Chapter 70: Management of Patients With Oncologic or Degenerative Neurologic Disorders

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

A client with a malignant glioma is scheduled for surgery. The client demonstrates a need for additional teaching about the surgery when he states which of the following?

"The surgeon will be able to remove all of the tumor." Explanation: For clients with malignant gliomas, complete removal of the tumor and cure are not possible but the rationale for resection includes relief of increased intracranial pressure, removal of any necrotic tissue, and reduction in the bulk of the tumor, which theoretically leaves behind fewer cells to become resistant to radiation or chemotherapy.

In which location are most brain angiomas located?

Cerebellum Explanation: Brain angiomas occur most often in the cerebellum. Most brain angiomas do not occur in the hypothalamus, thalamus, or brainstem (midbrain, pons, medulla).

A patient has been diagnosed with a lipoma. The nurse explains to the patient that this tumor is located in the part of the brain known as the:

Corpus callosum. Explanation: The corpus callosum is a thick collection of nerve fibers that connect both hemispheres of the brain and is responsible for transmitting information from one side of the brain to another. A lipoma only occurs in this area.

A male client who has undergone a cervical discectomy is being discharged with a cervical collar. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include the client's discharge plan?

Keeping the head in a neutral position Explanation: After a cervical discectomy, the client typically wears a cervical collar. The client should be instructed to keep his head in a neutral position and wear the collar at all times unless the physician has instructed otherwise. The front part of the collar is removed for shaving and the neck should be kept still while the collar is open or off.

A client was undergoing conservative treatment for a herniated nucleus pulposus, at L5 - S1, which was diagnosed by magnetic resonance imaging. Because of increasing neurologic symptoms, the client undergoes lumbar laminectomy. The nurse should take which step during the immediate postoperative period?

Logroll the client from side to side. Explanation: Logrolling the client maintains alignment of his hips and shoulders and eliminates twisting in his operative area. The nurse should encourage ROM exercises to maintain muscle strength. Because of pressure on the operative area, having the client sit up in a chair or with the head of the bed elevated should be allowed only for short durations.

Which diagnostic is most commonly used for spinal cord compression?

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Explanation: MRI is the most commonly used diagnostic tool, detecting epidural spinal cord compression and metastases

A client with muscle weakness and an abnormal gait is being evaluated for muscular dystrophy. What is the supportive goal for the client diagnosed with muscular dystrophy?

Minimized functional deterioration in the client. Explanation: The goal of supportive management is to keep the client active and functioning as normally as possible and to minimize functional deterioration. Client will have respiratory complications at times, but this is not the target of the supportive goal. Gene mutations are useful, but not a generalized goal for clients. Clients with muscular dystrophy should make end-of-life decisions, but this is not the client's supportive goal.

A patient is diagnosed with an aggressive, primary malignant brain tumor. The nurse is aware that the glioma:

Originated within the brain tissue. Explanation: The most aggressive type of malignant brain tumor is a glioma, which originates within the brain tissue.

Which term is used to describe edema of the optic nerve?

Papilledema Explanation: Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve. Scotoma is a defect in vision in a specific area in one or both eyes. Lymphedema is the chronic swelling of an extremity due to interrupted lymphatic circulation, typically from an axillary dissection. Angioneurotic edema is a condition characterized by urticaria and diffuse swelling of the deeper layers of the skin.

The nurse educator is teaching nursing students about various types of brain tumors. The instructor recognizes that teaching has been effective when students correctly identify a client whose lab work indicates excessively high levels of thyroid stimulating hormone would most likely be diagnosed with which type of tumor?

Pituitary adenoma Explanation: Pituitary adenomas can increased production of several hormones including TSH, ACTH, growth hormone and prolactin. Excessive hormone production is not characteristic of the brain tumors identified in the alternate options.

A client with post-polio syndrome displays fatigue and decreased muscle strength. How should the nurse best respond to the client?

"Intravenous immunoglobulin infusion may help you." Explanation: There is no specific treatment for post-polio syndrome; however, the infusion of IV immunoglobulin has been shown to help with the physical pain and weakness. Sleeping and relaxation may not assist the client with post-polio syndrome. The syndrome is very common and is most likely related to the past diagnosis of polio.

The nurse is caring for a client who underwent surgery to remove a spinal cord tumor. When conducting the postoperative assessment, the nurse notes the presence of a bulge at the surgical site. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing what complication from the surgery?

Cerebrospinal fluid leakage Explanation: Bulging at the incision may indicate a contained cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. The site should be monitored for increasing bulging, known as pseudomeningocele, which may require surgical repair. Infection at the surgical site should be suspected if the surgical dressing is stained. The bulge does not indicate growth of secondary tumor, this can only be identified using diagnostic imaging. Impaired tissue healing would be indicated if the nurse assessed redness, swelling and warmth at the surgical site during a dressing change. The bulge at the site warrants further assessment of a postsurgical leak of CSF.

