CLS Final Exam

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

Coumadin is an anticoagulant derived from ________

warfrain

autoimmune diease

LE

A white blood cell is also known as a(an) ___________

Leukocyte

Leukocyte containing granules

granulocyte

Manual blood counts are performed by loading the blood dilution into a(n) _____________

hemacytometer

presence of blood in urine

hematuria

blood from the patient's vein is slowly passed through a dialyzer

hemodialysis

RBC x 3 = ?

hemoglobin

The condition in which a fetus or newborn is affected by maternal antibodies directed against the infants RBCs is called ______________

hemolytic diease of the newborn

Process of blood cell formation

hemopoiesis

undifferentiated bone marrow cell that gives rise to blood cells

hemopoietic stem cell

confirmatory test for bilirubin

ictotest

An individual who is able to produce a normal immune response is said to be __________

immunocompetent

An individual who has reduced ability to produce an immune response is said to be __________

immunocompromised

The term used for the study of the human blood groups is ___________

immunohematology

To prevent lysis of the red blood cells the diluting fluid for them must be in osmotic balance with the cells, a condition known as ____________

isotonic

The organ in which urine is formed is called the _________

kidney

involving unrestrained growth of leukocytes

leukemia

The vitamin-K-dependent factors are manufactured in the _______

liver

lymph nodes and spleen

secondary lymphoid tissue

The ___________ method of typing for RhD must be performed using a heated light box

slide typing

Methylene blue is a blue __________

stain

The venipuncture for prothrombin time must be performed with minimal trauma to prevent the release of tissue ________

tissue thromboplastin

Tissue thromboplastin

traumatic venipucture

white precipitate

turbid

A variety of waste products are eliminated from the body through the formation and excretion of __________

urine

yellow pigment that gives urine its color

urochrome

A clear, membrane-bound compartment in cell cytoplasm is called a(n) ________

vacuole

The action of blood vessels constricting to slow the flow of blood is called _______

vasoconstriction

blood vessel that carries blood from the tissues to the heart

vein

Coumadin

warfarin

General formula to calculate a manual count

(ave count)(dilution factor)(depth factor)/area

The normal reference value for the prothrombin time in seconds is ______

11-13 seconds

Quantitative urine tests require a(n) ________-hr urine specimen

24

The dimensions of the whole ruled area of a hemacytometer are 3mm x _______

3mm

If a urine cannot be examined within 1 hour of collection, it can be refrigerated at 4 degrees Celsius for up to ______ hours

4

All of the following statements are true of blood EXCEPT: a) it makes up 10%-15% of total body weight b) adult blood volume is approximately 5 liters c) it is composed of formed elements suspended in a fluid called plasma d) about 50%-60% of blood volume is plasma

A

Which of the following statements is true of the hemacytometer? a) When viewed from the top, it has two polished raised platforms b) The depressions surrounding the platforms are called ditches c) The depressions surrounding the platforms form the letter I d) All of the above E) None of the above

A

Xa

Enzyme

Moving wire probes

FibroSystem

An eosinophil is a leukocyte containing esoinophilic granules in the ________

cytoplasm

All of the following are characterisitcs of the inflammatory response EXCEPT: a) phagocytic action of neutrophils b) redness, swelling, pain, and heat c) complement proteins d) antibody production

d

All of the following are related to the red blood cell indices EXCEPT: a) MCH b) the size and hemoglobin content of RBCs c) femtoliter d) drepanocyte e) hematocrit

d

All of the following are true of RBCs with a diameter greater than 8 micrometers EXCEPT: a) they are called macrocytes b) they are called megalocytes c) the condition can be caused by deficiency of B12 d) the condition can be caused by iron deficiency

d

All of the following are true of platelets EXCEPT: a) circulating platelets have a round disklike shape b) contact with collagen initiates a shape change c) a platelet plug forms in seconds to stop bleeding in a small wound d) platelet aggregation requires only that spiny pseudopods are present on the platelets

d

"Thick-walled, elastic, and muscular" describes which type of blood vessel? a) capillaries b) arteries c) veins d) venules

