Combo of ALL (6 of 7) with EMT- Ch 17 Endocrine and Hematologic Emergencies (Orange Book) and 27 others

kidneys

organ that rids the body of toxic wastes and control the body's balance of fluid and electrolytes

Parietal Peritoneum

outer lining that adheres to the walls of the abdominal cavity.

Potentially life-threatening consequences of PID include:

ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

oxycodone (Percocet).

Airborne substances are diluted with:

oxygen

visceral peritoneum

pain in this part of the abdomen may be hard to localize

parietal peritoneum

pain in this part of the abdomen will be easier to localize

pallor

pale skin

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:

palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful

ileus

paralysisi of the bowel

Q26- You have been called to the post office to assist police with a disorderly male. On scene you find a middle-aged man pat stating that he needs to be protected because the CIA is out to get him for something he did not do. Assessing a knowledgeable EMT, you should recognize that the patient's behavior as:

paranoia.

ileum

part of small intestine where soluble molecules are absorbed into the blood stream

1)mouth 2)esophagus 3)stomach 4)small int. 5)large int. 6)colon 7)rectum 8)anus

path food travels in the gastrointestinal system

Body Collision

patient comes to a quick stop on some part or parts of the inside of the vehicle, such as the steering wheel, causing injury to the chest.

Q24 - You have been called to a residence for a patient who is sick. On scene the family tells you that the patient is being treated for the "stomach flu" and has had a fever of 102F for the past two days. She has been taking all of the medications prescribed by her doctor but this evening became very "sweaty." Assessment shows her to be stable with a pulse of 88, respirations 18, adequate blood pressure of 128/68 mmHg, and an oral temperature of 100.2F. Based on this, the EMT should recognize the:

patient's body is cooling itself by transferring heat into the sweat, which is then evaporated into the air.

Organ Collision

patient's internal organs, which are all suspended in their places by tissue, come to a quick stop, sometimes striking an inside surface of the body.

12.5 to 25 grams

pediatric dose of activated charcoal

When managing a patient that has been exposed to a poisonous substance, the first priority of the EMT is to:

perform a primary assessment.

The delivery of oxygen and nutrients from the blood through the thin capillary walls into the cells, and the removal of carbon dioxide and other wastes, is known as what?

perfusion

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:

peritonitis

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:

peritonitis.

referred pain

phenomenon where the perceived pain is at a distant point

Q26- You have been called to a nursing home for a 48 -year-old male with a history of schizophrenia. On scene you find the patient to be highly agitated and clutching his left hand while complaining that there are bugs in it. After performing the primary assessment and finding no life threats, you should:

physically and thoroughly assess his left hand.

Q35-A female patient who suffered a straddle injury while tring to balance on top of a chain link fence continues to bleed from the vaginal area despite your initial attempt at hemorrhage control. At this time, you should:

place another dressing over the first and maintain direct pressure.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:

place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags

Q25 - A child has been pulled from the pool after being submerged for less than 30 seconds. The child is crying and hyperventilating, as well as coughing up water and vomitus. The EMT should:

place the child on his side and perform a primary assessment.

Q37 - A 22 year old female, who is eight months pregnant, calls 911 for vaginal bleeding. Your assessment reveals no threats to the ABC's, but she does have some evidence of blood in her underwear. The patient denies pain. Her vital signs are normal. Given these findings, the EMT should be suspicious of:

placenta previa.

Another name for a fatty deposit.

plaque

Disc-shaped elements that are fragments of cells from the bone marrow.

platelets

What's the name of the old fragments of destroyed red blood cells whose job is to help in the clotting process to stop bleeding?

platelets

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure?

poisoning

Black Widow bite

poisonous to nerve tissues (neurotoxic). BLS for patient in respiratory distress, relief from pain.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:

polyphagia

hyperglycemia

possible condition of a patient who has eaten but not takes their insulin

hypoglycemia

possible condition of a patient who has taken their insulin but not eaten

activated charcoal

possible way to treat a patient who has ingested a poison

administer oxygen to

possible way to treat patient who has inhaled a poison

Retroperitoneal Cavity

posterior abdominal cavity partially or completely outside of the peritoneum.

Peritoneal Space

potential space between the visceral and parietal peritonea.

What is a PVC?

premature ventricular contraction

chronic kidney failure

presents as altered level of consciousness, lethargy, nausea, headaches, cramps, and edema in extremities and face because of fluid imbalances

UTI

presents as urgency and frequency in urination and abdominal pain over the bladder

rebound tenderness

pressing down gently and firmly on the abdomen then releasing

Q33-A 36 year old male patient was involved in an altercation with a knife and has suffered a two inch laceration to the right side of the neck. Bleeding was controlled prior to your arrival by Emergency Medical Responders. Your paramedic partner has asked you to apply an occlusive dressing to the wound. You recognize that the primary benefit of the action is to:

prevent air entry into the circulatory system.

vomiting

principle symptom of Mallory-Weiss syndrome

Functions of the liver include:

production of substances necessary for blood clotting

Functions of the liver include:

production of substances necessary for blood clotting.

Status epilepticus is characterized by:

prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:

properly dispose of the syringe

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:

protect her airway from aspiration

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:

protect her airway from aspiration.

What do you do in the case of an abdominal evisceration?

protect the exposed organs from further injury or contamination. DO NOT attempt to replace the organs.

Q37 - After positive pressure ventilation, a newborn's heart rate improves from 80 to 120 beats per minute. The EMT should:

provide blow by oxygen.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should:

provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to:

provide emotional support en route to the hospital.

What condition would cause high back pressure on the right ventricle?

pulmonary disease

This is the name for fluid in and around the alveoli in the lungs.

pulmonary edema

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:

pulmonary embolism

The blood from the right ventricle travels through what valve before going into the pulmonary artery?

pulmonary valve

After the blood is oxygenated in the alveoli of the lungs, it returns to the left atrium via the __________ ____________.

pulmonary vein

Where will you find localization of pain for a patient with a kidney stone?

radiating to the genitalia

1-2g/kg

range of activated charcoal for an adult

You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system?

rapid eye movement

V-tachycardia

rapid heart rhythm, rate 150-200. electrical activity starts in the ventricle instead of the atrium not allowing adequate time between to fill with blood

Remember, the condition of a patient with an acute abdomen can change:

rapidly from stable to unstable.

When assessing an unconscious diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

rate and depth of breathing

Acceleration

rate at which a body in motion increases its speed.

Q33-911 was dialed by a frantic mother for her 3 year old daughter who stuck a small, dried bean into her ear. Assessment shows the bean to be lodged firmly in the ear canal. When treating this patient, the EMT would:

reassure the mother and transport the patient.

The type of pain where the patient experiences tenderness when direct pressure is applied but severe pain when that pressure is released is called:

rebound tenderness

The EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

recognize that a poisoning occurred.

A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable. Your next action should be to:

record the time and dose of the injection, and transport promptly.

What's the name of the blood cells that carry oxygen to the tissues?

red blood cells

sickle cell disease

red blood cells become oblong or sickle shaped

cardiac compromise

reduced heart function caused by any condition, disease, or injury affecting the heart

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

referred pain

Kehr Sign

referred pain to the shoulder caused by blood irritating the diaphragm.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

referred pain.

Mechanism of Injury (MOI)

refers to how a person was injured.

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called:

reflective listening

You have been called to a railroad yard for an unknown emergency. As you arrive on scene, you find a tanker car with two men lying on the ground next to it. The only other person around is a security guard who saw the collapsed man on a video camera and called 911 immediately. He has an automated external defibrillator (ADE) at his side. Your initial action would be to:

remain at a safe distance and call for rescue assistance.

You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the patient's husband meets you at the door and states that his wife has been depressed and has locked herself in an upstairs bedroom. He further tells you that he keeps his handgun in the bedroom. You should:

remain in a safe place and request law enforcement.

heat exhaustion treatment

remove excess layers of clothing (esp. around head/nec) move promptly from hot environment provide oxygen supine position If alert, encourage to sit up and slowly drink up to a liter of water

Cold injury care

remove from exposure to cold hand injured part gently to avoid more injury remove wet or restricting clothing/jewelry over injury Even doctor may not be able to tell difference between superficial frostbite and deep frostbie

Frostbite care

remove from exposure to cold hand injured part gently to avoid more injury remove wet or restricting clothing/jewelry over injury Rewarm under controlled circumstances in emergency department

Frostnip care

remove from exposure to cold hand injured part gently to avoid more injury remove wet or restricting clothing/jewelry over injury Splint extremity and cover with dry, sterile dressings

Q24 - A patient who is conscious and breathing has been pulled from a stream of cold water. To decrease her loss of heat via the mechanism of conduction, the EMT should immediately:

remove her wet clothing.

Q33- An elderly woman is suffering from a closed head injury after falling down five steps. She is responsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly. When evaluating her airway, you note that she has both upper and lower dentures. Her upper dentures are secure, but her lower dentures are loose and cracked. Prior to providing positive pressure ventilation, you would:

remove the lower dentures.

Q24 - A patient at a mountain ski resort presents to you with notable shortness of breath. She denies any past medical history and takes no medications. Your assessment reveals crackles to the bases of both lungs. After applying oxygen, you realize that the key to helping this patient improve is to:

remove to a lower attitude.

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

removing sodium, and thus water, from the body.

You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should:

request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?

respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

Lightning

respiratory or cardiac arrest is the most common cause of lightning related death.

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to:

restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should:

retreat at once and call law enforcement

peristalsis

rhythmic movement that moves waste matter through the intestines

COPD can cause increased pressure within the heart - leading to what?

right sided heart failure

An alert and oriented 5 year old child drank some amonia that was placed in a cup. He is very scared and complaining of abdominal pain, and he states that he has not vomited. Assessment shows ammonia around and in his mouth as well as on his breath. He has an open airway and is breathing adequately. His pulse and skin show no abnormalities. Appropriate care for this patient would include:

rinsing his face and mouth with water.

hyperbaric chamber

room pressureized to more than atmospheric pressure

When forming a general impression of the patient during the initial assessment, which important "scale" information should be included?

rule of nines scale

Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder?

schizophrenia

Kinetics of Trauma

science of analyzing mechanisms of injury.

The stinger from a honeybee should be:

scraped away from the skin.

amylase

secreted by the pancreas and breaks downstarches into sugar; also present in saliva

Q34-A patient has been involved in a motorcycle crash and has a flail segment to the right lateral chest. His airway is open and he is breathing inadequately at 24 breaths per minute. The EMT shows that he is appropriately caring for this injury when he:

secures a rolled towel over the fractured ribs.

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for:

seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.

febrile seizures

seizures that result from sudden high fevers, particularly in children

Lightning Injury - moderate

seizures, respiratory arrest, cardiac standstill (asystole) that spontaneously resolves, superficial burns

Antivenin (black widow spider)

serum containing antibodies that counteract venom - because of side effects use only for very severe bites (elderly, feeble, or children younger than 5)

hypoglycemic crisis

sever hypoglycemia resulting in changes in mental status

If the abdomen appears distended what can this be an indication of?

several liters of blood may have been lost into the abdominal cavity.

cholecystitis

severe inflammation of the gallbladder and possible rupture

uremia

severe kidney failure resulting in the build up of waste products; eventually brain functions will be impaired

A generalized seizure is characterized by:

severe twitching of all the body's muscles.

pleuritic chest pain

sharp,stabbing pain in the chest that is worsened by a deep breath; often caused by inflammation of the pleura

When a female has reached menarche:

she is capable of becoming pregnant.

Peritoneum

sheath-like membrane that lines the abdominal cavity

Q24 - You are assessing a conscious but confused hunter who became lost in the woods on a cold day. Your assessment shows him to have an open airway, adequate breathing, and a weak radial pulse. His skin is cold to the thouch and he is shivering. The EMT should recognize that the:

shivering is a protective means by which the body is attemping to warm itself.

dyspnea

shortness of breath (difficulty breathing)

dyspnea

shortness of breath or perceived difficulty in breathing

dyspnea

shortness of breath;difficulty breathing

acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

signs and symptoms resulting from conditions in which the coronary artieries are narrowed or occluded

hyperglycemic crisis (diabetic coma)

signs/symptoms: Kussmaul respirations, dehydration, dry/warm/"tenting" skin, sunken eyes, sweet breath, weak pulse, low BP, AMS, 3P's

hyperglycemia

signs/symptoms: deep, sighing respirations

opioids

signs/symptoms: drug that causes respiratory depression, including a decreased volume of inspired air and decreased respirations; nausea, vomiting, pinpoint pupils

cholinergics (pilocarpine, nerve gas)

signs/symptoms: excess defecation or urination, muscle fasciculation, pinpoint pupils, excess salivation, airway compromise, nausea, vomiting

sickle cell disease

signs/symptoms: gallstones, jaundice, splenic infections, abdominal distention,

sympathomimetics (epinephrine, albuterol, cocaine, methamphetamine)

signs/symptoms: hypertension, tachycardia, dilated pupils, agitation, hyperthermia

opioid

signs/symptoms: hypoventilation, pinpoint pupils, sedation, hypotension

diverticulitis

signs/symptoms: localized abdominal pain, constipation, and classic signs of infection

hypoglycemia

signs/symptoms: normal or rapid respirations

pancreatitis

signs/symptoms: pain in abdomen, nausea/vomiting, distention, tenderness, possible fever or tachycardia

hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)

signs/symptoms: pale/clammy skin, sweating, dizziness, headache, AMS, hunger, seizure, weakness

hypoglycemia

signs/symptoms: pale/moist/clammy skin, rapid pulse, weakness on one side of the body that may mimic a stroke

anticholinergics (atropine, Jimson weed)

signs/symptoms: tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, dilated pupils, dry skin, sedation, agitation, decreased bowel sounds

DKA

signs/symptoms: weakness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, a weak and rapid pulse and a type of deep, rapid breathing called Kusskaul respirations

bradycardia

slow heart rate - less than 60 beats/min

diving reflex

slowing of the heart rate caused by submersion in cold water

dysarthria

slurred speech

urticaria

small spots of generalized itching,burning that appear as multiple raised areas on the skin; hives

Perineum

soft tissue and muscle found between the vaginal opening and the anus. Prone to tearing during childbirth.

kidney stones

solid crystalline masses formed in the kidney resulting from an excess of insoluble salts or uric acid; trapped anywhere along the urinary tract

liver, spleen, pancreas, kidneys, and ovaries

solid organs in the abdomen

Level III - Community Trauma Center

some surgical capability & specially trained emergency department personnel to manage trauma. This type of center focuses on stabilizing the seriously injured trauma patient & then transferring to a higher-level center.

Cavitation

sometimes called pathway expansion, cavitation is the cavity in the body tissues formed by a pressure wave resulting from the kinetic energy of the bullet.

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?

spleen

Solid abdominal organs include the:

spleen, kidneys, and pancreas

Q27- A 49 -year-old male has been stabbed in the lower right chest. Police on scene report that the patient got into an argument with an unidentified man, who then stabbed him before fleeing the scene. After assessing the pat, you are suspicious that the knife punctured the lung and is causing internal bleeding. In this situation, the mechanism of injury would be:

stab wound to the right chest.

Q33-A young boy was running with a pencil and tripped. The pencil impaled the boy's left eye and remains lodged in place. He is in his mother's arms and both are crying hysterically. Appropriate care for the eye would include:

stabilizing the impaled object and providing immediate transport.

Q25 - A young male has been pulled from a lake by his friends after being submerged for several minutes. Assessment reveals his airway to be patent, respirations absent, and a weak carotid pulse of 12 beats per minute. At this time, you should:

start positive pressure ventialtion, place on a long board and transport to the hospital.

hypoxic

state of having inadequate (low) oxygen

While transporting a 41 year old woman who is not feeling well, she seizes. The patient has no history of seizures and the seizure lasts approximately 90 seconds. After 30 seconds of being postictal and unresponsive, the woman suddenly seizes again for the remainder of the 12 minute transport. The EMT should recognize which one of the following conditions?

status epilepticus.

Q37 - The APGAR scoring system is useful in determining:

status of overall condition.

Injuries to the female genitalia can occur from:

straddle injuries, sexual assault, blunt trauma, abortion attempts, lacerations following childbirth, and foreign bodies inserted into the vagina.

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?

stridor

hemorrhagic stroke

stroke caused by the rupture of a blood vessel in the brain

Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to eat or drink because:

substances in the stomach increase the risk of aspiration

Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to eat or drink because:

substances in the stomach increase the risk of aspiration.

histamines

substances released by the immune system in allergic reactions that are responsible for anaphylaxis and vasodilation

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, and is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth. You should:

suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen.

Spontaneous pnuemothorax defined as...

sudden rupture in visceral lining leading to a collapsed lung

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured cerebral artery?

sudden, severe headache

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:

supplemental insulin.

A 42-year-old male is found unresponsive on his couch by a neighbor. During your assessment, you find no signs of trauma and the patient's blood glucose level is 75 mg/dL. His blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, his heart rate is 45 beats/min and bounding, and his respirations are 8 breaths/min and irregular. The patient is wearing a medical alert bracelet that states he has hemophilia. You should:

suspect that he has intracranial bleeding, assist his ventilations, and transport rapidly to an appropriate hospital.

Heat regulation of the body

sweating (evaporation of sweat) and dilation of skin blood vessels (blood to the skin surface to increase rate of heat radiation.

dependent edema

swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues, a possible sign of congestive heart failure

An alert but confused patient experiencing an allergic reaction begins to exhibit stridorous respirations. The EMT should recognize:

swelling to the upper airway.

The ______________ branch of the autonomic nervous system innervates all three pacemaker sites and the working cells of the heart.

sympathetic

peptic ulcers

symptom: burning or gnawing pain in the stomach that subsides or diminishes immediately after eating and then reemerges 2 to 3 hours later

Term that refers to a group of signs and symptoms produced by the condition.

syndrome

circulatory system

system composed of the heart and blood vessels

scuba

system that delivers air to the mouth and lungs at various atmospheric pressures (self-contained underwater breathing apparatus)

The period during the normal beating of the heart in which the chambers of the heart, especially the ventricles, contract to force blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery.

systole

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

tachycardia.

hyperglycemic crisis (diabetic coma)

take and insufficient amount insulin, markedly overeats, or who undergoes stress

Insulin shock will MOST likely develop if a patient:

takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin

core temperature

temperature of the central part of the body (vital organs)

hypothermia

temperature of the entire body falls

organic brain syndrome

temporary or permanent dysfunction of the brain caused by sudden illness, recent head trauma,seizure disorders, drug/alcohol, overdose or withdrawal

reducible hernias

term for a hernia where the mass disappears back into the body cavity where it belongs

melena

term for black and tarry stools containing blood

tolerance

term for needing more to have the same effect

hypersecretion

term for overproduction of a gland

ileus

term for paralysis of the muscular contractions that would normally propel material through the intestines

ketones

term for the biproduct of fat being used as fuel when glucose is not present; also results in a sweet smelling breath

thrombosis

term for the clotting of blood

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

term for the form of acidosis seen in uncontrolled diabetes

hyposecretion

term for underproduction of a gland

emesis

term for vomiting

retroperitoneal

term that means behind the peritoneum

uremia

terms meaning the waste products, urea, that is normally excreted remains in the blood

What does discoloration & bruising of the navel & flank area indicate?

that bleeding is occurring inside the abdomen and is a late sign and may be an indication that the patient had been bleeding for some time before contacting EMS.

With any gunshot wound what must you be high suspicious about?

that other organs, bones, and vessels have also been injured.

The space between the P wave and the QRS is referred to as what?

the PRI PR interval

automaticity

the ability of the cells withing the cardiac conduction system to generate a cardiac impulse on their own

hypoxia

the absence of sufficient oxygen in the body cells

If the heart rate and force of contraction need to increase or decrease based on the body's demand, what facilitates this modification?

the autonomic nervous system

acidosis

the buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissue that results from a primary illness

evaporation

the change of a substance from a liquid to a gas

asystole

the complete absence of heart electrical activity

Q27- Assessment of a patient involved in a motor vehicle accident reveals him to have crepitus to the left humerus, instability to the left lateral chest wall and flank, and pain on palpation to the left hip region. He also complains of pain to the right side of the neck. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize the patient was:

the driver of a car hit on the driver's side.

What organs are contained within the retroperitoneal space?

the duodenum, pancreas, inferior vena cava, aorta, kidneys & ureters.

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction?

the environment in which the patient is found

respiration

the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

Drag

the factors that slow a bullet down, such as wind resistance, constitute drag.

blood pressure

the force exerted by the blood on the interior walls of the blood vessels

Profile

the impact point of the bullet is its profile.

aphasia

the inability to understand or produce speech

lumen

the inside diameter of an artery or other hollow structure

ureter

the kidney drains its fluid here then passes it to the bladder

If you locate the penetrating object what must you estimate?

the length & width (stabbing) or caliber (gunshot)

aorta

the major artery from the heart (carries oxygen-rich blood away from the heart)

heart

the muscular organ that contracts to force blood into circulation through the body. Deoxygenated blood first enters the right atrium.

Trajectory

the path or motion of a projectile during its travel

peptic ulcer disease - PUD

the protective layer is eroded, allowing the acid to eat into the organ itself over the course of wks, months, or years

hernia

the protrusion of a loop of an organ or tissue hrough an abnormal body opening

postictal state

the recovery period that follows the clonic phase of a generalized seizure. In a postictal state, the patient commonly appears weak, exhausted, and disoriented and progressivly improves.

Use OPQRST to ask the patient what makes the pain better or worse. The "S" stands for:

the severity of pain.

When assessing a patient who has been exposed to a poisonous substance, the EMT must remember that:

the signs and symptoms will vary depending on the specific poison.

A patient informs you that any time she is exposed to a particular soap, she experiences a mild allergic reaction. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should recognize that:

the soap contains an allergen.

virulence

the strength or ability of a pathogen to produce disease

toxicology

the study of toxic or poisonous substances

The autonomic nervous system reacts to needs of change in heart rate and force of contraction via what?

the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

ambient temperature

the temperature of the surrounding environment

What does the PRI represent?

the time it takes the heart's electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles

venae cavae

the two major veins that carry oxygen-depleted blood back to the heart

What does the diaphragm form?

the upper boarder of the abdominal cavity & lower border of the thoracic cavity

Dissipation of Energy

the way energy is transferred to the human body from the force acting upon it.

african american and Mediterranean

these 2 ethnicities are more prone to sickle cell disease

cholinergic agents

these agents overstimulate normal body function controlled by the parasympathetic system resulting in salivation, mucous secretion, urination, crying and abnormal heart rate

Phosphorus or elemental sodium should be brushed off of the skin instead of irrigated with water because:

these chemicals may ignite upon contact with water.

anticholinergic agents

these drugs affect the parasympathetic nerves; agitated, tachycardic, dilated pupils

sedative-hypnotic drugs

these drugs are CNS depressants and they alter the level of consciousness and present respiratory depression

What does it mean when they say "solid" organs?

these organs usually contain a rich blood supply.

type 2 diabetes

these patients can normally be treated with diet change, exercise, and non-insulin type oral medication

thrombophilia

these patients may receive a blood thinner

endocrine glands

these secrete or release chemicals that are used inside the body

What does it mean when they say "hollow" organs?

they are not as vascular (containing blood vessels) but they typically contain a substance.

Hypoglycemic crisis tends to develop more often and more severely in children because:

they do not always eat correctly and on schedule.

kidneys, pancreas, and ovaries

they organs are retroperitoneal

What happens with the heart cells during the diastolic phase?

they repolarize

cholecystitis

this commonly produces symptoms after a fatty meal and usually at night

alcoholism

this could be confused with hypo/hyperglycemia

sickle cell

this disease can cause blood cells to block flow to an organ and cause rupture

hallucinogens

this drug alters a persons sensory perceptions; presents with severe behavioral changes

urethra

this empties urine outside the body

the urethra will narrow, weakening the bladder and eventually leading to urinary retention

this happens when the prostate gland enlarges

hormone

this is a chemical substance produced by a gland that has special regulatory effect on other organs and tissues

hemophilia

this is a genetic disorder where the body is not able to control bleeding

insulin

this is a hormone that is normally produced by the endocrine glands on the pancreas that enables plucose to enter the cells

diabetes

this is a metabolic disorder that involves abnormalities in the body's ability to use glucose

hernia

this is a protrusion of an organ or tissue through a hole or opening into a body cavity where it does not belong

hyperglycemic crisis (diabetic coma)

this is a state of unconsciousness resulting from ketoacidosis, hyperglycemia, and dehydration

hypnotic

this is a substance taht enduces sleep

sedative

this is a substance that decreases activity and excitement

type 1 diabetes

this is an autoimmune problem where the body becomes allergic to and therefore destroys the insulin producing cells of the endocrine glands in the pancreas

sickle cell disease

this is and inherited blood disorder that affects red blood cells by making them oblong in shape, which makes them poor oxygen carriers; shape also causes blockage to organs

glucose

this is one of the basic sugars used in the body

lack or ineffective action of insulin

this is the central problem in diabetes

substance abuse

this is the misuse of any substance to produce a desired effect

intracranial bleeding

this is the most common cause of death of hemophilia

knees up and laying on the left side

this is the position of comfort for abdominal pain

hematology

this is the study and prevention of blood-related diseases

thrombophilia

this is the tendency to develop blood clots

Mallory-Weiss Syndrome

this may lead to severe hemorrhage when the junction between the esophagus and the stomach tears

Platinum 10 Minutes

this means that in cases of severe trauma 10 minutes is the maximum time the EMS team should devote to on-scene activities-with patient assessment, emergency care for life threats, and preparation for transport all being accomplished within 10 minutes of arriving on the scene.

hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)

this occurs to a patient who takes and insulin supplement or pancreas stimulate when the glucose level falls too low due to excess insulin resulting in an insufficient amount of glucose in the brain

spleen

this organ is located in the abdomen and is a part of the lymphatic system

salmonella

this organism produces the direct effects of food poisoning

hemorrhoids

this presents as bright red blood during defecation, itching and mass on rectum

type 1 diabetes

this type of diabetes is more likely to cause metabolic problems and organ damage such as blindness, heart disease, kidney failure, and nerve disorders

type 1 diabetes

this type of diabetes typically develops during childhood adn is called juvenile-onset diabetes or IDDM (insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

type 2 diabetes

this type of diabetes usually appears later in life

type 2 diabetes

this type of patient does not produce enough insulin or the insulin it does produce does not function effectively

type 1 diabetes

this type of patient does not produce insulin therefore they need daily injections of a synthetic insulin

hypoglycemic crisis

this usually results from vigorous activity

strangulation

this will happen if a hernia stags out too long

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

three events caused by the loss of water insuch large amounts

duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

three sections of the small intestine

A protein responsible for activating the formation of a clot.

thrombin

Successful treatment of a stroke depends on whether:

thrombolytic therapy is given within 3 hours after symptoms began.

A fibrinous clot formed in a blood vessel or in a chamber of the heart.

thrombus

A patient has a history of tendonitis of the right elbow. Based on this, the EMT should understand that the:

tissue connecting the muscle to the bones of the elbow is inflamed.

What is the key to assessment & management of abdominal trauma?

to recognize that a potential abdominal injury has occurred & to understand the need for immediate emergency care & transport.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing a :

tolerance

A drug addict informs you that he has been taking Oxycontin and now requires more and more of the drug to take his chronic back pain away. The EMT would recognize this patient as experiencing:

tolerance.

Q25 - The EMT is correctly using a rope with a throw bag when he:

tosses the throw bag using an underhand motion toward the patient.

acids, alkalis, or petroleum products

toxins that are contraindication for activated charcoal

InstaChar, LiquiChar, Actidose

trade names for activated charcoal

radiation

transfer of heat by radiant energy (lose heat by standing in cold room, gain heat by standing by fire)

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should:

transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock includes:

transporting the patient without delay.

The name of the valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

tricuspid valve

thrombotic stroke

type of ischemic stroke caused by a blood clot blocking an artery in the brain

embolic stroke

type of ischemic stroke caused by plaque or other material carried to the brain

type 2 diabetes

typically develops in later life and often can be controlled through diet and oral medication

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

unable to produce or understand speech

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?

upper airway swelling

When the waste product that is normally excreted into the urine remains in the blood, this can lead to which of the following conditions?

uremia

PID typically does NOT affect the:

urinary bladder

50g/adult; 25g/child

usual dose of activated charcoal for adult and child

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia:

usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction?

vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

Vehicle Collision

vehicle is suddenly stopped & gets bent out of shape.

pulmonary artery

vessel carrying oxygen-depleted blood from the hearts tight ventricle to the lungs

pulmonary vein

vessel carrying oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart

herpes simplex

virus caused by human herpesviruses 1 and 2, characterized by small blisters whose location depends on the type of virus. Type 1, blisters on non genital area, Type 2, blisters on genital area.

In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by:

vomiting

emesis

vomiting

In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by:

vomiting.

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

walls of the abdominal cavity.

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient:

was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol).

hemiparesis

weakness on one side of the body

hormones

what are chemical messengers

hardened stool increases pressure on intestine walls causing bulges which traps feces and localized inflammation

what causes diverticulitis

hemophilia A and factor 8

what is the most common type of hemophilia and what is it due to

glands

what secretes hormones

insulin and IV fluid therapy

what to give a patient in hyperglycemic crisis

sugar

what to give a patient in hypoglycemic crisis

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:

wheezing and hypotension are present.

