Chapter 60: Assessment of Neurologic Function
To evaluate a client's cerebellar function, a nurse should ask: "Have you noticed any changes in your muscle strength?" "Do you have any trouble swallowing food or fluids?" "Do you have any difficulty speaking?" "Do you have any problems with balance?"
"Do you have any problems with balance?" To evaluate cerebellar function, the nurse should ask the client about problems with balance and coordination. The nurse asks about difficulty speaking or swallowing to assess the functions of cranial nerves IX, X, and XII. Questions about muscle strength help her evaluate the client's motor system.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustained a head injury. When assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTR), the nurse observes diminished or hypoactive reflexes. How will the nurse document this finding? 3+ 0 2+ 1+
1+ Diminished or hypoactive DTRs are indicated by a score of 1+, no response by a score of 0, a normal response by a score of 2+, and an increased response by a score of 3+.
The nurse obtains a Snellen eye chart when assessing cranial nerve function. Which cranial nerve is the nurse testing when using the chart? CN I CN II CN IV CN III
CN II The nurse assesses vision and thus the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) by use of a Snellen eye chart.
The physician's office nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a cerebral aneurysm. Which diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate to monitor the status of the aneurysm? Echoencephalography Myelogram Electroencephalogram Cerebral angiography
Cerebral angiography The nurse would anticipate a cerebral angiography, which detects distortion of the cerebral arteries and veins . A myelogram detects abnormalities of the spinal canal. An electroencephalogram records electrical impulses of the brain. An echoencephalography is an ultrasound of the structures of the brain.
There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Only three are sensory. Select the cranial nerve that is affected with decreased visual fields. Cranial nerve I Cranial nerve II Cranial nerve III Cranial nerve IV
Cranial nerve II The three sensory cranial nerves are I, II and VIII. Cranial nerve II (optic) is affected with decreased visual fields and acuity.
A client who has sustained a head injury to the parietal lobe cannot identify a familiar object by touch. The nurse knows that this deficit is which of the following? Tactile agnosia Visual agnosia Ataxia Positive Romberg
Tactile agnosia Tactile agnosia is the inability to identify a familiar object by touch. Visual agnosia is the loss of ability to recognize objects through sight. The Romberg test has to do with balance. Ataxia is defined as incoordination of voluntary muscle action.
A patient comes to the emergency department with severe pain in the face that was stimulated by brushing the teeth. What cranial nerve does the nurse understand can cause this type of pain? IV VI III V
V The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) innervates the forehead, cheeks, and jaw, so pain in the face elicited when brushing the teeth would most likely involve this nerve.
Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscles. increased muscle tone. hyperactive and abnormal reflexes. no muscle atrophy.
flaccid muscles. Lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccidity, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone, and loss of voluntary control. Upper motor neuron lesions cause increased muscle tone. Upper motor neuron lesions cause no muscle atrophy. Upper motor neuron lesions cause hyperactive and abnormal reflexes.
A client is actively hallucinating during an assessment. The nurse would be correct in documenting the hallucination as a disturbance in motor ability. thought content. intellectual function. emotional status.
thought content. Hallucinations are disturbances of thought content. They are not disturbances in motor ability, intellectual function, or emotional status.
A patient arrives to have an MRI done in the outpatient department. What information provided by the patient warrants further assessment to prevent complications related to the MRI? "I have not had anything to eat or drink since 3 hours ago." "My legs go numb sometimes when I sit too long." "I am trying to quit smoking and have a patch on." "I have been trying to get an appointment for so long."
"I am trying to quit smoking and have a patch on." Before the patient enters the room where the MRI is to be performed, all metal objects and credit cards (the magnetic field can erase them) must be removed. This includes medication patches that have a metal backing and metallic lead wires; these can cause burns if not removed (Bremner, 2005).
The nurse is preparing a client for a neurological examination by the physician and explains tests the physician will be doing, including the Romberg test. The client asks the purpose of this particular test. The correct reply by the nurse is which of the following? "It is a test for muscle strength." "It is a test for coordination." "It is a test for motor ability." "It is a test for balance."
"It is a test for balance." The Romberg test screens for balance. The client stands with feet together and arms at the side, first with eyes open and then with both eyes closed for 20 to 30 seconds. Slight swaying is normal, but a loss of balance is abnormal and is considered a positive Romberg test.
