COSC 118 All Chapters - Review Questions
C5 15. For the Class C network address 192.168.10.0, which of the following subnet masks provides 32 subnets? a. 255.255.255.252 b. 255.255.255.248 c. 255.255.255.240 d. 255.255.255.224
b
C5 17. Which IP addressing process enables workstations to use private IP addresses to access the Internet? a. Supernetting b. NAT c. DHCP d. Subnetting
b
C5 18. When a Windows computer is configured to use DHCP but no DHCP server is available, what type of address is configured automatically for it? a. PAT b. APIPA c. NAT d. Static
b
C5 19. Which of the following represents a valid IPv6 address? a. 2001:345:abcd:0:230:44 b. 2001:345:abcd::BEEF:44 c. 2001:345::abcd:0:79f::230:44 d. 2001:345:abcd:0:FEED:230:44
b
C8 2. A cluster is composed of which of the following? a. One or more 512-bit blocks b. Two or more 2K-byte sectors c. One or more 512-byte sectors d. One or more 2K-byte blocks
c
C8 6. Which of the following is best described as a program loaded into memory that has no user interface but communicates with other programs? a. Process b. Task c. Service d. Application
c
C7 5. What feature of a switch keeps switching table entries from becoming stale?
Aging Time
C8 5. What feature of a file system makes it possible to find a file based on keywords in it?
Indexing
C3 13. Which of the following is the most commonly used Ethernet frame type? a. Ethernet II b. Ethernet SNAP c. Ethernet 802.3 d. Ethernet 802.2
a
C5 14. How many bits must be reallocated from host ID to network ID to create 16 subnets?
4
C6 5. Which OSI layer creates and processes frames?
Data Link
C6 7. Which OSI layer governs how a NIC is attached to the network medium?
Physical
C1 16. In network communication, the address is used to deliver a frame to the correct computer on the network. (Choose all that apply.) a. MAC b. Logical c. IP d. Physical
a
C1 18. TCP/IP uses _____________ to look up a computer's IP address, given its name. a. DNS b. Ping c. MAC d. TCP
a
C1 2. The _________________ executes instructions provided by computer programs a. CPU b. NIC c. Hard Drive d. USB
a
C1 25. A device interconnects five computers and a printer in a single office so that users can share the printer. This configuration is an example of which of the following? a. LAN b. MAN c. WAN d. Internetwork
a
C4 12. You're preparing to install a conventional Ethernet network in your new office building, but your boss tells you to be ready to handle a switchover to 1 Gbps Ethernet next year. What types of cable could you install? (Choose all that apply.) a. Cat 5 b. Fiber optic c. Cat 4 d. Cat 6 e. Coax
a
C4 14. What characteristic of twisted-pair cabling helps mitigate the effects of crosstalk? a. Differential signals b. Copper conductors c. Four pairs of wires d. 100-ohm impedance
a
C5 16. How many host bits are necessary to assign addresses to 62 hosts? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
a
C5 22. Which is the correct order of headers, from left to right, in a completed frame? a. Frame, TCP, IP b. UDP, frame, IP c. TCP, IP, frame d. Frame, IP, UDP
a
C6 14. Which term refers to stripping header information as a PDU is passed from one layer to a higher layer? a. Deencapsulation b. Encapsulation c. PDU stripping d. Packetization
a
C6 20. At which Data Link sublayer does the physical address reside? a. Media Access Control (MAC) b. Logical Link Control (LLC) c. Data Access Control (DAC) d. Network Access Control (NAC)
a
C9 14. Which is true about file compression? (Choose all that apply.) a. A compressed file can't be encrypted with EFS. b. It's a standard feature in Windows starting with FAT32. c. Decompression occurs automatically when a file is accessed. d. Compressed files can't have permissions assigned to them.
ac
C7 24. Which device is used to communicate between broadcast domains? a. Repeater b. Switch with VLANs c. Router d. Switch with STP
bc
C9 10. Which is true about Linux user accounts? (Choose all that apply.) a. They must belong to at least one group. b. The account names are case sensitive. c. The full name is a required part of the user account. d. The account names can't contain lowercase letters.
bc
C9 1. Which of the following is a function of a user account? (Choose all that apply.) a. Establishes a link between the user and the computer's IP address b. Provides a method for user authentication c. Provides information about a user d. Authorizes a user to log on to network servers
bc
C2 16. Under which circumstances does a NIC allow inbound communications to pass through the interface? (Choose all that apply.) a. The source MAC address is the broadcast address. b. The destination MAC address matches the built-in MAC address. c. The destination MAC address is all binary 1s. d. The NIC is operating in exclusive mode.
bc
C2 25. Which of the following is true about routers? (Choose all that apply.) a. Forward broadcasts b. Use default routes for unknown network addresses c. Forward unicasts d. Used primarily to connect workstations
bc
C2 3. Which of the following is true of a hub? (Choose all that apply.) a. Usually has just two ports b. Transmits regenerated signals to all connected ports c. Usually has four or more ports d. Works with MAC addresses
bc
C3 16. Which of the following is true about full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose all that apply.) a. Stations can transmit and receive but not at the same time. b. Collision detection is turned off. c. It's possible only with switches. d. It allows a physical bus to operate much faster.