The two MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

wheezing and widespread urticaria.

behavioral crisis

when a person's reactions to events interfere with activities of daily living

Abdominal Evisceration

when an open wound through the abdominal wall allows abdominal contents, usually the small intestine, to protrude & be exposed.

hypoglycemic crisis

which is more severe hypo or hyper crisis

liver

which organ will bleed the most besides the heart

What's the name of the blood cells that serve to protect the body and eliminate infections from viruses or bacteria?

white blood cells

they do not always eat correctly and on a schedule

why are children more prone to a a hypoglycemic crisis

delirium tremens (DTs)

withdrawal that may have hallucination, restlessness, fever, seating, disorientation, agitation, and seizures

Stage 2 of withdrawal

within 8 to 72 hrs: worsening of stage 1 plus halucinations

fat which results in ketones and fatty acid waste products which are hard for the body to excrete

without glucose to supply energy for cells the body uses this as a fuel source and results in what

jaundice

yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes

What can happen during the secondary assessment if you develop tunnel vision and not inspect other areas of the body?

you can easily miss life-threatening injuries.

Q25 - Which statement by the EMT indicates proper application of the term drowning?

"A drowning occurs any time a person is submerged in liquid and suffers from some sort of respiratory impairment."

Q37 - The EMT shows that he understands the seriousness of a prolapsed cord when he states:

"A prolapsed cord can stop the flow of oxygen to the baby."

You arrive at a hunting camp for a hunter who stumbled over a rock and caught himself on his outstretched arm. He denies hitting his head or neck. There are no threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. He has swelling and ecchymosis to his left wrist. A radial pulse is readily palpated and the skin in the hand is warm to the touch. Which one of the following instructions given by the EMT to other rescuers indicates proper care of this patient?

"After we splint his wrist, we will need to elevate it during transport to decrease the opportunity for swelling."

The EMT shows that he can accurately differentiate placenta previa from abrupto placenta when he states:

"Bleeding associated with abrupto placenta is typically associated with abdominal pain; bleeding associated with placentia previa is painless."

Which one of the following instructions or questions to a patient who has suffered a possible concussion indicates that the EMT is properly assessing for sensory function in the hands?

"Can you tell me what finger I am touching?"

Q32- A patient is lying under a tree after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. She states that immediately after the crash, she felt okay, but now her legs are numb and tingling. She also has lower back discomfort. What questions is it most important for the EMT to ask first?

"Did someone move you from the car?"

Q26- You are responding to a home for a injuries resulting from a domestic altercation. In preparation for patient contact, what would you tell your partner?

"Do not let the patient get between you and the door."

Q26- You have been called for a young male patient who has been withdrawn. The patient appears depressed and when you ask him if he is thinking about hurting himself, he answers "yes." The next question asked by the EMT should be:

"Do you have a plan?"

Q27- During an in-service focusing on care of the trauma patient, the medical director asks if anyone can correctly dscribe the "platinum 10 minutes.". Which of the following indicates the best response?

"EMS should initiate transport of the critically injured trauma patient to the hospital within 10 minutes of arriving on scene."

Q26- You are assessing a patient with schizophrenia. Friends called 911 because he was experiencing hallucinations this morning. He is prescribed Thorazine and Resperidone for his illness. Which one of the following questions is most pertinent to the current situation and must be asked first?

"Have you been taking yoru medications as prescribed?

When obtaining a history of a five year old boy with generalized hypothermia, which one of the following questions should be asked first?

"How long was he out in the cold?"

Q27- A patient has been stabbed with a knife at the fifth intercostal space on the right side of the chest. Assessment reveals him to be short of breath and coughing. Which one of the following questions is it most important for the EMT to ask regarding the weapon?

"How long was the knife?"

Q24 - You are transporting a 44 year old male who was stung multiple times by fire ants. Which one of the following patient statements should concern you most?

"I am beginning to feel itchy all over."

A vacuum splint has just been applied to the arm of a patient who fell backward from a chair while hanging drapes. Which one of the following statements or questions should the EMT make or ask next?

"I am going to feel your wrist for a pulse now."

Q37 - An EMT has been called for a 16 year old female with vaginal bleeding. On scene he finds out that the patient is pregnant and has been bleeding for three hours. Which one of the following statements indicates that the EMT is providing proper care?

"I am going to put this sanitary napkin between your legs to slow the bleeding."

Q26- While transporting a patient with schizophrenia, he suddenly screams, "Do you see that snake? It is right next to you! Kill it!" How should you respond to this patient?

"I do not see a snake; I see a stethoscope. I do not doubt that you see a snake."

Q37 - Which one of the following statements best indicates that the patient is in the second stage of labor?

"I feel like I have to move my bowels."

Q24 - The EMTshould recognize heat cramps as the probably cause of a patient's problem when the patient states:

"I have pain in my belly and legs."

Q37 - You are caring for an emotionally distraught female who just suffered a miscarriage. During transport, which one of the following statements is most appropriate?

"I really do not know what to say, but let me konw how I can help you."

Q25 - You are called for a male patient with a diving-related injury. On scene the 32 year old informs you that he thinks he pulled a muscle in his shoulder, which hurts more as the day goes on. When questioned, he admits to having a headache and blurred vision. You are suspicious of decompression sickness. Which one of the following statements made by the patient would be significant given the situation?

"I saw a shark and came up as fast as I could."

Which statement made by the EMT shows an understanding of bandaging an open wound?

"I use bandaging material to secure a dressing in place."

Q29 - Which one of the following statements shows that the EMT understands the palm method of estimating the BSA burned?

"I use the patient's palm to estimate the size of the burn area."

Q 28 - Of the statements that follow, which one describes the best way to determine the severity of a patient's blood loss?

"I use the patient's signs and symptoms to judge the severity of the blood loss."

Q24 - When moving a patient with severe generalized hypothermia, which one of the following instructions is most appropriate?

"I want everyone to take extra care in moving her very gently to the stretcher. We do not want her to go into cardiac arrest."

Q24 - The EMT shows that he understands the danger of heat stroke when he states:

"In heat stroke, the body loses its ability to rid itself of excess heat, causing the core temperature to rise."

Q37 - The EMT shows she understands resuscitation of the newborn when she states:

"Interventions should be performed for 30 seconds followed by reassessment."

Q37 - A 25 year old patient presents with abdominal pain. She appears thin and healthy, but in obvious distress. Which one of the following questions should the EMT ask first?

"Is there any possibility you are pregnant?"

Q29 - A male patient was injured when a steam valve opened, causing hot steam to contact his face. Which one of the following statements made by the patient would be of most concern to the EMT and require immediate assessment or treatment?

"It is sort of hard to breathe."

Q25 - The EMT shows she understands the basic concept of the mammalian diving reflex when she states:

"It may provide benefit to the patient by diverting oxygen-rich blood tothe brain and heart."

Q37 - An EMt is presenting a continuing education class on the care of the pregnant female. When discussing the amniotic sac, he is correct to emphasize which one of the following points?

"It protects and insulates the baby during pregnancy."

Q24 - A patient has been bitten by an unidentified snake. Which one of the following statements made by the patient would lead the EMT to believe that the snake was poisonous?

"Its head was triangular."

Q32- You pull up to the scene of a single-car motor-vehicle collision. Emergency Medical Responders (EMT's) are maintaining in-line manual spine stabilization of the 56 year-old driver who was unrestrained when she struck a tree at a high rate of speed. As you approach the vehicle, you note that she appears unresponsive with blood coming from her nose and ears. Which one of the following instructions to the EMR's is most appropriate?

"Let me condut the primary assessment and place a cervical collar on her, and then let's quickly move her to the long board.

Q25 - A patient has been pulled from a pool in which he was submerged for several minutes. He is pulseless and apneic. An Emergency Medical Responder asks you if you want to press on the man's abdoment to remove the water form his stomach. Which one of the following is the most appropriate reply?

"Let's hold off on that until we see how well we can ventilate the patient."

Q32- A two year old boy fell down a flight of stairs. Which instruction would you provide the EMTs who are immobilizing the patient?

"Let's place a folded towel under his shoulders to help maintain head alignment."

Q 28 - A 29 year old male was cutting limbs from a tree when he lost his footing and fell approximately 20 feet. He is unresponsive and breathing shallowly at 28 times per minute. His radial pulse is weak and thready and his skin is cool to the touch. EMRs have placed him on a nonrebreather face mask and are holding manual in line stabilization. Based on these assessment findings, which one of the following instructions should you provide to the EMRs?

"Let's take off the oxygen mask and start positive pressure ventilation to assist his breathing."

Q24 - You have been called by a family for their mother, who is "not acting right". On scene you find the 69 year old woman to be confused and seemingly slow in talking. her airway is open and respirations are 12 per minute. Her pulse rate is 58 beats per minute and her skin is cool to the touch, despite the thermostat keeping the house at normal room temperature. Family also states that she has been this way for about three days before then seemed to do doing just fine. Your partner obtains a blood pressure that is 104/52 mmHg. When getting a medical history from the family, which piece of information would make sense, given the presentation of the patient?

"Mom suffers from a low thyroid".

Your patient has an injury to the elbow and forearm. While you are conducting the reassessment, which one of the following statements made by the patient should concern you most?

"My hand feels like it is going to sleep."

Q37 - Which one of the following statements made by a pregnant patient in labor should be of most concern to the EMT?

"My water broke two days ago."

Q 28 - While riding a bike, a young boy fell onto a stick protruding from the ground. The stick impaled him in the neck. The boy immediately pulled the stick out and ran home, where his mother called 911. Assessment reveals a gaping wound to the right neck. All hemorrhage has clotted off and manual in line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which one of the following instructions should you provide to the other EMT's on scene?

"Place an occlusive dressing over the wound and tape on all four sides."

Q37 - You have determined that you will need to perform a field delivery. What instructions provided to the patient show that the EMT is properly positioning the patient?

"Please lie on your back, draw your knees upward, and spread your legs apart."

Q29 - A female who had hot coffee thrown at her has a superficial burn to the right side of her face. After transferring the patient to the hospital emergency department for continued care, a new EMT asks you if the patient will have a permanent scar on her face. Which one of the following is your best reply?

"Since only the outer layer of skin burned, there is little change of scarring."

Which one of the following statements shows that an EMT understands field care of a patient with a possible joint dislocation?

"The care for a patient with a joint injury is identical to that of a fracture."

Q37 - Which one of the following statements about the role and function of the cervix in pregnancy is true?

"The cervix becomes plugged with mucous to prevent contamination of the uterus."

Q37 - Which one of the following statements about the placenta after the baby has been born is accurate?

"The placenta typically delivers itself within 20 minutes of the birth of the baby."

Q37 - When asked, a young female with abdominal pain replies that she is not sure if she is pregnant or not. Which one of the following questions provides the best opportunity to determine if the patient is pregnant?

"When was your last menstrual period?"

Q24 - Which statement made by an EMT shows that he understands the care of a patient with a localized cold injury to the foot?

"While it is best to remove wet clothing from the patient, it is best to leave clothing that is frozen to the skin in place."

Q26- A group of EMT's is preparing to restrain a large and violent patient. Which one of the following instructions given by the team leader is most appropriate?

"You distract him by coming at him from the front and the rest of us will come at him from different directions, each taking a separate limb."

Q25 - A 22 year old male was fishing when he was submerged approximately 30 seconds after he moved into deeper water to untangle his fishing line. He states that he did take some water into his lungs but feels better now and does not see the need to be transported to the hospital. Which one of the following responses is most appropriate?

"You seem okay now, but it may take a day or two for complications to become apparent. You really should be checked out in the hospital."

Q 28 - Which one of the following statements shows an understanding of shock caused by internal bleeding;

"You should always suspect internal bleeding in a patient with the signs and symptoms of shock but no external bleeding.

Q32- Which one of the following statement about removing a helmet in the prehospital setting is true?

"t is acceptable to leave the helmet on a patient if the patient has no airway or breathing problems.

40%

% of patients who have pulmonary embolism

What are signs of adequate breathing?

- Air moving out of the nose and mouth - Equal expansion of both sides of the chest - Absence of blue or gray skin coloration

What are the steps the EMT takes when assisting a patient to use his prescribed inhaler?

- Have the patient exhale deeply first - Have the patient inhale deeply as he presses the inhaler to activate the spray - Make sure the patient is alert enough to use the inhaler properly

As you approach the scene of a traffic collision, you should?

- Look and listen for other emergency vehicles approaching from side streets - Look for clues to escaped hazardous materials - Look for collision victims on or near the road

Principal procedures by which life-threatening respiratory problems are treated are?

- Opening and maintaining the patient's airway - Providing artificial ventilation to the nonbreathing patient - Providing supplemental oxygen to the breathing patient

What are the steps to do when using the jaw-thrust maneuver to open your patient's airway?

- Rest your elbows on the same surface as the patient - Stabilize the patient's head with your forearms - Using your index fingers, push the angles of the lower jaw forward

The FIVE Rights (when administering drugs)

- Right patient - Right medication - Right route - Right expiration date - Right dose - Doctor's orders

When ventilating a patient, you should see?

- The chest rise and fall with each ventilation - A return of the pulse to normal rate - A return of normal skin color

crackles (rhales):

- bubbly or crackling sounds heard during inhalation - It is associated with fluid that has surrounded or filled the alveoli or very small bronchioles

wheezing

- high-pitched, musical whistling sound that is best heard initially on exhalation but may also be heard during inhalation in more severe cases - it is an indication of swelling and constriction of the inner lining of the bronchioles - Treatment: administer a beta agaonist medication by metered-dose inhaler or small-colume nebulizer

rhonchi

- snoring or rattling noises heard upon auscultation. Sound changes with coughing or movement. - it is an indication of obstruction of the larger conducting airways of the respiratory tract by thick secretions of mucus

What are some signs & symptoms of an abdominal injury?

-Contusions, abrasions, lacerations, punctures, or other signs of blunt or penetrating trauma -Pain that may intially be mild, then worsening -Tenderness on palpation to areas other than the site of injury -Rigid Abdominal Muscles -Lying with legs drawn up to chest -Distended abdomen -Discoloration around navel or flank (late finding) -Rapid, shallow breathing

What should you attempt to determine when a motor vehicle collision is involved?

-Type of vehicle -Approx. speed vehicle was traveling (fast, slow, stationary) -Type of collision & point(s) of impact -Whether the patient was the driver, a passenger, or a pedestrian -Where the patient is found & his position -Whether the patient was thrown from the vehicle -Impact marks to the windshield, steering wheel and dashboard -Whether a seat belt was used (If so, try to determine if both the shoulder & lap belts were properly positioned)

What does the abdomen contain that is vitally important if injured?

-vascular solid organs that have a tendency to bleed extensively -hollow organs that contain substances that can be spewed out & cause severe damage or infection -vascular structures that can result in severe hemorrhage & blood loss if injured

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:

. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself.

When obtaining medical history information from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine:

. when the patient last appeared normal.

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the pediatric auto-injector delivers ______ mg.

0.3, 0.15

You have assisted an adult patient with his epinephrine auto-injector. When giving a report to the emergency department nurse, you should inform her that __________ mg of epinephrine was administered?

0.30

Q37 - Assessment of a newborn indicates that she has slow and irregular respirations with a weak cry. You should award her how many points according to the APGAR scoring system?

1

Dosages of activatied charcoal

1 gram per kg of bodyweight Adult: 30 to 100 g Child: 12.5 to 25 g

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least:

1 month.

Toddlers

1 to 3 years of age.

Child

1 year of age to puberty.

What are 5 general guidelines to follow in caring for an evisceration:

1. Expose the wound 2. Position the patient (on his back & flex legs up toward chest) 3. Prepare a clean, sterile dressing (by soaking in saline water) 4. Cover the moist dressing with an occlusive dressing 5. Administer high-concentration oxygen. Be prepared to treat for shock.

What are 9 steps in delivering emergency medical care to the patient with an Abdominal Trauma?

1. Maintain an open airway & appropriate spinal protection. 2. Continue oxygen therapy 3. Reassess the breathing status 4. Treat for hemorrhagic shock 5. Control any external bleeding 6. Position the patient 7. Stabilize an impaled object 8. Apply the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG), if indicated and allowed by local protocol 9. Transport as quickly as possible

vaso-occlusive crisis

1/4 types of sickle cell crises where blood flow to an organ is restricted causing pain, ischemia, and organ damage

aplastic crisis

1/4 types of sickle cell crises where there is a lack of circulating red blood cells

splenic sequestration crisis

1/4 types of sickle cell crises where there is a painful acute enlargement of the spleen

hemolytic crisis

1/4 types of sickle cell crises where there is an acute accelerated drop in a patient's hemoglobin level

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:

10 seconds.

Tachycardia is a pulse rate above what number?

100

Adolescent

12 to 18 years of age.

The normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest is ______ breaths per minute?

12 to 20

Normal Blood Pressure

120/80 (systolic/diastolic)

The EMT-Basic should never suction a patient for longer than ________ seconds at a time?

15

The maximum flow rate recommended in order to achieve high concentration of oxygen when using a non-rebreather mask is?

15 Liters per minute

Prior to the administration of oral glucose, a patient's blood glucose level was 49 mg/dl. After administer the oral glucose, the patient is alert and oriented. Which one of the following repeat blood glucose levels would the EMT expect with this clinical presentation?

155 mg/dl

A hypertensive emergency is defined as a severe, accelerated hypertension episode with a systolic pressure greater than what and/or a diastolic pressure greater than what?

160 systolic and/or a diastolic blood pressure greater than 94

Q37 - Assessment of a newbon indicates that his heart rate is 120 beats per minute. How many points should he be awarded according to the APGAR scoring system?

2

Which one of the following patients has an isolated head injury that should be considered the most serious?

21 year old male wearing a deformed motorcycle helmet who does not respond to verbal or painful stimuli.

Q37 - Which one of the following patients should the EMT be most suspicious of having a spontaneous abortion?

21 year old, six weeks pregnant, passing vaginal blood clots.

Q29 - Which one of the following patients should the EMT recognize assessing suffering from the most critical burn?

22 year old with a partial thickness burn to the right hand.

The usual dose for activated charcoal is up to ______ for a pediatric patient and up to ______ for an adult patient.

25 g, 50 g

For which of the following patients would activated charcoal be indicated?

27 year old who intentionally took a large amount of Tylenol 45 minutes ago.

Q29 - A burn patient has full thickness burns to the fronts of both legs and the entire left arm. The front of the patient's right arm has superficial thickness burns. Using the rule of nines, the EMT should estimate what percentage of the patient's body has been burned?

27%

Where should you listen for breathing sounds?

2nd intercostal midclavicular space, 4th/5th intercostal midaxial

Q37 - The EMT is performing CPR on a neonate. Which one of the following is the correct compression to ventilation ratio?

3 compressions to every 1 ventilation.

amylase, bicarbonate, insulin

3 items produced in the pancreas

Preschool

3 to 6 years of age.

Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first __________ following exposure.

30 minutes

Q26- Which one of the following patient descriptions would the EMT classify assessing a behavioral emergency?

36 year old male with no known history who is hearing voices.

inhalation, ingestion, injection, absorption

4 avenues for a poison to enter the body

-aids in RBC production -serves as blood reservoir -produces antibodies -filters blood

4 roles of the spleen

When a nasal cannula is used, the liters per minute delivered should be no more than?

4 to 6 Liters per minute

-secrets bile that aid in digesting fats -filters toxic substances produced during digestion -creates glucose -produces substances necessary for blood clotting -produces substances necessary for immune function

5 functions of the liver

Oxygen cylinders should be hydrostatically tested every ____ years. If there is a star after the test date on the tank it is good for _____ years?

5 years and 10 years

Bradycardia is a pulse rate below what number?

50

Which one of the following patients should be classified as suffering from status epilepticus?

57 year old female who seized during the entire news program.

School Age

6 to 12 years of age.

Normal Pulse Rate

60-100 beats/minute

What percentage of the effort to breathe is the diaphragm responsible for?

60-70%

A 42 year old patient weights 154 pounds (70 kg). How much activated charcoal would you administer to him?

70 grams

What Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score would you assign to a patient who responds to painful stimuli, uses inappropriate words, and maintains his or her arms in a flexed position?

8

Normal Respiration Rate

8-24 breaths/minute

The normal blood glucose level, as measured by a glucometer, is between:

80 and 120 mg/dL.

Normal Glucose Level

80-120 mg/dL

Q27- Two cars have collided head on. One car was traveling 55 mph and the other 35 mph. The total speed of impact would be:

90 mph.

Normal SpO2 Level

95%

A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage. A) thyroid B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) epiglottic E) vestibular

A

Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) lungs. D) alveoli. E) bronchioles.

A

All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata, except the A) olfactory epithelium. B) medullary chemoreceptors. C) aortic body. D) carotid body. E) All of the answers are correct.

A

Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is: A) inversely proportional to volume of its container. B) always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs. C) directly proportional to temperature. D) inversely proportional to temperature. E) directly proportional to the volume of its container.

A

Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following, except the A) lips. B) nose. C) nasal cavity. D) pharynx. E) paranasal sinuses.

A

Dalton's Law of gases relates to: A) partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases B) temperature and pressure of gases C) solubility of gases D) gas pressure and saturation of hemoglobin E) volume and gas pressure

A

Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in A) a loss of surfactant. B) an increased rate of gas exchange. C) decreased surface tension in the alveoli. D) expansion of alveoli. E) All of the answers are correct.

A

Decompression sickness is a painful condition that develops when a person is exposed to a sudden drop in atmospheric pressure. Bubbles of ________ gas are responsible for the problem. A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) helium E) carbon monoxide

A

During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A) right primary B) left primary C) right secondary D) left secondary E) medial

A

During exercise, which of the following contract for active exhalation: A) rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles C) rectus abdominis and diaphragm muscles D) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles E) pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles

A

If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, A) a person would stop breathing. B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. C) the respiratory minute volume would increase. D) tidal volumes would decrease. E) alveolar ventilation would increase.

A

If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs? A) decreases B) increases and possibly damages the lungs C) increases twice the amount of the increase in volume D) remains constant E) increases

A

Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli. B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood. C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli. D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli. E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases.

A

Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________. A) extrapulmonary bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi B) lobar bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi C) intrapulmonary bronchi; lobar bronchi D) trachea; pharynx E) secondary bronchi; alveolar ducts

A

Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center. A) apneustic B) pneumotaxic C) expiratory D) baroreceptor E) chemoreceptor

A

Pulmonary ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space. D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells. E) utilization of oxygen.

A

Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli. B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and dilate. C) causes the lungs to leak air into the thorax. D) reduces movement of the epiglottis. E) reduces the size of the pleural cavity.

A

Sympathetic input to the smooth muscle tissue in bronchioles causes all of these except A) bronchoconstriction. B) a bigger lumen. C) less airway resistance. D) activation of beta-two receptors. E) relaxation.

A

The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because A) large masses of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing. B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea. C) it facilitates turning of the head. D) the bronchi are also C-shaped. E) it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing.

A

The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems. A) pharynx B) esophagus C) trachea D) windpipe E) right mainstem bronchus

A

The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the A) trachea. B) bronchiole. C) laryngopharynx. D) alveolar duct. E) bronchus.

A

The auditory tubes open into the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) larynx. E) nasal cavity.

A

The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is A) respiratory distress syndrome. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax.

A

The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage. A) thyroid B) cricoid C) cuneiform D) arytenoid E) epiglottic

A

The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum.

A

The number of lobes in the right lung is A) greater than the number of lobes in the left lung. B) less than the number of lobes in the left lung. C) equal to the number of lobes in the left lung.

A

The openings to the nostrils are the A) external nares. B) internal nares. C) vestibules. D) conchae. E) nasal apertures.

A

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greatest in A) venous blood. B) alveolar air. C) expired air. D) inspired air. E) arterial blood.

A

The partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level is A) greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest. B) less than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest. C) equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.

A

The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A) 40 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 50 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg.

A

The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.6 is A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2. B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2. C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2.

A

The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade is A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade. B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade. C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade.

A

The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) surfactant cells.

A

The respiratory mucosa consists of A) epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue. B) dense irregular connective. C) stratified squamous cells. D) fibrocartilage. E) All of the answers are correct.

A

The resulting pain and inflammation when pleural fluid is unable to prevent friction between the opposing pleural surfaces is known as A) pleurisy. B) pulmonary hypertension. C) asthma. D) emphysema. E) COPD.

A

The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________. A) three lobes; two lobes B) two lobes; two lobes C) two lobes; three lobes D) three lobes; three lobes E) four lobes; three lobes

A

What is one atmosphere of pressure? A) 760 mm Hg B) 1000 mm Hg C) 105 mm Hg D) 45 mm Hg E) 650 mm Hg

A

When does oxyhemoglobin form during respiration? A) during external respiration B) immediately after carbon dioxide enters the blood C) when the chloride shift occurs D) during pulmonary ventilation E) during internal respiration

A

When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, A) the volume of the thorax increases. B) the volume of the thorax decreases. C) the volume of the lungs decreases. D) the lungs shrink. E) expiration occurs.

A

When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that A) they are equal. B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric. C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary. D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary. E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric.

A

Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known? A) minute volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) anatomical dead space E) forced vital capacity

A

Which of the following is not true about the pharynx? A) shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems B) nasopharynx is superior C) oropharynx connects to oral cavity D) laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening E) solids, liquids, and gases pass through

A

Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? A) oropharynx B) trachea C) larynx D) bronchi E) alveoli

A

Which of these changes does not occur at birth when an infant takes its first breaths? A) Blood flow to the lungs decreases. B) The resistance in the pulmonary arteries decreases. C) Changes in blood flow cause the foramen ovale to close. D) Air enters the alveoli. E) Gas diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

A

Levels of Consciousness

A - Alert V - unconscious but responds to Verbal commands P - unconscious but responds to Painful stimuli U - Unresponsive

Stoma

A PERMANENT surgically created opening into the body, as with a tracheostomy, colostomy, or ileostomy.

Stillborn

A baby that dies in the uterus several hours, days, or even weeks before birth.

Q37 - The EMT should recognize which one of the following babies as premature?

A baby weighing 7 pound 4 ounces born at 36 weeks.

Left Ventricular Assist Device (LVAD)

A battery-powered mechanical pump implanted in the body to assist a failing left ventricle im pumping blood to the body. "Bridge to transport" for patients awaiting a heart transplant from a suitable donor. Problems include infection, air leakage, and battery failure.

thrombosis

A blood clot, either in the arterial or venous system.

Central IV Catheter

A catheter surgically inserted for long term delivery of medications or fluids into the central circulation. Prevent patients from having to endure multiple needlesticks in their arms.

Q37 - Which one of the following statements about a limb presentation is true?

A cesarean section birth will be required.`

Developmental Disability

A chronic mental and/or physical impairment beginning at any age up to 22 years and causing significant impairment in the person's major life activities. (Cerebral Palsy, Down Syndrome, etc)

Preeclampsia

A complication of pregnancy in which the woman retains large amounts of fluid and has hypertension. She may also experience seizures and/or coma during birth, which is very dangerous to the infant.

hypoglycemia

A condition characterized by a low blood glucose level.

aplastic crisis

A condition in which the body stops producing red blood cells; typically caused by infection.

Placenta Previa

A condition in which the placenta is formed inn an abnormal location (low in the uterus and close to or over the cervical opening) that will not allow for a normal delivery of the fetus; a cause of excessive prebirth bleeding.

Abruptio Placentae

A condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall; a cause of prebirth bleeding.

Obesity

A condition of having too much body fat, defined as a body mass index of 30 or greater.

hemophilia

A congenital abnormality in which the body is unable to produce clots, which results in uncontrollable bleeding.

Q32- Based on the structure of the nervous system, which one of the following is true?

A deep laceration to the arm can sever peripheral nerves.

Autism

A developmental disorder in which the patient has impaired social functioning and communication. The patient may have repetitive or restricted behaviors.

Automatic Implanted Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD)

A device implanted under the skin of the chest to detect any life-threatening dysrhythmia and deliver a shock to defibrillate the heart.

Pacemaker

A device implanted under the skin with wires implanted into the heart to modify the heart rate as needed to maintain an adequate heart rate.

Ventilator

A device that breathes for the patient.

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)

A device worn by a patient that blows oxygen or air under constant low pressure through a tube and mask to keep airway passages from collapsing at the end of a breath. Often prescribed to patients with sleep apnea to help keep airway passages open as the patient sleeps.

Congenital Disease

A disease that is present at birth. May or may not be genetic. Most common birth defect is congenital heart disease.

Acquired Disease

A disease that occurs after birth and may be the result of exposure to a virus or bacteria or the result of another medical condition or trauma. Examples include COPD, AIDS, and traumatic spinal cord injury.

Shunt

A drainage device that runs from the brain to the abdomen to relieve excess cerebrospinal fluid. Reservoirs will be on either side of the skull.

Q25 - Which one of the following rescures would be the most appropriate choice to rescue an injured man clinging to an overturned boat in a shallow lake?

A firefighter wearing personal flotation devices with no medical training but who is a good swimmer and trained in water rescue.

Plane

A flat surface formed when slicing through a solid object

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

A form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available.

Pancreas

A gland located behind the stomach that produces insulin and juices that assist in digestion of food in the duodenum of the small intestine

sickle cell disease

A hereditary disease that causes normal, round red blood cells to become oblong, or sickle shaped.