An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of which cranial nerve?

Eighth Explanation: An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve, the cranial nerve most responsible for hearing and balance

The nurse is caring for a client with mid-to-late stage of an inoperable brain tumor. What teaching is important for the nurse to do with this client?

Explaining hospice care and services Explanation: The nurse explains hospice care and services to clients with brain tumors that no longer are at a stage where they can be cured. Managing muscle weakness and offering family support groups are important, but explaining hospice is the best answer. Optimizing nutrition at this point is not a priority.

Which of the following is a hallmark of spinal metastases?

Pain Explanation: Pain is the hallmark of spinal metastases. Nausea, fatigue, and change in LOC may occur, but these are not the hallmark of spinal metastases

The nurse is caring for a client who was diagnosed with a glioma 5 months ago. Today, the client was brought to the emergency department by his caregiver because he collapsed at home. The nurse suspects late signs of rising intracranial pressure (ICP) when which blood pressure and pulse readings are noted?

BP = 175/45 mm Hg; HR = 42 bpm Explanation: With a blood pressure of 175/45 mm Hg, it is evident that this client is experiencing progressively rising ICP, resulting from an advanced stage of the brain tumor. This blood pressure demonstrates a wide pulse pressure, meaning the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is large. A heart rate of 42 bpm indicates the client is bradycardic. This finding paired with hypertensive blood pressure with a widening pulse pressure are part of the Cushing triad related to increased ICP

Excessive levels of which neurotransmitter has been implicated in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

Glutamate Explanation: Excessive levels of the neuro-excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate have been implicated in the neurodegenerative diseases such as ALS, Huntington's disease, and the sequelae of strokes.

A client is admitted reporting low back pain. How will the nurse best determine if the pain is related to a herniated lumbar disc?

Have the client lie on the back and lift the leg, keeping it straight. Explanation: A client who can lie on the back and raise a leg in a straight position will have pain radiating into the leg if there is a herniated lumbar disc. This action stretches the sciatic nerve. The client may also have muscle weakness and decreased tendon reflexes and sensory loss. The client should still be able to walk, and have bowel movements, so this assessment will not assist the nurse to confirm the diagnosis. Pain on ambulation is also not specific to this condition.

A client is admitted to undergo lumbar laminectomy for treatment of a herniated disk. Which action should the nurse take first to promote comfort preoperatively?

Help the client assume a more comfortable position. Explanation: The nurse should first help the client assume a more comfortable position. After doing so, the nurse may administer pain medication as ordered. Next, the nurse should assess the client's knowledge of nonpharmacologic measures to relieve pain and provide teaching as necessary. If the client's pain isn't relieved after taking these actions, the nurse should notify the physician of the client's pain issues.

A client who has just been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy asks the nurse about the usual course of this disease. How should the nurse respond?

"You may experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles." Explanation: The nurse should tell the client that muscular dystrophy causes progressive, symmetrical wasting of skeletal muscles, without neural or sensory defects. The mixed form of the disease typically strikes between ages 30 and 50 and progresses rapidly, causing deterioration of all voluntary muscles. Because the client asked the nurse this question directly, the nurse should answer and not simply refer the client to the physician. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy causes a gradual decrease in arm and pelvic muscle strength, resulting in slight disability. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is a slowly progressive, relatively benign form of muscular dystrophy; it usually arises before age 10.

A client with Parkinson's disease has been receiving levodopa as treatment for the past 7 years. The client comes to the facility for an evaluation and the nurse observes facial grimacing, head bobbing, and smacking movements. The nurse interprets these findings as which of the following?

Dyskinesia Explanation: Most clients within 5 to 10 years of taking levodopa develop a response to the medication called dyskinesia, manifested as facial grimacing, rhythmic jerking movements of the hands, head bobbing, chewing and smacking movements, and involuntary movements of the trunk and extremities. Bradykinesia refers to an overall slowing of active movement and is a manifestation of the disorder. Micrographia refers to the development of small handwriting as dexterity declines with Parkinson's disease. Dysphonia refers to soft, slurred, low-pitched, and less audible speech that occurs as the disorder progresses.

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient in the clinic with Parkinson's disease. The nurse determines that the patient's voice has changed since the last visit and is now more difficult to understand. How should the nurse document this finding?

Dysphonia Explanation: Dysphonia (voice impairment or altered voice production) may occur as a result of weakness and incoordination of the muscles responsible for speech.

What is the most common type of brain neoplasm?

Glioma Explanation: Gliomas are the most common brain neoplasms, accounting for about 45% of all brain tumors. Angiomas account for approximately 4% of brain tumors. Meningiomas account for 15% to 20% of all brain tumors. Neuromas account for 7% of all brain tumors

Which disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive, involuntary dancelike movements and dementia?

