CompTIA Project+ Test C

The table in the figure below shows the float for each task. Which of the following is the float of the path start-A-B-E-C-end? Task Early Start Late Start Float A 1 1 0 B 0 0 0 C 0 0 0 D 5 7 2 E 0 0 0 F 2 5 3 G 1 7 6

0 (zero)

In a risk management plan, what are the inputs to a risk matrix? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Contingency plan B. Type of risk C. Risk description D. Response plan

A and B are correct. A risk matrix is used to assess risk in a risk management plan. It defines various types or levels of risk, and thus increases their visibility and helps management in decision making by estimating outcome through a contingency plan. Contingency planning is the development of alternatives to deal with risk events.

When developing a project's calendar and thinking about a multinational company's holidays, individual team members' calendars, and special days declared by the company, which two date categories might it be easy to overlook? A Religious festivals B Holidays in other countries C Team members who work weekend schedules D Team members who work four 10-hour days E Company holidays

A and B are correct. In a multinational environment, there may be holidays or religious festivals in other countries that are not celebrated in yours. For example, your company's formal holidays may be applicable only to the United States, with other holidays left up to its foreign office.

Which of the following tools are used to calculate the number of resources required to complete a project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Project management software B Expert judgment C Quality metric D Quality checklist

A and B are correct. The following tools are used to calculate the number of resources needed to complete a project: Project management software: Provides you with the ability to display a number of different project views, which can be a great communication tool for calculating the number of resources required to complete a project. Expert judgment: Relies on expertise of team members, consultants, industry experts, and others familiar with the project to analyze the number of resources required to complete a project.

What are the two types of charts you might utilize to display a project schedule? A Gantt chart B Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) C Milestone chart D Critical path method (CPM) E Histogram

A and C are correct. Gantt and milestone charts are the two most commonly used formats for displaying a project schedule

What is a critical path?

A critical path is the longest project path

You are project manager for the ORGH company. Nancy Spears, the CIO, has asked you to create a document that will determine whether or not a new, proposed project is worth doing. What type of document has she asked you to create? A Business case B Feasibility study C Scope statement D Business analysis report and finding

A is correct. A business case is a document used to determine whether a proposed project is worth doing based on the cost, time, and—most often—the return on investment of the project.

What key meeting is held at the beginning of executing processes? A Project kickoff B Project review C Project overview D Project status meeting

A is correct. A project kickoff meeting is held at the beginning of the executing phase and serves to introduce team members, review project goals and objectives, stakeholder expectations, and roles and responsibilities of team members.

During the executing process, a project manager develops a version control standard. Which of the following is the best reason for the project manager to develop this standard? A To ensure that the project team is looking at the same information B To summarize key deliverables for each project phase C To review stakeholder expectations D To review project goals and deliverables

A is correct. A project manager develops a version control standard to ensure that the project team is looking at the same information, which means everyone knows to a certain degree what everyone else on the project is doing. Thus, the project team can focus on their work more efficiently and properly.

A project manager assigns team members from four different countries to work on the same project. While generating a resource management plan, which of the following should be considered first? A Reviewing holiday and vacation schedules with all team members B Discussing the project timeline and milestones C Locating each employee on the map in the office D Understanding the international country code of all team members

A is correct. A resource management plan identifies and documents project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships. While generating a resource management plan, a project manager should first review holiday and vacation schedules with all team members. This helps in planning a project scope document, according to which the team will work to accomplish a project completion date. In short, a resource management plan will determine project duration.

Which project management plan defines how project team resources will be acquired? A Staffing management plan B Human resources management plan C Cost management plan D Staffing acquisition plan

A is correct. A staffing management plan defines how project resources will be acquired, released, trained, and rewarded. It also addresses compliance and safety concerns. Staffing management plan A staffing management plan is not a project resource; it's a subsidiary of an overall project management plan and defines when project team members will be brought onto and released from the project. It describes when and how human resource requirements will be met. Depending on project needs, it can be formal or informal, highly detailed, or broadly framed. The staffing management plan can include staff acquisition, resource calendars, a staff release plan, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance, and safety. The staffing management plan should be updated throughout the project. According to the PMBOK guide, the staffing management plan should include the following elements: Staff acquisition: Describes how team members are acquired (from inside or outside an organization), where they're located, and the costs for specific skills and expertise. Resource calendars: Defines time frames in which project resources will be needed and when the recruitment process should begin. Resources can be described individually, by teams, or by function (programmers, testers, and so on). Many staffing management plans use a resource histogram, usually in chart form, with project time along the horizontal axis and hours needed along the vertical axis. Staff release plan: Attention should be given to how to release project team members at the end of their assignments. You should have reassignment procedures in place to move them to other projects or back to their pre-project assignments. Doing so reduces overall project costs because you pay them only for their work time, then release them, thus avoiding the need to keep them busy between assignments or until the scheduled end date, should they complete their activities early. Having these procedures in place will also maintain morale, because everyone will be clear about their reassignment, thus reducing post-project employment anxiety. Training needs: Describes training plans necessary for team members without the required skills or abilities to perform project tasks. Recognition and rewards: Describes systems you'll use to reward and reinforce desired work behavior. Compliance: If your project involves regulations or contractual obligations (such as union contracts) that must be met, the staffing management plan should detail these and any human resource policies that deal with compliance issues. Safety: Include in the staffing management plan any safety policies and procedures applicable to the project or its field of industry.

This type of estimate is predicated on historical data and expert judgment. A Top-down B Bottom-up C Parametric D Appraisal

A is correct. A top-down estimate relies on historical data and expert judgment. It's also known as analogous estimating.

A change control board meeting was conducted when a team member requested the project manager to change the project scope. Which of the following actions should the project manager take next, after the change control board meeting? A Notify the requester of the verdict. B Modify the project scope statement. C Obtain a new sign-off on the project scope statement. D Review the impact of the proposed change.

A is correct. After the change control board meeting, the project manager should notify the requester of the CCB (change control board) verdict to approve or deny the change.

