CPT Ch 12- 23

Benefits of flexibility training:

- Increased joint ROM - Possible decrease in muscle soreness - Potential for a reduction in injury risk

Systematic review:

A type of research article that synthesizes and summarizes findings from multiple existing research articles on a specific topic.

The peripheral heart action system

A variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercises throughout the set

When performing the modified box drill, where should the client begin?

At the middle cone

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?

Body fat loss

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?

Gluteus medius

When performing a squat jump with stabilization exercise, where should the client's knees be positioned upon landing?

In line with the toes

Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down?

Increase breathing rate

The pyramid system

Increasing or decreasing weight with each set

Osteopenia:

Lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporosis.

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane?

Medicine Balls

With regard to the application of the OPT model for the goal of body fat reduction, what is the best way to increase the calories burned?

Move more through both structured exercise and daily physical activity

What is typically the first movement assessment used for most clients?

Overhead squat assessment

Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise?

Phase 1

Unilateral:

Relating to one side of the body.

Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?

Resistance training

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?

Somatosensory

Speed:

The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.

Muscular endurance:

The ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time.

Quickness:

The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during dynamic activities.

Agility:

The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control.

Stride length

The distance covered with each stride during the gait cycle.

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?

Thoracic and sacral

The thoracic spine, not the lumbar spine, is where most trunk rotation should take place

True

When applying the principles of specificity to a training program for weight loss, the client should perform most exercises while standing and using moderate weights.

True

Cycle the client through the first three phases of the OPT model only

body fat reduction

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users?

increased multiplanar movement

prone

lying face down

Workout that goes with pressing mechanics

push press

Plyometric training is also known as reactive or jump training

true

Benefits of Cardiorespiratory training:

- Decreased resting heart rate and blood pressure - Increased stroke volume and cardiac output - Improved gas exchange, decreased airway resistance, and improved oxygen uptake - Decreased blood flow resistance and increased blood volume - Improved blood lipid profile/chemistry - Improved blood flow back to the heart via veins

Benefits of Kettlebell training:

- Enhanced athleticism, coordination, and balance - Increased mental focus and physical stamina - Increased oxygen uptake Increased total body conditioning versus isolation training - Recruitment of the posterior chain (calves, hamstring complex, gluteal muscles, spinal erectors) - Increased core stability and muscular endurance - Increased strength and power - Improved grip strength - Increased metabolic demands and caloric expenditure

Benefits of Core Training:

- Enhanced posture and spinal health - Better bodily function for activities of daily living and on-the-job movements - Increased balance, stabilization, and coordination of the kinetic chain - Minimized or resolved low-back pain conditions or symptoms - Improved skill-related movements and power (i.e., swinging a racket or golf club)

Benefits of Speed Agility and Quickness (SAQ) training:

- Improved performance for top speed, change of direction, and rate of acceleration/deceleration - Improved health-related physical fitness - Enhanced response time to a stimulus or better reaction time - Improved technical skills in sprinting and change of direction mechanics

Balance training to bolster resistance to injury:

- Improves landing mechanics, which may reduce lower extremity injury, such as ACL injury and ankle sprains - Improves performance in athletes, such as vertical jump height - Reduces risk of falling in older adults - Improves physical performance and overall confidence during activities of daily living in older adults

Balance training for rehabilitation:

- Improves performance during single-limb activities - Improves proprioception and self-reported function in athletes with ankle instability - Enhances rehabilitation outcomes for both limbs in athletes who suffer an ACL injury and surgery on one limb - Enhances rehabilitation outcomes that focus on decreasing the risk of falls in older adults

Balance training for performance:

- Improves static and dynamic balance - Improves neuromuscular control in the lower extremities - Improves balance after injury - Improves lower extremity muscular strength (especially when combined with resistance training) - Improves ability to participate in activities of daily living and decreases self-reported disability in older adults - Improves agility-based outcomes in athletes

Focus of stabilization training includes:

- Improving movement patterns and exercise technique - Improving muscle imbalances - Improving joint ROM and flexibility Improving stabilization of the core musculature and peripheral joints - Preventing tissue overload by preparing muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joints for the upcoming imposed demands of training - Improving overall cardiorespiratory conditioning

Benefits of plyometric training:

- Increased bone mineral density and decreased risk of bone/joint injuries - Improved soft tissue (ligaments, tendons, cartilage) strength and decreased risk of injury - Increased metabolic expenditure for improved weight management and/or weight loss - Increased strength and power for athletes and general population - Improved muscle contractions and nervous system synchronization - Improved performance or game play for athletes of all levels

Benefits of Resistance Training:

- Increased endurance, strength, and power - Increased muscular hypertrophy - Improved weight management and enhanced weight-loss efforts - Improved resting metabolic rate, resting heart rate, and blood pressure - Improved coordination and athleticism - Decreased risk of injury due to strength of all soft tissues (ligaments, tendons, cartilage, and muscle fibers)

The strength level of training focuses on the following:

- Increasing the ability of the core musculature to stabilize the pelvis and spine under heavier loads, through greater ranges of motion - Increasing the load-bearing capabilities of muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joints - Increasing the volume of training Increasing metabolic demand by taxing the phosphocreatine (ATP-PC) and glycolytic energy systems to induce cellular changes in muscle - Increasing recruitment of more motor units to overcome an external load (maximal strength)

Proper squatting techniques include the following:

- Keeping the feet straight ahead and avoiding overpronation of the foot and ankle complex - Tracking the knees over the second and third toes; do not allow the knees to cave inward (known as knee valgus) - Ensuring a neutral pelvis and spine - Equally flexing at the ankles and hips; keep the torso and shin angles parallel, which provides equal weight distribution between the ankles, knees, and hips - Maintaining head and shoulders in a neutral position

Maximal strength

- Low repetitions: ~1-5 - High sets: ~4-6 sets - High training intensities: ~85-100% 1RM

Power

- Low to moderate repetitions: ~1-10 - Moderate to high sets: ~3-6 - Low training intensities: ~10% of bodyweight (when using a medicine ball) or ~30-45% (when using weights)

Muscular hypertrophy

- Low to moderate repetitions: ~6-12 or higher - Moderate to high sets: ~3-6 sets - Moderate to high training intensities: ~75-85% 1RM

Stabilization and muscular endurance

- Moderate to high repetitions: ~12-20 or higher - Low to moderate sets: ~1-3 sets - Low to moderate training intensities: ~50-70% 1RM

Progression 3 of balance exercises: Exercises should combine hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing, and holding the balance position for 3-5 seconds.

