Chapters 6 - 12

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Consider the project crashing information presented in Figure 8-4. What is the cost to complete this project in the normal time? a. $145 b. $120 c. $405 d. $40

a. $145

A principal idea in agile is that the length of daily stand-up meetings should be ___________. a. 15 minutes or less b. 45 minutes or less c. 30 minutes or less d. 10 minutes or less

a. 15 minutes or less

Consider the network scheduling data presented in Figure 7-6. How many days of slack are associated with activity F? a. 80 b. 107 c. 0 d. 15

a. 80

The overall project is considered to be the first level of the WBS. All of the following methods can be used to organize the second level of the WBS EXCEPT: a. Organized by activities and tasks b. Organized by work function./ subproject c. Organized by project phase. d. Organized by design components / deliverables.

a. Organized by activities and tasks

This technique is an iterative process that identifies and defines the work to be completely accomplished in the near term, and plans the future work at a higher level. a. Rolling wave planning. b. Decomposition. c. Traceability d. Agile

a. Rolling wave planning.

A Gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart that shows each work activity on a separate line with the bar placed from the early start date to the early finish date for each activity on a timescale. a. True b. False

a. True

A mandatory dependency is a logical relationship between activities that must happen - usually due to a physical or legal demand. a. True b. False

a. True

A project manager must use effective communications to set and manage expectations of all stakeholders as well as to ensure that project work is completed properly and on time. a. True b. False

a. True

A stakeholder is anyone who will use, will be affected by or could impact the project. a. True b. False

a. True

A successor activity is the schedule activity that follows a predecessor activity, as determined by their logical relationship. a. True b. False

a. True

Agile project schedules are limited to the amount of work the assigned resources can handle. a. True b. False

a. True

An example of fast tracking a project schedule would be to overlap the design and production phases for a design-to-production project, where the conventional approach would be to move on to construction only after completing the design phase. a. True b. False

a. True

Common purposes for project communications include status reporting and efforts to obtain approval of project outputs. a. True b. False

a. True

Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) attempts to keep the most highly demanded resource busy on critical chain activities, but not overloaded. a. True b. False

a. True

Critical chain project management is an alternate scheduling technique that modifies the project schedule by taking resource constraints into account. a. True b. False

a. True

If the project manager changes an activity on the critical path to start at a later date, then the whole project will end at a later date. a. True b. False

a. True

In Agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely risk management occurs during the planning of each subsequent iteration, in daily stand-up meetings, and in retrospectives at the end of each iteration. a. True b. False

a. True

In some cases, project teams will elect to reduce a threat to a level that a sponsor and other stakeholders deem acceptable, rather than eliminate it completely. a. True b. False

a. True

It is important to assign a unique name and a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure. a. True b. False

a. True

Once the plan baseline has been approved and the project is underway, project teams deal with change by establishing and using a change control system to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule. a. True b. False

a. True

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. a. True b. False

a. True

Project managers should purposefully plan and carry out relationship-building activities with stakeholders that lead to respect and trust. a. True b. False

a. True

Risk response strategies such as accept risk and research risk apply to both threats and opportunities. a. True b. False

a. True

Risk response strategy decisions should reflect a thorough understanding of the priorities that key stakeholders have for cost, schedule, scope, and quality. a. True b. False

a. True

Stakeholders include people who have their routines disrupted by the project. a. True b. False

a. True

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is normally developed by listing deliverables - major deliverables first and then progressively smaller ones until the team feels that every deliverable has been identified. a. True b. False

a. True

The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) process improvement model can be applied specifically to improving project meetings. a. True b. False

a. True

The primary questions project teams use in qualitative risk analysis are "how likely is this risk to happen?", and "if it does happen, how big will the impact be?" a. True b. False

a. True

The priority of the product in agile is more significant than in traditional project management, as the outcome, or product, will drive the elaboration of the project. a. True b. False

a. True

The project scope is the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result with the required features and functions. a. True b. False

a. True

The project scope statement establishes the project boundaries by stating what features and work elements are included (in scope) and which are excluded (out of scope). a. True b. False

a. True

To use the enumeration method of determining the critical path, we list or enumerate all of the paths through the network. a. True b. False

a. True

When a project team needs to construct a WBS, it needs to include in its planning team a subject matter expert (SME) who understands how each segment of the work will be accomplished. a. True b. False

a. True

When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning. a. True b. False

a. True

When constructing a responsibility matrix or "RACI" chart, it is important to ensure that only one person has primary accountability for any activity. a. True b. False

