DAT BC: A&P

What immune cells function to rapidly respond to an antigen that has been previously recognized? What else plays a role in the response to invasions by a previously encountered pathogen?

Memory B cells rapidly respond to an antigen via accelerated antibody synthesis; Memory T cells

Histamine causes _______________, and heparin helps to ______________

vasodilation, prevent clots form forming

Both NK (natural killer cells, innate) and CD8 (cytotoxic T cells, adaptive) release: 1. 2.

1. Perforin, which pokes holes in pathogenic cell membranes causing cell lysis 2. Granzymes, a protease that stimulates a target cell to undergo apoptosis (these are particularly helpful for killing cancerous cells)

What are the five signs associated with the inflammatory response?

1. heat 2. redness 3. swelling 4. loss of function 5. pain

A patient is admitted to the ER after being stabbed several times. The doctor suspects epinephrine and norepinephrine production have been compromised due to decreased blood glucose levels and heart rate. Which organ requires surgical repair? A. adrenal cortex B. thalamus C. adrenal medulla D. hypothalamus E. thymus

C. adrenal medulla The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine. If the adrenal medulla were damaged, production of both would be compromised. Keep in mind that the adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys. Answer review: A. The adrenal cortex produces corticosteroids and androgens B. The thalamus is the relay center for the nervous signal to the cerebral cortex D. The hypothalamus is a major center of endocrine hormone control E. The thymus is where T cell leukocytes mature

In a nephron, which of the following changes would increase the osmolarity of the filtrate in the collecting duct? A. increase of water in the blood B. increase of water in the body cells C. increase in cortisol D. increase in ADH E. decrease in ADH

D. increase in ADH ADH, or vasopressin, is produced by the hypothalamus and is released by the posterior pituitary. It allows the collecting duct of the nephron to become more permeable to water, and as a result more water is reabsorbed from the filtrate. If more water is reabsorbed, then the remaining filtrate will become more concentrated, or have a higher osmolarity.

What is directly responsible for producing antibodies? What is indirectly responsible for producing antibodies?

Plasma cells produce antibodies; macrophages indirectly produce antibodies by acting as antigen presenting cells and stimulating B cells to produce antibodies.

Major difference between basophils and mast cells:

basophils leave bone marrow as mature cells and remain circulating in the blood; mast cells leave the bone marrow and circulate in the blood as immature cells, only maturing when they enter the tissue

The final main aspect of innate immunity is the _____________________________________. This goes on to form the ___________.

complement system, MAC (membrane attack complex)

Eosinophils =

granulocytes

Basophils and mast cells are granulocytes (like eosinophils); these cells are packed with ____________ as well as ____________

histamine, heparin

What is responsible for the recognition of allergens?

mast cells (via IgE)

Innate immunity; the most numerous white blood cell and often the first white blood cell to respond to a site of injury/infection; these phagocytose and release granules to capture/kill foreign bodies and microbes

neutrophils

List the three types of lymphocytes and note if they're part of innate or adaptive immunity

1. natural killer cells, innate 2. B cells, adaptive 3. T cells, adaptive

Which innate immune response cells are associated with inflammation? List the four.

1. neutrophils 2. monocytes/macrophages 3. eosinophils 4. basophils/mast cells

The somatic nervous system is most related to the release of which neurotransmitter? A. Acetylcholine B. Ca2+ C. Serotonin D. Glutamine E. Epinephrine

A. Acetylcholine The somatic nervous system is the voluntary part of our nervous system that controls our skeletal muscles. The neurotransmitter that controls the contraction of our skeletal muscles is acetylcholine. Calcium is also very important in contracting muscle, but it is not a neurotransmitter.

Which of the following components of the immune system responds to specific antigens? A. B cells B. Interferons C. Phagocytes D. Cilia E. Lysozyme

A. B cells There are two parts to the immune system: specific and nonspecific defense. Specific defense responds to antigens, such as the toxin from an insect sting, or a molecule on the plasma membrane of a pathogen. Nonspecific defense is not specialized for a particular pathogen; it defends against all pathogens in general. Examples of nonspecific defense include: skin, interferons, phagocytes, cilia, lysozyme. Interferons are molecules secreted by cells invaded by viruses that stimulate other cells to help defend against viruses. Phagocytes are white blood cells that engulf pathogens. Cilia line the lungs and help sweep pathogens out of the lungs. Lysozyme is a protein that breaks down cell walls in bacteria.