Huntington disease Explanation: Because it is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, each child of a parent with Huntington disease has a 50% risk of inheriting the illness. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system (CNS) characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Parkinson disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia of the brain. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare, transmissible, progressive and fatal disease of the CNS characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

A patient with a brain tumor is complaining of headaches that are worse in the morning. What does the nurse know could be the reason for the morning headaches?

Increased intracranial pressure Explanation: Headache, although not always present, is most common in the early morning and is made worse by coughing, straining, or sudden movement. It is thought to be caused by the tumor invading, compressing, or distorting the pain-sensitive structures or by edema that accompanies the tumor, leading to increased intracranial pressure

A client with a brain tumor experiences projectile vomiting. The nurse integrates understanding of this occurrence as resulting from which of the following?

Irritation of the medullary vagal centers Explanation: Vomiting associated with a brain tumor is usually the result of irritation of the vagal centers in the medulla. Edema secondary to the tumor or distortion of the pain-sensitive structures is thought to be the cause of the headache associated with brain tumors. Compression of the surrounding structures results in the signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure.

Which of the following is a late symptom of spinal cord compression?

Paralysis Explanation: Later symptoms include evidence of motor weakness and sensory deficits progressing to paralysis. Early symptoms associated with spinal cord compression include bladder and bowel dysfunction (urinary incontinence or retention; fecal incontinence or constipation).

A client has undergone surgery for a spinal cord tumor that was located in the cervical area. The nurse would be especially alert for which of the following?

Respiratory dysfunction Explanation: When a spinal tumor is located in the cervical area, respiratory compromise may occur from postoperative edema. Hemorrhage would be a concern with any surgery. Bowel incontinence and skin breakdown are possible but not specific to cervical spinal tumors.

A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) asks if the nurse has heard of a drug that will prolong the patient's life. The nurse knows that there is a medication that may prolong the life by 3 to 6 months. To which medication is the patient referring?

Riluzole Explanation: Riluzole, a glutamate antagonist, has been shown to prolong survival for persons with ALS for 3 to 6 months.

The nurse is assessing a client with a confirmed spinal cord tumor. The client states, "I've been too embarrassed to tell anyone but, I have been awakened at night because I've wet the bed." It would be a priority for the nurse to further assess the client for which complication?

Spinal cord compression Explanation: With spinal tumors, there is the risk of compression from the tumor on structures and organs surrounding the spinal cord. Urinary incontinence indicates decreased spinal cord function due to spinal cord injury related to compression from the tumor. Although the nurse may include further assessment for urinary tract infection, knowledge deficit and impaired skin integrity, these would not be the priority assessment. Spinal chord compression is considered a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment to prevent permanent neurologic damage.

Which client should the nurse assess for degenerative neurologic symptoms?

The client with Huntington disease. Explanation: Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia. Paget disease is a musculoskeletal disorder, characterized by localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone. Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor

How should the nurse best teach the client admitted with post-polio syndrome about causative pathophysiology?

The exact cause is unknown, but aging or muscle overuse is suspected. Explanation: The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known, but researchers suspect that with aging or muscle overuse, the neurons that were not destroyed originally by the poliovirus are unable to continue generating axon sprouts. The exact cause of post-polio syndrome is not known.

What interventions will best help the client with Huntington disease relieve anxiety and increase communication? Select all that apply.

Use biofeedback. Consult with a speech therapist. Explanation: Using biofeedback and relaxation therapy may help to decrease stress and help with communication. A speech therapist can help maintain and prolong communication abilities as well. An interpreter is not needed and the client should be encouraged to talk. Family presence is not essential, but the nurse should learn how the client expresses needs and wants, especially if the client is nonverbal.

Bone density testing in clients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated

low bone mass and osteoporosis. Explanation: Bone density testing in clients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis. Thus, the importance of identifying risks, preventing falls, and treating osteoporosis must be discussed with clients and their families.

A client asks the nurse to explain the development of Parkinson disease (PD). Which response will the nurse provide the client?

"It is caused by low levels of dopamine that are not available to counteract the effects of acetylcholine." Explanation: Parkinson disease (PD) is a slowly progressing neurologic movement disorder that eventually leads to disability. It is associated with decreased levels of dopamine resulting from degeneration of dopamine storage cells in the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia region of the brain. The loss of dopamine stores in the area of the brain that control motor movements results in more excitatory neurotransmitters than inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to an imbalance that affects voluntary movement. PD symptoms usually appear in the fifth decade of life and affect men more often than women. There is a definite reason for the development of PD. It is not precipitated by untreated or poorly treated bacterial or viral infections.

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a comorbidity of Parkinson's disease. Why should the nurse closely monitor the condition and the drug regimen of a client with Parkinson's disease?

Drugs administered may cause a wide variety of adverse effects. Explanation: Drugs administered for Parkinsonism may cause a wide variety of adverse effects, which requires careful observation of the client. Over time, clients may respond less and less to their standard drug therapy and have more frequent "off episodes" of hypomobility. As a result, the nurse should administer the drugs closely to the schedule. Generally, a single drug called levodopa is administered to clients with Parkinson's disease. It is also not true that drugs may not cause the requisite therapeutic effect or such clients do not adhere to the drug regimen.