- Multiplanar hop with stabilization - Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization - Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

customized exercise programs for clients provide what benefits

- Psychological benefits, such as stress relief, improved mood, and improved sleep - Physiological benefits, such as improved cardiovascular, respiratory, and endocrine (hormone) functionality - Body composition benefits, such as fat loss and increased lean muscle mass - Performance benefits, such as increased flexibility, endurance, strength, and power

Benefits of Balance Training:

- Reduced risk of falls - Reduced risk of ankle sprains - Improvements in landing mechanics (which may reduce risk of anterior cruciate ligament injury) - Improvements in lower-extremity muscular strength - Improvements in proprioception and body awareness - Improvements in agility-based outcomes in athletes - Stronger hip musculature (e.g., gluteal complex) and lower extremities

Progression 2 of balance exercises: Exercises should involve movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion.

- Single-leg squat - Single-leg squat touchdown - Single-leg Romanian deadlift - Multiplanar step-up to balance - Multiplanar lunge to balance

Sample exercises that follow this balance progression protocol include (but are not limited to) the following: Exercises should initially involve little joint motion of the balance leg.

- Tandem stance - Single-leg balance - Single-leg balance reach - Single-leg hip internal and external rotation - Single-leg lift and chop - Single-leg arm and leg motion - Single-leg windmill - Single-leg throw and catch

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?

0 to 60 seconds

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?

1 to 3 times per week

Assessment considerations for older adults include the following:

1. A thorough preparticipation health screening should be completed prior to further testing. 2. Assumptions about the older adult's ability should be avoided, and instead, results from postural and movement screenings should be used to help determine their functional status. 3. Movements that require senior clients to get on and off the ground may need to be limited depending on the client's functional status. 4. The assessment process should be started conservatively and then progress to more challenging movements based on the client's goals and abilities.

the benefits of conducting and implementing fitness assessments:

1. Assessing a client's static posture allows for a quick understanding of how they position their body during the day. 2. Movement and performance assessments demonstrate a baseline of the client's functional status in a wide range of tasks. 3. Movement assessments are helpful to identify and correct movement impairments and potential muscle imbalances. 4. Strength-based assessments allow the fitness professional to accurately assess a client's maximal strength capabilities. 5. Performance assessments allow for careful tracking of athletic performance (e.g., power, speed, agility, muscular endurance).

The five components of fitness include the following:

1. Cardiovascular endurance 2. Muscular strength 3. Muscular endurance 4. Flexibility 5. Body composition

Periodization involves two primary objectives:

1. Dividing the training program into distinct periods (or phases) of training: annual training plan (macrocycle), monthly training plan (mesocycle), and weekly or daily training plan (microcycle) 2. Training different forms of strength in each period (or phase) to control training volume and to prevent injury

The phases of plyometrics

1. Eccentric phase 2. Amortization & Transition phase 3. Concentric phase

Assessment considerations for overweight and obese clients include the following:

1. Ensure a thorough preparticipation health screening is completed. 2. Avoid making assumptions about the overweight or obese client's ability, and instead, allow results from posture and movement screening to help determine their functional status. 3. Consider limiting movements that require an overweight or obese client to get on and off the ground.

Static Postural Lateral View

1. Feet/ankles: Leg vertical at right angle to sole of foot 2. Knees: Neutral position; not flexed or hyperextended 3. LPHC: Pelvis and lumbar spine in neutral position; not anteriorly (lumbar extension) or posteriorly tilted (lumbar flexion) 4. Shoulders: Shoulders aligned with ears; not excessively rounded 5. Head: Neutral position; not "jutting" forward

Static Postural Anterior View

1. Feet/ankles: Straight and parallel; not flattened or externally rotated 2. Knees: In line with toes; not in knee valgus (knock-kneed) or knee varus (bowlegged) 3. LPHC: Level pelvis; not rotated or hiked on one side 4. Shoulders: Level; not elevated or rounded 5. Head: Neutral position; not forward, tilted or rotated

five kinetic chain checkpoints should be monitored:

1. Feet: Approximately shoulder-width apart (when appropriate) and pointing straight ahead (when appropriate) 2. Knees: In line with the second and third toes (avoid allowing knees to cave inward) 3. Hips: Level and in a neutral position 4. Shoulders: Neutral position (not protracted or elevated) 5. Head: Cervical spine in a neutral position (chin tuck)

Static Postural Posterior View:

1. Foot/ankle: Heels are straight and parallel; Achilles tendon is vertical; calcaneus (heel bone) not excessively everted; weight is equally balanced between right and left sides 2. Knees: Neutral position, not in valgus or varus 3. LPHC: Pelvis is level; not rotated or hiked on one side 4.Shoulders/scapulae: Level; not elevated or protracted 5. Head: Neutral position; neither tilted nor rotated

Core training programs must be designed to achieve the following functional outcomes. The sequence is critical for optimizing function:

1. Intervertebral stability (stabilization of individual spinal segments) 2. Lumbopelvic stability (stabilization of lumbo-pelvic-hip complex) 3. Movement efficiency (improved movement quality and force output)

The following are a few positive reasons to reassess clients on a regular basis:

1. It provides positive encouragement to clients and serves as a helpful reminder for them to continue working hard toward the goals they have set. 2. It helps clients realize how the exercise programming provided by their Certified Personal Trainer is making a difference in their fitness level, which helps foster adherence to the exercise program. 3. It provides an opportunity for fitness professionals to refine or progress exercises as their clients' abilities improve.