Which of these statements describes an assumption? A Our most senior web developer will be available to work on this project. B The electrical capacity at the site of the project event may not be adequate. C The project's due date is June 27. D There's a potential for server administrator to receive a promotion during the course of this project.

A is correct. Assumptions are those things we believe to be true. Options B and D describe risks, while option C describes a constraint.

You're project manager for a moderately sized project that's well into its executing phase. What's the largest risk that you'll be monitoring for during this time? A Scope creep B A vendor going out of business C A team member leaving the company D The sponsor losing interest in the project

A is correct. By far, the largest risk to a project during its executing phase is "scope creep:" uncontrolled changes in project scope. Customers drop by the cubicle of one of your team's developers and drop a hint or two that they'd like to see this and that in the code. The obliging team member tries to meet the request. The problem with this scenario is that you've already gone through a requirements definition, everyone has signed off on a scope statement, and tasks are already assigned and well underway. Adding something extra now is out of scope, and if it isn't stopped, it has the potential to impact the schedule and budget.

In which of the following conflict resolution methods does one party win while ignoring the needs and concerns of the other? A Force B Avoidance C Smoothing D Compromise

A is correct. Force is a conflict resolution method in which one party wins while ignoring the needs and concerns of the other party. As conflict intensity increases, the tendency for forced conflict becomes more likely. Thus, one party wins at the expense of the other.

Which of the following is a tool for helping a company compare its actual performance with its potential performance? A Gap analysis B Baseline C Risk analysis D What-if scenario analysis

A is correct. Gap analysis is a technique that helps a company compare its actual performance with its potential performance. It's a formal study of what a business is doing currently and what it would like to do in the future. Gap analysis provides a foundation for measuring investment of time, money, and human resources required to achieve a particular outcome. The goal of gap analysis is to identify any gap between optimized allocation and integration of inputs, and the current level of allocation; it helps provide the company with insight into areas that might be improved. The gap analysis process involves determining, documenting, and approving variance between business requirements and current capabilities.q

Which of the following project management terms includes changes that circumvent the change control process and aren't tracked? A Scope creep B Key performance indicator C Code of account D Acceptance criteria

A is correct. In project management, "scope creep" refers to uncontrolled changes in project scope. Scope creep includes changes that circumvent the change control process and aren't tracked. Such changes take away from valid project time and costs. This phenomenon can occur when a project's scope isn't properly defined, documented, or controlled. It's generally considered a negative occurrence to be avoided.

What percentage of a message is sent through nonverbal means (e.g., facial expressions, hand gestures, body language)? A Greater than 50 percent B 30 to 40 percent C 20 to 30 percent D 10 to 20 percent

A is correct. More than 50 percent of a message is conveyed through nonverbal means.

David is manager of the HGF project for his company. He, his project team, and several key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk analysis. Tracy, a project team member, doesn't understand why they need to complete a qualitative risk analysis. Which of the following is the best description of qualitative risk analysis? A It's a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for plan risk responses and lays a foundation for quantitative analysis. B It's a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for project risks. C All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis. D Qualitative risk analysis helps segment project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and create fast and accurate risk responses.

A is correct. Of all the choices, this is the most accurate. Qualitative risk analysis is fast and cost-effective, and it helps establish risk priorities for responses. Qualitative analysis almost always precedes quantitative analysis. Qualitative risk analysis uses the likelihood and impact of identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. It establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or risk response plan by evaluating precedence of risks that could have an impact on project scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. Qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response.

To build a diverse project team that can work together efficiently and effectively, which of the following is the most important skill a project manager should have? A Interpersonal skill B Negotiation skill C Programming skill D Communication skill

A is correct. Of all these, interpersonal skill is most important for building a diverse project team, as it includes proficiencies such as communication skill, emotional intelligence, conflict resolution, negotiation, influence, team building, and group facilitation. This skill also allows a project manager to capitalize on strengths of all team members and enhances cooperation among team members by anticipating their actions and acknowledging their concerns regarding the project.

After completing a project charter and obtaining sign-off, what will be your next step? A Hold a project kickoff meeting. B Start creating a project scope statement. C Start creating a product description. D Define project assumptions and constraints.

A is correct. Once the charter is signed, your next step will be to hold a project kickoff meeting to make certain everyone understands the project's goals and major deliverables. After the kickoff meeting is held, you can begin the scope statement.

As a project manager, you've been required to graphically represent roles and responsibilities of different project team members. Which of the following will you produce? A RACI chart B Pareto chart C Resource histogram chart D Organization chart

A is correct. RACI is an acronym formed from four key descriptors: responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. It's a responsibility assignment matrix used to ensure clear divisions of roles and expectations when the team consists of internal and external resources.

This process concerns formally accepting project deliverables and obtaining sign-off. A Scope verification B Project finalization C Project closure D Scope control

A is correct. Scope verification is the formal acceptance of project deliverables and obtaining of stakeholder sign-off. Scope control is the monitoring and controlling of project scope. Project closure is the final approval of and sign-off for the entire project.

Interview questions are asked of prospective team members when performing this process. A Staff acquisition B Human resource planning C Organizational planning D Team development

A is correct. Staff acquisition is performed during the human resource planning process, when you'll prepare and ask interview questions of potential team members.

Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? "It's a process of developing an approximation of costs of resources needed to complete project activities." A Cost Estimating B Cost Budgeting C Cost Control D Activity Resource Estimating

A is correct. The cost estimation process includes developing an approximation of costs of resources needed to complete project activities. It comes under the project cost management knowledge area. Project Cost Management Project cost management includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs so that a project can be completed within its approved budget; thus, it's an amalgam of the following processes: Cost Estimating Cost Budgeting Cost Control Activities in the project cost management knowledge area establish estimates for costs and resources and keep watch over those costs throughout the project. These processes interact with each other and with processes in other knowledge areas.