The anatomy instructor is discussing the central nervous system. A student asks where the cerebral cortex is located. What should the anatomy instructor answer? "It is located at the base of the brain." "It is located on the surface of the cerebrum." "It is located between the left and right hemispheres of the brain." "It is located in the center of the cerebellum."
"It is located on the surface of the cerebrum." The cerebral cortex is the surface of the cerebrum. It contains motor neurons, which are responsible for movement, and sensory neurons, which receive impulses from peripheral sensory neurons located throughout the body.
Which of the following neurotransmitters are deficient in myasthenia gravis? GABA Serotonin Acetylcholine Dopamine
Acetylcholine A decrease in the amount of acetylcholine causes myasthenia gravis. A decrease of serotonin leads to depression. Parkinson's disease is caused by a depletion of dopamine. Decreased levels of GABA may cause seizures.
Lesions in the temporal lobe may result in which type of agnosia? Visual Auditory Relationship Tactile
Auditory Lesions in the temporal lobe (lateral and superior portions) may result in auditory agnosia. Lesions in the occipital lobe may result in visual agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe may result in tactile agnosia. Lesions in the parietal lobe (posteroinferior regions) may result in relationship and body part agnosia.
A patient who has suffered a stroke is unable to maintain respiration and is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilator support. What portion of the brain is most likely responsible for the inability to breathe? Occipital lobe Frontal lobe Parietal lobe Brain stem
Brain stem The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata (see Fig. 65-2). Portions of the pons help regulate respiration. Motor fibers from the brain to the spinal cord and sensory fibers from the spinal cord to the brain are located in the medulla. Reflex centers for respiration, blood pressure, heart rate, coughing, vomiting, swallowing, and sneezing are located in the medulla.
The nurse is performing an assessment of cranial nerve function and asks the patient to cover one nostril at a time to see if the patient can smell coffee, alcohol, and mint. The patient is unable to smell any of the odors. The nurse is aware that the patient has a dysfunction of which cranial nerve? CN II CN IV CN III CN I
CN I Cranial nerve (CN) I is the olfactory nerve, which allows the sense of smell. Testing of CN I is done by having the patient identify familiar odors with eyes closed, testing each nostril separately. An inability to smell an odor is a significant finding, indicating dysfunction of this nerve.
What part of the brain controls and coordinates muscle movement? Cerebellum Cerebrum Midbrain Brain stem
Cerebellum The cerebellum, which is located behind and below the cerebrum, controls and coordinates muscle movement.
The critical care nurse is giving end-of-shift report on a client. The nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to assess the level of consciousness (LOC) of a female client and reports to the oncoming nurse that the client has an LOC of 6. What does an LOC score of 6 in a client indicate? Stupor Somnolence Normal Comatose
Comatose The GSC is used to measure the LOC. The scale consists of three parts: eye opening response, best verbal response, and best motor response. A normal response is 15. A score of 7 or less is considered comatose. Therefore, a score of 6 indicates the client is in a state of coma and not in any other state such as stupor or somnolence. The evaluations are recorded on a graphic sheet where connecting lines show an increase or decrease in the LOC.
The nurse is assessing the pupils of a patient who has had a head injury. What does the nurse recognize as a parasympathetic effect? One pupil is dilated and the opposite pupil is normal Constricted pupils Roth's spots Dilated pupils
Constricted pupils Constricted pupils are a parasympathetic effect; dilated pupils are a sympathetic effect.
If a client has a lower motor neuron lesion, the nurse would expect to observe which manifestation upon physical assessment? Decreased muscle tone No muscle atrophy Hyperactive reflexes Muscle spasticity
Decreased muscle tone A client with a lower motor neuron lesion would be expected to have decreased muscle tone. Those with upper motor neuron lesion would have hyperactive reflexes, no muscle atrophy, and muscle spasticity.
Which is a sympathetic effect of the nervous system? Increased peristalsis Decreased respiratory rate Dilated pupils Decreased blood pressure
Dilated pupils Dilated pupils are a sympathetic effect of the nervous system, whereas constricted pupils are a parasympathetic effect. Decreased blood pressure is a parasympathetic effect, whereas increased blood pressure is a sympathetic effect. Increased peristalsis is a parasympathetic effect, but decreased peristalsis is a sympathetic effect. Decreased respiratory rate is a parasympathetic effect, and increased respiratory rate is a sympathetic effect.