bc
C9 15. Which of the following is true about permissions in NTFS? a. An Allow permission always overrides a Deny permission. b. Permissions can be set only on folders, not on files. c. By default, permissions are inherited automatically from the parent folder. d. The last permission assigned is the only one that takes effect.
c
C9 20. Which is best described as a record of performance data gathered when a system is performing well under normal conditions? a. Data collector set b. Real-time monitoring c. Baseline d. Performance counters
c
C9 24. Which RAID level uses a minimum of three disks and provides fault tolerance? a. RAID 1 b. RAID 0 c. RAID 5 d. RAID 1+0
c
C9 9. Which command in Linux gives you extensive help on how to use a command? a. help b. more c. man d. guide
c
C1 9. Place the following steps of the boot procedure in order. a. The OS is loaded into RAM b. CPU starts. c. OS services are started. d. Power is applied. e. The POST is executed. f. Boot devices are searched.
dbefac
C3 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of unshielded twisted-pair cabling? (Choose all that apply.) a. Consists of four wires b. Commonly used in physical bus topologies c. Has a distance limitation of 100 meters d. Susceptible to electrical interference
cd
C4 10. Which of the following is a characteristic of unshielded twisted-pair cable? (Choose all that apply.) a. Consists of four wires b. Commonly used in physical bus topologies c. Has a distance limitation of 100 meters d. Is susceptible to electrical interference
cd
C7 13. Which of the following is found in a routing table? (Choose all that apply.) a. Destination MAC address b. Port number c. Metric d. Next hop e. Domain name
cd
C3 24. Which media access method does Wi-Fi use? a. CSMA/CD b. Token bus c. Demand priority d. CSMA/CA
d
C5 10. What is the term for each grouping of 8 bits in an IP address?
Octect
C6 10. Which of the following elements might the Data Link layer add to its PDU? (Choose all that apply.) a. Physical addresses b. Logical addresses c. Data d. CRC
ad
C9 19. Which of the following tools is used to view information categorized as Information, Warning, or Error? a. Event Viewer b. Performance Monitor c. Task Manager d. Report Generator
a
C4 8. What type of connector is used most commonly with TP network wiring? a. RJ-11 b. RJ-45 c. BNC d. MT-RJ
b
C1 28. Peer-to-peer networks aren't suitable in which of the following situations? a. Tight security is required. b. Five or fewer users need network access. c. Budget is the primary consideration. d. No one uses the network heavily.
a
C2 11. To which device is a wireless access point most similar in how it operates? a. Hub b. Switch c. NIC d. Router
a
C2 18. In Windows 7, which of the following displays information about currently installed NICs? a. Network Connections b. NICs and Drivers c. Local Area Networks d. Computers and Devices
a
C2 7. Which of the following describes how devices connected to a switch use the speed at which the switch can transmit data? a. Dedicated bandwidth b. Half-duplex bandwidth c. Half-scale bandwidth d. Shared bandwidth
a
C6 1. The original commercial version of Ethernet supported 10 Mbps bandwidth; the version introduced in the early 1990s supports 100 Mbps; and in 1998, Gigabit Ethernet was introduced. All versions use the same data frame formats, with the same maximum PDU sizes, so they can interoperate freely. Given this information and what you know of layered technologies, which of the following statements is true? (Choose all that apply.) a. Ethernet works at the Data Link and Physical layers of the OSI model, and upgrades to newer, faster versions of Ethernet can be made by changing only the components that work at these layers. b. Ethernet spans several layers and requires a new protocol stack to upgrade to new versions. c. Changes in technology at one layer of the OSI model don't usually affect the operation of other layers. d. Ethernet isn't considered a scalable technology.
a
C7 11. Which of the following is a Layer 3 device? a. Router b. NIC c. Switch d. Computer
a
C8 12. Which answer shows the correct order of DHCP packets generated when a computer requests a new address lease? a. DHCPDiscover, DHCPOffer, DHCPRequest, DHCPAck b. DHCPDiscover, DHCPRequest, DHCPOffer, DHCPAck c. DHCPRequest, DHCPDiscover, DHCPOffer, DHCPAck d. DHCPRequest, DHCPOffer, DHCPDiscover, DHCPAck
a
C8 16. Which is the correct syntax for mapping drive letter W to a shared folder named Accounting on the Finance server? a. net use W: \\Finance\Accounting b. net share W: \\Accounting\Finance c. net use W: \\Accounting\Finance d. net share W: \\Finance\Accounting
a
C8 20. Which of the following best describes an NAS? a. A dedicated device designed to provide shared storage for network users b. A high-speed network storage solution that can replace locally attached drives on servers c. A storage solution in which some or all data is stored on offsite servers d. A SATA or SCSI drive connected to a server
a
C8 22. If you want one server to take over the processing of a server that has failed, what should you configure? a. RAID b. Failover cluster c. Redundant array of servers d. Load-balancing disk system
a
C8 25. If you want your virtual machine to have direct access to the physical network, which virtual network option should you configure? a. Bridged b. NAT c. Host-only d. Internal
a
C8 3. Large cluster sizes can result in which of the following on a disk drive? a. Faster performance for large files, more wasted space for small files b. Faster performance for small files, less wasted space for small files c. More fragmentation, faster performance for large files d. Less fragmentation, more wasted space for large files
a
C9 17. Which of the following correctly describes how sharing and NTFS permissions work? a. When a file is accessed over the network, sharing permissions are checked first. b. When a file is accessed interactively, only sharing permissions are checked. c. When both sharing and NTFS permissions are applied, the least restrictive permissions apply. d. Sharing permissions can be assigned to separate files.