For successful and timely completion, a project includes five phases. Which of the following phases defines a new project, or a new phase of an existing project, by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase? A Initiating B Executing C Monitoring and controlling D Closing

A is correct. The initiating phase defines a new project, or a new phase of an existing project, by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase. Initiating processes define an initial scope and commit initial financial resources. These processes also define internal and external stakeholders who will interact and influence the overall project outcome.

Holly is project manager for her organization. Two of her resources are in a heated argument over which database server her project should use. Holly intervenes to calm the argument by reminding them that they're on the same team, that both have good points, and that they'll select the database during project planning. The team members agree and move on to project planning. What type of conflict resolution did Holly implement in this scenario? A Smoothing B Forcing C Compromising D Avoiding

A is correct. This is an example of the smoothing approach to conflict resolution. By downplaying differences between project team members and emphasizing their common goals regarding the database server, she could settle the problem and enable everyone to move forward.

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have to communicate the causes of risk events to stakeholders. Which risk diagramming technique will you use to accomplish the task? A Ishikawa diagrams B Process flow charts C Influence diagrams D Project network diagrams

A is correct. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a cause-and-effect chart or a fishbone diagram, can help identify root causes of risk events. The Ishikawa diagram displays causes of a certain event. A common use of this diagram is to identify causal factors that result in an overall effect and their root causes. It s sometimes called a fishbone diagram because of its resemblance to a fish skeleton. It's considered a basic tool of quality management. The figure below is an example of an Ishikawa diagram.

Sam's manager of the NHT project. Its stakeholders are end users, server administrators, functional managers, external customers, technicians, and executive managers. For this high-profile project, which group of stakeholders is the most important? A External customers B End users C Executive management D No stakeholders are more important than other stakeholders.

A is correct. Customers, internal or external, are always considered the most important group of project stakeholders. Recall that a stakeholder is anyone with a vested interest in a project's outcome. Project stakeholders Project stakeholders are those entities within or without an organization, which: Sponsor a project or, Have an interest or a gain upon a successful completion of a project. Examples of project stakeholders include the customer, the user group, the project manager, the development team, the testers, etc. A stakeholder is anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. They may also exert influence over the project's objectives and outcomes. The project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and expectations, and to the extent possible manage their influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.

One of the most important elements of a scope management plan is an approved change request. Which of the steps below should you take following approval of a change request? A Update the project plan to reflect the approved change request. B Update the project charter to reflect the approved change request. C Check the issue log for review during project closure. D Ensure that no further action is required by the change request board.

A is correct. In a scope management plan, a change request includes a description of the change, the reason for it, its impact if not implemented, and the originator of the request. Once the change request is approved, the project manager must update the project plan to reflect the change.

Your project's product must meet a specific quality standard. Taking into account past performance during a similar project, you've made some process adjustments to minimize errors. What tool and technique of the quality control process did you use? A Prevention B Histogram C Inspection D Lessons learned

A is correct. Prevention keeps errors from reaching the customers or from occurring in the first place, so adjusting a process is a type of prevention.

Which of the following knowledge areas involves organizational planning, staff acquisition, and team development? A Project Human Resource Management B Project Scope Management C Project Communication Management D Project Risk Management

A is correct. The Project Human Resource Management knowledge area involves organizational planning, staff acquisition, and team development. Project Human Resource Management is one of the nine knowledge-area groups. It includes processes that organize and manage a project team people with assigned project roles and responsibilities. Project human resource management consists of the following processes designed to make the most effective use of people involved in a project: Develop Human Resource Plan Acquire Project Team Develop Project Team Manage Project Team The project management team is a subset of the project team and is responsible for management activities such as planning, controlling, and closing the project. It's often considered the core, executive, or leadership team.

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, what's the CPI? A .98 B -3 C .95 D -2

A is correct. The formula for CPI is EV divided by AC (in this case, 81 / 83 = .98)

At the end of your project, you want to determine its variance at completion (VAC). Which of the following calculations will you use? A BAC - EAC B Baseline effort-hours x Hourly rate C % complete x BAC D EV/AC

A is correct. The formula for the variance at completion (VAC) is VAC = BAC - EAC

A functional organization represents a hierarchy in which every member has one leader, and employees are grouped by area of expertise—such as engineering, accounting, production, marketing—at the top level. Which of the following are advantages of a functional organization? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Growth potential and a career path for employees B Opportunities for those with unique skills to flourish C Clear chain of commands D Multiple projects compete for the same limited resources

A, B, and C are correct. Because of the specialized nature of functional organizations, communication and decision-making processes can become bottlenecks. As functional units are not accountable to each other, and they share decision-making power, this process is more bureaucratic and tends to take longer. Although the flow of communication within a department is expedient, communication between departments and synchronization of work and project completion is more difficult to manage. Last but not least, too much focus leads employees to neglect the larger view of the company and its objectives. However, although the functional organizational structure may not be very efficient in the context of project-focused organizations, they do work well for smaller companies or organizations that focus on a single product or service. Not designed to change quickly, functional structure works well in a stable environment, in which business strategies are less inclined to require frequent changes or updates.

During the initiating phase, a project charter authorizes a project to begin. Which of the following elements are included in a project charter? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Project objectives B Problem statement C Stakeholder identification D Risk assessment

A, B, and C are correct. Here are the key elements of a project charter: Project goals and objectives Project description Problem statement Key project deliverables High-level milestones High-level cost estimates Stakeholder identification High-level assumptions High-level constraints High-level risks General project approach Name of the project manager and their authority level Name of the sponsor Other contents

Which of the following activities are related to a project's closing process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Signing off project documents B Archiving of project documents C Review of lessons learned D Identifying project plan variances

A, B, and C are correct. The closing processes include sign-off, archiving of project documents, turnover to a maintenance group, release of project team members, and review of lessons learned.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. James, your department head, has approached you with an idea for a project. Which of the following steps will you take for the pre-project setup for project approval? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Identify the project. B Validate the project. C Develop a project charter. D Create a business case analysis.