Cranial nerve IX is also known as which of the following? Hypoglossal Spinal accessory Glossopharyngeal Vagus
Glossopharyngeal Cranial nerve IX is the glossopharyngeal nerve. The vagus nerve is cranial nerve X. Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve. The spinal accessory is the cranial nerve XI.
A patient is having a lumbar puncture and the physician has removed 20 mL of cerebrospinal fluid. What nursing intervention is a priority after the procedure? Early ambulation Have the patient lie flat for 1 hour and then sit for 1 hour before ambulating. Have the patient lie in a semi-Fowler's position with the head of the bed at 30º. Have the patient lie flat for 6 hours.
Have the patient lie flat for 6 hours. Post-lumbar puncture headache may be avoided if a small-gauge needle is used and if the patient remains prone after the procedure. When more than 20 mL of CSF is removed, the patient is positioned supine for 6 hours (Bader & Littlejohns, 2010).
A patient has been diagnosed with a deficiency of the major neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Based on this information, the nurse knows to assess the patient for complications associated with: Emotional balance. Heart rate and rhythm. Fine movements. Sleep patterns.
Heart rate and rhythm. Acetylcholine is a major transmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system and stimulates the vagal nerve to slow the heart rate.
What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? It produces cerebral neurotransmitters. It cushions the brain and spinal cord. It acts as an insulator to maintain a constant spinal fluid temperature. It acts as a barrier to bacteria.
It cushions the brain and spinal cord. CSF is produced primarily in the lateral ventricles of the brain. It acts as a shock absorber and cushions the spinal cord and brain against injury caused by sudden or extreme movement. CSF also functions in the removal of waste products from cerebral tissue. CSF doesn't act as an insulator or a barrier and it doesn't produce cerebral neurotransmitters.
A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of inability to form words, and numbness and weakness of the right arm and leg. Where would you locate the site of injury? Left temporal region Left frontoparietal region Left basal ganglia Right frontoparietal region
Left frontoparietal region The patient is exhibiting signs of expressive aphasia with numbness/tingling and weakness of the right arm and leg. This indicates injury to the expressive speech center (Broca's area), which is located in the inferior portion of the frontal lobe. The motor strip is located in the posterior portion of the frontal lobe. The sensory strip is located in the anterior parietal lobe.
An 83-year-old woman suffers a stroke at home and is hospitalized for treatment and management. Which of the following diagnostic procedures would be best to visualize the extent of damage? Computed tomography (CT) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) Diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI)
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) An MRA allows separate visualization of the cerebral vasculature and can be used in place of an MRI.
The pre-nursing class is learning about the nervous system in their anatomy class. What part of the nervous system would the students learn is responsible for digesting food and eliminating body waste? Parasympathetic Central Sympathetic Peripheral
Parasympathetic The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system works to conserve body energy and is partly responsible for slowing heart rate, digesting food, and eliminating body wastes.
Which of the following is a disorder due to a lesion in the basal ganglia? Multiple sclerosis Myasthenia gravis Parkinson's disease Guillain-Barré
Parkinson's disease Disorders due to lesions of the basal ganglia include Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and spasmodic torticollis.
A nurse is caring for a client with an injury to the central nervous system. When caring for a client with a spinal cord insult that is slowing transmission of the motor neurons, in what would the nurse anticipate a delayed reaction? Processing information transferred from the environment. Cognitive ability to understand relayed information. Response due to interrupted impulses from the central nervous system Identification of information due to slowed passages of information to brain.
Response due to interrupted impulses from the central nervous system The central nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. Motor neurons transmit impulses from the central nervous system. Slowing transmission in this area would slow the response of transmission leading to a delay in reaction. Sensory neurons transmit impulses from the environment to the central nervous system, allowing identification of a stimulus. Cognitive centers of the brain interpret the information.
When learning about the nervous system, students learn that which nervous system regulates the expenditure of energy? Central Sympathetic Peripheral Parasympathetic
Sympathetic Sympathetic Nervous System: This division of the autonomic nervous system regulates the expenditure of energy.
The brain stem holds the medulla oblongata. What is the function of the medulla oblongata? Transmits motor impulses from the brain to the spinal cord Transmits sensory impulses from the brain to the spinal cord Controls striated muscle activity in blood vessel walls Controls parasympathetic nerve impulses in the PNS
Transmits motor impulses from the brain to the spinal cord The medulla oblongata lies below the pons and transmits motor impulses from the brain to the spinal cord and sensory impulses from peripheral sensory neurons to the brain. The medulla contains vital centers concerned with respiration, heartbeat, and vasomotor activity (the control of smooth muscle activity in blood vessel walls).