a
C3 18. Which of the following is considered a property of Ethernet? (Choose all that apply.) a. Scalable b. Best-effort delivery system c. Guaranteed delivery system d. Obsolete technology
ab
C4 24. Which type of wireless network requires a clear line of sight between transmitter and receiver? (Choose all that apply.) a. Infrared b. Narrowband radio c. Spread-spectrum LAN d. Terrestrial microwave
ab
C4 6. Which of the following is UTP susceptible to? (Choose all that apply.) a. EMI b. Crosstalk c. Signal enhancement d. LEDs
ab
C5 7. Which of the following protocols provides connectionless service? (Choose all that apply.) a. IP b. UDP c. TCP d. SMTP
ab
C8 21. Which of the following is an element of a DNS server? (Choose all that apply.) a. Zone b. Root hints c. Scope d. Reservations
ab
C9 4. Which of the following is a group scope in Active Directory? (Choose all that apply.) a. Domain local b. Global c. Distribution d. Security
ab
C1 24. Which of the following characteristics is associated with a peer-to-peer network? (Choose all that apply.) a. Decentralized data storage b. Inexpensive c. User-managed resources d. Centralized control e. Uses a directory service
abc
C3 2. Which of the following is an advantage of a star topology? (Choose all that apply.) a. Allows faster technologies than a bus does b. Requires less cabling than a bus c. Centralized monitoring of network traffic d. No single point of failure
abc
C9 22. Which is true about Windows Backup in Windows Server 2008 R2? (Choose all that apply.) a. Backups can be stored on network drives. b. The Volume Shadow Copy Service backs up open files. c. You can back up another computer remotely. d. Backups can be stored on tape.
abc
C9 5. Which of the following is a default group in Active Directory? (Choose all that apply.) a. Network Administrators b. Backup Operators c. Server Operators d. User Managers
abc
C4 1. Which of the following is a common characteristic of a networking medium? (Choose all that apply.) a. Bandwidth rating b. Interference susceptibility c. Broadband rating d. Maximum segment length
abd
C4 21. Which UTP limitations can be solved by fiber-optic cable? (Choose all that apply.) a. Bandwidth b. EMI susceptibility c. Installation cost d. Segment length
abd
C8 1. Which of the following is an objective of a file system? (Choose all that apply.) a. Organize space on a drive. b. Organize files hierarchically. c. Schedule access to applications. d. Secure access to files.
abd
C9 11. Which is true about partitions? (Choose all that apply.) a. A partition is always a volume, too. b. You can have up to four primary partitions. c. An extended partition is assigned a drive letter by default. d. Only a primary partition can be active.
abd
C2 1. Which of the following is a limitation of early networks that used a daisy-chain method of connecting computers? (Choose all that apply.) a. Total number of computers that could be connected b. The processing speed of the computers connected c. Cable length d. No Internet access
ac
C3 10. Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose all that apply.) a. Can be used in electrically noisy environments b. Requires only a single strand of fiber for network connections c. Carries data over longer distances than UTP does d. Lower bandwidth capability
ac
C3 12. Which of the following is true of a MAC address? a. All binary 1s in the source address indicates a broadcast frame. b. It's sometimes called a logical address. c. A destination address of 12 hexadecimal Fs is a broadcast. d. It's composed of 12 bits.
ac
C4 11. Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose all that apply.) a. Can be used in electrically noisy environments b. Requires only a single strand of fiber for network connections c. Carries data over longer distances than UTP d. Has low bandwidth
ac
C4 18. Where are you most likely to find vertical cabling? (Choose all that apply.) a. Equipment rooms b. In the work area c. Connecting TCs d. Connecting a work area to a TC
ac
C5 11. When using TCP/IP, which of the following must computers on the same logical network have in common? (Choose all that apply.) a. Network ID b. Host ID c. Subnet mask d. Computer name
ac
C5 12. Which of the following IPv6 features is an enhancement to IPv4? (Choose all that apply.) a. Larger address space b. Works at the Internetwork and Transport layers c. Built-in security d. Connectionless communication
ac
C5 20. Which of the following is a reason to subnet? (Choose all that apply.) a. Networks can be divided into logical groups. b. Subnetting eliminates the need for routers. c. Subnetting can decrease the size of broadcast domains. d. There's no need to assign static IP addresses to each computer.
ac
C5 23. Which of the following is a task performed by the Network access layer? (Choose all that apply.) a. Verifies that incoming frames have the correct destination MAC address b. Defines and verifies IP addresses c. Transmits and receives bit signals d. Resolves MAC addresses by using IP addresses e. Delivers packets efficiently
ac
C6 19. Which of the following is an example of software found at the Application layer? (Choose all that apply.) a. FTP b. TCP c. HTTP d. ICMP
ac
C9 6. Which of the following is a special identity group? (Choose all that apply.) a. Everyone b. Logged-On Users c. Authenticated Users d. Creator Owner
acd
C1 1. Which of the following is one of the three basic functions a computer performs? (choose all that apply) a. Processing b. Internet access c. Input d. Graphics e. Output f. E-mail
ace
C2 14. Which of the following is a task performed by a NIC and its driver? (Choose all that apply.) a. Provides a connection to the network medium b. Converts bit signals into frames for transmission on the medium c. Receives packets from the network protocol and creates frames d. Adds a header before sending a frame to the network protocol e. Adds error-checking data to the frame
ace
C1 4. Which of the following is considered long term storage? (choose all that apply) a. Flash drive b. RAM c. Working storage d. Hard drive
ad
C1 8. Which of the following is a task usually performed by the BIOS? (choose all that apply) a. Perform a POST. b. Create an interrupt. c. Store the operating system. d. Begin the boot procedure.