A, B, and C are correct. The steps involved in the pre-project setup for project approval are: Identifying the project. Validating the project. Developing a project charter and obtain approval of the project charter.

A communication plan is a simple plan that helps in constructing a template in a spreadsheet or table format. Which of the following components are included in the communication plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Frequency B Format C Stakeholder risk tolerance D Method of distribution

A, B, and D are correct. The following components are included in the communication plan: Frequency Format (formal, informal, written, and verbal) Method of distribution Distribution list

A well-written change control process should include which of the following components? Choose three. A Analysis of the impacts of change B The amount of time the change will take to implement C The cost of change D Instructions for updating any affected project planning documents E The stages at which changes are accepted

A, D, and E are correct. The amount of time and money a change requires are outcomes of a change control process, not inputs to it.

A project manager has to allot team members to a new project. Which of the following must the project manager have before the allotments are made? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A A quality management plan B Resource availability C A work breakdown structure D A risk management plan

B and C are correct. A project manager must have the following before assigning team members to project work: Resource availability: Inspects project requirement for a resource with respect to availability of resources across an organization. A work breakdown structure: As a deliverables-oriented hierarchy, it defines all project work.

While dealing with a remote team in a project's initial stage, a project manager is having a problem with a remote team member's performance. Which is the best form of communication to address this issue? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Formal written communication B Informal written communication C Informal verbal communication D Formal verbal communication

B and C are correct. During the initial stage of a project, new team members are faced with interpersonal, team-building, conflict-resolution, and other challenges. To resolve such issues when they arise, a project manager uses informal verbal/written communication to directly communicate with team members (e.g., telephone, e-mail). At later stages, the project manager uses formal verbal/written communication to communicate with senior team members through project kickoff meetings, team status meetings, written status reports, and team-building or other planned sessions.

You're a new project manager for your company, a position that your predecessor left abruptly. While reviewing his last project, you find that its scope document was poorly formulated and missing several key elements. What two steps will you now take? A Scrap the scope document and start over. B Gain project sponsor and stakeholder sign-off on a new document. C Research and document the missing elements in a new scope statement. D Go back to the business analysis, and reformulate the requirements. E Review the charter to see whether it too is missing crucial elements.

B and C are correct. In this scenario, first you'll research and document the missing elements of the scope statement, write a new scope statement, and obtain sponsor and stakeholder buy-in, approval, and sign-off.

If there's a product quality issue, which of the following methods will a project manager adopt to align product quality with its specifications? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Fast tracking B Trend analysis C Pareto chart D Make-or-buy decision

B and C are correct. The following methods help with the alignment of product quality with its specifications: Pareto chart: Based on the Pareto principle, it ranks problem importance by the frequency of its occurrence. Trend analysis: A mathematical technique that uses historical results to predict future defects.

Which of the following is not true regarding a project's work breakdown structure (WBS)? A A project management work breakdown structure (WBS) is a tool that defines a project and groups its discrete work elements. B A WBS defines what will or will not be included in a project. C A WBS element can be a product, data, service, or any combination. D A WBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimation and control, along with guidance for schedule development and control.

B is correct. A WBS doesn't define what will or won't be included in a project. Project scope defines what will or will not be included in a project. Therefore, project scope is the number and complexity of tasks to be performed by a software solution. It consists of overall project requirements and incorporates constraints imposed on the project by resources, time, and other limiting factors.

What term is assigned to project completion that allows its next phase to begin? A Project phase closure B Phase gate C Step funding D Milestones

B is correct. A phase gate describes conditions that allow the next phase of a project to begin, depending on past performance in the project.

Who's ultimately responsible for identifying and managing project risks? A Application developer B Project manager C Project team D Project sponsor

B is correct. A project manager is ultimately responsible for identifying and managing project risks. Risk management process Risk management is a decision-making process that involves an organization, users, and a project team. It deals with potential uncertainties during a project. Also during this process, risks are identified and prioritized—in other words, which ones deserve immediate attention—and decisions are made about how to mitigate them. Steps involved in the risk management process: Set up goals and identify potential risks or impediments that might occur during project implementation. Collect sufficient information, so that the project team and organization can make decisions and prioritize their mitigation. Formulate risk mitigation strategies, plans, and actions by scheduling time for project risk planning. Monitor the status of high-priority risks, and report progress of the plans to the project team and key stakeholders. Control risk by executing various risk mitigation plans and monitoring their progress every step of the way. Create proper documentation from data collected during risk mitigation, including: Risk identification: The project manager, project team, and key stakeholders seek to identify risks that can help or hinder the project's success. Identified risks are recorded in the risk register and tracked throughout the project s life cycle. Qualitative risk analysis: A fast and subjective review of identified risks to determine their validity and whether they must be undergo quantitative risk analysis. Quantitative risk analysis: A more in-depth study of risk probability and potential financial impact on a project. It helps the project team and project manager determine how risks should be managed. Plan risk responses: Risk identification and analysis results in the creations of risk responses. There are seven risk responses: three for negative risks—mitigation, transference, avoidance; three for positive risks—enhance, exploit, share; and one for either—acceptance.

During the initiating process, the project manager determines the validity of a project. Which of the following would measure the project's validity? A Risk analysis B Strategic alignment C PERT D Gantt chart

B is correct. A strategic alignment measures a project's validity, as it describes how the project and its outcomes will align with the organization's strategic plan. This plan documents the organization's strategic vision, goals, and objectives and may contain a high-level mission statement. If the reason for the project does not support the strategic plan, there will be no reason to undertake the project.

As we know, a project deliverable is an output necessary to consider a project complete. Which of the following plans would document extended support for a final project deliverable? A Procurement plan B Transition plan C Communication plan D Quality plan

B is correct. A transition plan describes how transition of a project's final product or service is brought to full operational status, integrated into ongoing operations, and maintained. It extends support for final project deliverables by ensuring that they're used effectively to produce its intended business value at project completion.