The nurse is caring for a client with metastatic brain cancer. The client will be receiving palliative treatment. The nurse should anticipate what type of medical management will be included in the client's care? Select all that apply.

Radiosurgery Craniotomy with debulking Radiation Explanation: When the prognosis for any brain tumor is poor, the palliative care approach is used to guide the management of symptoms with the aim of increasing client comfort and decreasing distressing symptoms as much as possible. This can include surgical debulking of the tumor, which requires a craniotomy. Treatment using radiosurgery provides a very high dose of radiation to a very small precise area to decrease tumor size to prevent a rise in intracranial pressure. These treatment techniques are known as Gamma Knife or Cyberknife. Simple radiation is also used to decrease the size of the tumor in a less invasive way than surgery. The aim of this treatment is also to increase comfort and prolong life by decreasing pressure on surrounding brain structures and intracranial pressure. The alternate answer options list diagnostic techniques that would only be used when imaging of the tumor is required for diagnosis to plan treatment

A patient diagnosed with a tumor in the cerebellar region would expect to have changes in which of the following?

Balance and coordination Explanation: If a tumor is present in the cerebellar area, the nurse might expect to see changes in balance and coordination. Vision, hearing, and cognition are not affected by a tumor in the cerebellar area.

A nurse is providing care to a client recently diagnosed with a brain tumor. When planning this client's care, the nurse anticipates which therapy as providing the best outcome for the client?

Surgery Explanation: A variety of medical treatment modalities, including chemotherapy and external-beam radiation therapy, radiosurgery, or radiotherapy are used alone or in combination with surgical resection. However, surgical intervention provides the best outcome for most brain tumor types.

The nurse educator is testing a group of nursing students about various types of brain tumors and their clinical manifestations. The students are correct when stating tumors located in the cerebellar region of the brain produce which symptoms? Select all that apply.

Staggering gait Muscle incoordination Abnormal eye movements Explanation: A cerebellar tumor causes dizziness; an ataxic or staggering gait with a tendency to fall toward the side of the lesion; marked muscle incoordination; and nystagmus (involuntary rhythmic eye movements), usually in the horizontal direction. Visual hallucination are associated with occipital lobe tumors. An apathetic mental attitude can manifest from a tumor in the motor cortex of the frontal lobe.

A patient has been diagnosed with a brain tumor, a glioblastoma multiforme. The nurse met with the family after the diagnosis to help them understand that:

Surgery can improve survival time but the results are not guaranteed. Explanation: The overall prognosis for this type of aggressive brain tumor is poor but surgery can improve survival time.

The nurse is providing health education to a client recently diagnosed with a brain tumor. During the appointment, the client states, "I'm really worried that I will have a seizure while I am at work or with my kids. Should I be concerned about this?" How should the nurse respond?

"There is a risk for seizures in people who have this diagnosis. What have you already discussed with your primary health care provider regarding management of seizures?" Explanation: In this case, the client is verbalizing a valid concern about management of the potential manifestation of the brain tumor. The nurse should engage the client by providing fact-based information about the probability of seizures caused by effects of brain tumors. The nurse should further engage in the discussion by evaluating the client's existing understanding of the seizures related to brain tumors and the associated management of this problem. The open-ended manner in which the nurse has asked the question in the correct answer option allows the client to reveal any knowledge deficits or gaps in understanding of the condition. Telling the client there is a strong chance that he or she will have a seizure is countertherapeutic and would serve to increase the client's anxiety. The nurse's aim should be to reduce the client's anxiety related to the diagnosis. Telling the client that seizures are a genetic neurological condition is out of context in this situation. The client is worried about having a seizure because he or she has a brain tumor. The nurse should address the concern in the correct context. The nurse is incorrect when stating having this discussion is not within the nurse's scope of practice. The client's verbalized concern presents an opportunity for the nurse to evaluate the client's understanding of the treatment and management of the condition. The nurse should refer the client back to the primary health care provider if there are any aspects of the client's health history that are unclear.

The nurse is seeing a female client who has been diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma. During the clinic visit, the client tells the nurse that she has been having irregular menstrual periods despite having very regular menstrual periods all her life. The nurse knows this physiological change is likely related to which characteristic of this type of brain tumor?

Increased prolactin levels Explanation: A characteristic of functioning pituitary tumors is the overproduction of prolactin, which can lead to irregular or diminished menstrual periods in women. Functioning pituitary tumors lead to an increase in the production of several hormones including growth hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone, not a decrease. Nonetheless, the client would not experience changes in her menstrual periods as a result of increases in these two hormones. Although functioning pituitary tumors can cause an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone, this would not be the cause of changes in the client's normal menstrual periods.

A client has just returned from surgery after undergoing a lumbar laminectomy. Which of the following would be most important to do when positioning the client in bed?