The provider orders the Romberg test for a patient. The nurse tells the patient that the provider wants to evaluate his equilibrium by assessing which cranial nerve? X VII VIII III
VIII Cranial nerve VIII (acoustic) can be checked to assess equilibrium status.
The nurse who is employed in a neurologist's office is performing a history and assessment on a client experiencing hearing difficulty. The nurse is most correct to gather equipment to assess the function of which cranial nerve? VIII VI II XI
VIII There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Cranial nerve VIII is the vestibulocochlear or auditory nerve responsible for hearing and balance. Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve. Cranial nerve VI is the abducens nerve responsible for eye movement. Cranial nerve XI is the accessory nerve and is involved with head and shoulder movement.
The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client diagnosed with a stroke and cannot elicit a gag reflex. This deficit is related to which of the following cranial nerves? III VIII X VII
X CN X is the vagus nerve and has to do with the gag reflex, laryngeal hoarseness, swallowing ability, and the symmetrical rise of the uvula and soft palate. CN VII is the facial nerve and has to do with symmetry of facial movements and the ability to discriminate between the tastes of sugar and salt. The inability to close one eyelid indicates impairment of this nerve. CN VIII is the acoustic nerve. It has to do with hearing, air and bone conduction, and balance. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and has to do with pupillary response, conjugate movements, and nystagmus.
To assess a client's cranial nerve function, a nurse should assess: hand grip. orientation to person, time, and place. arm drifting. gag reflex.
gag reflex. The gag reflex is governed by the glossopharyngeal nerve, cranial nerve IX. The other choices would not be involved in a cranial nerve assessment. Hand grip and arm drifting are part of motor function assessment. Orientation is an assessment parameter related to a mental status examination.
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a suspected dysfunction of the lower brain stem. The nurse should monitor this client closely for: hypoxia. gait alteration. fever. visual disturbance.
hypoxia. Lower brain stem dysfunction alters bulbar functions, such as breathing, talking, swallowing, and coughing. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client closely for hypoxia. Temperature control, vision, and gait aren't lower brain stem functions.
The nurse has completed evaluating the client's cranial nerves. The nurse documents impairment of the right cervical nerves (CN IX and CN X). Based on these findings, the nurse should instruct the client to refrain from eating or drinking for now. use the walker when walking. have their spouse bring in the client's glasses. wear any hearing aids while in the hospital.
refrain from eating or drinking for now. Significant findings of CN IX (glossopharyngeal) include difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and impaired taste, and significant findings of CN X (vagus) include weak or absent gag reflex, difficulty swallowing, aspiration, hoarseness, and slurred speech (dysarthria). Based on these findings, the nurse should instruct the client to refrain from eating and drinking and should contact the health care provider. The other instructions are associated with abnormalities of CN II (optic) and CN VIII (acoustic).
The nurse is instructing a community class when a student asks, "How does someone get super strength in an emergency?" The nurse should respond by describing the action of the: sympathetic nervous system. parasympathetic nervous system. endocrine system. musculoskeletal system.
sympathetic nervous system. The division of the autonomic nervous system called the sympathetic nervous system regulates the expenditure of energy. The neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous system are called catecholamines. During an emergency situation or an intensely stressful event, the body adjusts to deliver blood flow and oxygen to the brain, muscles, and lungs that need to react in the situation. The musculoskeletal system benefits from the sympathetic nervous system as the fight-or-flight effects pump blood to the muscles. The parasympathetic nervous system works to conserve body energy not expend it during an emergency. The endocrine system regulates metabolic processes.
The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis who is overwhelmed by learning about the disease. The client indicates understanding that there is a disruption in the covering of axons but does not remember what the covering is called. The nurse should tell the client: that the disease process requires more research. that the covering is called myelin and that it can be discussed further at the next meeting. that because there is so much to learn, there will be another meeting to discuss it again. not to worry about the finer details of the disease.
that the covering is called myelin and that it can be discussed further at the next meeting. Myelin is a fatty substance that covers some axons in the CNS and PNS. The nurse would be most correct in answering the question and then, if the client is tired, following up at the next meeting. It would also be appropriate to provide literature for the client to review at leisure. Discounting the client's need to know information about the disease process is belittling. Telling the client that more research needs to be done discounts the valuable information which is known.