You're project manager for your organization and are working with your project team to create a WBS. What's the smallest element in your WBS called? A Work package — the effort to create project deliverables B Work package — the deliverable created by the project effort C Work package — the deliverable that maps to its project scope statement D Work package — the deliverable created by project planning

B is correct. A work package is the smallest element in a project's WBS and represents the deliverable created by project effort, not the effort itself. What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? In project management and systems engineering, a work breakdown structure (WBS) is a tool that defines a project and groups its discrete work elements in a way that helps to organize and define its total work scope. A WBS element can be a product, data, service, or any combination thereof, and it provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control, along with providing guidance for schedule development and control. Additionally, the WBS is a dynamic tool that can be revised and updated, as needed, by the project manager.

Which of the following is the stage of team development in which team members are released? A Performing B Adjourning C Releasing D Transitioning

B is correct. Adjourning is the team development stage in which team members are released. The other stages of team development are forming, storming, norming, and performing.

Which of the following estimating techniques is less accurate but allows you to use cost estimates from previous similar projects to help you quickly determine estimates for a current project? A Parametric modeling B Analogous C Bottom-up D Three-point

B is correct. Analogous estimation uses parameter values such as scope, cost, and budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity, from a previous, similar activity as basis for estimation of a similar parameter in a future activity. It's a top-down estimating technique that's also a form of expert judgment; however, it provides a lower degree of accuracy than other estimation techniques. Analogous estimation is used primarily when there's a limited amount of detailed information about a project or program.

You're manager of a midsize project that's well underway and is late in its executing phase. What event could occur at this point that might force you to move the project immediately into its closing phase? A The sponsor loses interest in the project. B Project resources are cut off or reassigned. C A key team member leaves the organization. D There's too much team member in-fighting.

B is correct. In the event that a project's resources are reassigned or cut off, you have two choices: close the project, or approach the sponsor for more resources. A sponsor's loss of interest in a project doesn't necessarily mean it must come to an end. Engage in active communication with the sponsor to reengage him/her. Key team members leaving the company could impact the project's progress, but because you're far into its executing phase, this shouldn't be an issue. Team member in-fighting isn't a good reason to close out a project.

When you're in the monitoring and controlling processes, where will you concentrate most of your effort? A Developing requirements B Checking for out-of-scope conditions C Preparing lessons learned documentation D Writing the project plan

B is correct. In the monitoring and controlling phase, you're constantly checking for out-of-scope conditions, such as "scope creep," or tasks taking too long or costing too much. Developing the requirements and writing the project plan both occur during the planning processes; preparing lessons learned occurs during the closing process.

As a project manager for uCertify, Inc., you have to measure the project "spending till" date and determine whether changes have occurred to the cost baseline. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish the task? A Cost budgeting B Cost control C Cost benefit analysis D Cost estimating

B is correct. The cost control process is used to measure the project spending till date. By monitoring the budget, this process helps in determining whether changes have occurred to the cost baseline and takes actions to deal with those changes

Which of the following best describes the output of the estimate cost process? A It is a systematic approach to locating the least expensive options to complete the work. B It is the actual cost estimate of the resources required to complete the work. C It defines how the project manager should control cost variances. D It is a value used to calculate cost per use and cost per unit.

B is correct. The output of the estimate cost process is the actual cost estimate of resources required to complete project work.

The only output of the "perform qualitative risk analysis" process are risk register updates. When a project manager updates a risk register, he'll need to include all of the following except for which one? A Risk scores B Risk probability-impact matrix C Watchlist of low-priority risks D Trends in qualitative risk analysis

B is correct. The risk matrix is not included as part of the risk register updates. The goal of "perform qualitative risk analysis" process is to rank risks and determine which need further analysis and, eventually, risk response plans. The output of this process is project documents updates, which involves updating the risk register. According to the PMBOK guide, the risk register is updated with the following information: Risk ranking (or priority) for the identified risks Risk scores Updated probability and impact analysis Risk urgency information Causes of risk List of risks requiring near-term responses List of risks that need additional analysis and response Watch list of low-priority risks Trends in qualitative risk analysis results

You've decided to allow two phases of a project to overlap. This is an example of what? A Exploit B Fast-tracking C Mitigation D Crashing

B is correct. When two phases of a project are allowed to overlap, this is an example of fast-tracking. Fast-tracking is a technique frequently used to compress a project's schedule. It's often the most effective way to shorten project duration. You fast-track a project by rescheduling tasks originally scheduled to run in sequence to run in parallel. This technique shortens the project schedule without reducing its scope or compromising its quality. The problem with fast-tracking is that there's no "free lunch." Additional resources—even "seasoned" ones—pulled in to take on the parallel tasks might make mistakes, skip crucial steps, or make assumptions because results from the required parallel step were as yet unavailable. If something goes wrong, your schedule could slip or its quality, scope, or budget suffer. In general, the risks of fast-tracking are small. However, to make the most of this technique, first look at the longest tasks on the critical path. These provide the largest potential decrease in duration with the fewest number of risks to manage.

During execution of a construction project, a project manager requires personnel who can work outdoors, atop tall buildings. Which of the following solutions would best mitigate risk of injury to those personnel without affecting the approved project schedule? A Ensure that personnel do not work in very windy weather. B Ensure that personnel are furnished with slip-resistant boots. C Ensure that personnel are trained in injury response. D Ensure that personnel are covered by applicable insurance.

B is correct. Whenever personnel work on a construction project and are required to work atop tall buildings, they must wear slip-resistant boots to avoid accidental risk.

You're a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You're implementing a project in a European country other than your country of origin. Your team members are scattered around the globe. Which of the following would you not consider in managing your team? A Time zones B Project presentation methods C Cultural differences D Communication styles

B is correct. Managing geographically dispersed team members can be tricky. You need to consider several factors, including time zones, cultural differences, communication styles, technological barriers, and hierarchical structures. Project presentations are part of the Distribute Information process and have no impact on the way you manage a team.