ad
C3 20. Which of the following is a feature of 100BaseFX? (Choose all that apply.) a. Often used as backbone cabling b. Best when only short cable runs are needed c. The fastest of the Ethernet standards d. Uses two strands of fiber
ad
C4 17. Which of the following is a component of a structured cabling system? (Choose all that apply.) a. Patch cables b. RJ-11 plugs c. Coax cable d. Horizontal wiring
ad
C5 25. Which of the following is not found in a connectionless Transport-layer protocol? (Choose all that apply.) a. Three-way handshake b. Port numbers c. Checksum d. Acknowledgements
ad
C7 12. What does a router do after receiving a frame on one of its interfaces? (Choose all that apply.) a. Deencapsulates the frame to create a packet b. Deencapsulates the packet to create a segment c. Encapsulates the frame to create a new packet d. Encapsulates the packet to create a new frame
ad
C9 16. Which of the following is a permission in the Linux OS? (Choose all that apply.) a. Read b. Modify c. Delete d. Execute
ad
C9 2. Which of the following is true of group accounts? (Choose all that apply.) a. They organize users for easier assignment of resource permissions. b. They can be used only to assign permissions, not rights. c. Each group has a password assigned. d. You can select a group scope in Active Directory but not in Windows 7.
ad
C1 12. You have just installed a new NIC in your PC to replace the old one that had started malfunctioning. What additional software must be installed to allow the OS to communicate with the new NIC? a. Network application b. Device driver c. BIOS d. Protocol
b
C1 13. Which of the following requests information stored on another computer? a. NIC b. Network client c. Network server d. Network protocol e. Device driver
b
C1 17. A(n) __________ message is used to determine whether a computer is listening on the network. a. MAC b. Ping c. IP d. TCP
b
C1 20. Data is processed from the time an application creates it to the time it reaches the network medium. This process includes adding information such as addresses and is called which of the following? a. Packetization b. Encapsulation c. Deencapsulation d. Layering
b
C1 22. Which of the following best describes a client? a. A computer's primary role in the network is to give other computers access to network resources and services. b. A computer's primary role in the network is to run user applications and access network resources. c. It's the software that responds to requests for network resources. d. The OS installed on a computer is designed mainly to share network resources.
b
C1 23. You work for a small company with four users who need to share information on their computers. The budget is tight, so the network must be as inexpensive as possible. What type of network should you install? a. Server-based network b. Peer-to-peer network c. WPAN d. Storage area network
b
C1 29. Which of the following best describes a storage area network? a. Provides a mechanism for users to access a network's storage resources remotely b. Uses high-speed networking technologies to give servers fast access to large amounts of disk storage c. Is a short-range networking technology designed to connect personal devices to exchange information d. Provides secure centralized file storage and sharing and access to networked printers
b
C1 3. When a CPU is composed of two or more processors, each one is referred to as a(n) ____________. a. I/O b. Core c. OS d. Flash
b
C1 7. The time it takes for read/write heads to move to the correct spot on the platter is the ______. a. Rotational delay b. Seek time c. Transfer time d. Access time
b
C2 10. What feature of a switch allows devices to effectively communicate at 200 Mbps on a 100 Mbps switch? a. Uplink port b. Full-duplex mode c. Shared bandwidth d. Bit strengthening e. Frame doubling f. Signal regeneration
b
C2 15. Which of the following best describes a MAC address? a. A 24-bit number expressed as 12 decimal digits b. Two 24-bit numbers, in which one is the OUI c. A 48-bit number composed of 12 octal digits d. A dotted decimal number burned into the NIC
b
C2 21. What information is found in a routing table? a. Computer names and IP addresses b. Network addresses and interfaces c. MAC addresses and ports d. IP addresses and MAC addresses
b
C2 24. If a router receives a packet with a destination network address unknown to the router, what will the router do? a. Send the packet out all interfaces. b. Discard the packet. c. Add the destination network to its routing table. d. Query the network for the destination network.
b
C2 4. Which of the following is the unit of measurement by which a hub's bandwidth is usually specified? a. Bytes per second b. Bits per second c. Packets per second d. Bytes per minute
b
C3 15. Which access method uses a "listen before sending" strategy? a. Token passing b. CSMA/CD c. Token bus d. Polling
b
C3 17. Which of the following is defined by the extent to which signals in an Ethernet bus topology network are propagated? a. Physical domain b. Collision domain c. Broadcast domain d. Logical domain
b
C3 22. Which of the following is true about infrastructure mode in wireless networks? (Choose all that apply.) a. Best used for temporary networks b. Uses a central device c. Resembles a physical bus and logical ring d. Most like a logical bus and physical star
b
C3 3. Which of the following is an example of a technology using a physical ring topology? a. Token ring b. FDDI c. ADSL d. IEEE 802.5
b
C3 5. Which of the following describes a hub-based Ethernet network? a. Physical bus b. Logical bus c. Physical switching d. Logical star
b
C4 15. What is the wireless device used to link buildings without cable? a. Hub b. Router c. Gateway d. Bridge
b
C4 22. How many strands of fiber-optic cable are needed for a network connection? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8
b
C4 23. Which statement is true about fiber-optic cables? a. MMF uses lasers and has a thicker core. b. SMF uses lasers and has a thinner core. c. MMF uses LEDs and has a thinner core. d. SMF uses LEDs and has a thicker core.