There are certain instances where the risk can outweigh the rewards:

1. Never compromise form over function 2. Always use caution when training on an unstable surface 3. Recognize limitations of fitness apps

3 main distortions of static posture

1. Pes planus distortion syndrome: Characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips (Table 12-1) 2. Lower crossed syndrome: Characterized by an anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine (Table 12-2) 3. Upper crossed syndrome: Characterized by a forward head and protracted (rounded) shoulders

Sequencing all assessments:

1. Preparticipation health screening 2. Physiological assessments 3. Body composition (anthropometric) assessments 4. Postural and movement assessments 5. Cardio assessments (Aerobic/ VT1 and anaerobic/VT2) 6. Performance assessments

Most exercises involve at least one of these movement patterns; though more movement patterns exist, and many of these patterns can be combined into a single exercise:

1. Squatting 2. Hip hinge 3. Pulling motions 4. Pushing motions 5. Vertical pressing

Assessment considerations for youth include the following:

1. The OHSA should be used to begin learning about the youth client's functional abilities and to determine if they are ready for the single-leg squat assessment. 2. Assumptions about the youth client's ability should be avoided, and instead, results from postural and movement screenings should be used to help determine their functional status. 3. Youth clients should typically not be challenged with maximum strength testing due to their developmental stage of life and lack of maturity needed for such assessments. 4. Many movement impairments will be the result of a lack of strength or motor control in the youth populations.

Vertical jump assessment movement (steps):

1. The client should jump and touch the highest possible vane. No stepping, of any kind, is allowed prior to the jump. 2. The height difference between the standing reach and jumping height is calculated. Red vanes are spaced 6 inches apart, blue vanes 1 inch apart, and white vanes are spaced every 0.5 inches. 3. The client should take a 2-minute rest. 4. A second attempt should be provided. If the client increases their jump height on the second attempt, a third attempt is awarded. 5. The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress.

Long Jump assessment movement (steps)

1. The client should jump forward as far as possible. It should be a 2-feet jump with a 2-feet landing. No stepping, of any kind, is allowed prior to or after the jump. 2. The jump distance should be measured from the starting line to the heels of the feet after landing. 3. The client should take a 2-minute rest. 4. A second attempt should be provided. If the client increases their jump distance on the second attempt, a third attempt is awarded. 5. The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress.

Pushing assessment movement (steps)

1. The client should stand in a narrow, split stance with the toes pointing forward and handles in each hand. 2. The fitness professional should choose a resistance that will challenge (but not exhaust) the client while executing 10 repetitions. (5 per leg)

Pulling Assessment movement:

1. The client should stand in a narrow, split stance with toes pointing forward and handles in each hand. 2. The fitness professional should choose a resistance that will challenge (but not exhaust) the client while executing 10 repetitions.

Single-Leg Squat Movement (Steps)

1. The client squats as deep as possible (while maintaining balance) and returns to the starting position. The depth of the single-leg squat will be client dependent and will likely vary across populations. 2. The client performs up to five repetitions before switching sides.

Assessment considerations for prenatal clients include the following:

1. Thorough preparticipation health screening and medical clearance should be obtained prior to further testing. 2. Assumptions about a prenatal client's ability should be avoided, and instead, results from postural and movement screenings should be used to help determine her functional status. 3. The prenatal client's concerns about movements or activities should be noted, and she should not be forced into any assessments that she is not comfortable with. Movements that require a prenatal client to get on and off the ground should be limited. 5. The assessment process should start conservatively and then progress to more challenging movements based on the prenatal client's goals and abilities. 6. Prone and supine positions should be avoided for prenatal clients in their second and third trimesters.

Pro Shuttle movements (steps)

1. Two cones are spaced 10 yards (9.1 meters) apart, with a third cone in the middle (5 yards from other cones). 2. The client should stand in a ready position next to the middle cone. 3. The timer should stand facing the middle cone.

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?

10 minutes

What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?

10% per week

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?

15 to 60 seconds

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?

2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

An example of a moderate repetition tempo is

2-0-2-0 (2-second eccentric action; 0-second isometric hold; 2-second concentric contraction; 0-second isometric hold

General recommendations for training frequency Beginning or novice:

2-3

An elastic resistance band should not be stretched longer than what percentage of its resting length?

250%

General recommendations for training frequency intermediate:

3 if using total body training sessions 4 if using a split regimen (i.e., training different muscle groups each session)

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

3 or 4 sets

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

3 to 5 reps

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?

4 to 6 drills

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

how many drills do you complete as a beginner?

4 to 6 drills, with limited inertia and unpredictability

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?

4 to 8 drills per workout

What is an example of slow repetition tempo

4-2-1-1

General recommendations for training frequency advanced

4-6; these individuals may perform many sessions in a single day

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?

5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?

5 to 10 mins

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?

6 to 8 drills

how many drills do you complete as a intermediate client?

6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability

how many drills do you complete as an advanced client?

6-10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?

60 to 120 seconds

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?

6750 pounds (3x10x225= 6750)

How many minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the World Health Organization recommend for optimal health?

75 minutes

Kinetic chain checkpoints:

:The five areas of the body that are monitored during movement assessments and exercise: foot/ankle, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulders, and head.

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?

A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

Osteoporosis:

A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?

A decrease in metabolic rate

Suspended bodyweight training:

A form of resistance training that uses a system of ropes and webbing that allows the user to work against their own body weight while performing various exercises.

Set

A group of consecutive repetitions.

Set:

A group of consecutive repetitions.

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP):

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

Anterior cruciate ligament:

A key ligament within the knee joint that provides stability to limit excessive motion of the tibia relative to the femur.

Drawing-in maneuver:

A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing in the navel toward the spine.

Tanaka formula:

A mathematical formula used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate: 208 - (0.7 × age).

Motor Unit:

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates.

Overhead squat assessment (OHSA):

A movement assessment designed to assess dynamic posture, core stability, and neuromuscular control of the whole body during a squatting motion.

Single-Leg Squat Assessment:

A movement assessment that assesses dynamic posture, lower-extremity strength, balance, and overall coordination in a single-limb stance. (observed by the anterior view)

Bench Press Strength assessment:

A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the bench press exercise. (3 reps 2 min rest -> 5%-10% load should be added-> 3 reps )

Squat strength assessment:

A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the squat exercise.

Pro shuttle assessment: (5-10-5):

A performance assessment designed to test lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control.

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT):

A performance assessment designed to test lateral speed and agility. (sprint -> backpedal -> side shuffle -> side shuffle -> carioca -> carioca -> sprint)

Long jump assessment:

A performance assessment designed to test maximal jump distance and lower extremity power.

Vertical jump assessment:

A performance assessment designed to test maximal jump height and lower extremity power.

40 yard dash assessment:

A performance assessment designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal speed.