Using a logrolling motion to change positions Explanation: After a laminectomy, logrolling is used to change the client's position. When in bed, a pillow is placed under the client's head and the knee rest is elevated slightly to relax the back muscles. When lying on his or her side, extreme knee flexion is avoided. Sitting is discouraged except for defecation.

A client newly diagnosed with Huntington diease asks for information concerning management of symptoms. Which action would the nurse first take to address this request?

Perform a focused assessment on the client's needs and capabilities. Explanation: Nurses must look beyond the disease to focus on the patient's needs and capabilities first. While the client will benefit from the expertise of a Huntington disease multidisciplinary team, it is important to first establish their goals and individual needs. Only after a full assessment should medications be recommended by anyone on a health care team. In clients who present with rigidity, some temporary benefit may be obtained from antiparkinson medications, such as levodopa. Establishing a client's willingness to adhere to treatments is premature until the treatment plan is established. Huntington disease is characterized by a triad of symptoms that include motor dysfunction (the most prominent being chorea), impaired cognition, and behavioral features such as a blunted affect. Huntington disease is a progressive and terminal illness at this time. The focus for this client is optimizing quality of life with available medications and supportive treatments.

The daughter of a patient with Huntington's disease asks the nurse what the risk is of her inheriting the disease. What is the best response by the nurse?

"If one parent has the disorder, there is a 50% chance that you will inherit the disease." Explanation: Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia. The disease affects approximately 1 in 10,000 men or women of all races at midlife. It is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder; therefore, each child of a parent with Huntington disease has a 50% risk of inheriting the disorder (Ha & Fung, 2012).

A client with cerebral metastasis suddenly experiences a seizure for which phenytoin 10 mg/kg intravenously is ordered as an initial loading dose. The client weighs 132 pounds. How many milligrams of phenytoin should the client receive? Enter the number ONLY.

600 Explanation: First, change the client's weight in pounds to kilograms by dividing the weight by 2.2 (2.2 pounds = 1 kg). The client's weight is 60 kg. Next, set up a proportion: 10/1 = x/60; cross multiply and solve for x, which is 600.

A client with cerebral metastasis suddenly experiences a seizure for which phenytoin 10 mg/kg intravenously is ordered as an initial loading dose. The client weighs 165 pounds. How many milligrams of phenytoin should the client receive? Enter the number ONLY.

750 Explanation: First, change the client's weight in pounds to kilograms by dividing the weight by 2.2 (2.2 pounds = 1 kg). The client's weight is 75 kg. Next, set up a proportion: 10/1 = x/75; cross multiply and solve for x, which is 750.

Which medication classification should be avoided in the treatment of brain tumors?

Anticoagulants Explanation: Anticoagulants usually are not prescribed because of the risk for central nervous system (CNS) hemorrhage; however, prophylactic therapy with low-molecular-weight heparin is under investigation. Osmotic diuretics, corticosteroids, and anticonvulsants are utilized in the treatment of brain tumors.

A client comes to the clinic for evaluation because of complaints of dizziness and difficulty walking. Further assessment reveals a staggering gait, marked muscle incoordination, and nystagmus. A brain tumor is suspected. Based on the client's assessment findings, the nurse would suspect that the tumor is located in which area of the brain?

Cerebellum Explanation: Findings such as ataxic or staggering gait, dizziness, marked muscle incoordination, and nystagmus suggest a cerebellar tumor. A frontal lobe tumor frequently produces personality, emotional, and behavioral changes. A tumor in the motor cortex produces seizure-like movements localized on one side of the body. Occipital lobe tumors produce visual manifestations.

Which of the following diagnostic studies provides visualization of cerebral blood vessels?

Cerebral angiography Explanation: Cerebral angiography provides visualization of cerebral blood vessels and can localize most cerebral trauma. A PET scan measures the brain's activity and is useful in differentiating tumor from scar tissue or radiation necrosis. Cytologic studies of the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) may be performed to detect malignant cells because central nervous system tumors can shed cells into the CSF. Computer-assisted stereotactic biopsy is being used to diagnose deep-seated brain tumors.

The nurse reviews the patient's drug regimen for treatment of a brain tumor. She explains to the patient why one of the following drugs would not be prescribed, even though it might have therapeutic benefits. Which drug would not be prescribed for this patient?

Coumadin Explanation: Although deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism occur in about 15% of patients and cause significant morbidity, anticoagulants are not prescribed due to the risk for CNS hemorrhage.

Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority for a client with parkinsonian crisis?

Ineffective airway clearance Explanation: In parkinsonian crisis, dopamine-related symptoms are severely exacerbated, virtually immobilizing the client. A client confined to bed during such a crisis is at risk for aspiration and pneumonia. Also, excessive drooling increases the risk of airway obstruction. Because of these concerns, the nursing diagnosis of Ineffective airway clearance takes the highest priority. Although Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements, Impaired urinary elimination, and Risk for injury are also appropriate nursing diagnoses, they aren't immediately life-threatening.