Which of the following involves satisfying stakeholder needs, communicating, resolving issues, improving project performance, and managing concerns? A Communications planning for stakeholders B Managing stakeholders expectations C Developing the stakeholder team D Distributing information

B is correct. Managing stakeholders expectations involves satisfying their needs, communicating, resolving issues, improving project performance, and managing concerns. Communications planning for stakeholders is the development of a plan for communicating with stakeholders throughout the project. Developing the stakeholder team isn't an actual activity, but you're responsible for developing project teams, and this is where team-building and conflict-resolution techniques are implemented. Distributing information is the point at which the communication plan is put into action.

Which of the following is calculated by dividing the number of days projected for a task by its budgeted cost? A Estimate at Completion (EAC) B Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS) C Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) D Budget at Completion (BAC)

B is correct. The BCWS is calculated by dividing the number of days projected for a task by its budgeted cost. The BCWS, also known as planned value (PV), is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work to be accomplished for a schedule activity or WBS component.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. Your project was baselined at 8 hours, but 11 hours have been spent and the estimate to complete is an additional hour. The project should have been completed already. A rate of $100 per hour is provided, and the project's 91.7 percent complete. Which of the following is the project's CPI? A 0.53 B 0.67 C 0.45 D 0.86

B is correct. The CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. It s used to calculate performance efficiencies, as well as predict future performance in trend analysis. The CPI is calculated using the following formula: CPI = Earned value (EV) / Actual cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance; if less than 1, it shows poor performance. A CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target. Here it is: EV = Baselined Cost x % Complete Actual = ($800 x 0.917) = $734 approximately AC = Hourly Rate x Total Hours Spent = ($100 x 11 hours) = $1100 CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC) = ($734 / $1100) = 0.67 Thus, a CPI of 0.67 indicates that the project is over budget.

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 83, and EV = 81, what's the SV? A .98 B -4 C .95 D -2

B is correct. The formula for SV is EV minus PV (in this case, 81 - 85 = -4

To ensure timely project completion, several team members have worked overtime, which unfortunately resulted in the degraded quality of the finished deliverable. Which of the following is the project management term for what caused the product's degradation? A Critical path conflicts B Resource overloading C Failure to monitor budget D Failure to set stakeholder expectation

B is correct. When several team members work overtime to complete a project, product quality is sometimes degraded because of resource overloading. Resource overloading results in stressed team members, which in turn causes them to work beyond their capacity. Thus, work falls short of acceptable standards, with tasks left undone and others done poorly. This stress also negatively impacts employees' health.

In which of the following circumstances does a project closure phase occur? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Post-project review B Project completion C Stage completion D Project cancellation

B, C, and D are correct. Project closure is one of the most necessary activities performed during the closing process; it's necessary at: Project completion Stage completion Project cancellation

Which quality standards are documented in a quality management plan? Choose three. A Quality standards B Exit criteria C Quality audit D Quality checklists E Quality verification F Quality metrics

B, D, and F are correct. Quality metrics, quality checklists, and exit criteria are quality standards used to determine whether project quality standards are met.

Which of the following estimate types is most reliable for use in a software development project? A Parametric B Analogous C Definitive D Rough order of magnitude

C is correct. A definitive estimate is almost always the most reliable of all estimating types for any project. Definitive estimates are based on a WBS and account for total costs of all WBS elements. These estimates are prepared from well-defined data, specifications, drawings, and so on, and are used for bid proposals, bid evaluations, contract changes, legal claims, permit, and government approvals.

You're a project manager for a manufacturing firm. Your project requires installation of a specialized piece of equipment with a unique set of specifications. This equipment is a predecessor task for the project's final deliverable. This scenario is an example of which of the following? A External dependency B Discretionary dependency C Mandatory dependency D lnternal dependency

C is correct. A mandatory dependency is defined by the type of work being performed. In this case, the project requires a highly specialized piece of equipment that must be installed prior to project completion.

Which of these documents authorizes a project to begin? A Project management plan B Statement of work C Project charter D Project scope statement

C is correct. A project charter authorizes a project to begin.

You're project manager of your company. Management has asked you and Larry, another project manager, to create a plan to provide a smooth transition of the project resources when your projects end. Management wants to ensure that morale remains high in the projects and that project team members can easily move from one project to the next with little to no downtime between the project work. What plan does management want you and Larry to create? A Human resource plan B Risk management plan C Staff release plan D Compliance management plan

C is correct. A staff release plan defines specifically how project team members will be released from a project and transitioned into new work.

An ACD project is underway, and conflict has arisen between resource managers and project managers. What's the best method of avoiding staffing conflict between resource managers and project managers? A Ask each of the parties to give up something to reach a solution. B Ask one party to force their solution on the other party. C Discover the facts regarding the issue and let the facts help define the solution. D Discuss areas of agreement rather than areas of difference.

C is correct. Confrontation is the best way to resolve conflict. A key action of this technique is to go on a fact-finding mission to find the one right solution to the problem. Once you uncover the facts, you present them to the parties, thus making the decision clear and rendering it permanent. Project managers use this conflict resolution approach most often; it's an example of a win-win solution.

During the budgeting process, you might set aside a certain amount of funds to cover the cost of possible adverse project events. What are these funds known? A Management reserves B Prevention costs C Contingency reserves D Appraisal costs

C is correct. Contingency reserves are monies set aside to deal with cost of possible adverse project events.

This is the process of aggregating all cost estimates and establishing a project cost baseline. A Cost estimating B Cost control C Cost budgeting D Activity resource estimating

C is correct. Cost budgeting is the process of aggregating cost estimates and establishing a project cost baseline.

Which of the following is not a project selection method? A Cost-benefit analysis B Expert judgment C Top-down estimating D Scoring model

C is correct. Cost-benefit analysis, expert judgment, and scoring are all project selection techniques. Top-down estimation is a type of cost estimation. For more information, please see Chapter 1.