B

Which of the following are true of hemacytometer and cover glass EXCEPT: a) They must meet National Institute of Standards and Technolody (NIST) standards. b) If a certified hemacytometer is used, any cover glass can be used. c) They must be disinfected after use. d) They should be gently washed and dried to avoid scratches

B

Which of the following functions is carried out by blood? a) It delivers nutrients and CO2 to the tissues b) It regulates body temperature c) It delivers O2 to the lungs and tissures. d) None of the above e) All of the above

B

Which of the following statements is true of hemacytometers? a) the cover glass covers one side at a time b) the cover glass regulates the depth of the fluid c) the chamber depth in the Neubauer counting chamers is 1 mm d) each of the nine large squares is 3x3 mm e) none of the above

B

recieves the glomerular filtrate

Bowman's capsule

All of the following are true of blood vessels EXCEPT: a) Arteries are thick-walled, the strongest type of blood vessel b) Veins carry deoxygenated blood c) There are about 10,000 miles of blood vessels in an adult d) Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels

C

In cardiopulmonary circulation: a) blood is carried from the heart to the tissues b) blood circulates from the heart to the lungs to the tissues c) blood circulates from the heart to the lungs where O2 is picked up by the blood and CO2 is released d) blood is carried from the heart to the tissues and back to the heart, providing O2 to the tissues

C

uses enzyme-labeled antibody

EIA

An assay that uses an enzyme-labeled antibody as a reactant is a(n)

EIA and ELISA

Hemoglobin x 3 = ?

Hematocrit

The three ways in which the prothrombin time can be reported are in seconds, as the PT ratio, and as the _____

INR

INR

ISI

The immunoglobin class associated with an allergic response is ________

IgE

The antibody class that is in highest concentration in serum is _______

IgG

A chemical that prevents deterioration of cells and tissues is a(n) _____________

Preservative

Tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway

Protime

Named the prothombin time test

Quick's

RhD negative patients should be transfused with ________ blood

RhD negative

In blood banking: a) ABO is the major blood group b) artificial blood is now in common use c) Rh is of only minor importance d) most blood bank reagents come from nonhuman sources

a

Platelets undergo a shape change when they come into contact with exposed ________

collagen

In the WBC differential count: a) an average of 7-20 platelets/oil immersion field is considered normal b) a 1 month old infant will have 45%-50% neutrophils c) 45%-50% neutrophils is normal for an adult d) 7%-13% bands is normal for an adult

a

The canal through which urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the outside is the: a) urethra b) bladder c) ureter d) renal tubule

a

The major functions of the kidney include: a) regulation of acid-base balance b) regulation of body temperature c) regulation of blood volume and composition d) production of the majority of hormones in the body

a

The reference range for a 24-hour urine volume for a newborn is: a) 20-350 mL b) 300-600 mL c) 750-2000 mL d) none of the above

a

Which is the correct procedure to follow when performing chemical examination of urine by reagent strip? a) test the specimen before it is centrifuged b) test only the centrifuged specimen c) the specimen should be at 4 degrees Celsius for testing d) the results can be read at any time

a

Which is true concerning the history of transfusion medicine? a) James blundell performed the first recorded successful blood transfusion of human blood b) Karl Landsteiner discovered the ABO group in 1930 c) the first hospital blood bank was in San Francisco d) the discovery of BSE in the 1980s dramatically changed blood donor policy

a

Which of the following is not true when making blood smears? a) smears must be stained before they air-dry b) smears from anticoagulated venous blood should be made within 2 hours of blood collection c) smears should have a feathered edge d) capillary blood is preferred over venous blood

a

Which of the following is true of RBCs? a) they are biconcave disks b) in the peripheral blood, they have a nucleus c) they are about 2-3 um in diameter d) mature cells take up the basophilic stain

a

Which of the following is true of group AB blood? a) has no anti-A or anti-B in serum b) has both anti-A and anti-B in the serum c) persent in 48% of population d) is the "universal donor"

a

Which of the following is true of manual cells counts? a) they can be performed when blood counts are decreased due to chemotherapy b) they are more accurate than automated counts c) they cannot be used to monitor a patient's progress d) the RbC and WBC cannot be performed separately