A nurse is working in a neurologist's office. The physician orders a Romberg test. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Close eyes and discriminate between dull and sharp. Touch nose with one finger. Close eyes and jump on one foot. Close eyes and stand erect.
Close eyes and stand erect. In the Romberg test, the client stands erect with the feet close together and eyes closed. If the client sways as if to fall, it is considered a positive Romberg test. All of the other options include components of neurologic tests, indicating neurologic deficits and balance.
The nurse is assessing the throat of a client with throat pain. In asking the client to stick out the tongue, the nurse is also assessing which cranial nerve? Cranial nerve XII Cranial nerve XI Cranial nerve V Cranial nerve I
Cranial nerve XII Assessment of the movement of the tongue is related to cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve. Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve. Cranial nerve V is the trigeminal nerve responsible for sensation to the face and chewing. Cranial nerve XI is the spinal or accessory nerve responsible for head and shoulder and shoulder movement.
Which term describes the fibrous connective tissues that cover the brain and spinal cord? Meninges Dura mater Arachnoid mater Pia mater
Meninges The meninges have three layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. The dura mater is the outermost layer of the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. The arachnoid is the middle membrane, and the pia mater is the innermost membrane of this protective covering.
The Family Nurse Practitioner is performing the physical examination of a client with a suspected neurologic disorder. In addition to assessing other parts of the body, the nurse should assess for neck rigidity. Which method should help the nurse assess for neck rigidity correctly? Lightly tapping the lower portion of the neck to detect sensation Moving the head and chin toward the chest Gently pressing the bones on the neck Moving the head toward both sides
Moving the head and chin toward the chest The neck is examined for stiffness or abnormal position. The presence of rigidity is assessed by moving the head and chin toward the chest. The nurse should not maneuver the neck if a head or neck injury is suspected or known. The neck should also not be maneuvered if trauma to any part of the body is evident. Moving the head toward the sides or pressing the bones on the neck will not help assess for neck rigidity correctly. While assessing for neck rigidity, sensation at the neck area is not to be assessed.
A patient has difficulty interpreting his awareness of body position in space. Which lobe is most likely to be damaged? Occipital Parietal Temporal Frontal
Parietal The parietal lobe is the primary sensory cortex. It is essential to a person's awareness of his body in space, as well as orientation in space and spatial relations.
Which cerebral lobe contains the auditory receptive areas? Temporal Occipital Parietal Frontal
Temporal The temporal lobe plays the most dominant role of any area of the cortex in cerebration. The frontal lobe, the largest lobe, controls concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, which analyzes sensory information and relays interpretation to the thalamus and other cortical areas. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation.
A nurse and nursing student are caring for a client recovering from a lumbar puncture yesterday. The client reports a headache despite being on bedrest overnight. The physician plans an epidural blood patch this morning. The student asks how this will help the headache. The correct reply from the nurse is which of the following? "The blood will replace the cerebral spinal fluid that has leaked out." "The blood provides moisture at the site, which encourages healing." "The blood can repair damage to the spinal cord that occurred with the procedure." "The blood will seal the hole in the dura and prevent further loss of cerebral spinal fluid."
"The blood will seal the hole in the dura and prevent further loss of cerebral spinal fluid." Loss of CSF causes the headache. Occasionally, if the headache persists, the epidural blood patch technique may be used. Blood is withdrawn from the antecubital vein and injected into the site of the previous puncture. The rationale is that the blood will act as a plug to seal the hole in the dura and prevent further loss of CSF. The blood is not put into the subarachnoid space. The needle is inserted below the level of the spinal cord, which prevents damage to the cord. It is not a lack of moisture that prevents healing; it is more related to the size of the needle used for the puncture.
A nurse is preparing a client for a lumbar puncture. The client has heard about post-lumbar puncture headaches and asks what causes them. The nurse tells the client that these headaches are caused by which of the following? Traumatic puncture Cerebral spinal fluid leakage at the puncture site Damage to the spinal cord Not ambulating soon enough after the procedure
Cerebral spinal fluid leakage at the puncture site The headache is caused by cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leakage at the puncture site. The supply of CSF in the cranium is depleted so that there is not enough to cushion and stabilize the brain. When the client assumes an upright position, tension and stretching of the venous sinuses and pain-sensitive structures occur.