You're working in a functional organization and managing the IHH Project. Your project will likely last for six months and has a budget constraint of $1,876,000. You'll be dealing with a functional manager to manage project costs and resources. Who will have the authority to assign project team members to activities? A The project sponsor B The team leader C The functional manager D Customers

C is correct. In a functional structure, the project team and the project manager all work within one unit, department, or line of business, such as sales or IT. The functional manager has most of the power over the project team in a functional structure.

You're manager of a complex IT project that's well underway, and you're in the middle of its executing phase. You have a disgruntled team member who's severely distracting the team's focus. This team member has skills that are critical to the project's success. What's the best plan for dealing with this issue? A Ask the team member to seek a new team to work with. B Ask the team member what the issues seem to be. Tell them that things aren't working out and that you're seeking a new team for them to work with. C Ask the team member what the issues seem to be. Try to get to the heart of the matter. Ask how you can help. Stress the importance of the project's role on the team. D Tell the team member what you perceive the issues to be, and then ask what's bothering him. Stress the importance of the project and his role on the team.

C is correct. People are the most important element of your project. It's important first to talk with this person and try to determine what the issues are, and then ask how you can help. Removing this person from the team without first trying to resolve the issue would not be a good solution. Also, telling the team member what you believe the issue is before the person's had a chance to speak might put them on the defensive, and you'd never get to the heart of the problem.

Which of the following risk factors are not developed in the planning stage? A Risk response development B Risk quantification C Risk response control D Risk identification

C is correct. Risk response control occurs during monitoring and controlling. In planning, you identify risks to the project, quantify their potential impact on scope, and then develop appropriate responses to risks should they arise.

Robert is business analyst for his organization, and he has gathered and documented requirements for a new project solution. The stakeholders have agreed through informal communication that Robert has successfully captured the necessary solution requirements and have signed off on them. What does their sign-off represent to Robert? A That his work is done. B That the project can now be launched. C That the stakeholders agree the requirements are accurate and complete. D That the stakeholders agree the requirements are constrained by time, cost, and quality.

C is correct. Stakeholder's sign-off of the requirements can be formal or informal, though either instance is a confirmation by stakeholders that Robert has identified the completed and accurate requirements.

You're preparing to complete quantitative risk analysis with your project team and several subject matter experts. You gather necessary inputs, including the project's cost management plan. Why is it necessary to include your project's cost management plan in preparation for quantitative risk analysis? A The project's cost management plan is not an input in the quantitative risk analysis process. B The project's cost management plan can help you determine the allowable total project cost. C The project's cost management plan provides control that might help determine a structure for quantitative analysis of the budget. D The project's cost management plan provides direction on how costs might be changed because of identified risks.

C is correct. The cost management plan is an input in the quantitative risk analysis process because of the cost management control it provides. The cost management plan sets how project costs are managed during its life cycle. It defines a format and principles by which project costs are measured, reported, and controlled. The cost management plan identifies the person responsible for managing costs, those with the authority to approve changes to the project or its budget, and how cost performance is quantitatively calculated and reported upon.

When taking over an incomplete project, what item should be of most interest to a new project manager? A Project concept document B Project charter C Project scope document D Project plan

C is correct. The project's scope document should be of primary importance to a new project manager. The scope statement consists of a product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.

When initially developing your WBS, which of the following is not required? A Defining the highest level of deliverables before you move down to lower levels B Ensuring that each item in a lower level is a component of the level directly above it C Sequencing all work components D Involving project team members in the process

C is correct. The purpose of a WBS is to identify all work required to complete a project. At this point, it's not important to define a work sequence; that will come later, when the schedule is developed.

Which of the following are types of resources you must consider when planning your IT-related project? A Technical staff, nontechnical staff, and contractors B Human resources, servers, and telecommunications C Human resources, equipment, and materials D Servers, software, and telecommunications

C is correct. The three types of resources used in resource planning are human resources, equipment, and materials. Technical staff, nontechnical staff, and contractors are categories of human resources. Servers, workstations, and telecommunications are categories of equipment.

What type of a project network diagram displays project activities across a calendar, with breaks in activities to allow for weekends, holidays, and other time off from the project? A Control chart B Critical chain project network diagram C Critical path D Gantt chart

D is correct. A Gantt chart is a scheduling tool that illustrates project work across a calendar to show when project work is slated to take place, with allowances for time away from the project. Gantt chart A Gantt chart is a type of bar chart that illustrates a project schedule. Gantt charts show start and finish dates of a project's terminal and summary elements, which comprise its work breakdown structure. Some Gantt charts also show task dependencies (i.e., precedence network). Gantt charts have become a common technique for representing phases and activities of a project work breakdown structure (WBS), so they can be understood by a wide audience. Gantt charts can be used to: See how long project will take. Prepare easy-to-read and easy-to-understand reports for management, customers, and team members. Determine project resource requirements. Determine who must do each job. Measure your progress. avoid future project delays.

You're project manager for BlueWell, Inc. You're recording the activity status for your project team's performance. Based on their current performance, your project is likely to be three months late. What type of communication should your team generate to address this performance issue? A Issue report B Exceptions report C Variance analysis D Performance report

D is correct. A performance report is needed to communicate variance between planned work and actual work. The project team generates the performance report, which details activities, milestones, problems, accomplishments, and identified issues. It's used to report key information such as: Current status Scheduled activities Significant accomplishment for the period Forecasts Issues

You're creating a project network diagram for your organization. You need to discover which activities have no project float available. What are these activities called in your project network diagram? A Predecessor activities B Successor activities C Critical chain activities D Critical path activities