Push-up test:

A performance assessment that measures muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement.

Target heart rate:

A predetermined exercising heart rate.

What is the principle of specificity?

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

Principle of specificity:

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it; also known as the Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands (SAID) principle.

Principle of specificity:

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it; also known as the specific adaptations to imposed demands (SAID) principle.

Valsalva maneuver:

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

Undulating periodization:

A programming scheme, also known as nonlinear periodization, that uses changes in volume, intensity, and exercise selection to provide loading differences on a daily or weekly basis.

Mortality:

A state or a risk of death or dying.

Linear periodization

A traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time.

Integrated training:

A training concept that applies all forms of exercise, such as flexibility; cardiorespiratory; core; balance; plyometric; speed, agility, quickness; and resistance training, into one system.

Rate of force production:

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

Movement impairments:

Abnormal movement patterns that can indicate possible muscle imbalances or mobility limitation.

Autonomy:

Acting in accordance with how one wants to behave.

What is the second section of the OPT programming template?

Activation

Loading movement training:

Adding additional weight or load to dynamic, full-body, multiplanar movements.

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action?

Adherence

Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?

Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?

Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

Steady-state (SS) aerobic exercise:

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

The GAS model outlines three stages of response to stress

Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion

Dynamic posture:

Alignment of the body while in motion.

Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?

Altered bone shape through the spine

Vertical loading:

Alternating body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving toward the lower extremity.

Scoliosis:

An abnormal curve of the spine from side to side.

Talk test:

An aerobic test that measures the participant's ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels.

Sarcopenia:

An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.

What does the term perturbation mean?

An alteration of the body's current state caused by the application of an external force

Perturbation:

An alteration of the body's current state caused by the application of an external force.

Movement assessment:

An assessment of a client's movement patterns and postural alignment during movement or activity; also known as a dynamic postural assessment.

Pulling Assessment:

An assessment that challenges the upper extremities and trunk during a pulling movement to identify movement impairments and potential muscle imbalances.

Pushing assessment:

An assessment that challenges the upper extremities and trunk during a pushing movement to identify movement impairments and potential muscle imbalances. (lateral view)

Static postural assessment:

An assessment that provides insight to deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture.

Anterior pelvic tilt:

An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis.

Posterior pelvic tilt:

An excessive rotation of the pelvis that results in lesser lumbar lordosis.

Compound (multijoint) movement pattern:

An exercise or movement pattern that involves multiple joints and muscle groups.

High-intensity interval training (HIIT):

An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate?

An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

Training intensity:

An individual's level of effort compared with his or her maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage.

Training intensity:

An individual's level of effort compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage.

Proprioceptively enriched environment:

An unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

Ankle plantar flexion

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?

Anterior and posterior tibialis

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

Anterior pelvic tilt

Feet externally rotating (turning out) can be seen from what view?

Anterior view

Knee valgus (knocked knee) can be seen from what view?

Anterior view

What term describes core exercises performed in a manner in which the exerciser resists forces that cause torso rotation?

Antirotational exercises

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?

Any medical precautions or contraindications

What is the correct foot placement when performing kettlebell swinging exercises?

Approximately shoulder-width apart

Kettlebells were first used in which setting?

As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

Circuit training:

As series of exercises performed one after another with minimal (or limited) rest.

Performance assessment:

Assessments used to measure overall strength, muscular endurance, power, and agility.

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

At least 3 times a week

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?

Athletic injuries

When performing the T-Drill, which movement is used to complete the last 10 yards of the drill?

Backpedal

Which of the following exercises consists of these three parts: a Y, T, then A position (or scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra)?

Ball combo I

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?

Baseline value

NASM recommends the cardiorespiratory portion of a warm-up be performed at a low-to-moderate intensity and last for how long?

Between 5 and 10 minutes

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?

Bracing

What term refers to a co-contraction of global muscles such as the rectus abdominus and external obliques?

Bracing

Which of the following exercises helps strengthen the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantar flexor muscles?

Calf raise

The five components of fitness include which of the following?

Cardiorespiratory (aerobic) fitness

What does COD stand for

Change of Direction

Pes planus

Collapsed arch of the foot; also known as flat feet.

Fundamental movement patterns:

Common and essential movements performed in daily life and are involved in exercise motions within a training session.

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?

Complex training

What type of resistance training alternates heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement?

Complex training

Thoracic spine

Composed of 12 vertebral bodies (T1-T12) that make up the midregion of the spine. Attached to the rib cage at each level of the thoracic spine providing stability and structural support.

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?

Concentric action

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

Continuous talking becomes challenging

Bracing:

Contracting the global abdominals such as the rectus abdominis and obliques at the same time.

Antirotational exercises:

Core exercises performed in a manner in which the exerciser resists forces that cause torso rotation; often unilateral in nature.

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?

Correct technique

Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming?

Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?

Decreased rest periods

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?

Depressed and slightly retracted

General adaptation syndrome (GAS):

Describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

What are the exercises included in the last progression of balance training designed to do?

Develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position

Modalities:

Device or tools that are designed to enhance an exercise or movement to create a desired outcome by their inclusion. Examples include treadmill for cardiovascular health or dumbbells for strength and hypertrophy.

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?

Eccentric loading

Nonexercise activity thermogensis (NEAT):

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs.

Hypertrophy:

Enlargement of an organ or tissue; in the context of fitness, it is often used to describe the enlargement of skeletal muscle.

Overtraining:

Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, resulting in reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery.

Plyometric/reactive training:

Exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action. (jumping)

When performing a ball cobra exercise, which of the following instructions should the Certified Personal Trainer provide to the client?

Externally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing up toward the sky

TRUE OR FALSE? After vigorous exercise, how quickly a person's heart rate drops in the first minute after exercise is a predictor of poor heart health.

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE? Closed-chain exercises involve movements in which the distal extremities are not in a fixed position, and the force applied by an individual is great enough to overcome the resistance.

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE? Plyometric exercises are only appropriate for athletes.

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE? Strength training machines should never be the strength modality of choice for those who lack stability or have other functional limitations.

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight plates under the feet when performing a barbell bench press exercise is never acceptable.

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE? To decrease stress on the elbows when performing a standing barbell curl, the client should use a very wide grip

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE? When performing the "ball squat, curl to press" exercise, the client should lean back into the ball throughout the squatting motion, relying on it for support

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE? A Phase 5 flexibility routine typically involves static and dynamic stretching.