The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who just underwent surgery to remove a metastatic intramedullary tumor. On postoperative day 3, the client states, "I am really looking forward to going running again, it had become too difficult because of the loss of feeling in my feet." Which should the nurse address in the client's care plan?

Knowledge deficit Explanation: Clients with extensive neurologic deficits before surgery usually do not make significant functional recovery, even after successful tumor removal. In this case, the client had already developed bilateral sensory loss in the lower extremities indicating the fairly progressed impact of the tumor on the client's functional ability. The client's statement reflects a knowledge deficit and it is a priority to provide information regarding the possibility that lower extremity sensation may not return. Although body image disturbance and anxiety may be identified and addressed. This would occur after the client demonstrates an accurate understanding of loss of functional capabilities as a result of the progressed tumor. Ensuring the client understands the extent of functional loss due to the impact of the tumor is a priority. The client does not demonstrate impaired cognition.

A patient is diagnosed with a spinal cord tumor and has had a course of radiation and chemotherapy. Two months after the completion of the radiation, the patient complains of severe pain in the back. What is pain an indicator of in a patient with a spinal cord tumor?

Spinal metastasis Explanation: Pain is the hallmark of spinal metastasis. Patients with sensory root involvement may suffer excruciating pain, which requires effective pain management.

A patient with myasthenia gravis is in the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. The patient informs the nurse that it is very important to take pyridostigmine bromide on time. The nurse gets busy and does not administer the medication until after breakfast. What outcome will the patient have related to this late dose?

The muscles will become fatigued and the patient will not be able to chew food or swallow pills. Explanation: Maintenance of stable blood levels of anticholinesterase medications, such as pyridostigmine, is imperative to stabilize muscle strength. Therefore, the anticholinesterase medications must be administered on time. Any delay in administration of medications may exacerbate muscle weakness and make it impossible for the patient to take medications orally.

A client is diagnosed with a tumor of the temporal lobe. When developing the client's plan of care the nurse would plan interventions to address problems with which areas of functioning? Select all that apply.

Understanding language Emotions Memory Explanation: Tumors of the temporal lobe may cause problems with language comprehension, behavior, memory, hearing and emotion. Problems with reading and writing would be associated with a tumor of the parietal lobe

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a lumbar laminectomy 2 days ago. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Urine retention or incontinence Explanation: Urine retention or incontinence may indicate cauda equina syndrome, which requires immediate surgery. An increase in back pain is more common because on the second postoperative day the long-acting local anesthetic, which may have been injected during surgery, will wear off. Although paresthesia is common after surgery, progressive weakness or paralysis may indicate spinal nerve compression. A mild fever is also common after surgery but is considered significant only if the temperature reaches 101° F (38.3° C).

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who was admitted to hospital after having complex partial seizures secondary to a glioma. The client has been prescribed levetiracetam to manage the seizures. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this medication?

"Driving a car should be avoided until the you know how this medication effects you." Explanation: The nurse should caution the client against driving until the client has a good understanding of how the medication affects his or her central nervous system. For some individuals, the degree of somnolence is much greater than for others and, in some cases, the somnolence is higher when the medication is first initiated and then begins to lesson with physiological adaptation. If a dose is forgotten, the client should be told to take the same dose as soon as he or she remembers. If the time is too close to the following day's dose, the client should be instructed to omit the previous day's dose and just take the current day's dose only. The client should never double up on the dose. There are no cautionary concerns about taking the medication at the same time as a glucocorticoid. There are no established drug-drug interactions between these two type of medications. Suicidal ideation is a rare side effect of levetiracetam. Although the nurse can provide education to the client about this rare side effect, the nurse must indicate this is not a common finding with this medication.

A client diagnosed with Huntington's disease has developed severe depression. What would be most important for the nurse to assess for?

Suicidal ideations Explanation: Severe depression is common and can lead to suicide, so it is most important for the nurse to assess for suicidal ideations. Symptoms of Huntington's disease develop slowly and include mental apathy and emotional disturbances, choreiform movements (uncontrollable writhing and twisting of the body), grimacing, difficulty chewing and swallowing, speech difficulty, intellectual decline, and loss of bowel and bladder control. Assessing for these symptoms is appropriate, but not as important as assessing for suicidal ideations

The nurse educator is providing orientation to a new group of staff nurses on an oncology unit. Part of the orientation is to help nurses understand the differences between various types of brain tumors. The nurse educator correctly identifies that glioma tumors are classified based on the fact that they originate where in the brain?

Within the brain tissue Explanation: Gliomas tumors are a type of intracerebral brain neoplasm. They originate within brain tissue. Tumors arising from the coverings of the brain include meningiomas. These tumors grow on the membrane covering of the brain, called the meninges. An acoustic neuroma is an example of tumors that grow out of or on cranial nerves and cause compression leading to sensory deficits. Metastasis refers to spreading of any kind of malignant primary tumor. This term is not specific to any one classification of tumor.