b
C4 25. Which of the following wireless technologies does a 802.11 wireless network using the 2.4 GHz frequency range use? a. Infrared b. Narrowband radio c. Frequency hopping d. Direct-sequence spread spectrum
b
C4 4. Which of the following is the process for representing bit signals on the medium? a. Encryption b. Encoding c. Decryption d. Decoding
b
C5 2. The subnet mask of an IP address does which of the following?. a. Provides encryption in a TCP/IP network b. Defines network and host portions of an IP address c. Allows automated IP address configuration d. Allows users to use a computer's name rather than its address
b
C5 24. What field of the IP header does the Tracert program use to get the IP address of routers in the path? a. Version b. TTL c. Checksum d. Protocol
b
C5 3. If a protocol is routable, which TCP/IP layer does it operate at? a. Network access b. Internetwork c. Transport d. Application
b
C5 4. Which of the following is a private IP address and can't be routed across the Internet? a. 192.156.90.100 b. 172.19.243.254 c. 11.200.99.180 d. 221.24.250.207 e. 12.12.12.12
b
C5 8. If you want to design an Application-layer protocol that provides fast, efficient communication and doesn't work with large amounts of data, what Transport-layer protocol would you design it to use? a. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) b. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
b
C6 12. Which layer of the OSI model does Project 802 divide into two sublayers? a. Physical b. Data Link c. Network d. Session
b
C6 15. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to Ethernet? a. 802.2 b. 802.3 c. 802.4 d. 802.5 e. 802.11
b
C6 18. At which OSI layer does the PDU contain sequence and acknowledgement numbers? a. Application b. 4 c. Data Link d. 6
b
C6 2. The addition of information to a PDU as it's passed from one layer to the next is called which of the following? a. PDI transforming b. Encapsulation c. Deencapsulation d. Converting
b
C7 10. What should you configure on a switch that's connected to three broadcast domains? a. IGMP b. VLANs c. Port security d. STP
b
C7 14. Which of the following accurately describes a distance-vector routing protocol? a. OSPF is an example. b. It learns from its neighbors. c. It sends the status of its interface links to other routers. d. It converges the fastest.
b
C7 17. If you don't want wireless clients to view the name of your wireless network, what feature should you use? a. WEP b. Disabling SSID broadcasts c. MAC filtering d. AP isolation
b
C7 2. You have two eight-port switches. On each switch, seven stations are connected to ports, and the two switches are connected with the eighth port. How many collisions domains are there? a. 16 b. 15 c. 14 d. 8 e. 1
b
C7 20. Which AP feature is useful when you have many guests accessing your network and you don't want them to be able to access the computers of other guests? a. MAC filtering b. AP isolation c. Bridge mode d. VLAN mode
b
C7 23. Which NIC feature do you need to configure on a thin client? a. QoS b. PXE c. IPSec d. ACPI
b
C7 25. What feature should you configure to prevent users on one subnet from accessing the Web server on another subnet? a. MAC filtering b. Access control lists c. Dynamic routing d. Spanning Tree Protocol
b
C7 3. Which of the following is considered a Layer 2 device? a. Computer b. Switch c. Router d. Hub
b
C7 7. There can be only one MAC address per port in a switching table. a. True b. False?
b
C7 8. What does it mean if the first 24 bits of a MAC address are 01:00:5E? a. The NIC was manufactured by Intel. b. It's a multicast frame. c. It's an invalid CRC. d. The frame will be flooded.
b
C8 11. Which best describes a thread? a. A process you can view in Task Manager b. The smallest schedulable unit of software c. A process in a preemptive multitasking OS d. A multiprocessing computer
b
C8 15. Why should you set the "Register this connection's addresses in DNS" option? a. So that you can query multiple domains when looking up a computer name b. So that the computer's name and address are added to the DNS database automatically c. So that the NIC receives a DNS address from DHCP d. To disable Dynamic DNS for that computer
b
C8 18. The default protocol Windows uses to share folders is which of the following? a. NFS b. SMB c. WPA d. FTP
b
C8 23. Software that creates and monitors the virtual hardware environment is called what? a. Host computer b. Hypervisor c. Snapshot d. Guest OS
b
C8 24. Bare-metal virtualization is best for desktop virtualization. a. True b. False
b
C8 7. The DNS function is built into most applications. a. True b. False
b
C8 8. Which best describes context switching? a. Dividing computing cycles equally among processes b. The OS suspending the running process and activating another process c. Cooperative multitasking d. Changing from one OS to another in a virtual environment
b
C8 9. The most common form of multitasking in current OSs is cooperative multitasking. a. True b. False
b
C9 12. Which file system supports a maximum file size of 2 GB? a. NTFS b. FAT16 c. FAT32 d. EXT3
b
C9 23. Which UPS type is best for computer power backup? a. Standby b. Online c. Offline d. Always on
b
C9 3. Which of the following is true of a user logon name in Windows? a. It's case sensitive. b. It's not case sensitive. c. It must contain both uppercase and lowercase letters. d. It must contain at least one number.