False

TRUE OR FALSE? Performing shoulder external rotation with tubing helps strengthen the subscapularis

False

TRUE OR FALSE? The Certified Personal Trainer is encouraged to spot at the client's elbows instead of the wrists when using dumbbells (e.g., in a dumbbell shoulder press) to provide better support for the lifter.

False

TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is recommended.

False

TRUE OR FALSE? When performing the dumbbell squat exercise, the client's feet should be positioned hip-width apart.

False

TRUE OR FALSE? While performing the ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball.

False

What is the definition of kinesiophobia?

Fear of movement

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?

Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?

Firm surface

What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?

Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training?

Floor bridge

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?

Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

What equation represents power?

Force x velocity

Power:

Force × Velocity or Work ÷ Time

Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.

Training for youth should be?

Frequency 1-3 No. of Drills 4-8 Sets 1-4 Repetitions 3-5 Rest Periods 15-60seconds

Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?

Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out?

Gastrocnemius and soleus

Which term refers to the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress?

General adaptation syndrome

What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?

Ground reaction force

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?

Growth and Volume

What is the number one cause of death around the world?

Heart Disease

What is the number one cause of death in the United States?

Heart Disease

Target heart rate = (HRmax-HRrest) x % intensity desired)+ HRrest

Heart rate reserve (HRR)

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

Hip flexors

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion?

Iliopsoas

Acute Variables:

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed; also known as exercise training variables.

Acute variables:

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed; also known as exercise training variables.

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?

Improved sleep

Once children become accustomed to completing four to five simple SAQ exercises once or twice per week, what is an appropriate progression for a Certified Personal Trainer to implement over the next few months?

Increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine?

Increased lordosis

Progressive overload:

Increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach.

Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness, and athletic performance?

Integrated training

Motor learning:

Integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled motor behavior.

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

When performing a single-leg dumbbell curl, which of the following ensures proper scapular stability, placing more of an emphasis on the bicep's musculature?

Keeping the scapulae retracted

Which of the following is a predictive factor for knee injury?

Knee Valgus

Which of the following is an anti-rotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?

Kneeling Pallof press

Kee varus

Knees bow outward (bowlegged); also known as genu varum

Knee valgus

Knees collapse inward (knock knees) due to hip adduction and internal rotation; also known as medial knee displacement and genu valgum.

Arms falling forward can be seen from what view?

Lateral view

Excessive forward lean of the torse can be seen from which view

Lateral view

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment?

Latissimus dorsi

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?

Less braking force

Which of the following is a traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time?

Linear periodization

What term is used to describe training that adds a weight or load to dynamic, full-body, multiplanar movements?

Loaded movement training

Stretch-shortening cycle:

Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction.

General warm-up:

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

Specific warm-up:

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility?

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

Lower trapezius

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming?

Macrocycle

Periodization:

Macromanagement or planned manipulation of training variables in an organized fashion to improve performance over time.

Local core muscle exercises:

Marching, Floor bridge, Ball bridge, Floor cobra, Ball cobra, Fire hydrant, Plank, Side plank, Dead bug, Bird dog, Pallof press, Farmer's carry

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?

Maximal Strength Training

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?

Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

Medicine ball

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?

Medicine ball chest pass

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?

Medicine ball pullover throw

One Unit is equal to 3.5ml O2 - kg(-1)xmm(-1)

Metabolic equivalent (MET)

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment?

Middle and lower trapezius

Which of the following is a primary reason that people purchase fitness tracking devices?

Motivation

Which term refers to a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates?

Motor Unit

What term refers to the integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled motor behavior?

Motor learning

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

Motor unit recruitment

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?

Movement assessments

For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?

Movement quality

Optimal movement:

Moving in a biomechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes risk of injury.

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

Type 1 (slow twitch) muscle fibers:

Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, and are more resistant to fatigue.

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?

Muscle hypertrophy

Which term refers to a state where muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships?

Muscle imbalance

Synergeists:

Muscles that assist agonists to produce a movement.

Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?

Muscular development

What does the push-up test measure?

Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?

Neuromuscular stabilization

Posterior:

On the back of the body.

Anterior

On the front of the body.

Repetition

One complete movement of an exercise.

Repetition:

One complete movement of an exercise.

Self-efficacy:

One's belief that he or she can complete a task, goal, or performance; also known as self-confidence.

Self- efficacy:

One's belief that they can complete a task, goal, or performance; also known as self-confidence.

Mobility:

Optimal flexibility and joint range of motion; ability to move freely.

When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps, designed to establish which of the following?

Optimal landing mechanics

Modifications for Pushing Assessments:

Option 1: The client stands in a wider split stance. This testing position still assesses the upper extremity and cervical spine and head, but it decreases the challenge to the LPHC and the client's balance. Option 2: The client performs a pushing movement seated in a machine.

What term refers to excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training resulting in reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery?

Overtraining

Delayed-onset muscle soreness:

Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?

Pectoral Group

Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?

Performance assessment

The drop set

Performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

Horizontal loading:

Performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part.

The giant set system

Performing four or more exercises in succession with as little rest as possible between sets

The superset system

Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest

When utilizing devices such as a stability ball, BOSU ball, or the Terra-Core, the user is forced to actively engage their core musculature due to their body weight displacing air inside the bladder of the device, causing which of the following?

Perturbation

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?

Perturbation

What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?

Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome

The strength level in the OPT model consists of three phases:

Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training, Phase 3 Muscular Development Training, and Phase 4 Maximal Strength Training.

Muscle hypertrophy is the primary goal of which phase of training within the OPT model?

Phase 3

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?

Phase 4

What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

What issue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercises?

Poor activation of the local core

What term refers to the phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle?

Post-activation potentiation

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?

Posterior chain

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

Power Training

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

Previous injury

How often should elastic resistance bands be checked?

Prior to every use

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?

Pro shuttle

Ventilation:

Process by which oxygen is transferred to the muscles from the lungs.

What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using a systematic and gradual approach?

Progressive overload

Exhaustion:

Prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system.

Frontside mechanics: (flexion)

Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and a neutral pelvis.