a. True

When developing a project schedule, total float refers to the amount of time a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project end date. a. True b. False

a. True

When recruiting resources to support a project, it is helpful to bring core team members and key subject matter experts on board as early as possible, to help plan the project and develop the project culture. a. True b. False

a. True

When resource overloads are extreme, project managers may need to consider the acquisition of additional resources, reductions in scope or extensions to the project schedule. a. True b. False

a. True

While the lowest level of decomposition in a WBS is the work package, work packages can still be decomposed further into work activities. a. True b. False

a. True

Which of these is NOT one of the three methods of communication that will be documented in a communication plan? a. Virtual methods b. Push methods c. Pull methods d. Interactive methods

a. Virtual methods

A common tool project teams use is a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM). Typically, this chart will depict: a. all the work packages and the resources assigned for various responsibilities regarding each work package. b. the early start and early finish, and late start and late finish, of each schedule activity. c. the duration of each activity. d. the hierarchical organizational reporting structure.

a. all the work packages and the resources assigned for various responsibilities regarding each work package.

The method of dividing the project scope into many parts that, when combined, would constitute the project deliverable is called _____: a. decomposition b. collect requirements c. rolling wave planning d. requirements traceability

a. decomposition

The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. design work systems b. identify all stakeholders c. make tradeoff decisions d. understand the prioritized stakeholders' requirements

a. design work systems

All of the following are among the classic risk response strategies EXCEPT: a. share a threat b. enhance an opportunity c. avoid a threat d. transfer a threat

a. share a threat

In order to plan for a project meeting, project managers should develop an agenda. Which of the statements below is NOT accurate with respect to a project meeting agenda? a. the agenda should only be shared with senior management. b. the project manager should assure the agenda is prepared and distributed ahead of time. c. the agenda should list the major topics of the meeting in the order in which they will be covered. d. the agenda should state the purpose of the meeting.

a. the agenda should only be shared with senior management.

Stakeholders include all of the following people EXCEPT: a. those who will not be impacted by the project b. those whose routines may be disrupted by the project c. those who work on the project d. those who provide people or resources for the project

a. those who will not be impacted by the project

Consider the Research Project depicted in Figure 7-2. Based on the information provided, what is the slack associated with activity C - "Review Reports"? a. 1 day b. 2 days c. 4 days d. 0 days

b. 2 days

Consider the programmers resource histogram presented in Figure 8-3. How many programmers are required during the fifth week of this project? a. 2 programmers b. 7 programmers c. 4 programmers d. 6 programmers

b. 7 programmers

Consider the project crashing information presented in Figure 8-4. What is the normal (un-crashed) duration of this project? a. 7 days b. 9 days c. 8 days d. 6 days

b. 9 days

Consider the Research Project depicted in Figure 7-2. Based on the information provided, which activity can you delay by one day without impacting the expected completion date for the project? a. Activity A b. Activity C c. Activity B d. Activity D

b. Activity C

During which of the following Project Schedule Management processes does the team estimate the number of work periods that will be required to complete a schedule activity, usually expressed as workdays or workweeks? a. Define activities b. Estimate activity durations c. Sequence activities d. Develop schedule

b. Estimate activity durations

A "top-down" approach to creating a WBS is typically used when a project is unique and different from previous projects. a. True b. False

b. False

A WBS dictionary is a document that defines each of the terms used in the project scope statement. a. True b. False

b. False

A Work Breakdown Structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective. a. True b. False

b. False

An issue log is a document that identifies the specific issues that must be resolved before a particular project management meeting adjourns. a. True b. False

b. False

Contemporary project communications typically include both push methods such as blogs, and pull methods such as e-mail. a. True b. False

b. False

Crashing is a project schedule compression technique that expedites a project by executing activities at the same time that ordinarily would be done one after the other. a. True b. False

b. False

During the Manage Communications process, project managers must continuously monitor relationships, communications, and lessons learned in order to manage stakeholder expectations. a. True b. False

b. False

Estimate Activity Resources focuses exclusively upon the identification of the number of human resources required to perform each scheduled activity. a. True b. False

b. False

GANTT refers to the Generalized Activity Network Tracking Technique which was developed to better understand how variability in the duration of individual activities impacts the expected project duration. a. True b. False

b. False

The communications management plan is finalized during project planning, and should only be changed through a formal change control process. a. True b. False

