplements are needed for red blood cell (RBC) production, and Epogen stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs. The client will restrict protein intake to foods that are complete proteins within prescribed limits; complete proteins provide positive nitrogen balance for healing and growth.