Which occurs when reflexes are hyperactive when the foot is abruptly dorsiflexed? Flaccidity Clonus Rigidity Ataxia
Clonus Clonus occurs when the foot is abruptly dorsiflexed. It continues to "beat" two or three times before it settles into a position of rest. Sustained clonus always indicates the present of central nervous system disease and requires further evaluation. Ataxia is incoordination of voluntary muscle action. Rigidity is an increase in muscle tone at rest characterized by increased resistance to passive movement. Flaccid posturing is usually the result of lower brain stem dysfunction; the client has no motor function, is limp, and lacks motor tone.
Which term refers to a method of recording, in graphic form, the electrical activity of a muscle? Electrocardiography Electroencephalography Electrogastrography Electromyography
Electromyography An electromyogram is obtained by inserting needle electrodes into the skeletal muscles to measure changes in the electrical potential of the muscles. Electroencephalography is a method of recording, in graphic form, the electrical activity of the brain. Electrocardiography is performed to assess the electrical activity of the heart. Electrogastrography is an electrophysiologic study performed to assess gastric motility disturbances.
Which cerebral lobes is the largest and controls abstract thought? Temporal Occipital Parietal Frontal
Frontal The frontal lobe also controls information storage or memory and motor function. The temporal lobe contains the auditory receptive area. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, which analyzes sensory information and relays interpretation to the thalamus and other cortical areas. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual interpretation.
A patient sustained a head injury during a fall and has changes in personality and affect. What part of the brain does the nurse recognize has been affected in this injury? Temporal lobe Parietal lobe Frontal lobe Occipital lobe
Frontal lobe The frontal lobe, the largest lobe, located in the front of the brain. The major functions of this lobe are concentration, abstract thought, information storage or memory, and motor function. It contains Broca's area, which is located in the left hemisphere and is critical for motor control of speech. The frontal lobe is also responsible in large part for a person's affect, judgment, personality, and inhibitions (Hickey, 2009).
A nurse is caring for a client with lower back pain who is scheduled for myelography using metrizamide (a water-soluble contrast dye). After the test, the nurse should place the client in which position? Prone Supine with feet raised Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees Supine with the head lower than the trunk
Head of the bed elevated 45 degrees After a myelogram, positioning depends on the dye injected. When a water-soluble dye such as metrizamide is injected, the head of the bed is elevated to a 45-degree angle to slow the upward dispersion of the dye. The prone and supine positions are contraindicated when a water-soluble contrast dye is used. The client should be positioned supine with the head lower than the trunk after an air-contrast study.
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment of a client who has sustained damage to the frontal cortex. Which of the following deficits will the nurse look for during assessment? The inability to tell how a mouse and a cat are alike Absence of movement below the waist The inability to maintain steady balance for the Romberg test Intentional tremors
The inability to tell how a mouse and a cat are alike The client with damage to the frontal cortex will display a deficit in intellectual functioning. Questions designed to assess this capacity might include the ability to recognize similarities: for example, how are a mouse and dog or pen and pencil alike? The Romberg test assesses balance, which has to do with the cerebellar and basal ganglia influence on the motor system. Absence of movement below the waist suggests a deficit with the spinal cord. Intentional tremors have to do with deficits of the motor system.
Which diagnostic test may be performed to evaluate blood flow within intracranial blood vessels? Transcranial Doppler Magnetic resonance imaging Computed tomography Cerebral angiography
Transcranial Doppler Transcranial Doppler flow studies are used to study a tumor's blood flow within intracranial blood vessels. Cerebral angiography may be used to study a tumor's blood supply or obtain information about vascular lesions. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) provides information similar to that provided by computed tomography, with improved tissue contrast, resolution, and anatomic definition; MRI also examines the lesion in multiple planes.
The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client diagnosed with a stroke and cannot elicit a gag reflex. This deficit is related to which of the following cranial nerves? VII III VIII X
X CN X is the vagus nerve and has to do with the gag reflex, laryngeal hoarseness, swallowing ability, and the symmetrical rise of the uvula and soft palate. CN VII is the facial nerve and has to do with symmetry of facial movements and the ability to discriminate between the tastes of sugar and salt. The inability to close one eyelid indicates impairment of this nerve. CN VIII is the acoustic nerve. It has to do with hearing, air and bone conduction, and balance. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and has to do with pupillary response, conjugate movements, and nystagmus.