Which disease includes loss of motor neurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord and motor nuclei of the lower brain stem?

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Explanation: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a disease of unknown cause in which there is a loss of motor neurons in the anterior horns of the spinal cord and the motor nuclei of the lower brain stem. Parkinson disease is a slowly progressing neurologic movement disorder that eventually leads to disability. Alzheimer disease is a chronic, progressive, and degenerative brain disorder that is accompanied by profound effects on memory, cognition and ability for self-care. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of self-care deficit, bathing related to motor impairment and decreased cognitive function for a client with cerebral metastasis. Which outcome would the nurse most likely identify on this client's plan of care?

Client participates in daily hygiene activities with assistive devices. Explanation: The client has a self-care deficit related to bathing. Therefore, an appropriate outcome would address the client's participation in daily hygiene measures. Positive coping strategies would be appropriate for a nursing diagnosis associated with anxiety or fear. Verbalizing feelings about self-care ability would be more appropriate for a nursing diagnosis involving self-esteem or role function. Consuming adequate calories would be appropriate for a nursing diagnosis involving imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements.

A client with a brain tumor is exhibiting papilledema. When reviewing the client's history, which information would the nurse correlate with this finding? Select all that apply.

Double vision Visual field deficit Explanation: Papilledema is associated with visual disturbances, such as decreased visual acuity, diplopia (double vision), and visual field deficits. It is not associated with a swaying gait or aphasia.

A client with an incurable brain tumor is experiencing nausea and vomiting and has little interest in eating. His family states, "We don't know how to help him." Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to suggest to help improve the client's nutritional intake? Select all that apply.

Ensure that the client is free of pain for meals. Plan meals for times when the client is rested. Provide the client with foods that he likes. Explanation: Suggestions to improve nutrition include making sure that the client is comfortable, free of pain, and rested. This may require family members to adjust meal times. Additionally, they should eliminate offensive sights, sounds, and odors. Therefore, placing the client near sites of meal preparation may be too overwhelming. If the client has difficulty with or shows disinterest in usual foods, the family should offer foods that the client prefers, rather than attempting to get the client to eat as previously. If the client shows marked deterioration, then some other form of nutritional support such as a feeding tube or parenteral nutrition may be indicated, but only if this measure is consistent with the client's choices for care.

Nursing students are reviewing the various types of brain tumors. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as the most common type?

Gliomas Explanation: Gliomas are the most common type of intracerebral brain tumor. Meningiomas account for approximately 15% of all primary brain tumors. Pituitary adenomas represent approximately 10% to 15% of all brain tumors. Acoustic neuromas are less common

A 37-year-old mother of three has just been diagnosed with a grade I meningioma. As part of patient education, the nurse tells the patient that:

Growth is slow and symptoms are caused by compression rather than tissue invasion. Explanation: A meningioma is benign, encapsulated, and slow-growing. Sometimes the patient has no symptoms because of the slow-growing nature of the tumor.

A client is diagnosed with a brain angioma. When teaching the client about the risks associated with this type of brain tumor, the nurse would educate about signs and symptoms associated with which condition?

Hemorrhagic stroke Explanation: Brain angiomas (masses composed largely of abnormal blood vessels) are found either in the brain or on its surface. Because the walls of the blood vessels in angiomas are thin, affected clients are at risk for hemorrhagic stroke. Pituitary adenomas that produce hormones can lead to endocrine disorders, such as thyroid disorders. In addition, they can exert pressure on the optic nerves and optic chiasm, leading to vision loss. Acoustic neuromas are associated with hearing loss.

The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) after surgical resection of a brain tumor. The nurse recognizes the client is demonstrating late signs of ICP when which sign is observed?

Irregular respirations Explanation: Impaired brain stem function caused by the rise in ICP causes irregular and depressed respirations. This clinical sign is part of the Cushing triad, which indicates late signs of increased ICP. With increased ICP, late signs include hypertension with a large, widening pulse pressure and bradycardia. These clinical manifestations are also part of the Cushing triad.

The nurse explains to the client with projectile vomiting and severe headache that a medication is being prescribed to reduced edema surrounding the brain and lessen these symptoms. What medication is the nurse preparing to administer?

Mannitol Explanation: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is administered to decrease the fluid content of the brain, which leads to a decrease in intracranial pressure. Temozolomide is a chemotherapeutic agent which is commonly used to stop or slow cell growth in certain types of brain tumors. Bevacizumab and everolimus are immunotherapy agents that reduce the vascularization of tumors, thereby inhibiting tumor growth.