Epinephrine

A hormone produced by the body; as a medication, it dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reaction

insulin

A hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans (endocrine gland located throughout the pancreas) that enables glucose in the blood to enter cells; used in synthetic form to treat and control diabetes mellitus.

Insulin

A hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by many diabetics

Mons Pubis

A layer of soft tissue that covers and protects the pupic symphysis. Area hair grows as a woman reaches puberty.

Epiglottis

A leaf-shaped structure that prevents food and foreign matter from entering the trachea

B. epiglottis.

A leaf-shaped valve that prevents food and foreign objects from entering the trachea is called the: A. pharynx. B. epiglottis. C. larynx. D. bronchi.

Mid-axillary line

A line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle

Obturator

A long "plug" that is placed inside of a tracheostomy tube to help guide it during insertion and that also prevents material from getting into and clogging the tube during insertion. Removed after the tracheostomy tube is in place.

Body Mass Index (BMI)

A means of calculating whether or not patient is within adequate healthy weight range. Age: 20< : Up to 24.9 BMI is considered healthy, 25 to 29 is considered overweight, 30 and over is considered obese. BMI = Weight / (Height in Inches X Height in Inches) X 703

diabetes mellitus

A metabolic disorder in which the ability to metabolize carbohydrates (sugars) is impaired, usually because of a lack of insulin.

Neonate

A newly born infant or an infant less than 1 month old.

Parasypathetic - define medically

A non-aggressive reaction to bring harmony in the body - e.g. slows the heart rate and eases the force of the heart's contraction.

Exhalation

A passive process in which the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax, causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and air to flow out of the lungs

acidosis

A pathologic condition that results from the accumulation of acids in the body.

Cerebral Palsy

A permanent impairment in motor control, present at birth. Cerebral palsy is not progressive. Movements are characterized by lack of coordination, exaggerated reflexes, and tightness of muscles.

Poverty

A person or family's income is not adequate to allow them a standard of living considered acceptable in society.

An "explosion" may occur if oxygen under pressure comes in contact with?

A petroleum-based adhesive, such as adhesive tape

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct?

A physical examination for a behavioral problem may be difficult to perform but may provide clues to the patient's state of mind and thought processes.

Disability

A physical, emotional, behavioral, or cognitive condition that interferes with a person's ability to carry out everyday tasks, such as working or caring for oneself. Preferrable term in lieu of the term "handicapped".

The EMT would recognize which of the following as true regarding poisoning?

A poison is any substance that impairs a person's health by its chemical action.

Trendelenburg position

A position in which the patient's feet and legs are higher than the head

hemolytic crisis

A rapid destruction of red blood cells that occurs faster than the body's ability to create new cells.

Which one of the following would lead the EMT to suspect that a patient is suffering from hypoglycemia?

A rapid onset of altered mental status.

Ventilator Circuit

A ribbed tube attached to the ventilator that enters the trachea.

Gall bladder

A sac on the underside of the liver that stores bile produced by the liver

APGAR Score

A score that assigns a number value to the neonate's assessment findings; Ranges from 0-2 over 5 categories (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace (Reaction to suctioning or flicking of the feet) , Activity, and Respiratory Effort) totalling 0-10 points.

Which one of the following statements related to the pathophysiology of seizures is correct?

A seizure occurs when there is a massive and uncoordinated electrical discharge in the brain.

Eclampsia

A severe complication of pregnancy that produces seizures and a coma.

Tracheostomy Tube

A short breathing tube and flange.

Q25 - You have been asked to present information on water safety and drowning to a community civil group. In regards to prevention, which one of the following points would you emphasize?

A signficant number of drownings are preventable due to the involvement of alcohol.

Fowler's position

A sitting position

Appendix

A small tube located near the junction of the small and large intestines in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, the function of which is not well understood

Fontanelle

A soft spot on an infant's anterior scalp formbed by the joining of not yet fused bones of the skull. Sunken: may indicate dehydration. Bulging: May indicate elevated intracranial pressure.

Whistle-Tip Catheter

A soft, flexible catheter used to suction tracheostomy or endotracheal tubes.

Which one of the following statements about different musculoskeletal injuries is true?

A sprain is an injury to a joint with possible damage to or tearing of ligaments.

hyperglycemic crisis

A state of unconsciousness resulting from several problems, including ketoacidosis, dehydration because of excessive urination, and hyperglycemia.

Valve

A structure that opens and closes to permit the flow of a fluid in only one direction

Seizures

A sudden change in sensation, behavior, or movement. Most commonly caused by a feven in infants and children.

Tracheostomy

A surgical opening in the neck.

Cardiac conduction system

A system of specialized muscle tissue that conducts electrical impulses that, in turn, stimulate the heart to beat

Aortic dissection defined as...

A tear in the aortic lining and blood enters, causing sharp pain

thrombophilia

A tendency toward the development of blood clots as a result of an abnormality of the system of coagulation.

Capillary

A thin-walled, microscopic blood vessel where the oxygen/carbon dioxide and nutrient/waste exchange with the body's cells takes place

Urinary Catheter

A tube inserted into the bladder through the urethra to drain urine from the bladder. Most commonly seen as indwelling Foley catheters.

Feeding Tube

A tube used to provide delivery of nutrients to the stomach. A nasogastric feeding tube is inserted through the nose and into the stomach; a gastric feeding tube is surgically implanted through the abdominal wall and into the stomach.

Q32- An EMT is rapidly extricating a critically injured patient from a severely damaged vehicle. Which one of the following would the EMT recognize as acceptable given this patient's condition?

A vest-type or other short spine immobilization device can be oitted, but a cervical collar and manual in-line spinal stabilization are still required.

A nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) should always be lubricated before insertion with?

A water-based lubricant

Your patient's level of responsiveness, or medical status, is determined using the letters?

AVPU

List the 2 Vascular Structures that lie partially within the abdominal cavity:

Abdominal Aorta & Inferior Vena Cava

You are called to a residence to assess a child. The parents state that the three year old boy was playing with his brother and "blanked out" and "stared off into space" for a few seconds. They deny any convulsing like movement. Based on the description, the EMT should suspect what type of seizure?

Absence.

Q34- A patient was stabbed in the right anterior chest and is in obvious respiratory distress. As you perform the secondary assessment, which one of the following sings and symptoms would indicate that she is suffering from a tension pneumothorax?

Absent breath sounds on the right, distended neck veins, tracheal deviation to the left.

Physical Abuse

Abuse causing physical damage to the victim.

Activated charcoal: trade name

Actidose

Medical commands has ordered you to adminster activated charcoal to a patient who ingested a large amount of poison. When looking in your medical kit, which of the following medications would you prepare and administer?

Actidose.

Q25 - When one of the following statements about drowing is true?

Acutal drownings are responsible for only a small number of water related deaths.

A diabetic patient presents as alert but irritable and confused. His airway is patent with an intact gag reflex and breathing is adequate. You do not have a glucometer available and are not sure if his blood sugar is high or low. In this situation, which one of the following should be your next best action?

Administer oral glucose.

Q 28 - You have been dispatched for a patient whose arm was caught in a grinding machine. Assessment reveals a deformed arm covered with a bloody towel. The patient is alert and anxious, and has a patent airway. His breathing is adequate. Radial pulse is fast but strong. Which one of hte following should you do next?

Administer oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient?

Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

Q29 - You have arrived on the scene of a large structure fire. Emergency Medical Responders are by the side of a patient who is responsive to verbal stimuli and has suffered significant burns to his body. They report that the patient fell down a flight of stairs while trying to escape and was entrapped for several minutes. Their assessment findings include partial and full thickness burns to his right arm, right leg, and right side of the face. The EMRs also report that the patient's unburned skin is cool, clammy, and pale with delayed capillary refill. His pulse is 144, respirations are 22 and blood pressure is 88/50 mmHg. Which one of the following instructions would be most appropriate?

After reassessing the ABC's, let's do a secondary assessment and look for signs of injuries that are causing shock."

Third Stage of Labor

After the baby is born; lasts until the afterbirth is delivered.

Q37 - At what point in the delivery process should the EMT first suction the baby?

After the head is delivered, but before the torso is out of the vaginal opening.

What is a major concern if a patient drank acid?

Airway *don't enduce vomiting

Q29 - A 51 year-old male was burned in the face after a steam valve was accidentally opened. His face is red and swollen, and he is screaming in pain. He also states that he is having a hard time seeing. Which one of the following is the EMT's priority concern in caring for this patient?

Airway compromise.

Q 28 - Which one of the following assessment findings indicates that a patient, who has suffered blood loss after being shot, is in an early stage of shock?

Alert and anxious, pulse 96, BP 134/88 mmHg, pale and cool skin.

C. abdominal.

All of the following are body systems except: A. respiratory. B. cardiovascular. C. abdominal. D. musculoskeletal.

You are caring for a postictal patient who has a history of seizures. He is confused and cannot remember his eight year old son's name. His son tearfully asks you if his father will ever remember him. Which one of the following responses would be most appropriate?

Although he is confused now, he should remember your name in a little bit.

The small sacs within the lungs where gas exchange takes place with the bloodstream are called the?

Alveoli

Explain oxygenated blood pumping

Alveoli gives blood O2 > pulmonary veins > L atrium > bicuspid valve > L ventricle > aortic semi-lunar valve > aorta > body cells and organs

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Alzheimer's disease.

Meconium Staining

Amniotic fluid that is greenish or brownish-yellow rather than clear as a result of fetal defecation; an indication of possible maternal or fetal distress during labor.

Escalation/Meltdown

An INVOLUNTARY increase in tantrum-like behaviors that include screaming, swearing, causing physical damage, etc. Occurs in patients with ASD.

hyperglycemia

An abnormally high glucose level in the blood.

Inhalation

An active process in which the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm contract, expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs

splenic sequestration crisis

An acute, painful enlargement of the spleen caused by sickle cell disease.

Sympathetic - define medically

An aggressive reaction to bring harmony in the body - e.g. accelerating the heartbeat, dilating the bronchi, inhibiting the smooth muscles of the digestive tract, etc.

Ostomy Bag

An external pouch that collects fecal matter diverted from the colon or ileum through a surgical opening (colostomy or ileostomy) in the abdominal.

Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter (PICC) Line

An external tube slightly larger than IV tubing is inserted into a peripheral vein, then threaded into the central circulation. Often found inserted into the patient's arm.

Fever

An illness usually accompanied by infections. Above-normal body temperature is one of the most important signs of an existing acute illness.

Midline

An imaginary line drawn down the center of the body, dividing it into right and left halves

Unison - define

An impelling force; an impetus. Also, the motion produced by such a force.

C. cervical

An injury to the spinal cord at the _____ level may be fatal because control of the muscles of breathing arise from the spinal cord at this level. A. lumbar B. sacral C. cervical D. thoracic

C. stomach.

An organ containing acidic gastric juices that begin the breakdown of food into components that the body will be able to convert to energy is the: A. large intestine. B. small intestine. C. stomach. D. liver.

Spleen

An organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen that acts as a blood filtration system and a reservoir for reserves of blood

What is the most severe form of an allergic reaction called?

Anaphylaxix.

Artery

Any blood vessel carrying blood away from the heart

Vein

Any blood vessel returning blood to the heart

Premature Infant

Any newborn weighing less than 5 1/2 pounds or born before the 37th week of pregnancy.

This occurs when a weakened section of the aortic wall begins to dilate or balloon outward form the pressure exerted by the blood flowing through the vesse.

Aortic aneurysm

This occurs when there is a tear in the inner lining of the aorta and blood enters the opening and causes separation of the layers of the aortic wall.

Aortic dissection

Q32- You have been called for an 87 year-old-male who fell in his kitchen while making breakfast. He states that he did hit his forehead but managed to catch himself on the way down and did not hit the ground hard. Your assessment reveals him to have kyphosis of the thoracic and cervical spine, but does not reveal any neurological deficits. Which one of the following is appropriate in the care of this patient?

Apply a rigid collar and prepare the patient for any discomfort that the collar may cause.

Q 28 - Direct pressure has failed to control an arterial bleed on a patient's leg. Which one of the following should the EMT do next?

Apply a tourniquet.

You arrive at a meat packing plant to find a 30 year old male cut in the wrist with a sharp knife. The patient appears pale and blood is spurting from the laceration. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Apply direct pressure to the laceration.

Q24 - You have been in charge of creating a protocol that will direct care provided by EMS. In regards to a drowning patient who is severely hypothermic and in cardiac arrest, what would you propose?

Apply the AED and shock only once if indicated.

A condition that causes the smallest of arterial structures to become stiff and less elastic.

Arteriosclerosis

Radial artery

Artery of the lower arm; it is felt when taking the pulse at the wrist

Brachial artery

Artery of the upper arm; the site of the pulse checked during infant CPR

Posterior tibial artery

Artery supplying the foot, behind the medial ankle

Dorsalis pedis artery

Artery supplying the foot, lateral to the large tendon of the big toe

The EMT accurately understands alcoholism when he states:

Aside from the excessive amounts of alcohol, most of the health deterioration that accompanies alcoholism comes from malnutrition.

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation?

Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan.

A 17 year old patient is unresponsive. A medical identification bracelet states that he is diabetic. Which of the following actions should be your first in the care of this patient.

Assess the airway.

After lengthy response, you arrive at a home in which a 62 year old female is still seizing. Which one of the following should you do first?

Assess the patient's airway and breathing.

Q29 - Firefighters have pulled a middle age male from a burning bedroom. The patient is unresponsive and has obvious deformity to his left ankle. His respirations are rapid, stridorous and shallow. Your partner inserts an oropharyngeal airway and begins ventilating the patient with a bag valve mask. Which one of the following actions would you perform next?

Assess the patient's carotid pulse.

Q 28 - Assessment findings of a driver who was ejected from his vehicle in a rollover type collision include unresponsiveness and bruising to the abdominal and pelvic areas along with an open femur fracture. The patient has an open airway and is breathing at 32 times per minute. The skin is cool and clammy and the radial pulses are weak. Manual in line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which one of the following is the EMT's initial intervention?

Assist respirations.

What conditions are associated with wheezing?

Asthma, emphysema, bronchitis

This is an inflammatory disease that starts with the intimal lining of the blood vessesl where edothelial cells become damaged.

Atherosclerosis

This is the number one killer worldwide, in economically developed countries.

Atherosclerosis

This pacemaker site only activates if the Sinoatrial site fails.

Atrioventricular Node - AV node

If the heart's activity needs to be modified assistance is provided by what?

Autonomic Nervous System

Inferior

Away from the head; usually compared with another structure that is closer to the head

A 10-percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will A) decrease the rate of breathing. B) increase the rate of breathing. C) decrease pulmonary ventilation. D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate. E) decrease the vital capacity.

B

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere. B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere. C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere. D) greater than intraalveolar pressure. E) less than intrapulmonic pressure.

B

Alveolar ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli. C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.

B

Asthma is A) a collapsed lung. B) an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways. C) an obstructive tumor. D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

B

Breathing that involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements is called A) eupnea. B) hyperpnea. C) diaphragmatic breathing. D) costal breathing. E) shallow breathing.

B

Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can A) move the cricoid cartilage. B) close the glottis. C) constrict the trachea. D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus. E) assist in breathing during exercise.

B

During quiet breathing, A) only the internal intercostal muscles contract. B) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive. C) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions. D) inspiration and expiration are both passive. E) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.

B

Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen. A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50 E) 75

B

External respiration involves the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood. C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid. D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin. E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.

B

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high is A) greater than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. B) less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low. C) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.

B

Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following, except A) cortical association areas. B) the precentral motor gyrus. C) the limbic system. D) the hypothalamus. E) Broca's center.

B

Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of A) external respiration. B) internal respiration. C) carbon dioxide transport. D) hemoglobin synthesis. E) acid-base balance.

B

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is A) dissolved in plasma. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma. D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide. E) carried by white blood cells.

B

Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________. A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing B) eupnea; costal breathing C) costal breathing; eupnea D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea

B

Secondary bronchi supply air to the A) lungs. B) lobes of the lungs. C) lobules of the lungs. D) alveoli. E) alveolar ducts.

B

Severing the sensory fibers from the lungs would result in all of the following, except A) less inhibition of the inspiratory center during forced breathing. B) a drop in tidal volume. C) potential damage to the lungs due to overinflation. D) a disappearance of the Hering-Breuer reflexes. E) less stimulation of the expiratory center during forced breathing.

B

Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in A) increased respiratory rate. B) more intense inhalation. C) a shorter respiratory cycle. D) less activity in the DRG center. E) decreased vital capacity.

B

The apneustic centers of the pons A) inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers. B) provide stimulation to the inspiratory center. C) monitor blood gas levels. D) alter chemoreceptor sensitivity. E) generate the gasp reflex.

B

The chloride shift occurs in order to A) force oxygen out of the blood and into tissues. B) transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma. C) produce salt for the cytosol of blood cells. D) produce carbonic acid. E) pump hydrochloric acid out of gastric cells.

B

The interlobular septa divide the lungs into A) lobes. B) pulmonary lobules. C) alveolar sacs. D) vital capacity and residual volume. E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae.

B

The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) internal respiratory tract. D) alveoli of the respiratory tract. E) respiratory mucosa.

B

The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A) oxygen. B) carbon dioxide. C) bicarbonate ion. D) sodium ion. E) hemoglobin.

B

The most superior portion of the lung is termed the A) base. B) apex. C) cardiac notch. D) hilus. E) epipleurium.

B

The nasopharynx is divided from the rest of the pharynx by the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum.

B

The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) larynx. E) nasal cavity.

B

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A) 35 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 55 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg.

B

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately A) 40 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 50 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg.

B

The placement of a tube directly into the trachea to bypass the larynx is termed a(n) A) intubation. B) tracheostomy. C) tunnelization. D) trachectomy. E) catheterization.

B

The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the A) nasopharynx. B) vestibule. C) internal chamber. D) conchae. E) nasal septum.

B

The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) aeropharynx. E) internal pharynx.

B

The term hypercapnia refers to A) the cessation of breathing. B) elevated PCO2. C) elevated PO2. D) an increase in pH. E) labored breathing.

B

The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is A) mm Hg. B) torr. C) cm H2O. D) psi. E) centigrade.

B

Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is A) low pitched and loud. B) high pitched and loud. C) low pitched and soft. D) high pitched and soft. E) medium pitched and soft.

B

What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg? A) hyperventilation B) exhalation C) pause in breathing D) apnea E) inhalation

B

Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A) decreased temperature B) decreased pH C) increased tissue PO2 D) decreased amounts of DPG E) All of the answers are correct.

B

Which respiratory organ(s) has a cardiac notch? A) right lung B) left lung C) right primary bronchus D) left primary bronchus E) both the right and the left lungs

B

________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles too. A) Eupnea B) Forced breathing C) Costal breathing D) Vital breathing E) Passive breathing

B

The heart's electrical impulse travels through both right and left atria by way of what?

Bachmann Bundle

Q 28 - Which one of the following statements about dressings and bandage is true?

Bandages should not be applied until bleeding is controlled.

Symptoms of emphysema

Barrel chest, coughing, long exhale, wheezing/rhonchi, pursed lips, pink complexion tachypnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, tripod position, home O2

Reverse Triage

Because of nature of lightning strike - focus efforts on those in respiratory or cardiac arrest (though would normally be classified as dead)

Your patient is a 40 year-old-male who fell 20 feet from a ledge while hiking. The park ranger who found him is maintaining cervical spine stabilization. The patient is combative and confused, but the airway is open and breathing is adequate. The patient has a radial pulse of 112 and a blood pressure of 96/76. Which one of the following should you do first?

Begin administering oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

Lower Airway

Begins at the opening of the trachea and ends at the alveoli. Common disorders affect the large and small bronchiole tubes and the alveoli themselves. Common disorders include asthma, pneumonia, and other respiratory infections. Typically cause difficulty breathing/wheezing lung sounds.

____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment.

Behavior

Infant

Birth to 1 year of age.

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct?

Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.

Q35-you have been called for a 42-year-old-male complaining of back pain. On scene the man tells you that he was lying on the floor when his five year old son suddenly jumped onto his back, feet first. He states a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma, for which he takes medications. As you assess the patient, which one of the following signs or symptoms provides the greatest indication that the patient has sustained an abdominal injury?

Blood in his urine.

Q33-What is hyphema.

Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

Q 28 - Your patient sustained blunt trauma to the chest in a MVA, and you suspect shock. While conducting the reassessment, which one of the following findings best indicates that the patient is deteriorating?

Blood pressure 86/50 mmHg.

Which one of the following assessment findings is most indicative of increasing pressure within the skull of a closed-head injury?

Blood pressure of 192/106 mmHg.

Q 28 - A patient has fallen and suffers a contusion to her arm. Which one of the following statements about contusions is true?

Blood vessels in the dermal layer have ruptured.

Coronary arteries

Blood vessels that supply the muscle of the heart

On scene a paramedic directs you to help another EMS crew with a patient who was hit by a passenger van that ran into a crowd. As you approach the patient, which one of the following scene size-up clues seemingly indicates the patient is suffering from traumatic asphyxia?

Bluish discoloration to the neck and face.

A. humerus and radius.

Bones in the upper extremities include the: A. humerus and radius. B. humerus and calcaneus. C. phalanges and tibia. D. ulna and cervical.

Q37 - Which one of the following shows that the EMT is correctly performing a uterine massage?

Both hands cup the uterus, with one of the hands positioned just above the symphysis pubis.

An example of a portable pressure gauge that is calibrated to show liters per minute would be a?

Bourdon gauge flowmeter

A patient was killed immediately following a self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head. Which portion of the central nervous system was most likely damaged in order to cause the rapid death of the patient?

Brainstem

Q37 - You are delivering a baby in the patient's house. As the baby's head appears at the vaginal opening, you notice that the amniotic membrane is still intact. Which one of the following should you do next?

Break open the amniotic sac with your fingers.

Your unit is on the scene and has begun to evaluate an elderly male patient. A family member brings you bottles of Albuterol, Ventolin, and Proventil, which are names of prescribed medications your patient may have to treat?

Breathing difficulty

What conditions are associated with rhonchi?

Bronchitis, emphysema, aspiration, pneumonia

What is the primary thing that happens in an allergic reaction?

Bronchoconstriction Vasodilation Capillary permeability

Which one of the following findings is most consistent with basilar skull fracture?

Bruising behind the ear, which develops several hours after the injury.

Q29 - You have been called for a patient who had a large bag of lime powder tear as he was unloading it from a truck. On arrival you notice that the patient is wearing shorts and has lime dust covering both lower legs. He is complaining of leg pain from the chemical powder. Which one of the following should the EMT's next immediate action?

Brush as much of the lime off his legs as possible.

CHF defined as..

Build up of congestion from pump failure: R = low/normal BP, clear breaths, JVD, edema L = normal/high BP, inspiratory rales, no JVD or edema

A band of cardiac muscle fibers that originates in the atrioventricular node and passes through the atrioventricular junction and carries the electrial impulse from the atria and, by connecting to the Purkinje fibers, to the ventricles.

Bundle of His

The electrical impulse travels from the AV node to the ventricles first via -------------- then via the right and left what?

Bundle of His / right and left bundle branches

A SCUBA diver has been deep underwater and suddenly rises to the surface too fast. Why does the diver get decompression sickness? A) Pressure decreases and carbon dioxide rushes into cells. B) Pressure changes too fast and the carbon dioxide in the blood forms bubbles. C) Pressure decreases too fast and nitrogen gas in the blood forms bubbles. D) The gas in the SCUBA tank had too much pressure and rapid ascent forces too much air into the blood. E) Pressure increases too fast and too much oxygen enters the blood and forms bubbles.

C

A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle. B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle. C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall. D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung. E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function.

C

Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces A) speech. B) articulation. C) phonation. D) whistling. E) ululation.

C

An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as A) laryngitis. B) laryngospasm. C) acute epiglottitis. D) strep throat. E) acute pharyngitis.

C

Carbon dioxide and water combine to form A) hydrochloric acid. B) oxygen. C) carbonic acid. D) carbaminohemoglobin. E) nitric acid.

C

Damage to the phrenic nerves would A) increase respiratory rate. B) increase the tidal volume. C) force reliance on costal breathing. D) result in greater pressure differences between the lungs and the outside air. E) have little effect on ventilation.

C

Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle. A) scalene B) diaphragm C) internal intercostal D) external intercostal E) serratus anterior

C

Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from A) genetic mutation in cilia production. B) laryngospasm. C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport. D) lack of neural control of respiration. E) excessive mucus secretions in the trachea.

C

Henry's law states that A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

C

In quiet breathing, A) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions. B) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions. C) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive. D) inspiration and expiration are both passive. E) inspiration is deep and forceful.

C

Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because A) less resistance to flow. B) it combines olfaction with respiration. C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air. D) bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity. E) it dries out the mouth.

C

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as A) solute dissolved in the plasma. B) carbaminohemoglobin. C) bicarbonate ions. D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells. E) carbonic acid.

C

Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each tertiary bronchus. A) 1500 B) 3000 C) 6500 D) 10,000 E) 100,000

C

The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. A) nasopharynx B) trachea C) oropharynx D) larynx E) nasal cavity

C

The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages. A) 1.0 cm; 15-20 B) 1.0 cm; 10-15 C) 2.5 cm; 15-20 D) 2.5 cm; 40-50 E) 4.5 cm; 60-80

C

The function of pulmonary ventilation is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood. B) supply oxygen to the blood. C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation. D) remove air from dead air space. E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles.

C

The glottis is A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate. B) a flap of elastic cartilage. C) the opening to the larynx. D) the opening to the pharynx. E) part of the hard palate.

C

The larynx contains ________ cartilages. A) 14 B) 6 C) 9 D) 2 E) 5

C

The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway. A) conducting B) exchange C) respiratory D) sinus E) primary

C

The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center. A) apneustic B) pneumotaxic C) inspiratory D) expiratory E) ventral respiratory

C

The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called A) asthma. B) bronchitis. C) emphysema. D) tuberculosis. E) pneumonia.

C

The pneumotaxic center of the pons A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern. B) prolongs inspiration. C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing. D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla. E) stimulates the dorsal respiratory group.

C

The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is A) pulmonary ventilation. B) external respiration. C) internal respiration. D) cellular respiration. E) breathing.

C

The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) surfactant cells.

C

The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intrapleural space. A) pleurisy B) pneumonia C) pneumothorax D) pulmonary edema E) emphysema

C

The vocal folds are located within the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) larynx. D) trachea. E) bronchi.

C

Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium A) Clostridium difficile. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus. E) Tuberculin plumonae.

C

Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content when it leaves the lungs. A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 75 percent D) 90 percent E) 100 percent

C

Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa? A) humidify the incoming air B) dehumidify the outgoing air C) dehumidify the incoming air D) trap particulate matter E) cool outgoing air

C

Which of these age-based changes is false? A) The lungs lose elastic tissue. B) The lung's compliance changes. C) Vital capacity increases. D) Respiratory muscles weaken. E) Costal cartilages become more flexible.

C

Which of these descriptions best matches the term external intercostal? A) accessory muscle of expiration B) accessory muscle of inspiration C) primary muscle of inspiration D) contraction increases airway resistance E) affects lung compliance

C

While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe probably is suffering from A) a collapsed trachea. B) an obstruction in the bronchi. C) a pneumothorax. D) decreased surfactant production. E) a bruised diaphragm.

C

________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume. A) Residual inhaled volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Enhanced tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity

C

________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent. A) MRSA B) Congestive heart failure C) Cystic fibrosis D) Myasthenia gravis E) Parkinson's disease

C

When treating an anaphylactic or poisoned patient, always first consider...

C-Spine

Primary concern for a possible poisoning patient

C-spine consideration A, B, C's

Q24 - You are called to a construction site on a hot and humid day for a male patient suffering a heat emergency. On scene you find a 49 year old man who is responsive to verbal stimuli. Coworkers state that the patient has been moving concrete blocks all day in the hot weather and has not rested, eaten, or had anything to drink in the past two hours. After conducting the primary assessment, you note his airway to be open and breathing rapid but adequate. His radial pulse is rapid and bounding, and his skin is hot and dry. Which one of the following signs makes this patient a priority for immediate and rapid transport?

C. Hot and dry skin.

opioids

CNS depressants that can cause severe respiratory depression

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and many undetermined respiratory illnesses are classified as?

COPD or chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases

Q25 - Torrential rains have been falling over the past few days and your service area is experiencing major flooding. While returning to the disaster command post, you are flagged down by a group of people who inform you that a woman is clinging to a tree in the middle of a rapidly moving and swollen stream. She is screaming for help and states that she does not know how much longer she can hang on. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Call for a water rescue team and boat.

Q34-An unrestrained female driver hit a utility pole at a moderate rate of speed and struck the steering wheel with her chest. Her airway is open, and she states that it is painful to breath. Her pulse is moderate in strength and irregular. Breath sounds are equal bilaterally, and there is no jugular venous distention noted. Assessment of her chest reveals bruising and instability to the sternum. When asked, she denies any past medical history. Based on this mechanism and assessment findings, the EMT should be suspicous for what condition?

Cardiac contusion.

Asystole

Cardiac standstill that spontaneously resolves - moderate lightning strike

Epiglottitis

Caused by a bacterial infection that produces swelling of the epiglottis and partial airway obstruction. Should be suspected in any child with stridor.

Croup

Caused by a group of viral illnesses that result in inflammation of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi. Tissues in the airway (typically upper airway) become swollen and restrict the passage of air. Commonly seen in children 6 months to 4 years old.