Backside mechanics: (extension)

Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and a neutral pelvis.

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?

Proprioceptively enriched environment

What is the most accurate term for an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?

Proprioceptively enriched environment

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one?

Provide an increased range of motion

Vestibular system:

Provides information about the position of the body and head, and spatial orientation relative to its surrounding environment; located in the inner ears that assist with balance.

Somatosensory system:

Provides information that is acquired from receptors in the body (skin, muscle, joints, tendons) about the position and motion of the body parts relative to other body regions and the support surface.

Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time?

Rate of force production

What term is used to describe the process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased?

Rate of progression

Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?

Ratings of perceived exertion

Uses a point scale of 1 to 10 or 6 to 20

Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)

Ground reaction force:

Reaction force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it.

What is plyometric training also known as?

Reactive Training

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?

Recovery

Metabolic specificity

Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.

Midpoint:

Refers to the intensity level halfway between ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) and ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2).

Neuromuscular specificity

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.

Mechanical specificity:

Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.

Bilateral

Relating to two sides of the body.

Bilateral:

Relating to two sides of the body.

Which kettlebell exercise can be used effectively in Phase 1 of the OPT model to improve stability and back strength?

Renegade row

Acute variables

Repetitions Sets Training intensity Repetition tempo Rest intervals Training volume Training frequency Training duration Exercise selection Exercise order

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?

Resistance training

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down?

Restore optimal length-tension relationships

When performing rows, how should the client initiate the movement?

Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?

Retraction

When performing the single-leg hip rotation exercise, what will help to decrease stress to the spine and enhance control of the core?

Rotate through the hip of the balance leg rather than the spine

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?

SAID principle

Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?

SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?

Sagittal

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?

Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations?

Self-efficacy

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?

Semi-dynamic balance

What term refers to the interaction between the body's processing of information (visual, vestibular, and somatosensory) and the body's motor response to that information?

Sensorimotor function

Which of the following is a common compensation that occurs when performing a standing cable chest press?

Shoulder shrug

Which of the following exercises is appropriate for entry-level balance training?

Single leg lift and chop

This Assessment should be avoided by clients who are at risk for falls or loss of balance or who are recovering from a lower-body injury

Single- Leg Squat assessment

Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus maximus and shoulder retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids?

Single-leg squat to row

Which of the following best describes proper hand position when performing a close grip bench press?

Slightly inside shoulder-width apart

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?

Small circuits

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?

Somatosensory system

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles?

Somatosensory system

What term refers to low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the upcoming sets of more intense exercise?

Specific warm-up

What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?

Speed of force generation

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body?

Spine

Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise?

Squat strength assessment

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?

Squat, curl to two-arm press

Which fundamental movement pattern is used in activities of daily living, such as sitting down and standing up from a chair?

Squatting

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?

Squatting

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?

Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

Intervertebral stability:

Stability and support of individual spine segments.

Postural alignment and control

Stabilization

What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?

Stabilization

Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?

Stabilization Endurance Training

OPT Model Stages

Stabilization endurance, strength endurance, muscular development, maximal strength, power

What are the three levels of the OPT model?

Stabilization, Strength, and Power

Which of the following provides greater demands on core stability and proprioception by progressing from bilateral to unilateral movements, using slow repetition tempos and high repetition schemes?

Stabilization-focused exercises

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes?

Stage 1

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

Stage 2

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1?

Stage 2 training

Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise?

Stages 1 and 2

Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients?

Static postural and overhead squat assessments

Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture?

Static postural assessment

Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?

Static posture assessment

When initially attempting a multiplanar box jump-down with stabilization exercise, the client should be instructed to do which of the following?

Step off and drop from the prescribed height

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?

Sternocleidomastoid

Muscular endurance and prime mover strength

Strength

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?

Strength Endurance Training

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?

Stretch reflex

What term is used to describe two exercises performed back-to-back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest?

Superset

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?

Synergistic dominance

Remember that joint motion is caused by muscles pulling on bones; muscles cannot actively push.

TRUE

TRUE OR FALSE? It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results.

TRUE

TRUE OR FALSE? Stability balls are best used with clients who demonstrate a need for increased overload of stability.

TRUE

Core Stability:

The ability of an individual to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving.

Core stability:

The ability of an individual to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving.

core stability

The ability of an individual to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving.

Cardiorespiratory fitness:

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to provide the body with oxygen during activity.

Neuromuscular efficiency:

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structure in all three planes of motion.

Strength:

The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load.

Core endurance:

The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration.

Core strength:

The ability to control the motion of the spine.

Dynamic balance:

The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support. (running on uneven ground)

Semi-dynmaic balance

The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body. (like riding a skate board)

Static balance:

The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.

Bone density:

The amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorus, in a segment of bone.

Enjoyment:

The amount of pleasure derived from performing a physical activity.

Training duration:

The amount of time of a training session.

Center of gravity:

The approximate midpoint of the body; while the location may vary between individuals, it is typically located at the midportion of the trunk.

Base of support:

The area beneath a person that consists of every point of contact made between the body and the support surface.

Limits of stability:

The area within which an individual can move one's center of gravity without changing the base of support (i.e., moving the feet) without falling.

What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete?

The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.

Kinesthetic awareness:

The awareness of the body's position as it moves through multiple planes of motion.

Resistance development:

The body increases its functional capacity to adapt to a stressor.

Proprioception

The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

Proprioception:

The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

Stabilization:

The body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements.

Myofibrils

The contractile components of a muscle cell; the myofilaments (actin and myosin) are contained within a myofibril.

Range of Motion (ROM):

The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move; often measured in degrees.

Time:

The duration an individual is engaged in a given activity.

Muscular hypertrophy:

The enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers.

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?

The exercise is intense.

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?

The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

Activities of daily living (ADL):

The fundamental tasks needed to manage basic self-care activities, such as bathing, dressing, grooming, meal preparation and feeding, and homemaking.

Alarm reaction stage:

The initial reaction to a stressor.

What does the term midpoint refer to?

The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2

Sensorimotor function:

The interaction between the way the body processes visual, vestibular, and somatosensory information with the motor response of the body to that information.

If a client cannot touch their foot when performing the single-leg squat touchdown, where should the personal trainer instruct them to reach first?

The knee

Adherence:

The level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action.

Intensity:

The level of demand placed on the body by a given activity.