a

Which of the following is true of the hemacytometer? a) in the Unopette WBC method, the four large corner squares are counted b) the large center square used for the RBC count is subdivided into 20 smaller squares c) platelets and RBCs are both counted using the whole large center square d) one corner square has an area of 1mm squared

a

Which of the following is true when examining a smear containing abnormal cells? a) personnel must follow the written procedure of the facility concerning reporting b) the staining technique does not affect cell identification c) each technician can use his or her own method of examining the smear d) if the patient is healthy, the smear will not have abnormal cells

a

Which of the following statements about the WBC differential count is not correct? a) viral infections usually cause increased lymphocytes and increased total WBCs b) neutrophils and bands can be inreased in bacterial infections c) infectious mono causes increased total WBCs

a

clumping of particles

agglutination

pH above 7.0

alkaline urine

A cell-diluting fluid is a solution used to dilut blood for ________

analysis

A condition in which the RBC count or hemoglobin level is decreased below normal is called ________

anemia

In forward grouping, cells react with known ___________

antibodies

A foregin substance that induces an immune response by causing antibody production is a(n) ________

antigen

A problem of slide typing that is not present in tube typing is: a) contaminated antisera b) dried cell mixture mistaken for agglutination c) correct identification of patient specimen d) difficulty in interpreting results

b

All of the following are methods of naming Rh antigens EXCEPT: a) Rosenfield b) Landsteiner c) Fisher-Race d) Weiner

b

All of the following are pathological causes of leukocytosis EXCEPT: a) infection b) obstetric labor c) leukemias d) polycythemia

b

All of the following are true of blood collected for blood smears EXCEPT: a) the preferred specimen is capillary blood b) anticoagulant must always be used in blood for blood smears c) venous blood with EDTA can be used d) capillary blood can be collected into capillary tubes

b

An immature blood cell normally found only in the bone marrow is a(an): a) keratocyte b) blast cell c) codocyte d) elliptocyte e) cabot cell

b

An organ for the temporary storage of urine is the: a) kidney b) bladder c) ureter d) urethra

b

Each kidney has approximately how many nephrons? a) 1 b) 1,000,000 c) 1,000 d) 10,000

b

In the Rh tube typing test: a) agglutination is a negative result b) agglutination should be graded c) forward typing is not done d) reverse typing must be performed

b

In the physical examination of urine, all of the following are true EXCEPT: a) the color is recorded b) the pH is measured c) transparency is noted d) specific gravity is measured

b

Specific immunity is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a) specificity b) inflammation c) recognition d) memory

b

The class of antibody produced first after exposure to antigen is: a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE e) IgD

b

The largest immunoglobulin: a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE e) IgD

b

The operation of blood banks is ultimately regulated by the: a) American Associtation of Blood Banks (AABB) b) U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) d) all of the above

b

The process of stopping the loss of blood from the blood vessels: a) is an uncomplicated process b) involves interrelated and interdependent systems c) is called fibrinolysis d) is independent of any action by the vessels

b

When urine is to be cultured for bacteria, the specimen required is: a) randon b) clean-catch c) first morning d) preserved e) 24-hour

b

Which is correct concerning the RhD antigen? a) it is present on all body cells b) it can be detected by slide, tube, or gel methods c) it is present in 95% of the U.S. population d) it was discovered in 1840

b

Which of the following is not a reference range for differential count on an adult? a) 25%-40% lymphocytes b) 3%-9% neutrophils c) 0%-7% bands d) 1%-3% eosinophils

b

Which of the following is not correct concerning the normal WBC differential count? a) neutrophils and lymphocytes compromise 85%-95% of cells b) eosinophils make up 3%-9% of the cells c) monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils make up 5%-15% of the cells d) blood from a 1 month old infant can have 40%-70% lymphocytes

b

Which of the following is not true of ABO grouping? a) reverse grouping involves mixing serum or plasma with known commercial blood cells b) ABO antibodies are of the IgG class c) there is no anti-O antibody d) newborns have antigens on the blood cells

b

Which of the following is not true of the PT test? a) coagulation screening test b) measures intrinsic pathway c) monitors oral anticoagulant therapy d) reference value of 11-13 seconds

b

Which of the following is true regarding the preparation and staining of a blood smear? a) smears must be stained immediately b) smears can be immersed in methanol and stained later c) smears can be preserved by immersing in ethanol d) Wright's stain contains no preservative

b

A(n) _____________ is an immature granulocyte with a nonsegmented nucleus

band

ABO grouping is based on the presence of A and B antigens on ___________

blood (RBCs)