After a plane crash, a client is brought to the emergency department with severe burns and respiratory difficulty. The nurse helps to secure a patent airway and attends to the client's immediate needs, then prepares to perform an initial neurologic assessment. The nurse should perform an: examination of the fundus of the eye. evaluation of bowel and bladder functions. evaluation of the corneal reflex response. assessment of the client's gait.
evaluation of the corneal reflex response. During an acute crisis, the nurse should check the corneal reflex response to rapidly assess brain stem function. Other components of the brief initial neurologic assessment usually include level of consciousness, pupillary response, and motor response in the arms and legs. If appropriate and if time permits, the nurse also may assess sensory responses of the arms and legs. Emergency assessment doesn't include fundus examination unless the client has sustained direct eye trauma. The client shouldn't be moved unnecessarily until the extent of injuries is known, making gait evaluation impossible. Bowel and bladder functions aren't vital, so the nurse should delay their assessment.
What safety actions does the nurse need to take for a client receiving oxygen therapy who is undergoing magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? Check the client's oxygen saturation level using a pulse oximeter after the client has been placed on the MRI table Ensure that no client care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. Note that no special safety actions need to be taken Securely fasten the client's portable oxygen tank to the bottom of the MRI table after the client has been positioned on the top of the MRI table
Ensure that no client care equipment containing metal enters the room where the MRI is located. For client safety the nurse must make sure no client care equipment that contains metal or metal parts (e.g., portable oxygen tanks) enters the room where the MRI is located. The magnetic field generated by the unit is so strong that any metal-containing items will be strongly attracted and can literally be pulled away with such great force that they can fly like projectiles toward the magnet.
A nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a client. The nurse observes the client's tongue for symmetry, tremors, and strength, and assesses the client's speech. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing? IX XII IV VI
XII Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, controls tongue movements involved in swallowing and speech. The tongue should be midline, symmetrical, and free from tremors and fasciculations. The nurse tests tongue strength by asking the client to push his tongue against his cheek as the nurse applies resistance. To test the client's speech, the nurse may ask him to repeat the sentence, "Round the rugged rock that ragged rascal ran." The trochlear nerve (IV) is responsible for extraocular movement (inferior medial). The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) is responsible for swallowing movements and throat sensations. It's also responsible for taste in the posterior third of the tongue. The abducent nerves (VI) are responsible for lateral extraocular movements.
A client has undergone a lumbar puncture as part of a neurological assessment. The client is put under the care of a nurse after the procedure. Which important postprocedure nursing intervention should be performed to ensure the client's maximum comfort? Encourage the client to drink liberal amounts of fluids Keep the room brightly lit and play soothing music in the background Help the client take a brisk walk around the testing area Administer antihistamines according to the physician's prescription
Encourage the client to drink liberal amounts of fluids The nurse should encourage the client to take liberal fluids and should inspect the injection site for swelling or hematoma. These measures help restore the volume of cerebrospinal fluid extracted. The client is administered antihistamines before a test only if he or she is allergic to contrast dye and contrast dye will be used. The room of the client who has undergone a lumbar puncture should be kept dark and quiet. The client should be encouraged to rest, because sensory stimulation tends to magnify discomfort.
A client is diagnosed with a brain tumor. The nurse's assessment reveals that the client has difficulty interpreting visual stimuli. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects injury to which lobe of the brain? Occipital Frontal Temporal Parietal
Occipital The occipital lobe is responsible for interpreting visual stimuli. The frontal lobe influences personality, judgment, abstract reasoning, social behavior, language expression, and movement. The temporal lobe controls hearing, language comprehension, and storage and memory recall (although memory recall is also stored throughout the brain). The parietal lobe interprets and integrates sensations, including pain, temperature, and touch; it also interprets size, shape, distance, and texture.
A client experienced a stroke that damaged the hypothalamus. The nurse should anticipate that the client will have problems with: thinking and reasoning. visual acuity. body temperature control. balance and equilibrium.
body temperature control. The body's thermostat is located in the hypothalamus; therefore, injury to that area can cause problems with body temperature control. Balance and equilibrium problems are related to cerebellar damage. Visual acuity problems would occur following occipital or optic nerve injury. Thinking and reasoning problems are the result of injury to the cerebrum.