Lumbar spine:

The lumbar region of the spine, more commonly known as the low back, which consists of five vertebrae labeled L1-L5.

What is the focus of the second level of training in the OPT model?

The main adaptation of strength

Type:

The mode of physical activity in which an individual is engaged.

Lordotic/ Lordosis:

The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating a concave portion of the spine.

lordotic/lordosis:

The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating a concave portion of the spine.

Kyphotic/Kyphosis:

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine.

Kyphotic/kyphosis:

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine.

Stride rate:

The number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance).

Frequency:

The number of training sessions in a given timeframe.

Post- activation potentiation (PAP):

The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle.

Planes of motion:

The planes of movement in which the human body moves, which includes the sagittal, frontal, and transverse planes.

Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1):

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.

Ventilatory threshold (Tvent):

The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.

Static posture:

The positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is motionless. (standing up right)

Rate of progression:

The process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased.

Homeostasis:

The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium.

Inspiration:

The process of contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body

Posture:

The relative disposition of the body parts in relation to the physical position, such as standing, lying down, and sitting.

Stability:

The resistance to the external disruptions to one's equilibrium.

Neuromuscular control:

The response (conscious or unconscious) of the muscles within the body to control purposeful movement.

Length-tension relationship:

The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length.

Training plan:

The specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, future changes, and specific exercises to be performed.

Morbidity:

The state of having a disease.

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?

The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

Core:

The structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), including the lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, and hip joint.

Training volume:

The sum of the repetitions performed in a given set during each training session, multiplied by the resistance used.

Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?

The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.

Rest interval:

The time taken to recuperate between sets.

Volume:

The total amount of work performed in each timeframe, typically 1 week.

Progression:

The way an exercise program advances in intensity and/or volume to continually challenge the individual.

Why are acute variables an important part of exercise programming?

They specify how each exercise is to be performed, which can help achieve goals.

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise?

Thumbs pointing up

What is the main goal of balance training?

To continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability

What is the goal of core training?

To develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power

Integrated performance paradigm:

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).

The split-routine system

Training different body parts on separate days

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals?

Training frequency

What is calculated by totaling the number of repetitions performed in a set during a training session, then multiplying it by the resistance used?

Training volume

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

Transverse abdominis

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

Transverse abdominis

What term is used to describe ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg while sprinting?

Triple extension

10 to 15 repetitions are enough for a warm-up set

True

A 10% loss of bone density at the hip can result in a 2.5 times greater risk for hip fracture

True

A Phase 5 flexibility routine does not typically involve static or active stretching

True

A client must exhibit basic levels of total body strength, core strength, and balance before progressing into plyometric training.

True

Agility training can enhance deceleration capabilities, dynamic flexibility, postural control, core strength, and proprioception

True

Although both sides of a BOSU ball can be used, standing on the flat side (dome down), is not recommended by the manufacturer.

True

As a general rule for plyometric training, recovery times of 60 to 120 seconds between drills should be sufficient for full recovery, but this is strictly determined by the client's fitness level.

True

As a general rule, clients should practice plyometric skills comprising dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills.

True

Because elastic bands can break, potentially causing injury to both the fitness professional or their client, it is imperative to check all bands prior to each workout to ensure there are no cracks, tears, or excessive wear areas on the bands. Never use a questionable band regardless of the exercise.

True

Elastic resistance training techniques allow clients to move in multiple planes of motion and oftentimes achieve a greater ROM during training than using selectorized strength-training machines.

True

How quickly a person's heart rate drops in the first minute after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of heart health. An abnormally slow return to a resting heart rate is a predictor of poor heart health.

True

In most fitness-related scenarios, exercise sessions typically last between 30 and 90 minutes.

True

It is important to plan exercise progressions to challenge the balance system by manipulating one variable at a time. The progressions implemented should be client-specific based on their own unique physical capabilities.

True

Medicine balls, sandbags, and ViPR are modalities that allow for the most multiplanar motion.

True

Neural adaptations become the focus of the program instead of striving for absolute strength gains.

True

One of the primary objectives of plyometric training is to reduce the time in the amortization phase

True

Prolonged stress or intolerable amounts of stress can lead to several negative consequences such as the following: Stress fractures, muscle strains and ligament sprains, joint pain, emotional fatigue

True

Repetition tempos use the same four-numbered sequence no matter if the exercise first starts with an eccentric movement, like a squat or bench press, or a concentric movement, like a biceps curl or shoulder press.

True

Repetitions can be categorized as low (1 to 5), moderate (6 to 12), and high (12+).

True

Scientific evidence exists to support the importance of core training for the following key areas: optimizing posture, performance, injury resistance, and rehabilitation.

True

Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching should focus on areas that have been determined as overactive during the assessment process.

True

Smaller ropes (1.0-1.5 in. in diameter) are used primarily for aerobic and muscular endurance adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or more. Heavier ropes (2 in. in diameter) are best used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less

True

Stabilization-focused resistance exercises should use a slow repetition tempo, a high amount of repetitions (typically 12-20), and a few sets (1-3). This form of training enhances muscular endurance, posture, and joint stability.

True

TRUE OR FALSE? As a general rule, clients should practice plyometric skills involving dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills.

True

TRUE OR FALSE? Components of a speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) program can significantly improve the physical health profile of apparently healthy sedentary adults and those with medical or health limitations.

True

TRUE OR FALSE? The forward rounding of the shoulders theoretically limits the ability to lift the ribcage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration.

True

TRUE OR FALSE? Using a rope when performing cable pushdowns may help decrease the risk of elbow pain.

True

The flexibility techniques used in a Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training Program include (1) self-myofascial techniques, (2) static stretching, and (3) optional dynamic stretching.

True

The main adaptations that occur from resistance training include stabilization, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, and power.

True

The primary global muscles of the core include (but are not limited to) the rectus abdominis, external obliques, latissimus dorsi, gluteus maximus, hip flexors, and extrinsic (superficial) erector spinae.

True

The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is not recommended. Weight belts may raise an individual's heart rate and systolic blood pressure and often give individuals a false sense of security and the misconception that they can lift heavier loads. Instead, fitness professionals need to educate their clients as to appropriate exercise technique and proper activation of the body's natural belt: the core musculature.