b
C9 7. Which of the following is a collection of a user's personal data folders and application settings that's available at any computer where the user logs on? a. Local profile b. Roaming profile c. Mandatory profile d. Network profile
b
C2 12. What's the purpose of an RTS signal in wireless networking? a. It allows the AP to request which device is the transmitting station. b. It allows the AP to tell all stations that it's ready to transmit data. c. It allows a client to notify the AP that it's ready to send data. d. It allows a client to request data from the AP.
c
C4 19. Which of the following is a tool needed to make a patch cable? (Choose all that apply.) a. 110 punchdown tool b. Cable stripper c. Crimping tool d. RJ-45 jack
bc
C9 18. Which of the following is true of Windows printing terminology? (Choose all that apply.) a. A printer is a physical device. b. A print server is a computer sharing a printer. c. A print queue stores jobs waiting to be printed. d. A printer pool is two or more printers representing a single print device.
bc
C2 6. Which of the following is a likely indicator light on a hub? (Choose all that apply.) a. CRC error b. Link status c. Connection speed d. Activity e. Signal strength
bcd
C3 14. Which of the following is a field of the most common Ethernet frame type? (Choose all that apply.) a. ARP trailer b. FCS c. Destination MAC Address d. Data e. MAC type
bcd
C1 10. Which of the following is a critical service provided by the OS? (Choose all that apply.) a. Power-on self test b. Memory management c. Web browsing d. File system e. Storage
bd
C2 20. Which of the following describe the function of routers? (Choose all that apply.) a. Forward frames from one network to another b. Connect LANS c. Attach computers to the internetwork d. Work with packets and IP addresses
bd
C3 25. Which of the following is true about the token ring technology? (Choose all that apply.) a. It uses a physical ring topology. b. All computers have equal access to the media. c. It uses RTS/CTS signaling before transmission can occur. d. Only the computer with the token can transmit data.
bd
C3 6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a logical ring topology? (Choose all that apply.) a. It's used by Ethernet. b. One technology uses an MAU. c. It's used by FDDI. d. Some technologies use a token. e. It's the most popular logical topology.
bd
C3 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switched logical topology? (Choose all that apply.) a. Uses a physical bus topology b. Creates dynamic connections c. Sometimes called a shared-media topology d. Uses a physical star topology
bd
C4 16. Which of the following is a wiring standard for twisted-pair cable connections? (Choose all that apply.) a. IEEE 802.3a b. TIA/EIA 568A c. IEEE 802.3b d. TIA/EIA 568B
bd
C6 13. What are the names of the sublayers specified as part of Project 802? (Choose all that apply.) a. Data Link Control (DLC) b. Logical Link Control (LLC) c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) d. Media Access Control (MAC)
bd
C7 15. Which of the following is a characteristic of routing protocols? (Choose all that apply.) a. They populate routing tables statically. b. Network changes are reflected in the routing table automatically. c. They're not a good solution with redundant routes. d. They add routing table entries dynamically.
bd
C1 11. An OS's capability to run more than one application or process at the same time is referred to which of the following? a. Multicore b. Doubletime c. Multitasking d. Multiprocessor e. Interrupt processing
c
C1 19. The unit of information containing MAC addresses and an error-checking code that's processed by the network interface layer is referred to as a _____________________. a. Packet b. Ping c. Frame d. Chunk
c
C1 21. You're the network administrator for a company that has just expanded from one floor to two floors of a large building, and the number of workstations you need has doubled from 50 to 100. You're concerned that network performance will suffer if you add computers to your existing LAN. In addition, new users will be working in a separate business unit, and there are reasons to logically separate the two groups of computers. What type of network should you configure? a. WAN b. MAN c. Internetwork d. Extended LAN
c
C1 26. At Yavapai College, the Prescott and Prescott Valley campuses (8 miles apart) have LANs connected via the local phone company. This configuration is an example of which of the following? (Choose the best answer.) a. MAN b. WPAN c. WAN d. SAN
c
C1 5. Which motherboard component controls data transfers between memory, expansion slots, I/O devices, and the CPU? a. RAM slots b. IDE connectors c. Chipset d. PCI-Express
c
C2 17. How does a protocol analyzer capture all frames? a. It configures the NIC to capture only unicast frames. b. It sets all incoming destination addresses to be broadcasts. c. It configures the NIC to operate in promiscuous mode. d. It sets the exclusive mode option on the NIC. e. It captures only multicast frames.
c
C2 2. Which of the following is true of a repeater? a. Receives frames and forwards them b. Determines which network to send a packet c. Receives bit signals and strengthens them d. Has a burned-in MAC address for each port
c
C2 22. You currently have 15 switches with an average of 20 stations connected to each switch. The switches are connected to one another so that all 300 computers can communicate with each other in a single LAN. You have been detecting a high percentage of broadcast frames on this LAN. You think the number of broadcasts might be having an impact on network performance. What should you do? a. Connect the switches in groups of five, and connect each group of switches to a central hub. b. Upgrade the switches to a faster speed. c. Reorganize the network into smaller groups and connect each group to a router. d. Disable broadcast forwarding on the switches.