The nurse educator is facilitating a class on neurological function with a group of nursing students. When discussing problems that can result from growing brain tumors, the nurse educator should include that clients can experience which neurologic deficits even after surgical resection? Select all that apply

Paralysis Incontinence Aphasia Explanation: Although fever and respiratory infection can result from various factors that influence the hospitalized client, these are not categorized as neurologic deficits. The nurse educator is correct in stating that paralysis, incontinence and aphasia are potential neurological deficits that can result from pressure of growing tumors on surrounding brain structures. The arise from a decreased sensory motor response of the central and peripheral nervous system.

Which disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells?

Parkinson disease Explanation: In some clients, Parkinson disease can be controlled; however, it cannot be cured. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system (CNS) characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dancelike movements and dementia. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare, transmissible, progressive and fatal disease of the CNS characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

A 55-year-old female client presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of feeling like a mask is on her face. While doing the initial assessment, the nurse notes the demonstration of a pill-rolling movement in the right hand and a stooped posture. Physical examination shows bradykinesia and a shuffling gait. What would the nurse suspect is the causative factor for these symptoms?

Parkinson's disease Explanation: Early signs include stiffness, referred to as rigidity, and tremors of one or both hands, described as pill-rolling (a rhythmic motion of the thumb against the fingers). The hand tremor is obvious at rest and typically decreases when movement is voluntary, such as picking up an object. Bradykinesia, slowness in performing spontaneous movements, develops. Clients have a masklike expression, stooped posture, hypophonia (low volume of speech), and difficulty swallowing saliva. Weight loss occurs. A shuffling gait is apparent, and the client has difficulty turning or redirecting forward motion. Arms are rigid while walking. These symptoms are not indicative of MS, Myasthenia gravis, or Huntington's.

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which "related-to" phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

Related to impaired balance Explanation: A client with a cerebellar brain tumor may suffer injury from impaired balance as well as disturbed gait and incoordination. Visual field deficits, difficulty swallowing, and psychomotor seizures may result from dysfunction of the pituitary gland, pons, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe — not from a cerebellar brain tumor. Difficulty swallowing suggests medullary dysfunction. Psychomotor seizures suggest temporal lobe dysfunction.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who was admitted to the oncology unit due to dehydration and anorexia after chemotherapy treatment. What information should the nurse provide to the client to promote improve the client's nutritional intake at home?

Take prescribed pain medication prior to commencing a meal Explanation: The client needs to be clean, comfortable, and free of pain for meals, in an environment that is as attractive as possible. Ensuring adequate pain relief in advance of commencing a meal will make the experience more pleasant and tolerable. Pain is correlated with lack of appetite. Oral hygiene before meals helps to improve appetite. Offensive sights, sounds, and odors are eliminated. Creative strategies may be required to make food more palatable, provide enough fluids, and increase opportunities for socialization during meals.

The nurse is seeing the mother of a client who states, "I'm so relieved because my son's doctor told me his brain tumor is benign." The nurse knows what is true about benign brain tumors?

They can affect vital functioning. Explanation: Benign tumors are usually slow growing but can occur in a vital area, where they can grow large enough to cause serious effects. Surgical removal of a benign tumor is dependent on many factors; even if the tumor is slow growing or not growing at all, the location of the tumor in the brain factors into the decision for surgical removal. The prognosis for all brain tumors is not necessarily poor. Treatment is individualized and can have varying prognostic outcomes. Benign tumors are not metastatic, meaning they do not grow rapidly or spread into surrounding tissue, but they can still be considered life-threatening.

The nursing is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma, but has not yet started treatment. The client reports having increased heart rate, hand tremors, difficulty sleeping, weight loss and hyperthermia. The nurse anticipates the client will require blood work to assess for overproduction of which hormone?

Thyroid-stimulating hormone Explanation: In clients diagnosed with pituitary tumors, increase may be seen in prolactin hormone, growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, or thyroid-stimulating hormone. In this case, the client is exhibiting symptoms related to hyperthyroidism and the blood work should include the thyroid-stimulating hormone level to determine if an overproduction of this hormone due to the presence of the tumor is the cause of the presenting symptoms.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had surgery for partial removal of a spinal tumor to decompress the spinal cord. Preoperatively, the client had lost sensation to the lower legs. When instructing the client regarding pain management strategies, the nurse should include which information?

Use assistive devices Explanation: To prevent falls and pain due to fatigue and overuse, the client should be encouraged to use assistive devices such as canes, walkers and/or wheelchairs when ambulating. When the nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after spinal surgery, the nurse should ensure that, for a client with residual sensory involvement, the client is aware that extreme temperatures should not be applied to the skin. The client should be alerted to the dangers of heating devices (e.g., hot water bottles, heating pads, space heaters). Sleeping in the recumbent position (three quarters prone) can increase pain. Thus, the client should be encouraged to sleep flat with the head of the bed slightly elevated or closely follow instructions for sleep position provided by the surgeon. Although maintaining muscle strength is important in promoting ability to carry out activities of daily living, moderate exercise may not be possible. The client should follow the rehabilitation plan prescribed by the allied health professional responsible for this aspect of the client's care (e.g., the physiotherapist).


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