Q27- A bullet fired from a gun at close range passes through the patient's liver. However, on autopsy, the coroner discovers that the man's pancreas, stomach, and gall bladder were also injured, even though not in direct contact with the bullet. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that which of the following is responsible for injury to these additional organs?

Cavitation.

Q32- Which one of the following is the most commonly injured area of the spinal cord?

Cervical spine.

You are in the process of a field delivery and have just delivered the baby's head. Which one of the following should you do next?

Check the neck for the umbilical cord.

Q29 - Your patient is a diabetic male who spilled a pot of hot water on himself while he was cooking. He has a superficial burn of the right anterior leg. He is awake but confused, with pale, moist, cool skin. Following the primary assessment, which one of the following actions is the highest priority?

Check the patient's blood glucose level.

You are suspicious that an unhelmeted male patient who was ejected from a motorcycle may have a basilar skull fracture. As you conduct your secondary assessment, which one of the following findings reinforces this suspicion?

Clear fluid coming from the right ear and left nostril.

You become anxious when you see a patient that just doesn't look right. This sixth sense based on experience observing patients is called?

Clinical judgment

Q34-Which one of the following statements made by an EMT shows an understanding of chest trauma?

Closed chest injuries are caused by blunt trauma, and can be just as serious as open chest injuries.

Proximal

Closer to the torso

Myocardial infarction defined as...

Clot preventing perfusion

Q32- Assessment of a 7 year old girl who was hit while riding her bike reveals her to be responsive to painful stimuli with flexion of the extremities and in respiratory distress. There is marked deformity to her thoracic spine and bruising noted to her anterior chest and abdomen. She does not move her legs when noxious stimuli is applied to the lower extremities. Manual in-line stabilization is being held and a cervical collar has been applied. Given the critical nature of this patient, which one of the following is most appropratie fro her care?

Complete immobilization to the long board on scene prior to rapid transport to the hospital.

Q32- An elderly patient has fallen down a flight of stairs and is complaining of neck and back pain as well as weakness to both legs. The primary assessment reveals no life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. Manual in-line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which one of the following should the EMT do next?

Complete the secondary assessment looking for injuries.

Red blood cells

Components of the blood that carry oxygen to and carbon dioxide away from the cells

Platelets

Components of the blood; membrane-enclosed fragments of specialized cells; aid in clotting

White blood cells

Components of the blood; they produce substances that help the body fight infection

Q32- A young intoxicated male patient cannot move his left and leg after diving into the shallow end of a pool and hitting the bottom head first. The EMT should recognize which one of hte following mechanisms as most likely to be responsive for this injury?

Compression.

A male soccer player was struck in the head with a soccer ball. Players state that he was dazed for several seconds following the impact and then asked the same questions over and over. Presently, he is conscious and oriented to person, but confused to place and time. He also has reddened area to the side of his head and face. As you proceed with your assessment, his memory continues to improve. Based on these findings, the EMT should suspect which one of the following injuries?

Concussion.

When the heart becomes irritable from the lack of oxygen what can happen?

Conduction cells may begin to "fire off" impulses on their own

To which one of the following patients would the EMT administer oral glucose?

Confused 44 year old male with a history of diabetes who is able to swallow.

For which patient would the EMT have the strongest suspicion of a diabetic emergency?

Confused patient with a blood glucose of 58 mg/dl

A patient involved in an altercation has been struck at the side of the head with a baseball bat, in addition to suffering several blows to the arms and legs. When assessing this patient, which one of the following signs and symptoms BEST indicates the patient has suffered a brain injury?

Confusion and combativeness.

You have been called for a 3 year old boy who has possibly ingested the leaves of a household plants. His mother states that she found him eating the leaves, then immediately called 911. You note that the plant has been overturned and is missing a considerable number of leaves. Assessment reveals the boy to be lethargic and confused and complaining of abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. His airway is patent and his respirations are adequate. Which assessment finding would be most suggestive that the plant leaves have been absorbed into the body?

Confusion and lethargy.

Alcoholic syndrome

Consists of problem drinking and true addiction Abstinece from drinking causes physical withdrawal symptoms

Q29 - You are assessing a patient who was burned when she dropped a hot iron on her bare foot. Her foot is red and has a small partial thickness burn near the ankle. When completing the pre-hospital care report, what cause should you document?

Contact burn.

Q26- An alert and oriented 18 year-old female has threatened to hurt herself, but is refusing transport to the hospital. She is calm and states that she knows her rights and taking her would constitute false imprisonment. Her family is present and wants her to go to the hospital for help. Given the situation and the patient's threat, what is your best course of action?

Contact law enformcement for assistance.

Five minutes after assisting a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector, you determine the patient to be getting progressively worse. The patient has a second auto-injector available; however, written protocols do not address the administration of a second dose. Which one of the following should be your next best action?

Contact medical direction for further orders.

When ventilating a patient, the airway is swelling and you feel resistance. What should you do?

Continue to ventilate with PPV

These cells are also called the "working cells" of the heart.

Contractile cells

Imminent Childbirth Indications

Contractions last 30 seconds to 1 minutes and are 2-3 minutes apart, amniotic sac breaks ("water breaking" or "rupture of the membranes")

Q29 - A patient has suffered partial and full thickness thermal burns to the anterior chest, abdomen, and arms in an industrial accident. Which one of the following would be appropriate in the care of this patient?

Cool the burns with water for 90 seconds and cover the burns with a sterile, dry burn sheet.

Q29 - You are assessing an elderly patient who was entrapped in a burning trailer. Which one of the following findings would be most indicative of a patient suffering an inhalation injury?

Coughing of black sputum.

Q35-You have been called for a male patient who has been shot. Assessment reveals an entrance wound to the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. You also locate an exit wound to the left upper back. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Cover the exit wound with a gloved hand.

patient was struck in the right upper arm with a baseball bat. Which one of the following signs or symptoms indicates the highest probability that the humerus has been fractured?

Crepitus felt on palpation.

A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the A) intrinsic ligaments. B) extrinsic ligaments. C) ventricular folds. D) vocal folds. E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.

D

About 70% of carbon dioxide is transported in deoxygenated blood A) as dissolved CO2 in the blood plasma. B) as bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells. C) combined with hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin. D) as bicarbonate ions in the blood plasma. E) as carbonic acid in the red blood cells.

D

All of the following are present prior to birth, except that the A) pulmonary arterial resistance is high. B) pulmonary vessels are collapsed. C) rib cage is compressed. D) alveoli are expanded. E) lungs and airways contain only a small amount of fluid.

D

As an astronaut is lifted into Earth's orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin pressure? A) increased hematocrit B) renal hypoxia C) increased alveolar ventilation rate D) decreased alveolar PO2 E) decreased hemoglobin saturation

D

Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot or similar obstruction is A) emphysema. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax.

D

Dalton's law states that A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

D

Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration, except the A) PO2 of the alveoli. B) PCO2 of the blood. C) thickness of the respiratory membrane. D) diameter of an alveolus. E) solubility of oxygen in plasma.

D

Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following, except A) filtering the air. B) warming the air. C) humidifying the air. D) acting as a damping chamber when coughing. E) acting as a resonating chamber in speech.

D

Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the A) movement of the arytenoid cartilages. B) extrinsic ligaments. C) contraction of laryngeal muscles. D) movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles. E) extrinsic and intrinsic ligaments.

D

The Hering-Breuer reflex A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure. B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes. C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes. D) protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation. E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.

D

The ________ branch from the trachea at the carina. A) terminal bronchioles B) secondary bronchi C) tertiary bronchi D) primary bronchi E) alveolar ducts

D

The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are A) bronchioles. B) terminal bronchioles. C) pleural spaces. D) alveoli. E) interlobular septa.

D

The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the A) larynx. B) glottis. C) vestibule. D) pharynx. E) trachea.

D

The conchae A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. B) provide an opening into the pharynx. C) provide a surface for the sense of smell. D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus. E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses.

D

The laryngeal cartilage not composed of hyaline cartilage is the A) arytenoid. B) corniculate. C) cricoid. D) epiglottis. E) thyroid.

D

The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages. A) cricothyroid B) innominate C) cuneiform D) corniculate E) arytenoid

D

The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage. A) epiglottis B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) cricoid E) arytenoid

D

The thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by the A) intrinsic ligaments. B) extrinsic ligaments. C) vestibular folds. D) cricothyroid ligament. E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.

D

Which direction does carbon dioxide move during internal respiration? A) from the blood into the tissue cells B) from the blood into the lungs C) from the lungs into the atmosphere D) from the tissue cells into the blood E) from the lungs into the blood

D

Which of these descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle? A) accessory muscle of expiration B) accessory muscle of inspiration C) primary muscle of inspiration D) contraction increases airway resistance E) affects lung compliance

D

________ = respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space). A) Vital capacity B) Respiratory minute volume C) Pulmonary ventilation rate D) Alveolar ventilation rate E) External respiration rate

D

________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle. A) Residual volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity

D

When setting up a portable oxygen kit, the EMT-Basic would most likely use a(n) ______ cylinder, regulator, and delivery device?

D Cylinder

Explain de-oxygenated blood pumping

De-O2 blood from venae cava > R atrium > tricuspid valve > R ventricle > pulmonic semilunar valve > pulmonary arteries > lungs

Q27- A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision is complaining of neck pain. Which of the following pieces of information should cause the EMT to have a high index of suspicion that the patient may have suffered more significant injuries beyond the complaint of neck pain?

Death of the car's driver.

Hypoxemia

Decrease in O2 in blood stream

Q 28 - You suspect that a patient involved in a MVA is in shock. As a knowledgeable EMT, you know that which one of the following signs and symptoms of shock will be observed last?

Decreased blood pressure.

Q34-You have been called to a New Year's party for a male patient who was stabbed in the anterior chest. According to partygoers, the patient went outside with another male and was stabbed. Fifteen minutes later, he was found in the snow and 911 was called. When assessing the patient, which finding should the EMT consider most serious and warrant immediate attention?

Decreased breath sounds to the left chest.

Q34-When assessing a patient, which one of the following signs or symptoms is most indicative of the patient suffering from pneumothorax?

Decreased breath sounds to the right lung.

On scene you assisted a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector after he was stung multiple times by bees. You are now transporting the patient to the hospital. As you reassess the patient, which one of the following signs would best indicate that the epinephrine is benefiting the patient?

Decreased wheezing.

A patient fell and sustained an open fracture to the left humerus. However, assessment reveals the bone to have pulled back into the arm. Bleeding from the site is controlled. How will splinting the left arm benefit this patient?

Decreases the opportunity for further injury to nerves and blood vessels.

Kussmaul respirations

Deep, rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body.

Which one of the following assessment findings would contraindicate the use of the traction splint?

Deformity to the hip.

Stage 4 of withdrawal

Delerium Tremens (DT): Occurs within 2 to 5 days Single episode: lasts 1 to 3 days Multiple episodes: can last up to a month

This is the first component of electrical activity in which electrical charges of the heart muscle change from positive to negative and cause heart muscle contraction.

Depolarization

Emphysema defined as...

Destruction of alveolar walls/swelling of alveoli

Q24 - When cooling a patient with possible heat stroke, which one of the following would be of most concern to the EMT?

Determining that the patient is shivering after having cold packs applied to the neck.

Autism Spectrum Disorders (ASD)

Developmental disorders that affect, among other things, the ability to communicate, report medical conditions, self-regulate behaviors, and interact with others. Use ABCS when dealing with patients with autism (Awareness, Basic, Calm, and Safety)

Which of the following statements regarding diabetic coma is correct?

Diabetic coma typically develops over a period of hours or days.

Family members have called you for a young female patient with a diabetic history who took insulin earlier in the day. She is confused and combative. Which one of the following questions is most important for the EMT to immediately ask the family?

Did she eat after taking the insulin?

Respiratory distress

Difficulty breathing, but good Vt and RR

Q26- You are by the side of a young male patient with a history of behavior problems. Friends called 911 after the patient experienced several violent outbursts this evening. Which one of the following findings would cause the EMT to suspect a physical cause for this behavior, as opposed to a behavioral one?

Dilated pupils that are sluggish to react.

Why would the patient experiencing an allergic reaction tell you that it is easier to breathe following administration of epinephrine?

Dilation of the bronchioles.

Q37 - Which one of the following lists the stages of labor in the order in which they occur?

Dilation, expulsion, and placental.

Supine Hypotensive Syndrome

Dizziness and a drop in blood pressure caused when the mother is in a supine position and the weight of the uterus, infant, placenta, and amniotic fluid compress the inferior vena cava, reducing return of blood to the heart and cardiac output.

Snake bites

Do not apply ice - quiet patient, clean gently, splint extremity to decrease movement,vital signs, oxygen if needed, transport promptly. nothing by mouth.

A patient who is severely short of breath and covered with hives states that she is allergic to crab but tried some crab dip 10 minutes ago. Which one of the following questions should the EMT ask first?

Do you have an epinephrine auto-injector?

When obtaining a medical history from the family of a seizure patient, which question is most important for the EMT to ask first?

Does he take his seizure medications as prescribed?

What should you NOT do in case of aortic dissection?

Don't administer aspirin!

Q27- Emergency Medical Responders have removed an intoxicated and confused patient from a car that struck another car at a high rate of speed. The patient was unrestrained and his car did not have airbags. Assessment reveals deformity bilaterally to the hips and femurs and bruising to the knees. Based on this injury pattern, the EMT would recognize what type of injury mechanism?

Down and under.

Q 28 - Which one of the following best describes a topical hemostatic agent?

Dressing especially designed to stop bleeding.

Define toxin

Drugs or substance that are poisonous to humans

Q29 - Which one of the following assessment findings would best indicate that a patient has suffered a full thickness burn to his leg?

Dry skin with little pain.

A pulmonary embolism can be caused by ________ becoming trapped in a pulmonary artery. A) blood clots B) masses of fat C) air bubbles D) circulating objects in the blood E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is A) greater than intraalveolar pressure. B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere. C) less than intrapulmonic pressure. D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere. E) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

E

At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with oxygen. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) more than 90

E

Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to A) changes in PCO2. B) changes in PO2. C) changes in pH. D) changes in blood pressure. E) changes in PCO2, PO2, and pH.

E

Boyle's Law of Gases states that A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal. B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up. C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures. D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure. E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.

E

Carbonic anhydrase A) is in RBCs. B) is an enzyme. C) can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma. D) can decrease the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Determination of blood gases includes testing an arterial sample for A) pH. B) PO2. C) PCO2. D) PO2 and PCO2 only. E) pH, PO2, and PCO2.

E

During swallowing, the A) intrinsic laryngeal muscles contract. B) extrinsic laryngeal muscles contract. C) glottis closes. D) epiglottis is depressed. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the A) PCO2 should be high. B) pH should be slightly acidic. C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg. D) DPG levels in the red blood cells should be high. E) PCO2 should be low.

E

If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's A) tidal volume. B) inspiratory reserve volume. C) expiratory reserve volume. D) reserve volume. E) vital capacity.

E

In emphysema, which of these occur? A) alveoli collapse B) compliance increases C) elevated PCO2 in the blood D) depressed PO2 in the blood E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in A) epistaxis. B) nasal congestion. C) nosebleeds. D) a deviated septum. E) epistaxis or nosebleeds.

E

Pneumotaxic centers in the pons A) inhibit the apneustic centers. B) promote passive or active exhalation. C) receive input from the hypothalamus and cerebrum. D) modify respiratory rate and depth. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the A) thyroid cartilage. B) cricoid cartilage. C) corniculate cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage. E) epiglottis.

E

The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately A) 40 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 50 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 100 mm Hg.

E

The respiratory defense system is important because it A) helps filter the air. B) helps warm the air. C) keeps out debris. D) keeps out pathogens. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume? A) sternocleidomastoid B) pectoralis minor C) scalenes D) serratus anterior E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Which of the following statements about the trachea is false? A) is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages C) contains many mucous glands D) alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system E) is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages

E

Which statement about the chloride shift is false? A) involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs B) depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransporter C) involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma D) is driven by a rise in PCO2 E) causes RBCs to swell

E

________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses. A) Exposure to noxious stimuli B) Exposure to unpleasant stimuli C) Exposure to allergens D) Exposure to debris or pathogens E) All of the answers are correct.

E

When assessing a patient, you note a bruise to his chest. On the prehospital care report, the discoloration due to this injury is properly documented as:

Ecchymosis.

What conditions are associated with crackles/rales?

Edema, pneumonia

Q32- The EMT is caring for a patient who has a problem with the autonomic component of his nervous system. Which one of the following signs or symptoms might be evident?

Elevated heart rate.

Psychological Abuse

Emotionally harming a person by threatening, scaring, humiliating, intimidating, isolating, insulting, or treating him or her as a child; also includes verbal abuse.

Q 28 - The EMT's initial concern when treating a patient with a gunshot wound to the chest is:

Ensure an open airway.

The EMT shows he understands the use of an epinephrine auto-injector for treating a patient with an anaphylactic reaction when he makes which one of the following statements?

Epinephrine administered through an auto-injector can be used for all severe allergic reactions, regardless of the cause.

Neuromuscular Disorders

Examples include muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, and Lou Gehrig's disease.

polyphagia

Excessive eating; in diabetes, the inability to use glucose properly can cause a sense of hunger.

polydipsia

Excessive thirst that persists for long periods, despite reasonable fluid intake; often the result of excessive urination.

Induced Abortion

Expulsion of a fetus as a result of DELIBERATE actions taken to stop the pregnancy.

A situation that is rare in the field, yet may be an example of a medical hazard of oxygen, would be?

Eye damage in a premature infant

Q27- As part of your service to the community, you are certified as a car seat specialist and provide monthly classes on the safe transport of infants and children. Several cars pulled into your station and asked you to look at their car seats. Which of the following car seat positions would indicate that the parent is safely transporting his or her infant (less than one year old)?

Facing backward in the back seat in a reclined position.

Q37 - In a normal fertilization, the egg and sperm meet in which structure?

Fallopian tube.

All veins carry blood away from the heart - True or False

False

The back pressure on the right ventricle is normally high. True or False

False

The pulmonary vein carries deoxygenated blood. True or false

False

The right atrium received oxygenated blood. True or False

False

Uterus

Female organ of reproduction used to house the developing fetus

An example of a central pulse is the _____ pulse?

Femoral

A patient exhibits swelling and deformity to the wrist. After splinting, which one of the following positions of the hand is most appropriate?

Fingers culred inward.

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?

Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.

Who is most likely to be exposed to cyanide?

Firefighters Cyanide is produced from incomplete combustion

Q37 - A patient is 7 cm dilated and complaining of painful contractions. What stage of labor should the EMT identify?

First stage.

The nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) should be advanced until the?

Flange rests firmly against the nostril

The device that allows control over the delivery of oxygen in liters per minute is a?

Flowmeter

Acute pulmonary edema defined as...

Fluid between alveoli and capillary space, often leads to CHF (cardiogenic) or noncardiogenic

Q29 - A burn patient has blisters to his left arm. The EMT should recognize that:

Fluid has collected between the layers of skin.

Q37 - When should the EMT instruct his partner to cut the umbilical cord?

Following delivery and after the baby has been dried and suctioned.

A man comes into your station and tells you that he was just diagnosed by his physician as having a syncopal episode the previous week. More specifically, he asks you to explain why he fainted. Which one of the following statements that follow sould be your best response?

For some reason, there was a temporary decrease in the flow of blood to your brain.

What are antigens?

Foreign substance

What is an allergen?

Foreign substance that causes allergic reaction

Zygomatic arches

Form the structure of the cheeks

Abdominal quadrants

Four divisions of the abdomen used to pinpoint the location of a pain or injury

You are called to an outpatient clinic to transfer a 39 year old male patient in a diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to an acute-care hospital. When assessing the patient, which one of the following signs or symptoms might you expect to find?

Fruity or acetone odor on is breath.

Distal

Further away from the torso

In what form is oral glucose packaged?

Gel.

Patient with a histor of allergy to bees, stable vitals, and no wheezing, what should you do?

Get SAMPLE

Q27- Which of the following best describes the goal of a trauma system?

Getting the right patient to the right facility in the right amount of time.

Patient exposed to dry powder chemical, what should you do 1st?

Give Oxygen

endocrine glands

Glands that secrete or release chemicals that are used inside the body.

Q37 - You are assessing a 29 year old who has signs of imminent delivery. Her past medical history includes HIV infection. In relations to a patient with no infectious disease, how will BSI precautions differ from this patient?

Gloves, a gown, and goggles must be worn for both the patient with HIV and the noninfectious patient.

Glipizide, a non-insulin-type medication, is another name for:

Glucotrol

Q37 - You are assessing a non-pregnant female patient who informs you that she has been pregnant four times before but only delivered once. Which one of the following shows how you should document that information on the prehospital care report?

Gravida IV; Para 1

Q27- Which one of the following is a high-velocity wound that carries the greatest risk for death when considering the concept of cavitation?

Gunshot wound to the spleen.

Q26- You are responding to a patient with a behavior problem. While en route, dispatch contacts you and states that there is a mental health delegate at the scene and you will be transporting the patient to the local psych hospital for treatment of her bipolar disorder. On scene which one of the following patient behaviors should help confirm that the patient is suffering from bipolar disorder?

Happy, excessive cheerful, and elated behavior.

Provide positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen if your patient is not alert and?

Has a breathing rate of less than 8 per minute

Follow up question to determine possible causes for minor allergic reaction

Have you changed anything lately?

Contractile - Define

Having the power to contract or to cause contraction.

Q37 - Which one of the following actions indicates that the EMT is properly suctioning the newborn?

He squeezes the bulb syringe prior to placing it in the baby's nose.

Q32- A patient has suffered an injury that severed his spinal coard in the thoracic region. Which one of the following is true?

He will experience paralysis to the legs.

Q33- A young male golfer has been struck in the right eye with a golf club. The upper and lower lids are swollen shut and ecchymotic. There are also some blood clots noted between the two eyelids. Which one of the following indicates that the EMT is providing proper care to this patient?

He wipes blood from the face, but not the eye.

Q32- A 43 year old male has fallen from a roof and cannot move or feel his arms or legs. When assessing the paitent, which one of the following signs would lead the EMT to suspect the patient is suffering from spinal shock?

Heart rate of 68 beats per minute.

convection

Heat is transferred to circulating air. (ex. rapid heat gain in hot tubs) or (heat loss to cold winds)

You are called for an 8 year old boy who has fallen. On scene the boy's mother states that he was running while flying a kite and tripped, striking his face on a rock. Assessment reveals a large reddish-blue lump with intact skin under his left eye. When alerting the hospital emergency department of your arrival, you should inform them that the patient has what type of injury?

Hematoma.

Q35-A patient suffering blunt trauma to the abdoment has a lacerated liver. Which one of the following represents the most immediate threat to life?

Hemorrhage.

Which one of the following findings indicates that a patient who received a blow to the head is suffering from something other than a concussion?

His pupils are noticeably unequal.

A 57 year-old-male fell on the sidewalk, hitting his head on the concrete. According to witnesses, the patient was unresponsive for several minutes following the fall. Which one of the following would be most critical to relay to the physician in the emergency department?

History of alcoholism.

A panicked and anxious patient informs you that he is allergic to peanuts and thinks he may have accidentally eaten some. He states that the last time he ate peanuts he needed to have a "tube put in his throat" and almost died. When assessing the patient, which one of the following signs or symptoms would you provide the best evidence that the patient is having an allergic reaction?

Hives on his chest.

Q24 - You are transporting a patient who was bitten on her hand by a spider about 20 minutes ago. On scene the primary assessment revealed no life threats and vital signs were stable. While conducting your ongoing assessment, which one of the following would be of most concern to the EMT?

Hives to the chest and abdomen.

"Blow-By" Technique

Holding, or having a parent hold, the oxygen tubing or the pediatric nonrebreather mask 2 inches from the patient's face so that the oxygen will pass over the face and be inhaled. Typically used for infants and children that fear the oxygen mask.

Which one of the following accurately describes insulin?

Hormone that enable glucose to move into the cells.

You arrive on scene and find Emergency Medical Responders with a seizing patient. What question should the EMT ask first?

How long has the patient been seizing?

A device which can be connected to a flowmeter to provide moisture to dry oxygen is called a/an?

Humidifier

Symptoms of pertussis

Hx of reps infection, cold symptoms, fatigue, coughing fits, vomiting, cyanosis, exhaustion

Q32- While transporting a 38 year old female who fell out of a second story window, findings obtained during the reassessment indicate that she is becoming confused and her pulse rate is increasing. Additionally, you note a drop in her blood pressure and the onset of cool and clammy skin. You should recognize:

Hypervalemic shock.

Shock

Hypoperfusion

A patient has been stung by a bee. Which one of the following findings would be present in anaphylaxis, but not in a mild allergic reaction?

Hypotension.

Oxygen is the primary medication used to treat?

Hypoxia

When a patient has an insufficiency in the supply of oxygen to the body's tissues this condition is called?

Hypoxia

Q33- You suspect that a patient has a fracture of the left orbit. Which of the following complaints made by the patient would reinforce this suspicion?

I am seeing two of everything.

You have been called for a 33 year old male complaining of weakness and dizziness. When getting the history, which one of the following statements would make you suspicious that the patient is an undiagnosed diabetic?

I find myself urinating all of the time.

You have been called to a residence for a 31 year old complaining, nausea, vomiting,and a headache. He states that this started this morning and has been getting worse all day. Despite lying in bed and resting all day, he is more fatigued than before. Which of the following statements made by the patient would the EMT recognize as most important in relation to the patient's complaint?

I just turned the furnace on last night.

You have been summoned to a residence for a child who ingested a liquid pesticide. On scene, worried parents inform you that their 4 year old son and some friends were playing in the garage and apparently found some pesticide, which their son says he tasted. Assessment indicates that he is alert, oriented and crying and has some white powder around his mouth. After performing the initial assessment and finding no life threatening conditions, which of the following questions or statemtents is it imperative that the EMT make?

I need to see the other children.

Which one of the following patient statements best suggests that the patient may be in the early stages of an allergic reaction?

I suddenly feel like I have a lump in my throat.

B. recovery

If a patient is lying on his or her left side, the patient is said to be in the _____ position. A. Fowler's B. recovery C. left spine D. left prone

Which one of the following statements indicates that the EMT understands airway management in a patient suffering a severe allergic reaction?

If we have to provide positive pressure ventilation, it may be difficult to pass air through the swollen tissues.

A young male patient was running through a park and struck his head on a low lying branch of a tree. Emergency Medical Responders have already immobilized the patient to a long board and are providing high flow oxygen through a nonrebreather face mask. During transport, which one of the following assessment findings would best indicate that the patient has suffered a concussion?

Improving memory.

Unison

In complete agreement; harmonizing exactly. At the same time; at once.

Advance Neonatal Resuscitation

In order: Intubation, Medications

Basic Neonatal Resuscitation

In order: [Drying, Warming, Positioning, Suction, Tactile Stimulation], Oxygen, Bag-Mask Ventilation, Chest Compressions.

Where to inject epinephrine for adults vs children?

In the thigh. There is no difference

Hypoperfusion

Inadequate perfusion of the cells and tissues of the body caused by insufficient flow of blood through the capillaries

What are the negative effects of epinephrine?

Increased heart rate Dizziness Chest Pain Headache Nausea & vomiting Excitability

You have been called for a patient who is confused and slightly combative. Which one of the following assessment findings would make you suspicious that the patient is suffering from hyperglycemia.

Increased respirations with a sweet smell to his breath.

Pneumonia defined as...

Infectious disease from bacteria or virus causing lung inflammation and fluid/pus fill alveoli

Q26- How can the EMT best keep a behavioral patient calm and avoid provoking a violent outburst?

Inform the patient of all that is going on and use a calm voice throughout care.

Most common route of poisoning

Ingestion

A 44 year old patient was found unresponsive at home. Based on his clinical presentation and fact that he has a burning keroscene heater in an enclosed room, you determine that he is suffering from carbon monoixide poisoning. Based on this information, which route of exposure would the EMT recognize as responsible for the poisoning?

Inhalation.

Different routes a poision can enter the body

Injection Inhalation Ingestion Absorbtion

Q27- You are responding to a call for a 4 year-old child hit by a car. When assessing the child, which of the following injury patterns would you recognize as typical based on the child's age and mechanism of injury?

Injuries to the head, femurs, chest and abdoment.

You have been called to a residence for a cognitively challenged 32 year old female who drank a bottle of floor cleaner. She is consious, but having a difficult time breathing due to swelling from burns in her mouth. You note she has mild stridor on inspiration. Her caretaker states the patient weighs 175 pounds. Which of the following would be your initial action in caring for this patient?

Insert a nasal and administer oxygen.

Q 28 - A 40 year old homeless male is found lying in the street. Upon physical examination, you notice that the patient has a stab wound to the mid chest. He is unresponsive and his skin is cool to the touch. His respirations are 40 per minute and his pulse is 120. Which one of the following should the EMT perform first?

Insert an oral airway.

If your patient is an unconscious 8-year-old and you have determined there is no gag reflex, the EMT-Basic should?

Insert the airway with the tip pointing down towards the pharynx

Central Venous Line

Inserted through a subclavian, jugular, or femoral vein. One, two, or three external IV tubes that are attatched to the patient's chest.