c
C2 23. Review the routing table below. Based on this figure, where will the router send a packet with the source network number 1.0 and the destination network number 3.0? Routing Table Network Interface 1.0 EthA 2.0 WAN A 3.0 WAN B a. EthA b. WAN A c. WAN B d. None of the above
c
C2 5. Which of the following describes how devices connected to a hub use the speed at which the hub can transmit data? a. Bandwidth optimization b. Bandwidth dedication c. Bandwidth sharing d. Bandwidth multiplier
c
C2 9. What purpose does the timestamp serve in a switching table? a. Tells the switch when to forward a frame b. Tells the switch how long to wait for a response c. Tells the switch when to delete an entry d. Tells the switch how long it has been running
c
C3 1. Which of the following describes the arrangement of network cabling between devices? a. Logical topology b. Networking technology c. Physical topology d. Media access method
c
C3 11. Which topology most likely uses coaxial cabling? a. Physical star b. Logical ring c. Physical bus d. Logical switching
c
C3 21. Which Wi-Fi standard can provide the highest bandwidth? a. 802.11a b. 802.11b c. 802.11n d. 802.11g
c
C3 23. How many channels can be used on an 802.11b network in North America? a. 7 b. 9 c. 11 d. 13
c
C3 7. Which best describes a typical wireless LAN? a. Logical ring topology b. Logical switching topology c. Logical bus topology d. Logical star topology
c
C4 3. Which of the following conditions requires cables not to exceed a recommended maximum length? a. Diminution b. Capacitance c. Bandwidth d. Attenuation
c
C4 5. What happens to signals as they travel the length of the medium? a. They decode. b. They amplify. c. They attenuate. d. They implode.
c
C5 21. Which of the following Application-layer protocols typically uses the UDP Transportlayer protocol? (Choose all that apply.) a. HTTP b. DNS c. DHCP d. FTP
c
C5 5. Which TCP/IP model layer takes a large chunk of data from the Application layer and breaks it into smaller segments? a. Network access b. Internetwork c. Transport d. Application
c
C5 9. Which of the following is the term for identifying packets used by TCP to establish a connection? a. Port number indicators b. Multiwindow agreement c. Three-way handshake d. Sequencing establishment
c
C6 17. What is the name of the PDU at the Transport layer? a. Bit b. Packet c. Segment d. Data
c
C6 21. Which of the following problems can occur at the Physical layer? a. NIC driver problems b. Incorrect IP addresses c. Signal errors caused by noise d. Incorrect segment size
c
C6 6. Which OSI layer handles flow control, data segmentation, and reliability? a. Application b. Physical c. Transport d. Data Link
c
C6 8. Which OSI layer determines the route a packet takes from sender to receiver? a. 7 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4
c
C7 1. When a switch receives a frame on a port and floods the frame, what does it do with the frame? a. Discards it b. Changes the destination address to FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF c. Forwards it out all other connected ports d. Clears the switching table and adds the frame source address to the table
c
C7 16. Which of the following is the best routing solution for a network that includes redundant links? a. RIP b. STP c. OSPF d. Static
c
C7 18. To prevent a wardriver from being able to interpret captured wireless network data, you should enable which of the following? a. MAC filtering b. AP isolation c. WPA or WPA2 d. Repeater mode
c
C7 19. What feature can you use to wirelessly connect the wired networks in two buildings? a. Repeater mode b. AP isolation c. Bridge mode d. VLAN mode
c
C7 22. Which PC bus allows you to connect a NIC to your computer easily without powering off? a. PCI b. PCI-X c. USB d. PCIe
c
C7 6. Which is the fastest switching method? a. Store-and-forward b. Fragment-free c. Cut-through d. Forward-free
c
C7 9. What feature should you look for in switches if your network is cabled like the one below? Switch 1------------Switch2 \ / Switch 3 a. VLANs b. Auto-negotiate c. STP d. Auto-MDIX
c
C8 13. If you want a computer to query DNS by appending more than one domain name to the computer name, which of the following should you configure? a. Two or more DNS server addresses b. Additional DNS port numbers c. Additional DNS suffixes d. Two or more primary DNS suffixes
c
C8 19. Which of the following refers to a Windows server with Active Directory installed? a. Member server b. NIS server c. Domain controller d. LDAP controller
c
C8 4. Which of these file systems includes file and folder permissions? (Choose all that apply.) a. FAT32 b. Ext3 c. NTFS d. Ext2
cd
C1 14. Choose the correct order for the process of a user attempting to access network resources: 1. Network protocol 2. Application 3. Network client 4. NIC driver a. 4, 2, 1, 3 b. 3, 2, 1, 4 c. 1, 4, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 1, 4 e. 3, 1, 2, 4
d
C1 15. TCP/IP is an example of which of the following? a. NIC b. Network client c. Network server d. Network protocol e. Device driver
d
C1 27. You have installed Windows Server 2008 on a new server and want to centralize user logons and security policies. What type of software should you install and configure on this server? a. Naming services b. Application services c. Communication services d. Directory services
d
C1 30. Why might Windows 7 or Windows Vista require more RAM or disk space than Windows Server 2008? a. They need to accommodate handling centralized logon. b. They include a directory service and a naming service. c. They run many background networking services. d. They support a graphics-intensive user interface.