b. False

The cost per risk for risks discovered early in the project is often more than the cost per risk for risks discovered late because there is more opportunity for the risk to impact several dimensions of the project. a. True b. False

b. False

The first process in developing a project schedule is to identify all the resources available to work on the project. a. True b. False

b. False

The most common type of logical dependency to determine the sequence of project activities is "finish-to-finish" (FF). a. True b. False

b. False

The purpose of risk management is to eliminate all project risk. a. True b. False

b. False

When determining resource availability, project managers need only consider full-time, internal resources. a. True b. False

b. False

When the impact of an event is negative, it is considered a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity. a. True b. False

b. False

After completing detailed planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test? a. It is based largely on the expectations of supervisors and sponsors. b. It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable. c. It focuses on whether the project charter should be changed d. It is primarily focused on the team members.

b. It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable.

_____ is the process of the project team communicating and working with stakeholders to satisfy their needs (and additional desires, when possible), handle issues quickly and encourage active stakeholder participation throughout. a. Identify Stakeholders b. Manage Stakeholder Engagement c. Plan Stakeholder Engagement d. Analyze Stakeholders

b. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A ________ presents a hierarchical organization of risks based on categories such as operational, strategic, finance, external, and project management. a. Decision Tree b. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) c. Risk Register d. Risk Management Plan

b. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques is used to determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project, with results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram? a. Expected Monetary Value (EMV) b. Sensitivity Analysis c. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) d. Simulation Techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis

b. Sensitivity Analysis

In the Plus-Delta method of evaluating project meetings, the "delta" column is used for team members to offer their opinion about one aspect of the meeting that ________. a. Was an issue raised in the meeting should be followed up before the next meeting b. Was poor and could be avoided (changed) in future meetings c. Involves the behavior of one of the team members d. Was good and should be repeated

b. Was poor and could be avoided (changed) in future meetings

On agile projects, the scope definition begins with : a. requirements b. large chunks of work, or features c. stories and personas d. work packages

b. large chunks of work, or features

All of the following elements should be included in a project scope statement EXCEPT: a. constraints imposed on the project, and assumptions made during planning b. names of the project team members c. final and intermediate deliverables with acceptance criteria d. project boundaries or exclusions

b. names of the project team members

Which of these is NOT an issue to be considered when selecting team members? a. cross functional teams b. stages of team development c. virtual teams d. co-located teams

b. stages of team development

The work component at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed is called the ______: a. control account b. work package c. activity d. work element

b. work package

It is helpful to list requirements and supporting information in a requirements traceability matrix. When requirements are complete, they should meet all of these criteria EXCEPT: a. Identified with the stakeholder(s) who needs it b. Prioritized according to value, cost, time, risk, or mandate so trade-off decisions can be made if needed c. Assigned to a team member who will be the requirement owner d. Qualified by measurable conditions

c. Assigned to a team member who will be the requirement owner

Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in Figure 10-1. Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses? . a. B - web infrastructure lacks sufficient transaction capacity b. D - The intranet site suffers a security breach c. C - IS resources are spread too thin d. A - project requires new technology and support structure

c. C - IS resources are spread too thin

Once the project is underway, the project manager and team need to manage communications by doing all of the following activities EXCEPT: a. Communicate accurately, presenting information in a manner that people are likely to interpret correctly. b. Communicate promptly, providing information soon enough so that it is useful to recipients and facilitates timely decisions. c. Communicate thoroughly, copying all stakeholders on all e-mails and team status reports. d. Communicate effectively, taking actions to ensure the receiver understands the communication and acts appropriately.

c. Communicate thoroughly, copying all stakeholders on all e-mails and team status reports.

Consider the Research Project depicted in Figure 7-2. Based on the information provided, what is the late start date for activity A - "Plan Research"? a. Day 10 b. Day 4 c. Day 0 d. Day 2

c. Day 0

Consider the Research Project depicted in Figure 7-2. Based on the information provided, what is the late start date for activity C - "Review Reports"? a. Day 2 b. Day 0 c. Day 4 d. Day 10

c. Day 4

Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis? a. Team members develop contingency plans for all risks to avoid adverse impacts to project objectives. b. Team members identify potential risk events. c. Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks. d. Team members define how to conduct risk management activities for the project.

c. Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.