You have been called for a seizure emergency. On scene you find an adult female actively seizing with bystanders attempting to restrain her. Which one of the following actions should you perform immediately?

Instruct the bystanders to release the patient.

Q29 - You have been called for a 44 year-old male who was burned on the right hand and arm after falling against the hot door of an industrial incinerator. Assessing you arrive on the scene, a nurse employed by the company informs you that he sustained a partial thickness burn. Based on this information, the EMT should expect what characteristics at the burn site?

Intense pain and blister formation.

What is huffing?

Intentionally inhaled poisons, paints, and propellants to get high

You have completed the assessment of a 32 year old patient who is starting her seventh month of pregnancy. Which one of the following assessment findings should the EMT be most concerned about?

Intermittent vaginal bleeding.

B. walls of the blood vessels.

Involuntary, or smooth, muscle is found in the: A. trachea. B. walls of the blood vessels. C. heart. D. quadriceps and biceps.

Q24 - An intoxicated 24 year old female was struck by lightning and is conscious, but confused. Which one of the following assessment findings should the EMT investigate first?

Irregular heart beat.

Q29 - You are transporting a patient who was shocked by an electrical current while installing a residential electrical service panel. He has partial thickness burns to the hand and foot where the electricity entered and exited his body respectively. During the reassessment, which one of the following signs or symptoms would be of most concern to the EMT?

Irregular heartbeat.

Braxton-Hicks Contractions

Irregular prelabor contractions of the uterus. Typically does not indicate impending delivery.

vaso-occlusive crisis

Ischemia and pain caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells that obstruct blood flow to a portion of the body.

Angina pectoris defined as...

Ischemia from closure of coronary arteries, chest pain from lack of O2 to heart

Which one of the following statements describes the benefits of using the pneumatic anti-shock garment (PASG) to splint a potential pelvic fracture?

It can effectively stabilize the pelvis and help to control internal bleeding.

Q37 - Which one of the following statements about the umbilical cord is true?

It contains one vein and two arteries.

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of determining a Glasgow Coma Scale score (GCS) in a patient with a head injury?

It helps determine whether the patient's mental status is iqmproving or deteriorating.

Your medical director is providing a review of diabetic emergencies and asks you to describes glucose. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate response?

It is a sugar that is the body's main source of energy.

A patient informs you that he found out he is allergic to certain molds and was prescribed an epinephrine auto-injector. He asks you how the epinephrine will help him the next time he is exposed to mold. which one of the following would be the most appropriate response?

It will cause the blood vessels to constrict and increase your blood pressure.

Q 28 - A 62 year old male was the restrained driver of a car that was hit on the driver's side. EMR's have extricated and fully immobilized him with a cervical collar and long board. When asked, he complains of dizziness as well as leg and arm pain. Assessment reveals multiple contusions and deformity to his left forearm and a laceration with mild bleeding to the left side of his face. His airway is open and his breather is labored. A rapid radial pulse is felt. Skin is cool and dry. Which assessment finding should the EMT address first?

Labored breathing.

The EMT recognizes that a splint applied too loosely can result in which one of the following?

Laceration of a previously intact blood vessels.

Q 28 - A 49 year old male was climbing on a truck at a construction site when he fell backward to the ground. He presents with a two inch linear wound to the top of his head. Bleeding has been controlled and the skull can be seen through the wound. How should you document this injury on the prehospital care report?

Laceration.

Tolerance

Larger doses required to produce desired effects

Q26- During transport, a female patient who is restrained begins to cry and states that she is sorry for becoming violent and will not behave in that manner anymore. She requests that the restrains be removed because they are hurting her arms and legs. Which one of the following would be appropriate?

Leave the restraints in place until patient care is transferred to the hospital.

A young female patient was walking on a seven-foot-high retaining wall when she stumbled and fell. She impacted a concrete sidewalk surface with her left foot and left hand. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis, deformity, and edema to both the left foot and left hand. Based on the concept of injury caused by indirect force, where else should the EMT look for injury?

Left hip.

Q26- You have had to restrain a patient who is being involuntarily committed to a psychiatric institution. During the restraint process, the patient vomited. How should you position him on the stretcher?

Left lateral recumbant.

Q33-A patient had an unknown chemcial splashed into her left eye. You have been irrigating the eye on scene and are now getting ready to transfer her to the stretcher. Knowing that you will need to continue irrigation throughout transport, how will you position this patient on the stretcher?

Left lateral recumbent.

High blood pressure puts stress on what part of the heart?

Left ventricle

The pulse you feel at your patient's wrist is a result of the?

Left ventricle contracting

Which of the following instructions given to another EMT would be most appropriate when managing a patient who ingested numerous household cleaners in an attempt to kill himself?

Let's gather up all of the containers of the chemicals he may have taken and take them with us.

#1 indicatior of a possible poisoning

Level of consiousness

Q37 - When cutting the umbilical cord, how should the baby be positioned?

Level with the vaginal opening.

Stroke

Levels of disability vary from mild to incapacitating. Specific problems relate to the are of the brain affected, and may involve emotional, behavioral, communication, intellectual, or physical limitations.

Q27- A car has been hit head-on by another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. Seatbelts were in place and the airbags deployed. The patient is complaining of chest pain. Quick observation reveals a bruise to his sternum. The EMT would immediately:

Lift the airbag and check the steering wheel.

Protection; water balance; temperature regulation; excretion; shock absorption

List five functions of the skin.

Femoral; carotid; brachial; radial; pulmonary; coronary; aorta; posterior tibial; dorsalis pedis

List the names of nine arteries in the body.

List the 4 solid organs within the abdominal cavity:

Liver, Spleen, Pancreas, Kidneys

Q35-A patient has been shot in the abdomen. Assessment reveals that the bullet entered the body in the right upper quadrant and exited the lower right back. Givn this finding, the EMT should assume which of the following organs may have been involved?

Liver, gall bladder, right kidney, small intestine, pancreas.

Q35-A patient has been stabbed in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Which one of the following organs or structures should the EMT be concerned about being injured?

Liver.

Q34-A patient has been shot in the chest with a rifle. Your assessment reveals a decreasing level of consciousness and inadequate breathing. Positive pressure ventilation is being administered, and you have covered the entrance wound located midclavicular at the second intercostal space on the left side of the chest. Which one of the following should you do next?

Look for an exit wound.

Symptoms of pneumonia

Looks like CHF but with fever; Decreased appetite, fever, cough, tachypnea, tachycardia, chest pain, decreased chest movement, altered breath sounds, altered mentation, diaphoresis, pulseox <95, cyanosis

Q 28 - Prior to your arrival on the scene of a motorcycle crash, an EMR contacts you via radio and reports that there is one patient who has an evulsion to her left arm. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should anticipate which one of the following?

Loose flap of skin torn on her left arm.

The major complication of bag mask ventilation when provided by one EMT-Basic is?

Low ventilation volume due to improper technique

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poisons is correct?

Lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the environment

Prone

Lying face down

Supine

Lying on the back

Recovery position

Lying on the side

Lateral Recumbant Position

Lying on the side; also known as the recovery position. All pregnant women should be transported in this position on their LEFT side to relieve pressure from the abdominal organs and the vena cava.

When assessing a poisoning patient...

Maintain the order of assessments. (C-spine - A,B,C ...)

While on standby at a semi-professional baseball game, you are summoned onto the field for a player complaining of severe leg pain after colliding with the catcher of the opposing team. The primary assessment shows no threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. The secondary assessment reveals severely deformed left lower leg that is swollen and echymotic. The leg is pale and cool, and the patient cannot move the leg when asked to do so. In addition, you cannot palpate a pedal pulse. Which one of the following is your priory at this time?

Make one attempt to straighten the leg until a pulse returns.

Q24 - Which one of the following best describes a patient suffering an environmental emergency?

Male patient who is intoxicated, has collapsed in the snow, and is complaining that he feels cold.

Which one of the following patients would the EMT recognize as suffering from an evisceration injury?

Male patient with a loop of intestine protruding from an open wound.

In which condition does the junction between the esophagus and the stomach tear, causing severe bleeding and potentially death?

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

After you administer oral glucose to a diabetic patient, his level of consciousness deteriorates and he becomes unresponsive with snoring respirations. Which one of the following actions should you take immediately?

Manage the airway.

Vision Impairment

May be Congenital or acquired, and may be either complete or partial.

Kidney Failure

May be a consequence of diabetes, high blood pressure, or other medical problems. Patients can have varying levels of kidney function, and receive dialysis at different frequencies.

Hearing Impairment

May be congenital, due to trauma, or due to age. Hearing loss may be partial or complete.

Cognitive Disabilities

May result from mental retardation due to a variety of genetic and congenital problems; for example, Down syndrome and fetal alcohol syndrome. It may also result from stroke, dementia, or past traumatic brain injury.

Q32- You arrive on the scene of a two car motor-vehicle collision. The patient was the unrestrained driver of a car that struck another from behind at 25 mph. In the course of the collision, the patient flew forward and struck the windshield with his head. No airbags were deployed. The patient extricated himself and is not complaining of any head, neck, or back pain; however, you do note a small cut on his hand, which occurred as he was getting out of the car. When asked about preexisting medical problems he tells you that he did have herniated disks in his lumbar spine repaired several years ago. Which one of the following should provide the EMT with the strongest reason to immobilize this patient to the long spine board?

Mechanism of injury.

Most common cause of allergic reaction

Medication

A wound caused by a handgun or shotgun would be considered a _____ velocity wound?

Medium

Delerium Tremens

Mental confusion of unknown cause. Mortality rate of 5 to 15%

Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)

Method of pediatric assessment from both the general impression formed as you approach the child ("from the doorway") and from the remainder of the primary assessment. Triangle made up of appearance, work of breathing, and the circulation to skin.

Heat exhaustion

Most common serous illness caused by heat Due to hypovolemia as result of loss of water and electrolytes from heavy sweating

Voluntary muscle

Muscle that can be consciously controlled

Involuntary muscle

Muscle that responds automatically to brain signals but cannot be consciously controlled

Cervix

Muscular ring that seperates the uterus and the vagina.

Stomach

Muscular sac between the esophagus and the small intestine where digestion of food begins

Uterus

Muscular, hollow organ located along the midline in most women's lower abdominal quadrants; the womb. Able to stretch and grow as the fetus gets larger.

Which one of the following statements made by a patient who experienced a syncopal episode should concern the EMT most?

My chest felt funny right before I passed out.

Fallopian Tubes

Narrow tube that connects the ovary to the uterus. Also referred to as oviducts.

A sign of inadequate breathing found especially in infants and children is?

Nasal flaring

Implanted Port

No external tubing, and a special needle called a Huber is required to acces this port.

Should oxygen therapy ever be withheld from a patient?

No, never withhold high-concentration oxygen from a patient who needs it

You are on the scene of a call for breathing difficulty. After completing your initial assessment, you begin to treat a 52-year-old conscious male who has signs of inadequate breathing. To administer the highest concentration of oxygen, you would use a _____ liters per minute flow.

Non-rebreather mask at 15

While the non-rebreather mask can deliver ____percent oxygen concentration, the nasal cannula delivers only ____percent?

Non-rebreather: 80% to 90% Nasal Cannula: 24% to 44%

Hypoxia

Not enough O2 supply

Q 28 - A 54 year old male patient was involved in a car crash. Window glass has caused an open wound to his upper neck. Which one of the following dressings is best for this injury?

Occlusive dressing.

You have been called by family members for their mother who is "not acting right". On scene the family informs you that they are concerned because their 68 year-old mother has been complaining of a headache and today is very confused. Assessment reveals a bruise to the right side of the head that family states occurred one week ago when she feel in church. Since all other aspects of the assessment are normal, you suspect a head injury. Which condition would make the most sense given these findings and history?

Occult subdural hematoma.

Pediatric

Of or pertaining to a patient who has yet to reach puberty.

Bilateral

On both sides

Q35-You have arrived on the scene for a patient assaulted with a baseball bat. As you approach, which one of the following positions seems to indicate that he was struck and suffered injury to the abdomen?

On his side with knees drawn to the chest.

Which one of the following patient statements strongly suggest syncope?

Once I hit the floor, I was only out for a few seconds.

glucose

One of the basic sugars; it is the primary fuel, in conjunction with oxygen, for cellular metabolism.

C. protect the body from the environment, bacteria, and other organisms.

One of the functions of the integumentary system is to: A. eliminate excess oxygen into the atmosphere. B. regulate the diameter of the blood vessels in the circulation. C. protect the body from the environment, bacteria, and other organisms. D. allow environmental water to carefully enter the body.

On arrival to a parking lot tailgate, you observe a crowd around a young man who is seizing. As you get equipment from the ambulance and make your way to the patient, his friends tell you that the patient has been up all night "partying" by drinking alcohol and snorting cocaine. At the patient's side, you note that he is no longer seizing, but is unresponsive and has snoring respirations. His respirations are labored at 16 per minute and his radial pulse is strong. His skin is cool and diaphorectic. Friends also inform you that he is a diabetic and about an hour ago they heard him say that he thought his blood sugar was going low. Which of the following interventions would be included in your care?

Open airway, provide oxygen and give rapid transport to the hospital.

Q34-A 39 year old male has been stabbed once in the anterior chest. When notifying the emergency department of the patient's arrival, you inform them that the patient has suffered what type of injury?

Open chest injury.

The secondary assessment of a patient complaining of right leg pain after falling down several stairs reveals a break in the skin where a fractured tibia bone broke through and then retreated back in to the leg. The EMT should recognize this as which one of the following injuries?

Open fracture.

An unhelmeted patient who was thrown from a motorcycle has a large scalp avulsion with obvious depression to the top of his head. These findings suggest which one of the following injuries?

Open head injury.

A patient has been actively seizing for 17 minutes. He is cyanotic with shallow respirations. What immediate care should you provide to this patient?

Open the airway and begin positive pressure ventilation.

Q32- A male driver was ejected from his vehicle after it rolled several times at a high rate of speed. As you approach the patient you note that he is unresponsive and struggling to breath. He also has a laceration to the left side of his face and multiple contusions to his legs. After assigning another EMT to take manual in-line spinal stabilization, what should you do?

Open the airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.

Q27- An unrestrained driver of a car that has struck a tree at 45 mph has suffered a contusion (bruise) to his heart. The EMT would recognize that this injury occurred during which impact of the collision?

Organ collision.

spleen

Organ near the stomach that produces, stores, and eliminates blood cells. produces antibodies

Kidney

Organs of the renal system used to filter blood and regulate fluid levels in the body

Symptoms of bronchitis

Overweight, trouble breathing, chronic cough with sputum, chronic apnotic, rhonchi/wheezes

C. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

Oxygen passes from the environment to the lungs in what order? A. Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, lung B. Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli C. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli D. Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli

This is the first waveform of the ECG and presents the depolarization (contraction) of the atria.

P wave

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?

PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

How to provide oxygen to a patient with swelling in the upper airway (ie: tongue)?

PPV to force air past the swollen upper airway

Heat cramps

Painful muscle spasms remove from hot environment/loosen tight clothing rest cramping muscles (sit or lie) replace fluids by mouth (water or diluted balanced electrolyte solution NO salt tables or solutions with high salt Hydration by water is best preventive and treatment solution

Q29 - A patient was burned when he accidentally ignited gasoline while working on his car. When performing the secondary assessment, which one of the following findings would indicate that the patient has suffered a partial thickness burn?

Painful skin that is moist and contains blisters to the abdomen.

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct?

Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women.

Q34- Your patient was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. Which one of the following assessment findings best helps to determine that the patient has a flail segment?

Paradoxical chest wall movement.

Q26- You arrive on scene to find that the police have subdued a violent man with a history of behavioral problems. They state they will put the patient on the stretcher. Which one of the following should cause the EMT to take immediate and corrective action?

Patient is placed and restrained in a prone position on the stretcher.

Q26- Which one of the following patients is the EMT justified in restraining?

Patient threatening to kill his wife and trying to leave the scene.

D. sensory

Patients have many different types of nerves. Nerves that carry information from throughout the body to the brain are _____ nerves. A. motor B. cardiac C. spinal D. sensory

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?

Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?

Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.

Q32- You are assessing a patient who tells you that he called 911 because of severe back pain. He informs you that his back pain is coming form a recent fracture of his coccyx. Based on this information, where should the EMT expect the patient to be complaining of pain?

Pelvic area.

You are providing bag valve mask ventilations to a patient in anaphylactic shock. There is increasing resistance to ventilation, despite using proper techique. Which one of the following is the best way to address this situation?

Perform a Silick maneuver and occlude the pop-off valve on the bag-mask.

Q35-You have just arrived on the scene of a very serious motor-vehicle collision. Emergency Medical Responders have rapidly extricated an unresponsive female from the driver's seat. The EMRs report that she was unrestrained and struck the steering wheel with her chest and abdomen. As you start the primary assessment, you note that she has snoring respirations and is breathing shallowly at a rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which one of the following should you do next?

Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver.

Q37 - After delivery, you note some blood oozing from the mother's vaginal canal. The sanitary pads that you placed between her legs continue to be soaked. Which one of the following should you do next?

Perform a uterine massage.

You have arrived on the scene of a 64 year old diabetic patient. He is supine in bed and exhibits snoring respirations. Family members state that they just tested his blood sugar and it is 25 mg/dl. Which one of the following should be your immediate action?

Perform the head tilt-chin lift.

Q 28 - While cleaning a gun, a 44 year old man accidentally shot himself in the abdomen. On arrival the patient is responsive to painful stiumuli and lying on his side with his legs drawn to his chest. Blood is evident on his shirt and pants. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of events for caring for this patient?

Perform the primary assessment, administer high-flow oxygen, perform the secondary assessment, transfer to the stretcher, and provide rapid transport.

Hemodialysis

Performed by attaching a patient to an external machine called a dialyzer. Requires the use of large needles to remove and return the blood.

Your patient is a young adult male with a gunshot wound to the left side of his head. He is unresponsive with snoring respirations. He is breathing six times per minute with a pulse rate of 52 and a blood pressure of 192/104 mmHg. His radial pulse is strong and his skin is cool, but not diaphoretic. In addition to in-line manual stabilization of the cervical spine, the first intervention for this patient should be which one of the following?

Performing a jaw-thrust maneuver.

Chronic

Persistent or lasting.

Q 28 -The EMT is by the side of a young female who was cut while washing dishes. she has a jagged laceration to her left forearm that is bleeding steadily and heavily. when attempting to control the bleeding, the EMT should first:

Place a large sterile dressing over the site with hand pressure applied over top of the dressing.

Q 28 - A young male was riding a motorcycle when he lost control and was ejected. the patient is unresponsive and receiving positive pressure ventilation. The rapid secondary assessment reveals bright blood flowing from both nostrils. Management of this bleeding would include which one of the following interventions?

Place a loose dressing under the nose.

Q37 - Prior to delivery, the EMT prepares to create a sterile field around his patient's vaginal opening. Which one of the following describes the best way to do that?

Place a sheet from the OB kit under the patient's hips and another over her abdomen and legs.

Q37 - You have been called to assist another crew with the birth of a baby. On scene another EMT informs you that the mother's perineum tore and is bleeding heavily. What should you do?

Place a sterile dressing between the mother's vagina and rectum.

Q35-A 16 year old male has been struck in the genitalia by a baseball. Assessment indicates a tremendous amount of edema as well as hematoma formation and bruising to his scrotum. The primary assessment reveals no life threatening conditions, however, he is crying and rates the pain as a 10/10. Which one of the following is most appropriate for this patient?

Place cool compresses to the testicles.

Q24 - You have been called to a park for a teenage boy who is "sick". On scene you find a 16 year old male who knows his name but is confused about place and time. Friends state that they have been playing basketball most of the morning and afternoon. The temperature is in the 90s and the humidity is high. His airway is patent and his breathing is fast but adequate. His pulse is weak and rapid. Observation of his skin reveals it to be pale, cool, and moist. Oxygen is being administered via nonrebreather face mask. Which one of the following would be approprate care for this patient?

Place him supine on the stretcher in ambulance with air conditioning set on "high".

Q37 - Assessment of a pregnant patient in labor reveals what appears to be the baby's buttocks presenting at the vaginal opening. Which one of the following should the EMT do immediately?

Place the mother in a supine, head-down position with hips elevated and admiister high-flow oxygen.

Q37 - Five minutes after delivering a baby, the mother states that she feels the suddern urge to push, just as a gush of blood comes from the vagina. Given that the mother is not delivering twins, what stage of labor should the EMT identify?

Placental.

Q25 - A patient who has found a face down in a pond is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Friends state that the patient was hot and wanted to take a summer's swim in the pond. Which one of the following should be included in your care of this patient?

Positive pressure ventialtions at 10-12 per minute with oxygen.

SARS

Potentially life threatening viral infection that usually starts the flulike symptoms

Meningitis

Potentially life-threatening infection of the lining of the brain and spinal cord (the meninges) Commonly seen in children 1 month to 5 years old.

Q29 - An idustrial worder has sustained a partial and full thickness burn to his right hand after accidentally touching an electric furnace used to incinerate medical wast. Assessment reveals no threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. which one of the following is the EMT's next most appropratie action?

Pour cool saline water on the hand.

Q37 - Why is the uterus essential to a healthy pregnancy?

Powerfully contracts to force the fetus from the mother's body.

What does the T wave represent?

Prep for the next series

Q37 - After successfully delivering a baby, the EMT notes that the protruding umbilical cord is lengthening and a small gush of blood came out of the vagina. What should the EMT do in response?

Prepare for delivery of the placenta.

Q 28 - small metal rod was shot from a metal lathe and is impaled in a man's inner thigh. Assessment indicates that there is no active bleeding from the site, but the surrounding tissues are ecchymotic. The paramedic asks you to stabilize the rod with bulky dressings. You recognize this action as important because it will:

Prevent motion of the rod and further internal injury.

How does cyanide act in the body?

Prohibits oxygen at a cellular level Sever hypoxia at cellular level

Q37 - In which one of the following abnormal presentations is it permissible for the EMT to place a gloved hand into the vaginal canal?

Prolapsed umbilical cord.

Malleolus

Protrusion on the side of the ankle

Which one of the following statements best describes the technique to be used when hyperventilation a head-injured patient with signs that the brain is herniating?

Provide one ventilation every three seconds.

Q32- A teenage boy was found by friends as he attempted to hang himself in a garage using chains suspended from the ceiling. As you approach, you note that the patient is conscious, struggling to breathe, and has contusions from the chains to both the anterior and posterior portions of the neck. After taking in-line stabilization and opening the airway, the EMT's next action should be to:

Provide positive pressure ventilation.

Forms of Child Abuse

Psychological (emotional) abuse, Neglect, Physical Abuse, Sexual Abuse

Retractions

Pulling in of the skin and soft tissue between the ribs when breathing. This is typically a sign of respiratory distress in the child.

The name of the only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood.

Pulmonary artery

Fluid in and around the alveoli in the lungs.

Pulmonary edema

System reaction to depressants

Pupil constriction Heart rate decreases BP decreases

System reaction to stimulants

Pupil dilation Heart rate increase BP increase

From the bundle of His and the left and right bundle branches, the electrical impulse travels to what?

Purkinje fibers

This is the second waveform and represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles and the main contraction of the heart.

QRS complex

Q24 - Which one of the following idicates the most significant mechanism by which the body can lose heat?

Radiation

Sexual Abuse

Ranges from adults exposing themselves to children to sexual intercourse or sexual torture. Often accompanied by physical or emotional injury.

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct?

Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis.

Q32- A minivan has struck a utility pole and is on fire. The driver is unresponsive and has life-threatening injuries. Which one of the following should be most appropriate when extricating the patient from the vehicle.

Rapid extrication with cervical collar applied.

Q27- A "whiplash" type neck injury is most often observed with what type of collision?

Rear end impact.

The pons and medulla do what?

Receive info about O2/CO2 in blood

You are transporting a patient who overdosed on medications from a community Emergency Department (ED) to a large medical center for continued care. In the ED, the patient received two doses of activated charcoal. When performing your reassessment of the patient, which of the following findings would be most concerning?

Red colored stool.

Dorsal

Referring to the back of the body or the back of the hand or foot

Ventral

Referring to the front of the body

Palmar

Referring to the palm of the hand

Plantar

Referring to the sole of the foot

First Stage of Labor

Regular contractions and the thinning and gradual dilation of the cervix. Ends when the cervix is fully dilated.

The reservoir bag on a non-rebreather mask should?

Remain 2/3 full when the patient inhales

How to treat a patient who came in contact with powder poison

Remove contaminated clothes Oxygen Brush off

Q26- You arrive on scene with a patient who up until a few seconds ago was calm and compliant. Now he is brandishing a knife and threatening to kill you and your partner if you do not immediately leave. The man is intoxicated and police have been notified but have not yet arrived. Which one of the following is your best course of action?

Remove yourself, your partner, and family from the house.

This is the second component of electrical activity in which the electrical charges of the heart muscle return to a positive charge and cause relaxation of the heart muscle.

Repolarization

Peritoneal Dialysis

Requires a permanent catheter that is implanted through the patient's abdominal wall and into the peritoneal cavity. Several liters of a specially formulated dialysis solution are run into the abdominal cavity to be absorbed into the intestines. Can be performed at home.

What is caused by swollen lungs/airway?

Resistance to air flow

Your unit is on the scene of a call for a 19-year-old female who is having a serious asthma attack. The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support her life is called?

Respiratory failure

What are the indications an epi-pen is working on a patient?

Respiratory improvement

Q29 - Why would an EMT be concerned about a partial thickness burn circumferentially to the chest?

Restriction of breathing.

The heart has four chambers - name them.

Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle

Which one of the following bone injuries would be classified in the appendicular component of the skeletal system?

Right hip fracture.

Q33-While running in a parking lot, a young boy tripped and fell. He hit his face and mouth on a curb, knocking one of his top front teeth from its socket. Bleeding has been controlled and the tooth is found. What instructions would you give your partner when caring for the tooth.

Rinse the tooth first then put it in a cup of saline for transport.

Q 28 - A man has been bitten in his arm by a dog. He states that the bite occurred several hours earlier when he accidentally stepped on the dog's paw. When asked, he tells you that the dog is up to date on all of her shots, including the rabies vaccine. Assessment reveals two small puncture wounds to the hand with some bruising in the surrounding tissue. The patient wants to refuse treatment and transport. Given these assessment findings, which one of the following indicates the primary reason the patient should be seen in the emergency department?

Risk for infection.

Q37 - You have been dispatched to a residence for a female patient who is dizzy and "passing out". An EMR meets you at the door and reports that the patient is lying supine in bed and is nine months pregnant. Her pulse rate is 112 and her blood pressure is 84/50 mmHg. Respirations are 24 per minute and she has a room air pulse oxymetry of 97%. Which one of the following should you do as soon as you reach the patient's side?

Roll her onto her side.

Combining form

Roots that are combined in medical terms

Q37 - You have been called to a home for a female patient in labor. On scene the family tells you that the 37 year old patient is 42 weeks pregnant and wanted to have her baby at home naturally. They tell you thta she has been in labor for over 24 hours and suddenly began complaining of severe and tearing abdominal pain. What condition should the EMT suspect?

Ruptured uterus.

Explain the order of a heart contraction

SA node > atria > Bachmann bundle > intranodal tract . AV node > bundle of His > Purkinje fibers

Lightening

Sensation of the fetus moving from high in the abdomen to low in the birth canal.

The name for the liquid portion of the blood.

Serum

hypoglycemic crisis

Severe hypoglycemia resulting in changes in mental status.

Q37 - A female patient is described as primigravida. Which one of the following statements about the patient is true?

She is pregnant for the first time.

You are transporting a patient who wants help to rid herself of an addiction to pain medications. She says she has not taken any pain medications since yesterday, and needs help. Which of the following would you recognize as a sign of wihdrawal?

She starts to become agitated.

Biphasic Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP)

Similiar to CPAP, with the exception that it provides assistance to both inhalation and exhalation.

You have been called to an alcoholic rehabilitation center for a 56 year old patient whose left arm suddenly began to shake uncontrollably. He is alert and oriented, and he is terrified that he cannot stop his arm from moving. What type of seizure should you suspect?

Simple partial.

Dosage of epinephrine

Single dose: Adult auto injector .3mg Infant/child .15mg

Conductive cells are grouped in three areas of the heart - pacemaker sites - name them.

Sinoatrial Node SA, Atrioventricular Node AV, Purkinje fibers

Q37 - While delivering a baby, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Slip the cord over the baby's head.

Ovaries

Small, round organs that are located on either side of most women's lower abdominal quadrants. Responsible for producing ova (eggs) for conception.

Labia

Soft tissues that protect the entrance to the vagina. Highly vascular and prone to significant bleeding with trauma.

Cardiac muscle

Specialized involuntary muscle found only in the heart

Heat stroke treatment

Speed is essential - get body temp down by any means move out of environment into an ambulance set air conditioning to max cooling remove clothing give oxygen apply cool packs to neck, groin and armpits cover with wet towels or sheets/spray with cool water/fan aggressively and repeatedly fan patient provide immediate transport notify hospital so can be ready to treat.

A football player injured his knee during practice and is in pain. His left knee is swollen, echymotic, and flexed in an upward position. Your partner reports that the distal skin is warm, and he has located a weak pedal pulse. Which one of the following should you perform?

Splint the knee in the position found prior to providing transport to the hospital.

Which one of the following emergency care measures for a patient with a possible bone fracture can be an effective means to reduce pain?

Splinting the fracture.