True

When performing a bridge, do not raise the hips too far off the floor (hyperextending the low-back). This places excessive stress to the lumbar spine. Make sure at the end position, the knees, hips, and shoulders are in alignment and the gluteal muscles are fully contracted.

True

force production (concentric), force reduction (eccentric), and dynamic stabilization (isometric)

True

in Phases 2 through 4, the flexibility routine is progressed, and flexibility techniques include self-myofascial techniques, active stretching, and optional dynamic stretching.

True

it is important to note that mesocycles do not have to be 1 month in duration in all instances

True

the fitness professional should be able to optimize the training loads and tolerance levels for all clients by arranging them in an ideal way to best reduce fatigue.

True

Superset:

Two exercises performed back to back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?

Two-arm push press

What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client?

Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber?

Type 1

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers?

Type I fibers are "slow twitch."

If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle?

Undulating

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?

Undulating periodization

Asymmetrical resistance loading:

Unequal or uneven resistance force. Examples include using different loads for each extremity or performing unilateral exercises.

Which of the following is a process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability?

Valsalva maneuver

What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production?

Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

Vestibular system

What popular piece of exercise equipment is a cylindrical tube constructed of hardened rubber, designed to be dragged, tossed, lifted, pulled, pressed, and carried?

ViPR

Which three senses are involved in the balance system?

Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

OPT Exercise program order:

Warm-Up, Activation, Skill Development, Resistance Training, Client's Choice, and Cool-Down

Underactive:

When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment.

Overactive:

When elevated neural drive causes a muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction.

Muscle imbalance:

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

Which phase is a client starting to sweat but can still carry on a conversation effortlessly

Zone 1

Which phase is a client able to continual talking is becoming challenging

Zone 2

Which phase is a client profuse sweating

Zone 3

Which phase is speaking impossible or limited to grunts of single words

Zone 4

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

ankle sprains

Macrocycle

annual training plan

Workout that goes with pushing mechanics

dumbell chest press

What order does a repetition tempo go in?

eccentric/isometric/concentric/isometric

iceberg effect:

exercise programming involves more than what we see at the surface, such as reducing body fat, gaining muscle mass, or increasing strength and power

Stabilization:

focusing on improving movement patterns and enhancing stabilization

progress training from stabilization through the power phase of training

general sports performance

Phase 4 maximal strength training: goal is

heavy weightlifting during resistance training. (american football lineman, rugby athletews, shot-putters)

Triple Flexions:

includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion; the lead leg while sprinting.

Triple Extension:

includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension; the rear leg while sprinting.

increases in blood flow leads to

increased heart and respiratory rate

increases psychological preparation for bouts of exercise helps with

increases the mental readiness of an individual

Increases rate of muscle contraction helps with

increases tissue temperature

Electromyography

is a procedure that measures the electrical conducting function of nerves in muscles. An electromyography is able to identify differences in muscle or muscle group activation when performing different movements or exercises.

Workout that goes with hip-hinge mechanics

kettlebell swing

Supine

lying face up

Mesocycle:

monthly training plan

Progress training programs with higher volumes (more sets, reps, and intensity)

muscle hypertrophy

Rate of force productin

power

Phase 3: Muscular development training: the goal of this phase of training is

primarily muscular hypertrophy, the fitness professional will want to increase the volume (lots of sets) and intensity (using moderate to heavy weight) of the program

Workout that goes with pulling mechanics

rows

Volume =

sets + reps

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?

speed

Workout that goes with squatting mechanics

step-ups

Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training is designed to

teach optimal movement patterns (e.g., pushing, pulling, pressing, squatting, hip hinging) and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise.

The goal of Phase 5 Power Training is

to increase maximal strength and rate of force production. -> shown to improve sprint and vertical jump performance

Acute variables can be viewed as all the building blocks that are used to design an exercise program, which include repetitions, sets, training intensity, repetition tempo, rest intervals, training volume, training frequency, training duration, exercise selection, and exercise order.

true

Commonly, static postural assessments begin at the feet and travel upwards toward the head

true

Developing movement strategies that effectively stabilize the spine by activating local muscles, prior to the initiation of extremity movements, is important for minimizing improper loading of the spine and reducing the risk of injury.

true

For most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise, stages 1 and 2 are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness and promoting a healthy body weight. These two stages should be top priority for the average exerciser and gym goer.

true

It is important to remember that dysfunction of local core musculature can be present in individuals with strong global core musculature.

true

It is not recommended to work with a client who is currently experiencing pain without proper clearance and direction by their physician.

true

Local muscles generally attach on or near the vertebrae and often have short attachments ranging between one and two vertebrae segments

true

Movement observations should relate to basic functions, such as squatting, balancing, pushing, and pulling.

true

Overactive muscles require stretching, whereas underactive muscles require additional strengthening to help correct the muscle imbalance.

true

Stages 3 through 5 are most appropriate for athletes and advanced fitness enthusiasts who are seeking greater improvements in cardiorespiratory conditioning and are willing to participate in high-intensity exercise. It is not necessary for fitness professionals to implement all five stages with their clients. Cardiorespiratory exercise should be individualized based on the client's needs, goals, abilities, and exercise preferences.

true

The faulty postures identified during a static postural assessment will likely appear during a movement assessment, but the same cannot be said in the opposite direction. When standing at rest, a client could have observably perfect posture; however, when tasked to perform a movement assessment, they may suddenly reveal movement impairments.

true

The fitness professional should choose to perform cardio and performance assessments on separate days to ensure the client's energy levels are fresh to maximize the accuracy of these assessments.

true

The human spine demonstrates naturally occurring curvatures that alternate between lordotic (outward/concave) curvatures in the cervical and lumbar spine and kyphotic (inward/convex) curvatures in the thoracic and sacral spine

true

These stretching techniques include self-myofascial techniques, such as foam rolling, static stretching, active stretching, and dynamic stretching.

true

many injuries occur in the frontal and transverse planes of motion

true

resistance training has shown to be an effective mode of exercise to improve bone density and muscular strength and enhance cardiovascular health

true

ViPR is an acronym for

vitality, performance and reconditioning

Typical forms of cardiorespiratory exercise include

walking, jogging, running, cycling, biking, swimming, rowing, and sports competition

Microcycle:

weekly or daily training plan