The department in the clinical laboratory where blood components are tested and stored until needed for transfusion is called the __________

blood bank

All of the following are formed elements found in normal blood EXCEPT: a) RBCs (erythrocytes) b) WBCs (leukocytes) c) megakaryocytes d) platelets

c

All of the following are true of RBC and WBC counts EXCEPT: a) Many are performed when blood counts are decreased due to chemotherapy b) They can be performed on automated instruments c) The majority are perfromed manually d) Many are performed by instruments that use a laser beam

c

All of the following are true of RBCs EXCEPT: a) their color is due to hemoglobin b) normal mature RBCs stain pink-tan c) the central area stains darker than the edge d) their diameter is 6-8 micrometers

c

All of the following are true of the coagulation factors EXCEPT: a) they are numbered in the order they were discovered b) VIII:C is called the antihemophilic factor (AHF) c) they are produced in the liver and circulate in the activated form d) the mineral calcium was formerly named factor IV

c

Humoral immunity is brought about primarily by: a) T cells b) lymphokines c) antibodies d) all of the above e) none of the above

c

If a urine cannot be tested within 1 hour of the collection time, it should be: a) refrigerated overnight b) frozen to preserve c) refrigerated at 4-6 degrees Fahrenheit for up to 4 hours d) discarded

c

The antibody class that is predominant in secretions is: a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgD e) IgE

c

The components easily obtained from 1 unit of donated blood include all of the following EXCEPT: a) red blood cells b) platelet concentrate c) leukocyte concentrate d) fresh frozen plasma

c

The concave region of the kidney where lymphatic vessels, blood vessels, and nerves enter or exit is the: a) cortex b) renal pelvis c) renal hilius d) medulla

c

The presence of RBCs, hemoglobin, or myoglobin in urine causes the color to be: a) yellow-orange b) green-brown c) red or red-brown d) wine red

c

The tube carrying urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder is the: a) urethra b) renal tubule c) ureter d) loop or Henle

c

To prevent HDN due to RhD, the mother should be given: a) D antigen b) D positive blood c) anti-D d) D negative blood

c

Urine specific gravity: a) is unaffected by fluid intake b) is usually highest in the evening c) has a reference range of 1.005-1.030 d) does not vary from day to day

c

When preparing slides by the two-slide method, which is true? a) a large drop of blood makes the best smear b) the spreader slide can be used to prepare several smears. c) the smear should cover one-half to three-fourths of the slide d) smears with holes and ridges are acceptable

c

Which is true of red cells in iron deficiency anemia? a) they are normocytic b) they are macrocytic c) they are hypochromic d) they are normocytic and hypochromic e) they are hyperchromic

c

Which of the following is true of casts? a) normal urine can have a few WBC casts b) waxy casts are due to strenuous exercise c) an occasional hyaline cast is normal d) an occasional epithelial cast is normal

c

Which of the following is true of urines collected for drug screening? a) a credit cared can be used for identification b) the urine is collected in the usual urine container c) the patient must sign a consent form d) the specimen is placed with other reference laboratory samples for pickup

c

Which of the following is true regarding identification of WBCs? a) the size can be estimated by comparing them to epithelial cells b) abnormal cells are easy to identify c) most normal WBCs can be easily identified d) the shape of the nuclei is not considered

c

Which of the following is true regarding the WBC count reference ranges? a) in conventional units, the range for adult females is 4-5.5x10 to the sixth microliters b) in SI units, the range for the adult male is 4-5.5x10 to the sixth microliters c) in SI units, the reference range for an adult is 4-11x10 to the ninth microliters d) for an adult, the reference range is 9-30x10 to the ninth mircoliters

c

Which of the following is true? a) lymphocytes often have vacuoles in their cytoplasm b) lymphocytes are derived from a common perfursor called the promyelocyte c) lymphocytes are produced in the bond marrow and other lymphoid tissue d) monocytes are involved in the immune response by producing antibodies

c

Which of the following will have no effect on the prothrombin time? a) severe vitamin K deficiency b) liver disease c) factor VIII deficiency d) factor II dificiency

c

The mineral involved in the hemostasis pathway is ________

calcium

If white blood cells are present in the urine, the leukocyte pad on the reagent strip should be __________

changed in color (brownish)