Abortion

Spontaneous miscarriage or induced termination of pregnancy.

Q27- A patient has been critically hurt in a nighttime motor vehicle collision. She was wearing a seatbelt and hit a tree at 70 mph. The car she was driving weighted two tones and was equipped with airbags that did deploy. Which of the following had the greatest impact on her being injured?

Spped of the vehicle at impact.

Q35-Which one of the following injuries is most likely to cause peritonitis?

Stab wound to the small intestine.

Q32- A patient involved in a diving accident has his head positioned so that his left cheek is touching his left shoulder. He states that he has severe pain in his neck and it hurts to move his head. He denies numbness, tingling, or decreased strength in his arms or legs. Which one of the following is the EMT;s best course of action?

Stabilize and maintain the head in the position in which the patient is holding it.

Stages of withdrawal

Stage 1: alcoholic tremulousness Stage 2: Alcoholic hallucionsis Stage 3: Withdrawal seizures Stage 4: Delirium tremens

Q27- As you pull to a motor vehicle collision, you quickly scan the scene for clues as to the type and severity of injuries. Which of the following scene clues would best indicate that a patient may have a head injury?

Starring of a windshield.

Q24 - A hypothermic patient is in cardiac arrest. The AED is applied and delivers one shock. Which one of the following actions would the EMT perform next

Start CPR.

Q37 - Despite positive pressure ventilation, a newborn's heart rate has fallen from 80 beats per minute to 40. He is breathing 40 beats per minute, and he has a mottled appearance. Which one of the following should the EMT do immediately?

Start CPR.

Upper Airway

Starts at the mouth and nose and ends at the trachea. Common disorders affecting this area include foreign body obstructions, trauma, and swelling from burns and infections. (Commonly identified by stridor or difficulty breathing)

If patient is wearing difficult to remove clothing, where do you inject the epi-pen?

Still in the thigh. The injector is long enough to puncture thick clothing.

List the 8 Hollow Organs contained within the abdominal cavity:

Stomach, gallbladder, urinary bladder, ureters, internal urethra, fallopian tubes, small intestine, large intestine

Which of the following is true regarding strains and sprains?

Strains affect muscle or muscle and tendon; sprains are injuries to a joint capsule with damage or tearing of connective tissue and ligaments.

Dependence

Strong need to use a drug repeatedly

Q 28 - Which one of the following does the EMT recognize as layers of the skin?

Subcutaneous, epidermis, dermis.

hormones

Substances formed in specialized organs or glands and carried to another organ or group of cells in the same organism. Hormones regulate many body functions, including metabolism, growth, and body temperature.

Q27- You are assessing a male patient who was stabbed three times in the chest and abdomen. As you begin the primary assessment, you note him to have a decreased level of consciousness and gurgling respirations. Your next action would be to:

Suction the airway.

Q34-A 42 year old male was involved in a fight and was stabbed in the right lateral chest. The knife is still impaled, and he is complaining of shortness of breath. When he speaks he gurgles and blood drains from his mouth. His respirations are labored and his radial pulse is weak. Which one of the following should you do first?

Suction the blood from the airway.

Q25 - A teenage female has been removed from a pool. Your assessment reveals her to be responsive to painful stimuli with decorticate posturing. Her airway has water in it and she appears to be vomiting water. Breathing is agonal at eight breaths per minute. Her pulse is weak and slow. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Suction water from the airway.

Q33- A construction worker has been shot with a nail gun, resulting in a long nail giong through his cheek and firmly embedding into the lower gum and jaw. There is considerable blood in his mouth and he is in excruciating pain. Given this scenario, which of the following would be your first priority?

Suctioning the airway.

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Sudden attacks of SOB that usually occur during sleep. Person wakes gasping forbreath and sits up to relieve symptoms; associated with left ventricular heart failure.

Symptoms of pulmonary embolism

Sudden dyspnea, resp distress, sharp chest pain, cough maybe w/ blood, tachypnea, tachycardia, syncope, cool/moist, anxious, hypotension, cyanosis, JVD, crackles, circulatory collapse

Q29 - You are called by the owner of a restaurant for a female patron who spilled hot tea onto her right thigh. The secondary assessment reveals the burn area to be soft, but red and painful. The skin is intact with no blister formation noted, although slight edema is present. Based on these assessment findings, the EMT should recognize what category of burn?

Superficial.

Q35-A patient has suffered an abdominal evisceration. There is no evidence of spinal injury. How should you place the patient on the stretcher?

Supine, with knees flexed to his chest.

Major systemic indicatiors of anaphylaxsis

Swelling of airway Bronchoconstriction Blood vessels dilate (hypoperfusion)

What causes difficulty breathing?

Swollen airway

Which one of the following assessment findings would indiate that the patient is suffering from an anaphylactic reaction reaction and requires immediate intervention?

Swollen lips with a blood pressure if 84/50 mmHg.

You are called to a residence for seizure activity. On location the patient's daugther tells you that her father stated he felt dizzy and then he fell to the floor. Within a few seconds, he began asking what had happened and why he was on the floor. Based on this description, the EMT should recognize which one of the following conditions?

Syncopal episode.

Digestive system

System by which food travels through the body and is broken down into absorbable forms

Endocrine system

System of glands that produce chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions

Pressure created in arteries by blood forced into the circulation by the heart contracting is called ________ pressure?

Systolic

Hypertensive emergency is when the systolic and diastolic pressure is above what number?

Systolic 160 Diastolic 94

This is the third waveform and represents the repolarization (relaxation)( of the ventricles

T wave

A young man riding a motorcycle was hit head on and ejected from the bike. Your scene size-up reveals him to be lying supine in the roadway with obvious deformity to his right thigh and left ankle, with blood noted to his pants in these areas. Patient assessment reveals he is unresponsive with snoring respirations and is breathing 16 times per minute. His radial pulse is moderate in strength, and his skin is warm and dry. Which one of the following actions should be performed first?

Take and maintain manual in-line spinal stabilization.

Q25 - You have been called to a hotel swimming pool for a confused adult male. Patrons state that the man has been drinking most of the afternoon and has been in and out of the pool. The man is very confused and noncompliant with your requests. His airway is open and his breathing is adequate. His radial pulse is strong, and his skin is wet with water from the pool. While conducting the secondary assessment, you note a large hematoma to the back of his head. Which one of the following should you do next?

Take in-line spinal stabilization and apply a cervical collar.

Q32- You arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Walking toward you is the unrestrained driver of the vehicle that sustained moderate front end damage. The patient complains of some back pain, but was walking around after the crash and does not have any neurological deficits. What is your initial action for managing this patient?

Take manual in-line spinal stabilization.

Q32- You have arrived on a scene in which one person has been shot in the abdomen. As you approach the patient, you note that he is siting up and talking with the police. He is holding a blood soaked towel over the left upper quadrant of his abdomen. Which one of the following is your initial action in caring for this patient?

Take manual in-line spinal stabilization.

You are dispatched to a local mall and are met by bystanders who state that the patient was talking to a customer representative and "passed out". You find a 55 year old female lying supine on the tile floor. The patient tells you that the back of her head is hurting. Which one of the following actions should you perform first?

Take manual in-line spinal stabilization.

Tick bites

Takes 12 hours for infection to move from tick to person. Remove tick. Cleanse with disinfectant. Save tick to identify.

Q32- The EMT should recognize a possible spinal column injury with no spinal cord involvement when he discovers which one of the following assessment findings?

Tenderness to the thoracic spine with intact motor and sensory to each extremity.

Amniotic Sac

The "bag of waters" that surrounds the developing fetus.

Vertebrae

The 33 bones of the spinal column

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?

The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

Automaticity - define

The ability of the cells within the cardiac conduction system to generate a cardiac impulse on their own

Automaticity

The ability of the heart to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own

Tarsals

The ankle bones

Oropharynx

The area directly posterior to the mouth

Pharynx

The area directly posterior to the mouth and nose; it is made up of the oropharynx and the nasopharynx

Nasopharynx

The area directly posterior to the nose

Fetus

The baby from 8 weeks of development to birth.

Embryo

The baby from fertilization to 8 weeks of development.

Q37 - While delivering a baby in the field, the EMT notices that the baby is covered with a green-brown liquid. Which of the following is true regarding the green-brown liquid?

The baby was distressed and may be hypoxic.

Posterior

The back of the body or body part

Crux - define

The basic, central, or critical point or feature.

Pelvis

The basin-shaped bony structure that supports the spine and is the point of proximal attachment for the lower extremities

Vagina

The birth canal. Stretches to accommodate passage of the fetus during delivery and connects the uterus to the outside world

B. platelets.

The blood component that is essential to the formation of blood clots is called: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. white blood cells. D. red blood cells.

Reproductive system

The body system that is responsible for human reproduction

B. digestive

The body system that is responsible for the breakdown of food into absorbable forms is called the _____ system. A. nervous B. digestive C. endocrine D. integumentary

Renal system

The body system that regulates fluid balance and filtration of blood

Humerus

The bone of the upper arm, between the shoulder and the elbow

Skeleton

The bones of the body

Skull

The bony structure of the head

Orbits

The bony structures around the eyes; the eye sockets

Central nervous system (CNS)

The brain and spinal cord

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen

Bariatrics

The branch of medicine that deals with the causes of obesity, as well as its prevention and treatment.

Sternum

The breastbone

Which one of the following explains why patients experiencing an allergic reaction have difficulty breathing?

The bronchioles constrict and spasm.

Artherosclerosis is defined as...

The build up of fatty plaque on the arteries and hardens them, may be from increase in LDL and decrease in HDL

Circulatory system

The cardiovascular system

Central pulses

The carotid and femoral pulses, which can be felt in the central part of the body

Q32- For a person to make a fist, which one of the following must occur?

The central nervous system must send a message through the spinal coard and then to the peripheral nerves.

Thorax

The chest

Clavicle

The collarbone

endocrine system

The complex message and control system that integrates many body functions, including the release of hormones.

What does a P wave represent?

The contraction of the atria

Aerobic metabolism

The conversion of glucose into energy by the use of oxygen

Anaerobic metabolism

The conversion of glucose into energy without the use of oxygen

D. all structures are smaller and more easily obstructed in a child.

The difference between the adult airway and the pediatric airway is that: A. the adult's tongue takes up proportionately more space in the mouth than the child's. B. the trachea is softer and more flexible in an adult. C. the cricoid cartilage is softer in an adult. D. all structures are smaller and more easily obstructed in a child.

Autonomic nervous system

The division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions

Labor

The entire process of delivery; beginning fo contractions to full cervical dilation, baby enters birth canal and is born, delivery of the placenta.

Neglect

The failure of a caretaker to provide for basic needs, such as food, clothing, or love.

Vagina

The female organ of reproduction used for both sexual intercourse and as an exit from the uterus for the fetus

Umbilical Cord

The fetal structure containing the blood vessels that carry blood to and from the placenta.

Plasma

The fluid portion of the blood

C. plasma.

The fluid that carries the blood cells and nutrients is called: A. platelets. B. urine. C. plasma. D. none of these.

Metatarsals

The foot bones

Root

The foundation of a word

Hyoid bone

The free-floating bone in the neck that provides structure to the larynx

Anterior

The front of the body or body part

Metacarpals

The hand bones

Q32- Which one of the following shows that the EMTs are correctly using a vest type short spine immobilization device?

The head is secured to the device after the torso has been secured.

Q29 - When applying the rule of nines to a 10 month-old child, the EMT should recognize which of the following?

The head of a child is considered to be 18% of the total body.

B. receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

The heart has a right and left side as well as upper and lower chambers. The left atrium: A. receives blood from the veins of the body. B. receives blood from the pulmonary veins. C. pumps blood to the lungs. D. pumps blood to the body.

Name the three components comprised of the cardiovascular system.

The heart, the blood vessels, the blood

Calcaneus

The heel bone

Acromion process

The highest portion of the shoulder

Q27- Which of the statements below best characterizes the capabilities of a Level III Trauma Center?

The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients, but will generally stabilize and transfer them.

Xiphoid process

The inferior portion of the sternum

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

Dermis

The inner layer of the skin, rich in blood vessels and nerves, found beneath the epidermis

Q29 - An intoxicated patient has suffered a burn to his left lateral thigh after passing out with his leg touching the side of a kerosene heater. Close examination of the burn reveals tough leathery tissue in the center of the burn and surrounding it, red skin with blisters. Regarding the burn, which one of the following is true?

The inner portion of the burn is full thickness and the outer oriton partial thickness.

Acromioclavicular joint

The joint where the acromion and the clavicle meet

Patella

The kneecap

External Genitalia

The labia, perineum, and mons pubis.

Femur

The large bone of the thigh

Carotid arteries

The large neck arteries, one on each side of the neck, that carry blood from the heart to the head

Aorta

The largest artery in the body; it transports blood from the left ventricle to begin systemic circulation

Liver

The largest organ of the body; produces bile to assist in breakdown of fats and assists in the metabolism of various substances in the body

Fibula

The lateral and smaller bone of the lower leg

Radius

The lateral bone of the forearm

Skin

The layer of tissue between the body and the external environment

Subcutaneous layers

The layers of fat and soft tissue found below the dermis

Mid-clavicular line

The line through the center of each clavicle

Mandible

The lower jaw bone

Ischium

The lower, posterior portions of the pelvis

B. femoral.

The major artery in the thigh is called the: A. carotid. B. femoral. C. radial. D. brachial.

Femoral artery

The major artery supplying the leg

Testes

The male organ that produces sperm

Tibia

The medial and larger bone of the lower leg

Pubis

The medial anterior portion of the pelvis

Ulna

The medial bone of the forearm

Alveoli

The microscopic sacs of the lungs where gas exchange with the bloodstream takes place

Q37 - You have been called to a crisis shelter for a patient possibly having a baby. On scene you find an older female patient who is mentally retarded and cannot communicate with you. Staff states that the patient just came to the shelter and they know nothing about her, other than that she is pregnant. Assessment reveals crowning, and you proceed to deliver what appears to be a healthy baby boy. When assessing the mother after delivery, which one of the following signs should increase the EMT's suspicion that the woman may be carrying twins?

The mother's abdoment remains large after delivering the baby.

Diaphragm

The muscular structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity

Small intestine

The muscular tube between the stomach and the large intestine, divided into the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum, which receives partially digested food from the stomach and continues digestion

Large intestine

The muscular tube that removes water from waste products received from the small intestine and removes anything absorbed by the body toward excretion from the body

B. protects vital internal organs.

The musculoskeletal system has three main functions. It gives the body shape, provides for body movements, and: A. gives the body sensation. B. protects vital internal organs. C. provides for the body's outer covering. D. allows transport of oxygen into the cells.

Peripheral nervous system

The nerves that enter and leave the spinal cord and travel between the brain and organs without passing through the spinal cord

Nasal bones

The nose bones

Q33-Which one of the following statements by by an EMT indicates an understanding of facial injuries?

The only movable bone making up the face is the mandible.

Penis

The organ of male reproduction responsible for sexual intercourse and the transfer of sperm

Placenta

The organ of pregnancy where exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and wastes occurs between a mother and fetus.

Lungs

The organs where exchange of atmospheric oxygen and waste carbon dioxide take place

Epidermis

The outer layer of the skin

polyuria

The passage of an unusually large volume of urine in a given period; in diabetes, this can result from the wasting of glucose in the urine.

Q32- A patient has been struck in the back by a heavy piece of wood that was being bent to make a form for a concrete arch. He is responsive, but cannot feel or move his legs. He has bruising to his back and is incontinent of urine. The skin below the injury site is red and warm. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should realize that:

The patient is likely suffering from spinal shock, and the paralysis may resolve.

Q 28 - Another crew has called for your assistance in extricating an obese male with a nosebleed from a third floor bedroom. As you enter the room, which one of the following shows proper management of the patient's condition?

The patient is sitting upright, leaning forward, with nostrils pinched shut.

Q24 - A young male who was angry with friends wandered away from a party and spent the night outside uncovered in 40 to 50 degree temperatures. He is confused, has decreased, but adequate breathing, and a weak radial pulse. His skin is cool and capillary refill delayed. When looking to see if he is shivering, you note that he is not. Based on this presentation, which one of the following can the EMT safely conclude?

The patient's body temperature is most likely dangerously low.

Q32- A young female involved in a motor vehcile collision is complaining of neck pain that was the result of a lateral type mechanism. Based on this information, what type of collision most likely took place?

The patient's car was struck from the side.

Acetabulum

The pelvic socket into which the ball of the proximal end of the femur fits to form the hip joint

Ovulation

The phase of the female reproductive cycle in which an ovum is released from the ovary.

Afterbirth

The placenta, ambilical cord, membranes of the amniotic sac, and some tissues from the lining of the uterus that are delivered after the birth of the baby.

Crux - give the cardiovascular definition

The point where the walls that separate the upper and lower chambers and the left and right sides of the heart all cross.

Joint

The point where two bones come together

Blood pressure

The pressure caused by blood exerting force against the walls of the blood vessels

Systolic blood pressure

The pressure created in the arteries when the left ventricle contracts and forces blood out into the circulation

Diastolic blood pressure

The pressure in the arteries when the left ventricle is refilling

A. systolic

The pressure on the walls of an artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the _____ pressure. A. systolic B. arterial C. diastolic D. residual

Dialysis

The process of filtering the blood to remove toxic or unwanted wastes and fluids.

Ventilation

The process of moving gasses (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between inhaled air and the pulmonary circulation of the blood

Respiration

The process of moving oxygen and carbon dioxide between circulating blood and the cells

Glottic opening

The proximal opening of the trachea

Peripheral pulses

The radial, brachial, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses, which can be felt at peripheral points of the body

Pulse

The rhythmic beats caused as waves of blood move through and expand the arteries

Cricoid cartilage

The ring-shaped structure that forms the lower portion of the larynx

Bladder

The round saclike organ of the renal system used as a reservoir for urine

Scapula

The shoulder blade

What is the primary pacemaker?

The sinoatrial node

Q 28 - Which one of the following assessment findings best shows that the patient's injury should be classified as an abrasion?

The skin is scraped and red; blood oozing from the injury site.

Arteriole

The smallest kind of artery

A. thoracic and coccyx

The spinal column includes the _____ vertebrae. A. thoracic and coccyx B. cervical and orbit C. lumbar and sternal D. sacrum and pelvic

Anatomical position

The standard reference position for the body in the study of anatomy; in this position, the body is standing erect, facing the observer, with arms down at the sides and the palms of the hands forward

B. larynx.

The structure in the throat that is described as the voicebox is called the: A. pharynx. B. larynx. C. trachea. D. sternum.

hematology

The study and prevention of blood-related disorders.

Physiology

The study of body function

Anatomy

The study of body structure

The right atrium receives blood from two vessels - name them.

The superior and the inferior venae cavae

Ilium

The superior and widest portion of the pelvis

Manubrium

The superior portion of the sternum

Vena cava

The superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava, which return blood from the body to the right atrium

Which one of the following offers the best explanation of why a patient experiencing a syncopal episode regains consciousness after falling?

The supine position allows more blood to perfuse the brain.

Perfusion

The supply of oxygen to and removal of wastes from the cells and tissue of the body as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

Cardiovascular system

The system made up of the heart and the blood vessels

Musculoskeletal system

The system of bones and skeletal muscles that supports and protects the body and permits movement

Nervous system

The system of brain, spinal cord, and nerves that governs sensation, movement, and thought

Respiratory system

The system of nose, mouth, throat, lungs, and muscles that brings oxygen into the body and expels carbon dioxide

C. endocrine

The system that secretes hormones, such as insulin and adrenaline, and that is responsible for regulating many body activities, is called the _____ system. A. integumentary B. nervous C. endocrine D. gastrointestinal

Phalanges

The toe bones and finger bones

Fundus

The top of the uterus.

Cranium

The top, back, and sides of the skull

Torso

The trunk of the body; the body without the head and the extremities

Urethra

The tubes connecting the bladder to the ureter or penis for excretion of urine

Maxillae

The two fused bones forming the upper jaw

Bronchi

The two large sets of branches that come off the trachea and enter the lungs

Ventricles

The two lower chambers of the heart

A. central and peripheral.

The two main divisions of the nervous system are: A. central and peripheral. B. bones and muscles. C. brain and skin. D. spinal cord and brain.

Atria

The two upper chambers of the heart; the right chamber receives unoxygenated blood returning from the body, and the left chamber receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs

type 1 diabetes

The type of diabetic disease that typically develops in childhood and requires synthetic insulin for proper treatment and control.

type 2 diabetes

The type of diabetic disease that typically develops in later life and often can be controlled through diet and oral medications.

D. all of these

The types of muscle tissue include: A. striated. B. involuntary. C. cardiac. D. all of these.

Internal Genitalia

The vagina, ovaries, and the fallopian tubes.

C. inferior vena cava.

The vessel that carries oxygen poor blood from the portions of the body below the heart and back to the right atrium is called the: A. posterior tibial. B. internal jugular. C. inferior vena cava. D. aorta.

Pulmonary artery

The vessels that carry blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs

Pulmonary vein

The vessels that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart

Larynx

The voicebox

Trachea

The windpipe; the structure that connects the pharynx to the lungs

Thyroid cartilage

The wing-shaped plate of cartilage that sits anterior to the larynx and forms the adams apple

Carpals

The wrist bones

Q27- An unrestrained female driving a small car is involved in a rollover-type collision. Why is her risk for serious injury and death significantly increased?

There are more impacts in a roll over.

Q37 - Which one of the following actions shows that the EMT is properly caring for the cord after delivery?

There is a six-inch segment of cord still connected to the baby.

When transporting an unresponsive patient with a traumatic brain injury, which one of the following assessment findings would suggest that the patient is suffering from a herniation of the brain?

There is flexion of the arms when a shoulder is pinched.

You have been called for an alcoholic patient experiencing a medical emergency. On scene, a home health nurse informs you that the patient is experiencing delirium tremens. As an EMT, you recognize which of the following?

This is a life-threatening condition requiring rapid transport.

Contraction Interval (Frequency)

This is the time from the start of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction.

Q32- A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has suffered the separation of a rib from a spinal vertebrae. Based on the anatomy of the spine, where has this injury occurred?

Thoracic spine.

What do clots form from?

Thrombin and fibrin

Contraction Time (Duration)

Time from the beginning of a contraction to when the uterus relaxes.

Second Stage of Labor

Time from when the baby enters the birth canal until the baby is born.

Hyperextension/Flexion of the Neck

Tipping the head too far back or letting it fall forward.

Muscle

Tissue that can contract to allow movement of a body part

Ligament

Tissue that connects bone to bone

Tendon

Tissue that connects muscle to bone

Your partner is off from work from an extended period of time because he needs surgery for a torn ligament. Which one of the following structures needs surgery?

Tissue that connects one bone to other bones.

Contract - define

To become reduced in size by or as if by being drawn together.

What is the job of bronchiole receptors?

To detect abnormalities/toxins

What is the job of juxtacapillary receptors?

To detect when the alveoli/capillary beds are engorged with blood

What is the job of stretch receptors?

To prevent overexpansion of the lungs

Innervate - define

To supply (an organ or a body part) with nerves. To stimulate (a nerve, muscle, or body part) to action.

Lateral

To the side, away from the midline of the body

Superior

Toward the head

Medial

Toward the midline of the body

The tube that carries inhaled air from the larynx down to the lungs is the?

Trachea

Q24 - The primary assessment on a teenage male patient who is unresponsive with skin that is hot, moist and flushed reveals his airway to be open, breathing shallow, and radial pulse weak. You are providing positive pressure ventlation. Which one of the following should you do next?

Transfer him into the ambulance.

A patient who consumed a narcotic 30 min ago with stable vitals require...

Transport

Scorpion Stings

Transport immediate.Usually more painful than serious. Except (centruroides sculpturatus) It's venom may produce severe systemic reaction: circulatory collapse, severe muscle contractions, excessive salivation, hypertension, convulsions and cardiac failure

You have been called for an adult male who is hypoglycemic and responsive to painful stimuli. The family has oral glucose and wants you to administer it. However, at this time, your medial director has not authorized its use and there are no protocols regarding its use. Given the patient's condition and the family's request, which one of the following actions should you take?

Transport the patient to the emergency department.

The pressure in the aorta is very high. True or false

True

Gastronomy Tubes

Tubes placed through the abdominal wall directly into the stomach, used when a patient is not able to be orally fed.

Q34-Which one of the following best describes a flail segment?

Two or more adjacent ribs broken in two or more places.

Compound

Two or more while words combined to form another term

The preferred means of providing artificial ventilation by a healthcare provider to a nonbreathing patient is?

Two-person bag mask ventilation with oxygen

Aphasic

Unable to speak.

Q26- You arrive on the scene of a male patient who threatened to take pills to end his life. In talking with the patient, he informs you that he just got a new job that requires more of his time and his wife has been giving him a hard time about it. Tonight, he had enough and just made the comment because he was mad at her. He says that although he is still upset, he doesn't plan to do anything drastic. Before talking further action, which one of the following facts about the patient should raise the EMT's suspicion that he is indeed at a higher risk for suicide?

Unsuccessful attempt three years ago.

Q33-A 21 year old female has been struck in the left eye by a softball. Which of the following assessment findings is most concerning for an eye injury?

Unusual sensitivity to light.

Where is the Sinoatrial node located?

Upper portion of the right atrium

Clitoris

Urethral opening andvthe nerve-rich center of sexual stimulation.

Q 28 - A patient has suffered a small, but jagged laceration to her left hand. When cleaning the wound, it is important that the EMT:

Use sterile gauze and wipe away from the site of injury.

Prefix

Used to modify or qualify a root word

If left untreated, Vtach can degenerate into a rhythm which shows up as smaller, uneven, disorganized peaks and valleys. This rhythm is called what?

V-fib ventricular fibrillation

Pertussis defined as...

VERY contagious bacterial infection that seems like a cold at first

What are the positive effects of epinephrine?

Vasoconstriction Bronchodilation

A vein that attaches directly to the right atrium, bringing blood back from the body, is the?

Vena Cava

Brown Recluse Spider

Venom is cytotoxic - severe local tissue damage.

Q 28 - A patient has cut his arm with a table saw. Assessment reveals dark blood flowing steadily from the wound. As an EMT, you should recognize this as what type of bleeding?

Venous.

Q29 - A 44 year old electrician has been shocked. He is responsive to verbal stimuli and has garbled speech. His airway is open ad he is breathing shallowly at a rate of 8 times per minute. his pulse is slow and irregular. Which one of the following actions should the EMT perform next?

Ventialte with a bag valve mask at 12 breaths per minute.

What does the QRS complex represent?

Ventricles contracting

The most common dysrhythmia the patient will suffer initially in cardiac arrest. Will usually occur within the first hour after the onset of the symptoms of a heart attack.

Ventricular fibrillation

When PVCs occur in succession, they produce a rhythm called what?

Ventricular tachycardia

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the forearm?

Voluntary.

Q24 - A person is in a hot environment and his body is successfully compensating to off-load the excess heat. Which one of the following assessment findings best illustrates this process?

Warm and diaphoretic skin, elevated heart rate, increaseed respirations.

Aortic aneurysm defined as...

Weakening of artery wall and wall bursts causing hemorrhaging

Priority questions for a medication overdose

What was it? How much? When?

A. Voluntary

When a patient is walking, she is using which type of muscle? A. Voluntary B. Involuntary C. Cardiac D. Smooth

C. Fowler's.

When a patient who has been having difficulty breathing is placed in a sitting up position on a stretcher, this position is called: A. prone. B. supine. C. Fowler's. D. Trendelenburg.

Limb Presentation

When an infant's limb protrudes from the vagina before the appearance of any other body part.

Ectopic Pregnancy

When implantation nof the fertilized egg is not in the body of the uterus, occuring instead in the fallopian tube, cervix, or abdominopelvic cavity.

Multiple Birth

When more than one baby is born during a single delivery.

Crowning

When part of the baby is visible through the vaginal opening.

Cephalic Presentation

When the baby appears head first during birth. This is the normal presentation.

Breech Presentation

When the baby's buttocks or both legs appear first during birth. High risk of birth trauma.

C. decreases, causing exhalation.

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the size of the chest cavity: A. increases, causing inhalation. B. increases, causing exhalation. C. decreases, causing exhalation. D. decreases, causing inhalation.

Spontaneous Abortion (Miscarriage)

When the fetus and placenta deliver before the 28th week of pregnancy.

Congenital Heart Disease

When the heart or large blood vessels of the heart are malformed.

Prolapsed Umbilical Cord

When the umbilical cord presents first and is squeezed between the vaginal wall and the baby's head.

D. Trendelenburg.

When treating a patient who is dizzy and passing out, the EMT should place the patient lying flat with her or his head lower than her or his legs. This position is called: A. prone. B. supine. C. Fowler's. D. Trendelenburg.

A nasal cannula should be used to administer oxygen to a patient?

Who will not tolerate a non-rebreather mask

You should use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen to your patient only if your patient?

Will not tolerate a mask

Spinal Cord Injury

With complete spinal cord injury, patients experience lack of sensation and function below the level of injury.

Stage 1 of withdrawal

Within 8 hrs: Nausea, insomnia, sweating and tremors

Suffix

Word endings that form nouns, adjectives, or verbs

Q29 - You have been called for an intoxicated patient who sustained a full thickness burn to his leg when he passed out against a kerosene heater. After ensuing that the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation are intact, you should cool the burn with water and then:

Wrap the burn with a dry sterile dressing.