D is correct. Activities with no available project float are critical path activities. "Float" is allowance of time delays for an individual activity that has no effect on the project's end date. The concepts of critical path and project float are discussed in detail below: Critical path A critical path is a sequence of project activities that add up to the longest overall duration, which determines the shortest time possible to complete the project. Any delay of a critical path activity directly impacts the planned project completion date (i.e., there is no allowable float on the critical path). A project can have several parallel, near-critical paths. An additional parallel path through the network with a total duration shorter than the critical path is called a "subcritical" or "noncritical" path. These results allow managers to prioritize activities for effective management of project completion, and to shorten the planned critical path of a project by pruning critical path activities, by "fast-tracking" (i.e., performing activities in parallel), and/or by "crashing the critical path" (i.e., shortening durations of critical path activities by adding resources). If a critical path activity is completed a day late, the completion date of the entire project is pushed back a day (unless subsequent activities on the critical path are completed more quickly than planned). Tradeoff decisions must be made between time and cost. A project manager's first priority is to identify critical path activities early, monitor them closely, and create prevention and contingency plans to avoid future project delays. Project float Float, or slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting subsequent activities. There are two types of floats: Free Float: The amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. Total Float: The total amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating schedule constraint. You calculate float using the critical path method technique.

You're manager of your organization's Workstation Improvement Project, which will replace 925 workstations with new computers for company employees. Mark, the sales manager, has requested that your project add 250 laptops as part of this project, as his sales force travels and thus has no need for workstations. Mark insists that his department will pay for the laptops. All of the following components will be affected by this change request except for which one? A There will be a need for additional time to install the laptops. B There will be a need for additional risk analysis for the laptops. C There will be a need for additional procurement management processes. D There will be a need for an additional project scope statement because of the change request.

D is correct. An additional scope statement won't be needed if this change is approved. The change can be added to the existing project scope statement. Project scope statement A project scope statement is a narrative description of project scope. It includes major deliverables, project assumptions, project constraints, and a description of work. It also helps develop a common understanding of project scope among stakeholders. It's a documented description of the project intended to answer questions such as: What's being produced? How is it being produced? and What's included?

This procedure performed in the administrative closure process assures that you can produce sign-offs and other project documents should the need arise, and it provides a reference for future projects. A Capturing historical information B Writing the project close report C Documenting lessons learned D Archiving project documents

D is correct. Archiving project documents assures that you can produce sign-offs and other project documents should the need arise, and it provides a reference for future projects.

This project ending occurs when its deliverables are complete and accurate, and its stakeholders are satisfied. It's considered the best type of project ending. A Integration B Starvation C Addition D Extinction

D is correct. Extinction occurs when project work is completed and accepted by its stakeholders. Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of an organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Starvation is a project ending caused by project resources being cut off.

Which of the following types of organizational structure grants the highest authority to the project manager? A Functional B Balanced matrix C Weak matrix D Project-based

D is correct. In a project-based organization, team members are often co-located, as most of an organization's resources are involved in project work, and project managers have a great deal of independence and authority.

Which of the following processes determines the availability of resources required for a project? A Executing B Monitoring and controlling C Closing D Planning

D is correct. Planning processes are where the project goals, objectives, and deliverables are refined and broken down into manageable units of work. Project managers create time and cost estimates and determine resource requirements for each activity. Planning involves several other critical areas of project management, including communication, risks, human resources, quality, and procurement.

This is a leftover risk that appears after an original risk event has occurred or after risk responses have been planned. A Risk trigger B Secondary risk C Contingency risk D Residual risk

D is correct. Residual risks appear after an original risk event has occurred or lingered following planned and executed risk responses. Risk triggers are indicators that a risk event is about to occur. Secondary risks emerge as a direct result of another risk or of implementing a risk response.

You're manager of a large, high-priority project. There are several negative risks that might affect its ability to finish on time. Should the project be late, your organization will face fines of $100,000 per day past the due date. However, should your project complete early, your organization will receive $100,000 per day. Management has asked you to analyze the project to determine how early it might finish. What project plan and its section can help you most in this scenario? A The project risk management changes and the identified risks B The project schedule and its management reserve C The cost management plan and its range of variance D The project schedule management plan and its float calculations

D is correct. The project schedule management plan and its float calculations can help you determine the earliest date for project completion. Float, or slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting subsequent activities. There are two types of floats: Free Float: The amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. Total Float: The total amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating schedule constraint. You calculate float using the critical path method technique.

All of the following represent a category of contract most commonly used in procurement except for which one? A Time-and-materials B Cost-reimbursable C Fixed-price D Fixed-price plus incentive

D is correct. The three contract categories most often used to procure goods and services are time-and-materials, cost-reimbursable, and fixed-price. "Fixed-price plus incentive" is a type of cost-reimbursable contract.

Which of the following describes how the transition of the final product or service of the project will be transitioned to the organization? A Program scope statement B Program milestone list C Operational transfer alliance plan D Transition plan

D is correct. The transition plan describes how the transition of the final product or service of the project will be transitioned to the organization.

Complete the following sentence: Quality control is a(n)_______________ process while quality assurance is a(n)________________ process. A Prevention, inspection B Inspection, costly C Management, inspection D Inspection, prevention

D is correct. Quality control is an inspection-driven process because it's completed by inspecting project work results. Quality assurance is a prevention-driven process, because there's an effort to do the work right the first time. Quality assurance Quality assurance is the application of planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that a project employs all processes needed to meet requirements. It's a prevention-driven activity to reduce project error and help it meet its requirements.

Which of the following describes responsibilities of a project sponsor? A Providing or obtains financial resources B Monitoring the delivery of major milestones C Running interference and removes roadblocks D Providing the project manager with authority to manage the project E All the answers are correct

E is correct. A project sponsor is responsible for obtaining financial resources for a project, monitoring its progress, and handling escalations from a project manager.

Choose the project process group that's least frequently performed. A Initiating B Planning C Executing D Monitoring and controlling E Closing

E is correct. The closing process is one that's typically forgotten and not performed but should be, for every project. Its primary purpose is to document formal acceptance of project work and hand off the completed product to the organization for ongoing maintenance and support. Closing processes include project sign-off, archiving of documents, turnover to a maintenance group, release of project team members, and review of lessons learned.