Project managers must often face the challenge of compressing the project schedule. All of the following actions can be taken to reduce the duration of the critical path EXCEPT: a. Reduce the project scope and /or quality. b. Overlap sequential activities using finish-to-finish, start-to-start, or start-to-finish relationships. c. Use the float in critical path activities d. Partially overlap sequential activities by using time leads

c. Use the float in critical path activities

A _______ is the approved project plan mainly consisting of scope, schedule, and cost that is not normally altered unless a formal change control request is approved for modifying these plans. a. benchmark. b. requirement. c. baseline. d. component

c. baseline

A _________ is a written request or formal proposal to propose changes to any project planning component such as a document, project deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and time). a. scope statement b. project charter c. change request d. request for proposal (RFP)

c. change request

Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to research a threat or an opportunity? a. identify a risk owner to each high priority risk b. establish triggers and update them frequently c. construct a prototype to learn more about a candidate solution d. establish time or cost contingencies

c. construct a prototype to learn more about a candidate solution

Project stakeholders can be prioritized based upon their level of power, legitimacy and urgency plus a number of additional criteria that might include: a. fame b. tenure c. impact d. personality

c. impact

A situation that requires a decision to be made, but one that the team that cannot make now, usually due to needing more information or time, is called a(n) _____: a. risk b. assumption c. issue d. constraint

c. issue

All of the following criteria can be used to categorize project risks EXCEPT: a. when it occurs in the project life cycle b. the project objective that may be impacted by the risk (cost, schedule, scope and / or quality) c. whether the risk is a known known d. whether the risk is internal or external to the performing organization

c. whether the risk is a known known

Faced with significant schedule challenges, the project manager has an ethical responsibility to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. deliver the project according to the agreed-upon schedule b. determine a schedule that is possible to achieve c. willingly accept end dates dictated by customers or sponsors d. persuade all stakeholders that the schedule makes sense

c. willingly accept end dates dictated by customers or sponsors

Consider the software programmer loading chart presented in Figure 8-2. What percent of available time is the software programmer assigned to work activities on Thursday? a. 80 percent b. 100 percent c. 150 percent d. 200 percent

d. 200 percent

Consider the programmers resource histogram presented in Figure 8-3. Which activity is an ideal candidate to delay in order to achieve a feasible schedule? a. Activity F - Correct Defects b. Activity B - Design Application c. Activity A - Define Requirements d. Activity C - Draft User Manual

d. Activity C - Draft User Manual

The components (principles) of Critical Chain Project Management include which of the following? a. Adhere strictly to completion deadlines - rather than finishing early or late. b. Estimate activity durations generously c. Add a comfortable buffer to every project activity d. Avoid multi-tasking.

d. Avoid multi-tasking.

All of the following describe the appropriate application of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis in project management EXCEPT: a. Decision Tree Analysis and Simulation techniques such as Monte Carlo Analysis are examples of useful quantitative risk analysis techniques. b. Large, complex and expensive projects stand to benefit from the additional rigor of quantitative risk analysis techniques. c. Quantitative techniques are used when it is critical to predict the probability of completing a project on time or within budget with confidence. d. Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible.

d. Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible.

Which of the following is NOT a format that is typically used to represent a Work Breakdown Structure? a. Hierarchical or "org chart" b. Indented outline c. Free format d. Requirements Traceability Matrix

d. Requirements Traceability Matrix

All of the following describe an appropriate application of Plan Risk Responses in project management EXCEPT: a. The expectations of the sponsor and key stakeholders should influence the risk responses that are developed. b. Often multiple strategies are identified for a single risk. c. Risk response planning should address both opportunities and threats. d. Responses should be created for every identified project risk, regardless of the risk score.

d. Responses should be created for every identified project risk, regardless of the risk score.

Which of the following describes how the team uses a cause-and-effect diagram to support project risk analysis? a. Team members are encouraged to keep asking "when?" to break down risks into more detailed causes. b. The project team begins by identifying strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. c. The team organizes assumptions and constraints in a fishbone pattern. d. The team lists the risk as the "effect" in a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones.

d. The team lists the risk as the "effect" in a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones.

The stakeholder register information can be used to evaluate the interests of different stakeholder groups by performing a _______ analysis to identify where there may be common areas of interest between the groups. a. ITSFWI (if-the-shoe-fits-wear-it) b. PDCA (plan-do-check-act) c. MBWA (management-by-wandering-around) d. WIIFT (what's-in-it-for-them)

d. WIIFT (what's-in-it-for-them)

Which of the following responses identifies a common type of logical dependency used to sequence project activities? a. last-in; last-out b. first-in; first-out c. last-in; first-out d. finish-to-start

d. finish-to-start


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