Q24 - Medical direction has ordered you to begin rewarming an unresponsive patient with a core temperature of 93F Which one of the following measures would best benefit this patient?

Wrap the patient in several warm blankets.

Q 28 - A patient has had part of his right thumb amputated in an industrial accident. Co-workers have retrieved the thumb and wrapped it in a towel. The EMT demonstrates appropriate handling of the amputated part when he:

Wraps in in a dry sterile dressing.

A patient with closed fracture to the forearm has been properly splinted when which one of the following are immobilized?

Wrist, forearm, and elbow.

Can blunt trauma to the abdomen be lethal?

YES

When performing a "talk down", which of the following statements would appropriately be included?

You are seeing rats because of the drug; this will not last forever.

You have just assisted a patient with his epinephrine auto-injector. The patient states that he has never taken epinephrine before. You would inform him of which one of the following?

You may feel a little shaky, but that is normal and will pass.

D. pulmonologist.

Your patient is being treated for lung disease and was referred to a specialist for further treatment. The type of physician he is going to see is most likely a(n): A. cardiologist. B. internist. C. asthmatologist. D. pulmonologist.

B. demonstrated paraplegia.

Your patient was in a car wreck, and on assessment you note he has no sensation and movement in both of his legs. When documenting this on the prehospital care report, you should note that the patient: A. demonstrated quadriplegia. B. demonstrated paraplegia. C. had extreme pain in his extremities. D. was completely paralyzed.

C. Maxillae

Your patient was involved in a fight in a bar. You suspect he may have broken his upper jaw. What is the name of the bone involved? A. Mandible B. Orbit C. Maxillae D. Nasal bone

A. femur, calcaneus, and phalanges.

Your patient was standing on the street corner when suddenly a truck cut the corner to close and ran over his legs. The bones in the lower extremities that he may have broken include the: A. femur, calcaneus, and phalanges. B. ischium, tibia, and ulna. C. orbit, lumbar, and shin. D. radius, fibula, and metatarsals.

Which of the following patients would MOST likely demonstrate typical signs of infection, such as a fever?

a 17-year-old male with depression and anxiety

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?

a 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

thrombosis

a blood clot either in the arterial or venous system

thromboembolism

a blood clot that is floating through blood vessels until it reaches an area too narrow for it to pass

thromboembolism

a blood cot that has formed within a blood vessel and is floating within the bloodstream

leaking which contaminates the body

a breech in a hollow organ will cause this

shock and bleeding

a breech to a solid organ will cause this

syncope

a breif period of unresponsiveness cause by a lack of blood flow to the brain; fainting

SAMPLE History

a brief history of a patient's condition to determine: - Signs and Symptoms - Allergies - Medications - Past medical history - Last oral intake (full meal) - Events leading to the injury or illness

alkalosis

a buildup of excess base (lack of acids)in the body fluids

pulmonary edema

a buildup of fluid in the lungs, usually as a result of congestive heart failure

Fragmentation

a bullet that breaks up into small pieces or releases small pieces upon impact increases the body damage.

spacer

a chamber that is connected to the metered-dose inhaler to collect the medication until it is inhaled

altered mental status

a change in the way a person thinks and behaves hat may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body

tuberculosis

a chronic bacerial disease that usually affects the lungs but can also affect other organs such as the brain and kidneys

plueral effusion

a collection of fluid between the lung and chest wall that may compress the lung;abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

generalized tonic-clonic seizure

a common type of seizure that produces unresponsiveness and a generalizzed jerky muscle activity. Also known as "grand mal sqizure"

endocrine system

a complex message and control system that includes a network of glands that produce and secrete messengers called hormones

aplastic crisis

a condition in which the body stops producing red blood cells ; caused by infection

hypoxia

a condition in which the body's cells and tissues do not have enough oxygen

dissecting aneurysm

a condition in which the inner layers of artery such as the aorta, become seperated allowing blood o flow between the layers

agitated delirium

a condition of disorientation, confusion, and possible hallucinations coupled with restless activity.

acute abdomen

a condition of sudden onset of pain within the abdomen, usually indicating peritonitis;

renal pelvis

a cone shaped collecting area that connects the ureter and the kidney

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?

a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

small-volume nebulizer

a device that uses compressed air or oxygen to nebulize a liquid medication into a mist that a patient can inhale

diabetes mellitus (MD)

a disease of altered relationships between glucose and insulin

tuberculosis (TB)

a disease that can lay dormant in a persons lungs for decades,man strains are resistant to antibiotics

congestive heart failure

a disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood; results from damaged heart muscles and results in backup of fluid into the lungs

functional disorder

a disorder in which there is no known physiologic reason for the abnormal functioning of an organ system

transient ischemic attack

a disorder of the brain in which brain cells temporarily stop working because of insufficient oxygen, causing strokelike symptoms that resolve within 24 hours

pulsus paradoxus

a drop in blood pressure of more than 10mmHg during inhalation resulting from increases pressure within the chest that suppresses the filling of the venticiles of the heart with blood

bronchodilator

a drug that relaxes the smooth muscle of the bronchi and bronchioles and reverses bronchoconstriction

Organic brain syndrome is MOST accurately defined as:

a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

a form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available; more typical in Diabeties type 1

oral glucose

a form of sugar often given as a gel, by mouth, to raise the blood glucose level

glucose

a form of sugar that is the body's basic source of energy

cystic fibrosis

a genetic disorder that effects the lungs and digestive system; predisposes the child to repeat lung infections

the kidney's excrete excess glucose which requires large amounts of water

a glucose level of 200 mg/dL cause this to happen

stridor

a harsh high pitched barking inspiratory sound; upper airway

acute myocardial infarction (AMI)

a heart attack; death of heart muscle

During your assessment of a 50-year-old male who was found unconscious in an alley, you note that he has slow, shallow respirations; significant bradycardia; facial cyanosis; and pinpoint pupils. As your partner begins assisting the patient's ventilations, he directs your attention to the patient's arms, which have multiple needle tracks on them. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:

a heroin overdose.

insulin

a hormone that promotes the movement of gglucose from the blood into the cells

glucagon

a hormone that stimulates the liver to convert stored glycogen and other substances into glucose

ischemia

a lack of oxygen in the cells of the brain that causes the to not function properly

ischemia

a lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred

hypoglycemia

a low blood glucose. A blood glucose level of 60mg/dL with sign or symptoms of hypoglycemia or of lss than 50mg/dL with or without signs or symptoms of hypoglycemia

cardiac output

a measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute. calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate

epilepsy

a medical disorder chacterized by recurrent seizures

nontramatic brain injury

a medical injury to the brain, such as stroke, that is not caused by externam trauma

psychosis

a mental disorder characterized by the loss of contact with reality

pneumothorax

a partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space

acidosis

a pathologic condition that results from the accumulation of acids in the body

deep and rapid

a patient with hyperglycemia will breathe this way

normal to raid

a patient with hypoglycemia will breathe this way

Acute myocardial infarction occurs when what happens?

a portion of the heart dies

tripod positon

a position in which the patient sits upright, leans slightly forward, and supports the body with the arms in front and elbows locked. This is a position commonly found in respiratory distress

wheal

a raised, swollen, well defined area on the skin resulting from an insect bite or allergic reaction

hemolytic crisis

a rapid destruction of red blood cells that occurs faster than the body's ability to create new cells

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced:

a ruptured cerebral artery

generalized seizure

a seizure characterized by severe twitching of all of the body's muscles that may last several minutes

status epilepticus

a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes or consecutive seizures with no period of responsiveness between them

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure?

a seizure that begins in one extremity

chlamydia

a sexually transmitted disease, the most common in developed countries, caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Often producing no symptoms, it can cause infertility, chronic pain, or a tubal pregnancy if left untreated.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for PID?

a shuffling gait when walking

COPD

a slow process of dilation and disruption of the airways and slveoli caused by chronic bronchial obstruction

hyperglycemic crisis

a state of unconsciousness resulting from several problems, including ketoacidosis, dehydration because of excessive urination and hyperglycemia

ischemic stroke

a stroke caused by obstruction to a vessel in the brain (can be a thrombotic stroke or an embolic stroke)

allergen

a substance that allergic reaction

seizure

a sudden and temporary alteration in the mental status caused by massive electrical discharge in a group of nerve cells in the brain

stroke

a sudden disruption in blood flow to the brain that results in brain cell damage

aneurysm

a swelling or enlargement of part of a blood vessel resulting from weakening of the vessel wall

acute coronary syndrome

a term used to describe a group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia; includes angina and myocardial infarction

altered mental status

a variation from normal function of the mind

peristalsis

a wavelike contraction of smooth muscle that occurs in the ureter to move urine to the bladder

Which one of the following patient statements should cause the EMT to suspect an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a. "I have belly pain that I also feel in my back."

Which one of the following is a typical statement made by a patient with unstable angina?

a. "The chest pain awakens me from my nighttime sleep."

Your patient has chest pain, and you have just assisted him in taking his nitroglycerin table. Which one of the following patient statements is the cause for greatest concern?

a. "The chest pain does not feel any differernt.

Your patient is complaining of chest pain that radiates into his neck and arms. The primary assessment reveals a patent airway, adequate breathing, and a strong, regular radial pulse. His skin is warm and dry, and it reveals no signs of inadequate perfusion. Which one of the following should you do next?

a. Administer oxygen.

A patient has a low platelet count in his blood. Based on this, for which one of the following is he at risk?

a. Bleeding.

A 56-year-old male informs you that he has gastric ulcers. He states that he has had them for several months, but just recently the pain has been steadily increasing. If the cause of the abdominal pain is the gastric ulcers, how would you expect him to describe the pain?

a. Burning pain located in the left upper quadrant.

You suspect that a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is suffering from right ventricular disease. From your assessment, which one of the following findings reinforces your suspicion?

a. Edema to the feet.

You are treating a patient complaining of altered mental status, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A paramedic has just administered a medication that causes the sympathetic nervous system to increase its influence in the body. Which one of the following actions should you anticipate?

a. Increased heart rate.

Which portion of the heart, when weakened by a heart attack, is responsible for causing fluid to back up in and fill the lung tissue?

a. Left ventricle.

You are caring for an alert and oriented patient with chest pain. He is receiving high-flow oxygen, and two nitroglycerin tablets and an aspirin have been administered. Vital signs are stable, but he states that the chest pain seems to be worsening. When transporting him on the stretcher, which position is best?

a. Position of comfort.

If a patient has a clot occluding the blood flow through his left coronoary artery, which one of the following will occur first?

a. The flow of oxygen-rich blood to muscle of the left ventricle will be decreased.

You have been called to transfer a male patient from an out-patient clinic to the hospital. The patient has been diagnosed with peritonitis and requires transport to the hospital for definiive care. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize which of the following as true?

a. The lining of the patient's abdominal cavity is inflamed.

You have completed the initial assessment on a 62-year-old male complaining of the sudden onset of epigastric pain. His airway is patent, his breathing is fast but adequate, and his radial pulse is weak and thready. His skin is cool to the touch. Your next action would be to:

a. apply oxygen at 15 lpm via a nonrebreather mask.

A 38-year-old female was violently raped. The patient is conscious, upset, and actively bleeding from her vaginal canal. As an EMT, your best care would involve:

a. applying a bulky dressing and gental pressure to the external genitalia.

An alert and oriented patient presents with shortness of breath, crackles in both lungs, jugular venous ditention, and edema to the feet and ankles. Her pulse is 132, respiration 24, blood pressure 160/86, and SpO2 at 88%. Based on this, the EMT should suspect.

a. congestive heart failure.

A person has high blood pressure. a medication that can effectively serve to lower his blood pressure is one that:

a. dilates the arteries.

When obtaining a medical history from a female patient with abdominal pain, she tells you that she suffers from endometriosis. As an EMT, you know that this condition describes:

a. endometrial tissue located outside the uterus.

You have been called for a patient with angina. On scene the 67-year-old man reports that he has a history of angina and the pain started when he was moving firewood from the garage into his house. Unfortunately, the pain has yet to go away, despite three nitroglycerin tablets and 20 minutes of rest. Your next action should be to:

a. provide high-flow oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

turgor

ability of the skin to resist deformation; tested by gently pinching skin on the forehead or back of the hand

psychiatric emergency

abnormal behavior threatens a person's own health and safety

adventitious breath sounds

abnormal breath sounds such as wheezes,rhonchi,and rales

How long is the effectiveness of epinephrine?

about 10 to 20 minutes

Q29 - A male patient who works in a steel fabricating plant has suffered a flash burn to his right arm and hand. Which one of the following assessment findings would assist the EMT in deciding the burn is superficial and not partial thickness?

absence of blisters.

apnea

absence of breathing; respiratory arrest

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. You apply 100% oxygen and assess her blood glucose level, which reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop:

acidosis and dehydration.

Activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested:

acids or alkalis.

It is MOST important to determine a patient's weight when asking questions pertaining to a toxic ingestion because:

activated charcoal is given based on a patient's weight.

Term that means "sudden onset".

acute

A 35-year-old mildly obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is:

acute cholecystitis

bronchitis

acute or chronic inflammation of the lung

A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should:

administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport

A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should:

administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should:

administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.

sickle cell disease

administer oxygen to a patient with this in order to provide better perfusion

A patient who has ingested a toxic substance is to receive activated charcoal. The EMT knows that the charcoal will benefit the patient by:

adsorbing the poisonous substance in the stomach.

25 to 50 grams

adult dose of activated charcoal

Q33-A patient has been splashed in the face with battery acid. He is complaining of being unable to see anything and severe burning to his face. On closer examination, you note him to be holding both eyes tightly shut and significant burns to his cheeks and eyelids. In this situation, the EMT would assess the eyes:

after assessing the patient's radial pulse.

Elderly patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger patients because of:

age-related deterioration of their sensory systems.

DTs is a syndrome associated with withdrawal from:

alcohol

What are some things that can reduce the patient's response to pain?

alcohol intoxication, head injury, and the influence of other drugs & substances

The MOST commonly abused drug in the United States is:

alcohol.

The EMT is transporting a patient with the diagnosis of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. As such, the EMT would recognize that the patient has a past medical history of:

alcoholism.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: be

alert for personal hazards

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a:

allergen

Extrinsic asthma

allergic rxn from irritants in environment

Q34-You have applied a nonporous dressing to a stab wound on a patient's chest. The Emergency Medical Responder assisting you asks you why the dressing was taped on three sides. Your best response is that taping the dressing on three sides:

allows trapped air to escape on exhalation.

glucose

along with oxygen this is the primary fuel for cellular metabolism

type 2 diabetes

also called NIDDM (non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus) or adult onset diabetes

diabetes melitus

ametabolic disorder in which the ability to metabolize carbohydrates is impaired; usually lack of insulin

asthma

an acute spasm of the smaller air passages, called bronchioles,swelling of the mucous lining of the respiratory passages

pertussis(whooping cough)

an airborne bacterial infection that effects mostly children younger than 6 years

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called:

an aneurysm

Pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is MOST suggestive of:

an aortic aneurysm

OPQRSTI (signs and symptoms)

an evalution of a patient's signs and symptoms, which includes: - Onset (When did pain start and what where you doing?) - Provokes (Does anything make it better/worse?) - Quality (Explain the pain: Is it sharp, dull, etc?) - Radiates (Do you hurt anywhere else?) - Severity (How bad is the pain 1-10?) - Time (How long has it been going on?) - Interventions (What have you done to try to combat the pain? Where medications taken? If so, where they perscribed to you?)

meningitis

an infammation of the meningeal coverings of teh brain and spinal cord; it is usually caused by a virus or a bacterium.

pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

an infection of the fallopian tubes and the surrounding tissues of the pelvis

diphtheria

an infectious disease in which membrane forms , lining the pharynx;can severely obstruct the passage of air into the larynx

pandemic

an outbreak on a global level

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:

an ulcer

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:

an ulcer.

coma

an unconscious state in which a person does not respond to any stimulus, including pain

aura

an unusual sensory sensation that may precede a seizure episode by hours or only a few seconds

A symptom of inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle.

angina pectoris

diabetes mellitus

another name for diabetes which means that the body cannot metabolize glucose therefore there is a wasting of glucose in the urine

What are fibrinolytics?

anti-clotter

naloxone (Narcan)

antidote to reverse opioid overdose

Which of the following conditions or factors would be the LEAST likely to result in a change in behavior?

antihypertensive medications

neurological deficit

any deficiency in the nervous system's functioning

The term "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as:

any reaction that interferes with activities of daily living or is deemed unacceptable by others.

Define Poison

any substance that impairs health or causes death by its chemical action

poison

any substance whose chemical action can damage body structures or impair body function

The blood is ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta through what valve?

aortic valve

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are MOST indicative of:

appendicitis

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are MOST indicative of:

appendicitis.

You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a "bad reaction" the last time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epinephrine auto-injector. You should:

apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital.

Penetrating Injuries

are caused by any object that can penetrate the surface of the body - such as bullets, darts, nails, and knives.

Secondary Phase Injuries

are due to flying debris propelled by the force of the blast, or blast wind. Most common are lacerations, impaled objects, fractures, and burns.

Primary Phase Injuries

are due to the pressure wave of the blast. These injuries primarily affect the gas-containing organs, such as the lungs, stomach, intestines, inner ears, and sinuses.

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they:

are usually absorbed quickly into the body.

Febrile seizures:

are usually benign but should be evaluated.

coronary arteries

arteries supplying the heart with blood

Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the ________ and then to the _____________.

arterioles / capillaries

Stage 3 of withdrawal

as early as 48 hrs: Major seizures

You respond to the residence of a 55-year-old female with a possible allergic reaction to peanuts that she ate approximately 30 minutes ago. The patient is conscious and alert, but has diffuse urticaria and the feeling that she has a lump in her throat. As your partner applies oxygen to the patient, you should:

ask her if she has prescribed epinephrine

A 58-year-old male presents with confusion, right-sided weakness, and slurred speech. His wife is present and is very upset. As your partner is applying oxygen, it is MOST important for you to:

ask his wife when she noticed the symptoms.

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should:

ask the daughter how her father normally behaves.

Q32- The EMT is properly assessing for a spinal cord injury when she:

asks the patient to spread his fingers apart on both hands.

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and a high fever should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:

aspirin.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to:

assess the scene for potential hazards.

A 38-year-old female was bitten by fire ants while at the park with her kids. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious, has profoundly labored breathing, and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body and her face is very swollen. You should:

assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should:

assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device

Law enforcement has summoned you to a nightclub, where a 22-year-old female was found unconscious in an adjacent alley. Your primary assessment reveals that her respirations are rapid and shallow and her pulse is rapid and weak. She is wearing a medical alert bracelet that identifies her as an epileptic. There is an empty bottle of vodka next to the patient. You should:

assist ventilations, perform a rapid exam, and prepare for immediate transport.

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and propoxyphene (Darvon). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient will include:

assisted ventilation, naloxone (Narcan), and rapid transport.

Q35-The EMT recognizes that the division between the thoracic and abdominal cavities lies approximately:

at the fifth intercostal space.

The initial part of a generalied seizure experienced by some patients is called the:

aura.

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

avoid contaminating yourself.

The EMT shows that she understands the difference between classic angina and an acute myocardial infarction (MI) when she states:

b. "An acute myocardial infarction results in the death of cardiac tissue; classic angina does not."

The EMT has an accurate understanding of the solid organs contained within the abdomen when she states:

b. "Solid organs are very vascular and may bleed excessively when injured."

Which of the following best describes the structure and function of the stomach?

b. A hollow organ that secretes digestive enzymes and fluids.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you note that his abdomen feels rigid. Which of the following would the EMT do next?

b. Ask the patient to take a deep breath and re-palpate the rigid area.

Which one of the following statements about cardiac compromise or acute coronary syndrome should the EMT recognize as true?

b. Cardiac compromise should be suspected for any patient with chest discomfort.

You have been dispatched for a patient with severe abdominal pain. On scene, a 57-year-old male informs you that he has a past medical history of chronic pancreatitis, which has "flared up." Which of the following precipitationg factors would the EMT identify as the most likely cause of hte exacerbation?

b. Consumption of 8 beers this afternoon.

You are providing continuing education for a group of EMTs. The topic is acute abdominal pain. What point would you stress when discussing the EMT's treatment of the patient with acute abdominal pain?

b. Definitive care for patients with abdominal pain is hospital evaluation and possible surgical intervention.

When you are obtaining information for the medical history, which of the following items would be significant for a patient with suspected cholecystitis?

b. Fried chicken and potato salad for dinner.

You are treating a woman with heavy vaginal bleeding. When estimated the blood loss, which of the following will be most useful to the EMT?

b. Total number of sanitary napkins used.

You are transporting a patient with chest pain to the hospital emergency department. In regards to possible fibrinolytic therapy, which one of the following should you relay as a possible relative contraindication to this therapy.

b. Use of anticoagulant medication.

Regarding arteries, the EMT should recognize that all arteries:

b. carry blood away from the heart.

Assessment of a confused and lethargic paitent with diabetes and renal failure reveals her to be lying in bed with notable significant edema to the face, torso, and extremities. Her respirations are labored associated with a "grunting" sound. Her airway is patent, radial pulse weak, and skin cool and diaphoretic with cyanosis noted to the fingers. Oxygen has been applied by Emergency Medical Responders (EMR's). Your next action would be to:

b. sit the patient upright.

An alert, but confused patient called 911 with the complaint of abdominal pain. Assessment reveals her to be nauseated with pain that she localizes to the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. She states that she was not able to take her blood pressure medication this morning and wants to take it now with a small glass of juice. You would:

b. tell her that she should not take her medication or drink juice.

While assessing a patient with acute abdominal pain, you note that his abdomen is very rigid. When asked to relax his stomach muscles, he does. The EMT would recognize:

b. voluntary guarding.

tonic-clonic seizure

back and forth motion of an extremity and body stiffness

hypoxic drive

backup system to control respirations when oxygen levels fall; low blood oxygen levels

bacterial vaginosis

bacteria characterized by itching, burning, or pain, and possibly a fishy smelling discharge

What happens if the substance leaking out is bacteria?

bacteria does not usually produce immediate pain; however, as the peritoneal lining becomes infected the patient will begin complaining of pain. The delay in onset of pain may take several hours.

staphylococcus

bacteria that grows on food to produce food poisoning

gastroenteritis

bacterial or viral organisms that could enter the body through food or water and may cause diarrhea or vomiting

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to:

be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.

After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to:

be alert for vomiting.

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should:

be direct and clearly state your intentions.

It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may:

be homicidal as well.

Why is abdominal trauma typically considered a critical injury?

because of the potential for severe bleeding & development of hemorrhagic shock.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:

becomes engorged with blood

Q26- According to family, a 24 -year-old female suddenly began to act in a hostile manner. After assessing her, you determine that she cannot remember her name or present location and is drooling. Based on these findings, you should suspect:

behavioral emergency resulting from a physical condition.

General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include:

being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.

The onset of menstruation is called menarche and usually occurs in women who are:

between 11 and 16 years of age.

Another name for the mitral valve

bicuspid

BiPAP

bilevel positive airway pressure

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it:

binds to the substance and prevents absorption.

The major side effect associated with ingestion of activated charcoal is:

black stools.

cystitis or UTI (urinary tract infection)

bladder inflammation caused bya a bacterial infection

gastrointestinal hemorrhage

bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?

blindness

ileus

blockage of the colon

During the baseline vital sign check, the last vital sign to change is:

blood pressure

cyanosis

bluish discoloration of the skin

What are the two causes of abdominal injuries?

blunt or penetrating trauma

Respiration

body heat to be lost as warm air in lungs is exhaled into atmosphere and cooler air is inhaled. Or gain heat with breathing in air hotter than body temp.

Hyperthermia

body is exposed to more heat energy than it loses or generates more heat than it can lose. High core temperature - 101 degrees or higher

Kinetics

branch of mechanics dealing with the movements of bodies.

Hyperventilation syndrome defined as...

breathing so much the individual blows off all their CO2, a decrease in Ca in the body leads to cramps; could be caused by PE or MI

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

breif, intermittent episode with strokelike symptoms that disappear within 24 hours. TIA's are caused by an oxygen deficit in the brain tissure (ischemia) and are often a precursor to a stroke

Asthma defined as...

bronchoconstriction/inflammation

You have been called to the local community hospital for a 48 year-old-male involved in a motor-vehicle collision one hour ago. He has been diagnosed with a cerebral contusion and must be transported to a trauma center for specialty care. You recognize that a cerebral contusion is:

bruising and swelling of the brain tissue.

What are some examples of injuries that could are classified as open injury caused by penetration?

bullets, knives, ice picks, sharp metal, broken glass, screwdrivers, and other sharp objects.

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating

You are transporting a patient who had an episode of chest pain. On scene you assisted him in taking his nitroglycerin, which completely, alleviated the chest pain. En route to the hospital, he asks you why the nitroglycerin takes the chest pain away. Which one of the following is the most appropriate response?

c. "It dilates the blood vessels, which decreases the workload of the heart."

Which statement indicates that the EMT correctly understands the goal of assessing a patient wih abdominal pain?

c. "It is more important to recognize the possible abdominal emergency as opposed to determining the exact cause."

A TV reporter has been assigned to your ambulance for a ride-along. He is doing a segment on the local EMS services fro EMS week. In your down time at the station, he tells you that his wife was diagnosed with atherosclerosis. He is unsure what the condition is and asks you to explain it to him. Which one of the following is the most appropriate response?

c. "The coronary arteries become narrowed by fat deposits."

Which one of the following patient statements should make an EMT suspect primary hypertension?

c. "The doctor does not know what is causing my blood pressure to be high."

A patient with a history of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is complaining of weakness and abdominal pain. He informs you that he vomited 5 minutes before you arrived. Which of the following questions is it most important that the EMT ask first regarding the vomit?

c. "Was the vomit red or did it look like coffee grounds?"

You suspect a patient with right lower quadrant pain may have appendicitis. The patient states that he has no health insurance and wants to refuse care and transport. He asks you what can happen if it is appendicitis and he does not go to the hospital. You would reply:

c. "Your appendix could rupture, causing a major infection and shock."

You are assessing a 73-year-old male complaining of altered mental status and shortness of breath. The patient is conscious, but confused. He is breathing at a rate of 20 breaths per minute. His pulse is rapid and weak, and his skin cool and diaphoretic. An Emergency Medical Responder provides you with the following vital signs: pulse 136, respirations 20, blood pressure 168/88, and SpO2 at 89%. Family states that he is diabetic and takes insulin. He also has a history of hypertension, colon cancer, irregular heartbeat, and transient ischemic attacks. Which one of the following should you do next?

c. Apply high-flow oxygen.

You are responding to a patient with a complication related to her chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Based on this description, the paramedic would anticipate which of the following?

c. Catheter placed in the abdomen.

For a normal pregnancy, within what structure must the sperm and egg come together for fertilization?

c. Fallopian tube.

In the blood, which one of the following is responsible for the formation of blood clots?

c. Platelets.

Which of the following assessment findings on a patient complaining of abdominal pain and back pain would the EMT be most concerned about?

c. Pulsating mass above the umbilicus.

Which of the following conditions would the EMT recognize as an acute abdominal emergency?

c. Rupture of the bladder.

When he enters the room or a 62-year-old female with unknonw medical complaint, which of the following clues observed during the scene size-up would most increase the EMT's suspicion that the patient is suffering from an acute abdominal condition?

c. The patient is lying on her side with her knees drawn to her chest.

On scene, you have a 57-year-old female with profuse hemorrhage coming from her dialysis graft located on her left arm. To control the bleeding you would immediately:

c. apply direct pressure to the graft.

When treating a patient with chest pain in the prehospital setting, the primary goal of the EMT is to:

c. recognize the possibility of cardiac compromise and provide proper care.

The pancreas would be best described as a __________ organ.

c. solid.

You have been called for a 58-year-old male with an unknown medical emergency. On scene you find the alert and oriented patient to be complaining of headaches as well as weakness and "tingling" to his right arm and leg. He is diabetic and suffers from high blood pressure, for which he takes the appropriate medications. When asked, he states that he thinks he may have passed out earlier in the day, immediately after taking his morning dose of insulin. His pulse is 96, 16 and blood pressure 146/90 mmHg. Based on this presentation, you should treat the patient for:

c. stroke.

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should:

calmly identify yourself to the patient.

kidney stones

can form a clot in the kidneys

Level I - Regional Trauma Center

can manage all types of trauma 24 hrs a day, 7 days a week

Level II - Area Trauma Center

can manage most trauma with surgical capabilities 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. They are capable of stabilizing more specialized trauma patients and then transferring them to a Level I center.

Congestive heart failure

can occur any time after a heart attack; Cpap is the most effective way to treat

Poor perfusion resulting from an ineffective pump function of the heart, typically the left ventricle.

cardiogenic shock

Lightning Injury - Severe

cardiopulmonary arrest. often in remote location, delay in resuscitation leads to death

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT

carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina.

insulin

cells begin to starve without this, as it is like a key to allow glucose to enter the cells

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

cerebellum

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:

cerebral vasodilation.

The three major parts of the brain are the:

cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

electrolytes

certain salts and other chemicals that area dissolved in body fluids and cells

Q35-A patient has been assaulted and sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen. As you start the primary assessment, you note that he is vomiting blood and you begin to suction him immediately. After the airway has been suctioned, you should:

check the patient's respirations.