Since neither antigen A nor B on cells is dominant, they are known as _________

codominant

Typical testing performed in immunohematology labortories includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) routine blood typing b) evaluation of suitable blood donors c) providing compatible blood for transfusion d) hemoglobin and hematocrit

d

When tested with a urine reagent strip, a normal urine has a: a) trace of glucose b) positive esterase reaction c) positive nitrite d) negative or trace protein

d

Which of the following can be counted using the hemacytometer? a) Peripheral blood cells b) sperm for fertility tests c) cells in cerebrospinal fluid d) all of the above

d

Which of the following cannot be used to perform a prothrombin time test? a) plasma b) citrated whole blood c)capillary puncture blood d) serum

d

Which of the following cellular features are examined to identify a cell? a) relative cell size b) nuclear characteristics c) cytoplasmic characteristics d) all of the above

d

Which of the following hormones is (are) produced by the kidneys? a) erythropoietin b) renin c) active vitamin D3 d) all of the above

d

Which of the following is correct concerning quality assessment when preparing a blood smear? a) the procedure should produce minimal alteration of cell distribution and morphology b) venous anticoagulated blood must be well mixed before making a smear c) the only anticoagulant that can be used for smears is EDTA d) all of the above

d

Which of the following is initiated by damage to a blood vessel? a) vasoconstriction b) coagulation c) fibrinolysis d) all of the above

d

Which of the following tests, when positive, is an indicator of early renal disease? a) leukocyte b) ketones c) urobilinogen d) microalbumin

d

in kidney dialysis, a solution used to draw waste products and excess fluid from the body

dialysate

The two major treatments for kidney failure are kidney transplant and _______

dialysis

artificial kidney

dialyzer

A determination of the relative numbers of each type of leukocyte in a stained blood smear is called the _________

differential

output of an abnormally large volume of urine

diuresis

Drepanocytes, codocytes, elliptocytes, and keratocytes are examples of: a) anisocytosis b) thalassemias c) poikilocytosis d) erythrocyte indicies e) red blood cell inclusions

e

Each nephron is composed of: a) a glomerulus and Bowman's capsule b) renal hilus and renal pelvis c) renal cortex and medulla d) a glomerulus and its associated medulla e) a glomerulus and its associated renal tubule

e

If a urine specimen is to be cultured for bacteria: a) the specimen must be the first morning specimen b) the culture must be set up before the routine urinalysis is done c) the container need not be sterile d) the urine can be left on the lab bench 2-4 hours before culture e) none of the above

e

blood cell that transports O2 to tissues and CO2 to the lungs

erythrocyte

Stimulates RBC production in the bone marrow

erythropoietin

The large bone marrow cell from which platelets are derived is called a(n) ________

megakaryocyte

source of platelets

megakaryocyte

produced from the T cells

monoclonal antibody

POCT

near-patient testing

The functional unit of the kidneys is the _________

nephron

structural and functional unit of the kidney

nephron

having a milky iridescence

opalescent

Form of hemoglobin that binds and transports oxygen

oxyhemoglobin

patient's abdomen is filled with dialysate

peritoneal dialysis

The type of dialysis that gives the patient more freedom and independence is _________

perotenal dialysis

The ingestion of a foreign particle or cell by another cell is called _________

phagocytosis

Formed element that plays an important role in blood coagulation

platelet

The hemacytometer has two polished raised ________

platforms

Escherichia coli

positive nitrate test

insoluble antigen-antibody complex

precipitation

bone marrow

primary lymphoid tissue

A urine sample collected at any time, without regard to diet or time of day is called a(n) ___________

random sample

Eosin is a(n) __________ stain

red/orange stain

instrument for measuring the refractive index of a substance

refractometer

indirectly influences blood pressure

renin


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