d
C2 13. Which of the following is a common operational speed of a wireless network? a. 10 Kbps b. 110 Gbps c. 600 Kbps d. 11 Mbps
d
C2 19. Which of the following is the purpose of an SSID? a. Assigns an address to a wireless NIC b. Acts as a unique name for a local area connection c. Acts as a security key for securing a network d. Identifies a wireless network
d
C2 8. What does a switch use to create its switching table? a. Source IP addresses b. Destination logical addresses c. Destination physical addresses d. Source MAC addresses
d
C3 19. Which of the following is true of IEEE 802.3an? a. Requires two pairs of wires b. Uses Category 5 or higher cabling c. Currently best for desktop computers d. Operates only in full-duplex mode
d
C3 4. Which technology is likely to be implemented as a point-to-point physical topology? a. Wi-Fi infrastructure mode b. FDDI c. Ethernet d. Wireless bridge
d
C4 13. When two cables run side by side, signals traveling down one wire might interfere with signals traveling on the other wire. What is this phenomenon called? a. RFI b. Attenuation c. Impedance d. Crosstalk
d
C4 2. Which of the following types of fiber-optic connectors provides high density and requires only one connector for two cables? a. SC b. ST c. MT-RJ d. RJ-45
d
C4 20. Which type of connection is most likely to require a crossover cable? a. PC to hub b. Hub to router c. Router to switch d. PC to router
d
C4 7. The space between a false ceiling and the true ceiling where heating and cooling air circulates is called the ____________. a. Duct-equivalent airspace b. Conduit c. Return air d. Plenum
d
C4 9. You have been hired to install a network at a large government agency that wants to reduce the likelihood of electronic eavesdropping on its network. What type of cable is most resistant to eavesdropping? a. UTP b. STP c. Coaxial d. Fiber optic
d
C5 1. An IPv6 address is made up of how many bits? a. 32 b. 48 c. 64 d. 128 e. 256
d
C6 11. When and how many times is a CRC calculated? a. Once, before transmission b. Once, after receipt c. Twice, once before transmission and again on receipt d. At the source and destination and at each intermediary device
d
C6 3. Layers acting as though they communicate directly with each other across the network are called which of the following? a. Partners b. Synchronous c. Interchangeable d. Peers
d
C6 9. Which OSI layer is responsible for setting up, maintaining, and ending ongoing information exchanges across a network? a. 6 b. 3 c. 2 d. 5
d
C7 21. Which PC bus uses up to 32 lanes to achieve very high data transfer rates? a. PCI b. PCI-X c. USB d. PCIe
d
C7 4. You just purchased some new switches for your company's network. Your junior technicians are doing most of the work connecting switches to workstations and to each other, and you don't want to confuse them by requiring them to use both patch cables and crossover cables. How can you test the switches to determine whether you need both types of cable, and what's the feature for using only one type of cable for all connections? a. Connect the switch to a PC NIC and configure different speeds on the NIC by using the NIC driver. You're okay if the switch links at all speeds. It's called auto-MDIX. b. Connect two switches by using a crossover cable. If the connection works, the switch supports auto-negotiate. c. Connect the switch to a PC NIC and configure different speeds on the NIC by using the NIC driver. You're okay if the switch links at all speeds. It's called auto-negotiate. d. Connect two switches by using a patch cable. If the connection works, the switch supports auto-MDIX.
d
C8 10. The OS component that schedules processes to run is the _____________________________________. a. File system b. User interface c. Memory manager d. Kernel
d
C8 14. Which port does your Web browser use to communicate securely with the Web server by using SSL? a. 80 b. 25 c. 110 d. 443
d
C8 17. A text file containing a list of commands is called which of the following? a. Logon process file b. Service file c. Task file d. Batch file
d
C9 13. Which NTFS feature should you configure if you want users to be able to revert to an older version of a file? a. Disk quotas b. EFS c. Mount points d. Shadow copies
d
C9 21. Why would you choose to monitor a system's performance remotely? a. You don't have permission to log on to the system. b. The computer you want to monitor doesn't have enough memory to run Performance Monitor. c. The system is running Windows 7, which doesn't have Performance Monitor installed. d. You want to lessen the impact of the monitoring session on the computer.
d
C9 8. Which command in Linux might be needed to perform user account management if you aren't logged on as the root user? a. runas b. superuser c. passwd d. sudo
d
C1 6. You want to purchase a new high-performance graphics card for your computer. Which type of connector should it have? a. PCI b. SATA d. IDE e. PCI-Express
e
C5 13. Which protocol can configure a computer's IP address and subnet mask automatically? a. TCP b. IP c. ARP d. DNS e. DHCP
e
C5 6. Which of the following protocols resolves logical addresses to physical addresses? a. DHCP b. TCP c. IP d. DNS e. ARP
e
C6 16. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to wireless LANs? a. 802.2 b. 802.3 c. 802.4 d. 802.5 e. 802.11
e
C6 4. Place the following letters in the correct order to represent the OSI model from Layer 7 to Layer 1: a. Presentation b. Data Link c. Session d. Physical e. Application f. Transport g. Network
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