You have been called to a residence for a 14 year old male who states that he intentionally took some medication to kill himself. Assessment findings so far show that he is alert, oriented, and has an open airway adequate breathing. Your next action should be to:

check the radial pulse and skin.

leukotrienes

chemical substances that contribute to anaphylaxis

The typical response of the hart to ischemia is what?

chest discomfort - chest pain

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated? Choose one answer.

chlamydia

COPD

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

What are the two classifications of abdominal injuries?

closed & open

Remember: Do not expect abdominal wounds to be obvious if the patient is _______.

clothed

thrombosis

clotting of the cerebral arteries that may result in the interruption of cerebral blood flow and subsequent stroke

embolus

clotting that forms in a remote area and travels to the site of blockage

rhonchi

coarse breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the airway

Which of the following drugs is NOT a sedative-hypnotic?

cocaine

atelectasis

collapse of the alveolar air spaces of teh lungs

Glutose

commercial oral glucose

kidney disease

common cause of hypertension

You have been called for a male worker complaining of arm pain. On scene the 31 year old patient states that his arm was crushed between two heavy boxes. There was minimal pain at the time, but now his right forearm is swollen and painful, especially with movement. He also states that the arm and fingers feel like they are "asleep". You note decreased strength to the arm and radial pulse that is weak when compared to the left. There is no deformity to the arm and the skin is intact, although hard on palpation. Vital signs are pulse 88, respirations 18, and blood pressure 134/76 mmHg. Given the assessment findings, the EMT should be auspicious of:

compartment syndrome.

respiratory failure

complete stoppage of breathing

type 1 diabetes

condition in which the pancreas typically does not secrete any insulin; insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)

acute abdomen

condition of sudden onset of pain within the abdomen, usually indicating peritonitis; immediate medical or surgical treatment is necessary

hyperglycemia

condition resulting from glucose from food remaining in the blood and the levels gradually become extremely high

The heart contains specialized tissue of two kinds. What are they?

conductive tissue & contractile tissue

The property of specialized cells which generate electrical impulses that are conducted rapidly to other cells of the heart is known as what?

conductivity

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?

confusion and fatigue

A medical diagnosis that refers to the condition in which there is a buildup of fluid in the body resulting from the pump failure of the heart.

congestive heart failure

Left-sided heart failure is also referred to as what?

congestive heart failure CHF

You are transporting a 49-year-old male with "tearing" abdominal pain. You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During your reassessment, you determine that the patient's condition has deteriorated significantly. You should:

consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should:

consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior.

After assisting a patient with the use of an epinephrine auto-injector, you note that the patient's blood pressure has improved. As a knowledgeable EMT, you realize that this has occurred due to epinephrine's ability to:

constrict blood vessels.

bronchoconstriction

constriction of the smooth muscle of the bronchi and bronchioles

A 19-year-old male complains of "not feeling right." His insulin and a syringe are on a nearby table. The patient says he thinks he took his insulin and cannot remember whether he ate. He is also unable to tell you the time or what day it is. The glucometer reads "error" after several attempts to assess his blood glucose level. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:

contact medical control and administer oral glucose.

An 18 year old female has eaten a poisonous mushroom. Medical direction has ordered you to administer activated charcoal. Immediately following administration, the patient vomits the medication. She remains alert and oriented with no current life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. Your next action would be to:

contact medical control for orders to re-administer the activated charcoal.

A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:

contact medical control if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration.

A 3-year-old female ingested several leaves from a plant in the living room. The child's mother is not sure what type of plant it is, stating that she bought it simply because it was pretty. After completing your initial assessment of the child, you should:

contact the regional poison control center

You have been called to a dilapidated residence for a 26 year old female complaining of generalized weakness. After applying glvoes and goggles, you enter the home and find the patient on a couch in minimal distress. Your assessment reveals no life threats, but you do note track marks to both hands and arms. When asked about this, she states that she is an IV drug user and has Hepatitis C. Given this information, you would:

continue care with gloves and eye protection.

CPAP

continuous positive airway pressure

cardiac conduction system

contractile and conductive tissue of the heart that generates electrical impulses and causes the heart to beat

inability to swallow and unconsciousness

contraindications for oral glucose

What should you look for when inspecting the abdomen?

contusions, lacerations, abrasions, and punctures.

Common signs and symptoms of diabetic coma include all of the following, EXCEPT:

cool, clammy skin.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

hypothermia

core temperature of the body falls below 95 degrees

The name of the first two arteries to originate off the aorta.

coronary arteries

When a person has a buildup of fatty deposits on the inside of the coronary arteries, the condition is called what?

coronary artery disease

Q33-During an altercation, an intoxicated male was cut with a sharp knife. The assessment reveals a laceration across the right eyelid down to the right cheek that is oozing dark red blood. It also appears that the patient's eye was cut with the knife. As evidence by the complaint of eye pain and collection of blood in the sclera. The EMT would:

cover the eye with a sterile dressing soaked in saline.

Q33- A patient who was hit in the face with a cloud of dust while working in an industrial setting is complaining of pain and discomfort to his left eye. While performing your secondary assessment on the eye, you note some redness to the globe but do not see any obvious foreign object. The most appropriate care you can provide to this patient would be:

covering both eyes with a bandage.

hemorrhoids

created by swelling and inflammation of blood vessels surrounding the rectum

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?

cystitis

You are transporting a visibly upset female that was raped after she let a male stranger into her house. When questioning the patient, which of the following would be appropriate for the EMT to ask?

d. "Please tell me exactly where you are hurting."

When obtaining a medical history, which one of the following patient statements seemingly indicates that he is suffering from classic angina?

d. "When I stopped cutting the grass, the pain went away."

The EMT shows she is correctly administering aspirin to a patient with chest pain when she provides:

d. 325 mg of baby aspirin and instructs the patient to chew it.

The EMT would recognize which of the following patients as suffering from an acute abdomen?

d. 62-year-old male with no medical history with suddent pain to the lower abdomen.

A patient complains of severe and sharp pain to the right lower abdominal quadrant. Based on location, what organ or structure is most likely involved?

d. Appendix.

When assessing a patient in the prehospital setting, which one of the following does the EMT recognzie as an indication for aspirin.

d. Chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack.

You have been dispatched for a male patient who is "sick". While enroute, Emergency Medical Responders inform you that the patient has espophageal varices, which appear to have ruptured. You would inform your partner to prepare what materials or piece of equipment?

d. Suction machine.

Which of the following statements is true concerning the functions of the vagina?

d. The vagina serves as a passage for the fetus during delivery as well as an outlet for blood during menstruation.

You are by the side of a patient complaining of severe chest pain that radiates into his right arm and neck. He is alert and oriented with an open airway and adequate breathing. His radial pulse is strong, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Your partner reports his pulse rate is 84, respirations are 18, blood pressure is 86/62 mmHg, and SpO2 is 98% on a nonrebreather mask. You have obtained a medical history and performed the secondary assessment. The patient states that he has had two heart attacks in the past and is allergic to aspirin and sulfa medications. Which one of the following should you do next?

d. Transfer him to the stretcher and transport.

Prior to administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain, the EMT must ensure that the:

d. nitroglycerin is prescribed for the patient.

After being dispatched for a male patient experiencing shortness of breath, you arrive to find a 67-year-old man sitting upright at his kitchen table in severe respiratory distress. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, but confused, and has an open airway. His breathing is extremely labored and inadequate, and hs skin is cool, diaphoretic, and dusky in color. Family states a history of hypertension and angina, for which he takes nitroglycerin. Your immediate action in caring for this patient is to:

d. start positive pressure ventilation.

Q29 - A 20 year-old waitress spilled hot coffee and burned her right forearm. When assessing the burn, you note a full thickness burn surrounded by partial thickness burns. In addition, she complains of pain in the surrounding partial thickness burn, but not in the center where the full thickness burn is located. Assessing an EMT, you recognize that the patient is not localizing pain to the center of the burn because of:

damage to pain receptors in the dermis.

drowning

death from suffocation by submersioin water

Bends

decompression sickness

hypoxemia

decreased oxygen levels in the blood

Kussmaul Respirations

deep and rapid breathing that help the body to "blow off" excess acids

kussmaul respirations

deep rapid breathing usually the result of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body; helps blow off excess acids

Ischemia defined as

deficiency of O2 blood

perfusion

delivery of oxygen and other nutrients to the cells resulting from the constant adequate circulation of blood through the capillaries

Q26- You have been dispatched to transfer a patient with schizophrenia from a hospital emergency department to a psych department at another hospital. While en route, your partner states that he cannot remember what schizophrenia is. You should tell him that schizophrenia is a behavioral disorder commonly characterized by:

delusions and hallucinations.

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs when a person:

demonstrates agitation or violence or becomes a threat to himself or herself, or to others.

Each heartbeat has two distinct components of electrical activity called what?

depolarization and repolarization.

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:

depression.

Q29 - When classifying a burn assessing superficial, partial, or full thickness, the EMT should determine the:

depth of the burn.

type 1 diabetes

develops in childhood requires synthetic insulin

metered-dose inhaler (MDI)

device consisting of a plastic container and a conister of medication that is used to form an aerosolized medication that a patient can inhale

type 2 diabetes

diabetes that can be regulated by diet, excercise, and drugs other than insulin; non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)

hyperglycemia

diabetic comma

Signs of agitated delirium include

diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.

After the systolic phase of the heart what comes next?

diastolic phase

In addition to ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's responsibility when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:

diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient.

The abdominal cavity contains the major organs of what 3 systems?

digestive, urinary & endocrine

A 29-year-old male complains of a severe headache and nausea that has gradually worsened over the past 12 hours. He is conscious, alert, and oriented and tells you that his physician diagnosed him with migraine headaches. He further tells you that he has taken numerous different medications, but none of them seem to help. His blood pressure is 132/74 mm Hg, his pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 20 breaths/min and adequate. In addition to high-flow oxygen, further treatment should include:

dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?

diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Conduction

direct transfer of heat from a part of the body to a colder object (i.e. warm hand, cold metal) or immersed in water of less than 98 degrees

emphysema

disease of the lungs, extreme dilation and eventual destruction of the pulmonary alveoli

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a/an:

disorder of carbohydrate metabolism

V-Fibrillation

disorganized, ineffective quivering of the ventricles. no blood is pumped, patient unconscious within seconds

ventricular fibrillation

disorganized, ineffective twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest

Heat exhaustion (and hypovolemia) symptoms

dizziness, weakness with nausea or headache onset while working/exercising in hot, humid or poorly ventilated environment cold, clammy skin with ashen pallor dry tongue and thirst normal vital signs, although pulse may be rapid and diastolic bp low normal or slightly elevated body temp

An 18 year-old-male patient was struck in the head by a palate of concrete blocks being moved by a crane at a construction site. He has a large laceration to the left side of his head and noted instability to the skull beneath the wound, with moderate bleeding occurring. He is alert and oriented with an open airway, his breathing is adequate, and his pulse is strong and regular. Proper care of this patient should include:

dressing over top of the laceration.

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who

drink a lot of alcohol.

sympathomimetics

drugs that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system; hypertension, tachycardia, and dilated pupils

Q37 - As soon as the baby is delivered from the vaginal canal, it is critical that the EMT immediately:

dry and warm the newborn.

Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49-year-old male with bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to experience?

dry mucous membranes

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

drying of the eyes.

Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by the:

duration of the seizure.

what was it?

during a poison call poison control wants to know what

how much? patients weight?

during a poison call the hospital wants to know what

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:

dysarthria

Symptoms of pulmonary edema

dyspnea, orthopnea, frothy sputum, tachycardia, anxiety, tripod, fatigue, crackles, cyanosis, pale, moist, cough; cardiogenic JVD and swelling in lower legs/feet

Symptoms of epiglottitis

dyspnea,high fever, sore throat, drooling with swallows, anxiety, tripod, fatigue, stridor, cyanosis, cannot speak well

Q37 - A young female is complaining of sharp pain to the left lower quadrant of her abdomen. She states that her last period was seven weeks ago. With this information, the EMT should be suspicous of:

ectopic pregnancy.

kidneys

either of two bean-shaped excretory organs that filter wastes (especially urea) from the blood and excrete them and water in urine; regulates blood pressure by removing sodium, thus water from the body

Contractile cells react to what?

electrical impulse

vomiting

emesis means what

Remember that the patient is in pain and is probably anxious; he or she requires all your skills of rapid assessment and:

emotional support

Insulin functions in the body by:

enabling glucose to enter the cells

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:

ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed

What are some of the first steps you should take when assisting a patient with abdominal injuries?

ensure an open airway & adequate breathing. Inspect the airway for evidence of bloody vomitus that may be associated with the injury & suction if necessary.

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:

ensure your safety

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.

A patient without a history of seizures experiences a sudden convulsion. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:

epilepsy

Q35-You have arrived on the scene of a stabbing. As you approach the patient, you note that he has removed his shirt and has a single stab wound to the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. At the patient's side, your first action should be to:

examine the patient's airway.

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:

excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.

polyphagia

excessive eating

polyphagia

excessive eating as a result of cellular "hunger"

diaphoresis

excessive sweating

polydipsia

excessive thirst

polyuria

excessive urination

Always search for an ____ wound when assessing a gunshot victim.

exit

It is not uncommon for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:

experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

During the focused physical exam, the first step listed to assess the abdomen is:

explain to the patient what you are about to do.

Frostbite

exposed body parts become frozen (superficial or deep) hard and waxy.

Frostnip

exposed body parts become very cold but not frozen (also called chilblains, immersion foot). Skin is pale and cold to touch, not painful.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as an:

extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:

fallopian tube.

Arteries carry deoxygenated blood - True or False

false

abused inhalants

favorite for kids; effective and lethal dose are close; patient's own adrenaline can put them in to cardiac arrest

Which type of seizure occurs in children and is caused by a fever.

febrile.

Strands that are responsible for making the clot stronger.

fibrin

Peritonitis may result in shock because:

fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.

Q29 - A student is in a science lab has had an unknown chemical plashed into her eye. After assessing the airway, breathing and circulation, the EMT should immediately:

flush the eye with coious amounts of tap water.

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

foramen magnum

Hemoglobin is:

found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen

polyuria

frequent and plentiful urination

polydipsia

frequent drinking of water to satisfy continuous thirst

What are some ways the diaphragm could be injured?

from a penetrating injury or from a severe blunt force applied to the abdomen.

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?

gallbladder

block the outlet from the gallbladder causing pain

gallstones do this

decompression sickness

gas, especially nitrogen, forms bubbles in blood vessels and tissues of divers who ascend too quickly

What are some examples of leaking contents that could spill into the abdominal cavity if a hollow organ is lacerated or ruptures?

gastric juices from the stomach, highly acidic & partially digested food from the upper small intestine, bacteria from the large intestine, urine from the bladder.

convulsion

generalized jerky muscle movement

Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge?

genital herpes

What type of external soft tissue injury can lead to severe blood loss?

genital trauma

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:

given the option of being treated by a female EMT.

endocrine glands

glands that secrete or release chemicals that are used inside the body

The "Golden Period"

has been established as a parameter for emergency care because severely injured patients have the best chance for survival if intervention takes place as quickly as possible from the time of injury.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:

has bleeding within the brain.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:

has gathered patient history information.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that:

he has hemophilia A

What does cardo refer to?

heart

Q37 - The EMT should recognize that a newborn is stable when assessment shows:

heart rate of 120 beats per minute.

Illness from heat exposure (3)

heat cramps heat exhaustion heatstroke

blood coming from mouth

hematemesis

An acute accelerated drop in the hemoglobin level, which is caused by red blood cells breaking down at a faster rate than normal, occurs during a __________ crisis.

hemolytic

this is a sickle cell crisis where there is an acute accelerated drop in hemoglobin caused by RBC breaking down faster than normal

hemolytic crisis is what

Q37 - When treating a patient you believe to be suffering from an ectopic pregnancy, you know that the primary threat to the patient's life is:

hemorrhage.

As a woman approaches menopause:

her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity

Where is the repolarization wave of the atria?

hidden in the QRS

wheezing

high pitched whistling breath sound; chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or ashema

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:

histamines and leukotrienes.

Urticaria is the medical term for:

hives

gallbladder, stomach, small and large intestines, and urinary bladder

hollow organs in the abdomen

gallbladder

hollow pouch that acts as a reservoir for bile

Heat stroke symptoms

hot, dry, flushed skin May still be sweating Temperature may rise to 106 or more level of consciousness falls First sign may be change in behavior becomes unresponsive

its ability to remove sodium chloride from the body and therefore excess fluid

how do the kidneys affect blood pressure?

initial signs of liver disease or if there is a sudden burst there will be hematemesis and melena

how does esophageal varices present itself

inherited

how is sickle cell spread

flood skin with water to dilute

how to treat a poison that has been been in direct contact with patients skin

give the patient glucose

how to treat hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)

Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat patients with a history of seizures?

hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

hyperglycemia with low-to-absent insulin level, resulting in dehydration and buildup of acid

hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)

hyperglycemia with some insulin, causing dehydration but no acid buildup

insulin via IV

hyperglycemic patient needs this

dry and warm

hyperglycemic patient skin condition

You determine a patient's blood glucose level to be 289 mg/dl. You document this result on the prehospital care report as:

hyperglycemic.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

hypertension

cerebral edema

hypoglycemic crisis in a pediatric patient can cause this

1) takes too much insulin 2) regular dose of insulin but not enough food 3) unusual amount of exercise that results in low glucose

hypoglycemic crisis occurs when a patient does on of these three thins

needs sugar immediately

hypoglycemic patient needs this

moist and pale

hypoglycemic patient skin condition

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?

hypovolemia

Q34-You are managing a patient with a large flail segment to the right lateral chest. As such, you should recognize that the immediate threat to life is:

hypoxia.

Q29 - A patient rescued from an apartment fire has sustained partial and full thickness burns from his chest down to his feet. The EMT should recognize that this patient is prone to develop:

hypthermia.

What is your assessment of a suspected abdominal injury geared towards?

identifying that a potential injury exists and not toward identifying the particular organ that has been injured.

drink juice or other sugary drink

if a hypoglycemic patient is conscious and alert they should do this

Assessing the blood pressure and oxygen saturation of a patient with a behavioral crisis should be performed:

if doing so will not worsen his or her emotional distress.

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine:

if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.

gastric bleeding resulting in hematemesis and melena

if peptic ulcers get really bad this will happen

Q37 - A 31 year old female in her third trimester of pregnancy lost her balance and fell down a flight of stairs. When treating her, the EMT should:

immobilize her, and then tilt the long spine board to the left.

sickle cell disease

in this disease the hemoglobin S cells only live 16 days, compared to normal hemoglobin A cells which live 120 days

When providing information about diabetes to a group of Emergency Medical Responders, you tell them that it is a disease:

in which the pancreas fails to produce the proper amount of insulin.

respiratory failure

inadequate respiratory rate and/or tidal volume

Modify heat loss/gain

increase/reduce body activity seek shelter (just covering head minimizes head loss by 70%) wear insulated clothing(cold)/remove (heat)

hypercarbia

increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Also called "hypercapnia"

COPD can cause what in the pulmonary vessels in the lungs?

increased pressure

respiratory distress

increased respiratory effort resulting from impaired respiratory function

A hypnotic drug is one that:

induces sleep.

Term used to refer to death of tissue

infarction

diverticulitis

inflammation in small pockets at weak areas in the muscle walls

Epiglottitis defined as...

inflammation of epiglottis, usually viral or bacteria

appendicitis

inflammation of the appendix

cystitis

inflammation of the bladder

bronchiolitis

inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 years.

cholecystitis

inflammation of the gallbladder

pancreatitis

inflammation of the pancreas caused by obstruction gallstone, alcohol abuse, or other diseases

appendicitis

inflammation that could cause rupture which would lead to abscess, pertonitis or shock

Bronchitis defined as...

inflammation/swelling of bronchi/bronchioles and excess mucus produced

croup

inflammatory disease upper respiratory system; barking cough; usually seen in children

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route.

ingestion

Which of the following correctly identifies the routes by which a poison can enter the human body?

ingestion, inhalation, injection, absorption.

duodenum

initial part of the small intestine where digestive juices from the liver and pancreas mix

Q37 - Assessment indicates that a newborn's respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute and his heart rate is 80 beats per minute. The EMT should:

initiate positive pressure ventilation.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unconscious on the couch. The patient is unresponsive, her respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should:

initiate ventilatory assistance

A poison that enters the body by __________ is the MOST difficult to treat.

injection

A 31 year old female was stung by a hornet while golfing. Your assessment reveals her to be confused with stridorous respirations. Her skin is warm and flushed and covered with hives. A stinger is located on the back of her neck. Based on this information, the EMT would recognize that the route of poisoning suffered by this patient would be:

injection.

Visceral Peritoneum

innermost lining of abdomen that adheres & supports the organs.

A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient's son tells you that his mother has type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 6 months ago. The patient's speech is slurred and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should:

inquire about the possibility of head trauma.

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 300 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes:

insulin

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

insulin is not available in the body.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that:

internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot.

The name of the electrical pathway from the SA node to the AV node.

intranodal tract

guarding

involuntary muscle contractions of the abdominal wall

Peritonitis

irritation & inflammation of the peritoneal lining.

peritonitis

irritation of the peritoneum

Type 1 diabetes:

is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body

The poison control center will be able to provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

is aware of the substance that is involved

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT must assume that she:

is in shock.

The mental status of a patient who has experienced a typical seizure:

is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:

is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:

is significantly hyperglycemic.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum:

is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.

Level IV - Trauma Facility

is typically a small community hospital in a remote area capable of stabilizing seriously injured trauma patients and then transferring them to a higher-level trauma center.

Term that refers to a deficient supply of oxygenated blood.

ischemia

vaso occlusive crisis

ischemia and pain caused by sickle shaped red blood cells that obstruct blood flow to a portion of the body

Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting:

it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes.

Which of the following is characteristic of carbon monoxide?

it is an odorless gass that can kill a person by causing severe hypoxia.

What happens if the substance leaking out of the organ is acidic or contains irritating substances?

it will typically cause immediate & excruciating pain

When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should:

keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.

unconsciousness, hyperglycemic crisis and death

ketoacidosis can progress to these things

Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as:

knowingly misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.

Injuries to the male genitalia include:

lacerations, abrasions, avulsions, penetrations, amputations, and contusions.

jejunum

largest part of the small intestine

When using an auto-injector to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:

lateral portion of the thigh

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in:

leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity.

Heat stroke

least common, most serous - occurs when body is subject to more heat than it can handle. Temperature rises rapidly to level where tissues are destroyed. Untreated leads to death.

You respond to the residence of a 70-year-old male who complains of weakness and severe shortness of breath. His wife tells you that he is a dialysis patient, but has missed his last two treatments. After applying high-flow oxygen, you auscultate his lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi. The patient is conscious, but appears confused. His blood pressure is 98/54 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. You should:

leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport.

Diverticulitis occurs in which quadrant?

left lower quadrant

With regards to the heart anatomy, CHF is...

left ventricular

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who they pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should:

limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be:

limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

esophaitis

lining of the esophagus becomes inflamed by infection or from acid in the stomach

auscultation

listening to sounds within the body (usually with a stethoscope)

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:

liver

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

liver

An overdose on acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause:

liver failure.

RUQ or mid-abdominal region and may refer to pain in the upper back, shoulder or flank

location of pain caused by cholecystitis

ULQ and URQ and may radiate to the back

location of pain caused by pancreatitis

posterior muscular wall of the abdomen, behind the peritoneum in the retroperitoneal space

location of the kidneys

immediately behind the pubic symphysis in the pelvic cavity

location of the urinary bladder

Q37 - The EMT recognizes the underlying pathophysiology associated with an ectopic pregnancy as a fertilized egg that is:

lodged in a fallopian tube.

What should you look for when scanning the scene for a possible object that caused the injury?

look for evidence of knives, guns, sharp metal, and other objects that may have penetrated the body.

A 57 year-old-male patient has fallen 20 feet from eh roof of his home while setting up holiday lights on his roof. He impacted the ground feet first and has suffered open fractures to both tibias, with both bones protruding through the skin. Your assessment reveals him to be responsive to painful stimuli. His airway is open, his breathing is rapid, and his radial pulse is weak. The skin is cool and diaphoretic. According to family, he has no medical history. Your partner is providing positive pressure ventilation. At this point in the patient's care, it is a priority for you to:

look for other injuries.

A strangulated hernia is one that:

loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

Lightning Injury - Mild

loss of consciousness, amnesia, confusion, tingling, superficial burns (if any)

You are reviewing a prehospital care report for a patient with altered mental status that occurred after he took too much insulin. Based on this information, you should assume that at the time of EMS contact, the patient's blood sugar level was probably:

low.

A bladder infection called cystitis is more common than kidney infection, especially in women. Patients with cystitis usually have:

lower abdominal pain

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with PID?

lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge

An aortic aneurysm will occur in which area of the body?

lower back and lower quadrants

dehydration

main cause of UTI

to maintain homeostasis in the body's internal environment

main function of the endocrine system

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to:

maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should:

maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.

A 48-year-old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. When you arrive at the scene and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has severely labored breathing, and has hives over his entire trunk. You should:

maintain his airway and assist his ventilations.

What is the major complication associated with the laceration or tearing of a solid organ?

major bleeding & severe shock

People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT:

married males older than 30 years.

15 sec

max time to suction and airway

acute aortic dissection

may appear to be abdominal pain due to lower back pain; presents as a "tearing" pain

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer:

may be relatively painless.

Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended to treat patients who have ingested a poisonous substance because it:

may result in aspiration of vomitus.

Your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an intoxicated inmate. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has slow, shallow respirations. You should be MOST concerned that this patient:

may vomit and aspirate.

acute abdomen

medical term referring to sudden onset of abdominal pain

nitroglycerin

medication that dilates the blood vessels, increasing blood flow and decreasing the workload of the heart

opioids

medicines with actions similar to morphine

visceral peritoneum

membrane that line the organs of the abdominal cavity

parietal peritoneum

membrane that lines the abdominal cavity

Which of the following is NOT an assessment parameter included in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

memory

The blood in the left atrium is ejected through a valve into the left ventricle. What's the name of that valve?

mitral valve

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes phenytoin (Dilantin) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen, you should:

monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should:

monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.

stomach

most digestion of food occurs in this organ

What is the most common cause of blunt trauma to the abdomen?

motor vehicle collision

What are some MOI associated with blunt trauma abdominal injuries?

motor vehicle crashes, falls, pedestrian-vehicle collisions, motorcycle collisions, assaults, heavy objects thrown at or falling on the patent, and crushing injuries from machinery or other heavy equipment.

What does myo refer to?

muscle

Diaphragm

muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

For the EMT to achieve the best results when assisting the epinephrine, the medication should be placed into:

muscle.

Term used to refer to when a portion of the heart dies because of the lack of an adequate supply of oxygenated blood.

myocardial infarction

You are assessing a young male patient who was found in an alley by sanitation workers. Assessment reveals the patient to respond to painful stimuli by opening his eyes, but then close them once you stop pinching the muscles on his neck. His airway is open and his breathing is shallow. His skin is cool and diaphorectic and his pupils are constricted and do not react to light. Based on these assessment findings, the EMT would be suspicious of:

narcotic overdose.

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:

narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.

The son of a patient with altered mental status informs you that his father is a type I diabetic. Based on this information, you would understand that the patient:

needs to take insulin.

reticular activating system (RAS)

nerve cells within the brainstem that control consciousness

Atropine sulfate and pralidoxime chloride are antidotes for:

nerve gas agents.

Intrinsic asthma

nonallergenic from infection, stress, or exercise

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when:

normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms

80 to 120 mg/dL

normal blood glucose level

glipizide (Glucotrol)

normal insulin-type oral medication

Pulmonary embolism defined as...

obstruction of blood flow, from immobility, heart disease, surgery, bone fracture, venus pooling w/ pregnancy, cancer, deep vein thrombosis, birth control, clotting issues, smoking

Q34-Care for an open chest wound and an abdominal evisceration are similar in that:

occlusion dressings are placed over both wounds.

Q35-EMT care for an open chest wound and an abdominal evisceration are similar in that:

occlusion dressings are placed over both wounds.

Tertiary Phase Injuries

occur when the patient is thrown away from the source of the blast.

Alcohol withdrawal syndrome

occurs after a period of abstinence from alcohol to which the body has become accustomed Dose dependent

esophageal varices

occurs when the amount of blood in the vessels surrounding the esophagus increase

Q37 - When should the EMt use the APGAR scoring system on a newborn?

one and five minutes after the baby has been delivered.

heel tap

one method of checking for appendicitis

Law of Inertia

one of the laws of motion, states: a body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion, unless acted upon by an outside force.

ischemic stroke

one of the two main types of stroke; occurs when blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage inside a blood vessel

hemorrhagic stroke

one of the two main types of strokes; occurs as a result of bleeding inside the brain

ventricle

one of two (right and left) lower chambers of the heart. The left ventricle receives blood fromt he left atrium and delivers blood to the aorta. the right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it inot the pulmonary artery

atrium

one of two (right and left) upper chambers of the heart. The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava and delivers it to the right ventricle. The left atrium receives blood from pulmonary veins and delivers it to the left ventricle

intact airway

open airway

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unconscious and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should:

open the patient's airway and assess his respirations.

Heroin is an example of a:

opioid

Glutose is a trade name for:

oral glucose.