Which of the following is true regarding the skeletal system? A. Ligaments connect bone to bone B. Osteoclasts synthesize bone C. Bone replaces cartilage in intramembranous ossification D. The axial skeleton includes the skull, spine, and pelvic girdles E. Bone marrow is present in the cortical layer of bone

A. Ligaments connect bone to bone AND tendons connect muscle to bone Answer review: B. OsteoBLASTS synthesize bone, osteoCLASTS resorb bone C. Bone replaces cartilage in endochondral ossification D. The axial skeleton consists of the skull, spine, and rib cage E. Bone marrow is present in the cancellous layer of bone. The cortical layer of bone is the hard, dense, outer layer of bone

What part of the inner ear is directly responsible for transducing a sound wave into a neuronal signal? A. Tympanic membrane B. Cochlea C. Stapes D. Semicircular canal E. Oval window

B. Cochlea The cochlea is the "snail shaped" portion of the ear which is responsible for the signal transduction (converting one signal into anther type of signal) of auditory waves into a signal for the brain. Answer review: A. The tympanic membrane is the border between the outer ear and the middle ear. It is a canopy that is pulsated by incoming sound waves. The tympanic membrane converts the pulsatile pressure sound waves that it receives from the outer ear into waves of mechanical pressure that it sends to the middle ear. C. The stapes is one of the three bones of the middle ear, referred to as the ossicles. The ossicles transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window. D. The semicircular canals are fluid containing canals that give the brain information about motion. E. The oval window is the entrance for the sound waves to the cochlea.

Which of the following muscles attach to the atrioventricular valves and contract to prevent prolapse of these valves on systole? A. Extraocular muscles B. Papillary muscles C. Sphincter pupillae muscles D. Ciliary muscles E. Reticular muscles

B. Papillary muscles The papillary muscles are located in the ventricles of the heart, and they are responsible for controlling the AV valves (the bicuspid/mitral and tricuspid valves). They prevent the inversion of these valves during systole (ventricular contraction) via stringy tendons called chardae tendineae. Extraocular muscles control the movement of the eye and elevation of the eyelid. The sphincter pupillae muscle is a muscle in the eye that constricts the pupil, usually in response to bright light. The ciliary muscle is a ring of smooth muscle that changes the shape of the lens within the eye to view objects at different distances. There is no biological term named reticular muscles.

Which of the following pairs of structures target the same organ with different hormones? A. Pancreas and thyroid B. Testes and posterior pituitary C. Posterior pituitary and adrenal cortex D. Adrenal medulla and parathyroid E. Adrenal cortex and pancrease

C. Posterior pituitary and adrenal cortex The posterior pituitary releases ADH, which allows the kidneys to reabsorb more water. The adrenal cortex releases mineralcorticoids, such as aldosterone, which affects the kidney to increase salt reabsorption (which in turn increases water absorption as well due to changes in osmolarity).

A child born with a suspected immune illness is brought to the doctor for diagnosis. After several tests, it is determined that the child has severely low macrophage levels, but all other aspects of his immune system are normal. Which immune function would one expect to be most directly compromised in the child? A. Production of antibodies that circulate in the blood B. Phagocytosis of foreign substances C. Recognition and response to allergens D. Rapid response to previously encountered antigens E. Formation of the membrane attack complex

B. Phagocytosis of foreign substances Macrophages phagocytose foreign bodies, infectious cells, cancerous cells, microbes, cell debris and other non-native entities within the body. Answer review: A. Plasma cells produce antibodies, so this function would not be directly compromised. Indirectly, macrophages do act as antigen presenting cells that could activate B cells to produce antibodies, but this would not be the primary impact of lacking macrophages. C. Mast cells are responsible for recognition of allergens (via attached IgE molecules) and response (through release of histamine and other chemicals). D. Memory B cells function to rapidly respond to an antigen that has previously been recognized via accelerated antibody synthesis. Memory T cells also play a role in the response to invasions by a previously encountered pathogen. E. The complement system forms the membrane attack complex.

Regarding the PNS and the SNS, all of the following are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. PNS uses acetylcholine as its preganglionic neurotransmitter B. SNS uses acetylcholine as its postganglionic neurotransmitter C. SNS ganglia are located just outside the spinal cord D. PNS ganglia are located in or near their effector organs E. SNS preganglionic nerves synapse onto SNS postganglionic nerves as well as onto the adrenal medulla

B. SNS uses ACh as its postganglionic NT The SNS uses ACh ONLY as the preganglionic NT. The postganglionic NT in the SNS are norepi and epi Answer review: A. The PNS uses ACh for both its preganglionic and postganglionic NT B. The SNS uses ACh only as the preganglionic NT C. Preganglionic nerves of the SNS exit the CNS midway through the spinal cord and form synapses just outside it D. Preganglionic nerves of the PNS exit the CNS from the base of the brain and the upper spinal cord, forming synapses in or near their target organs. E. In addition to the synapse between pre- and post-ganglionic SNS nerves, SNS preganglionic nerves synapse with the adrenal medulla, which stimulates the release or norepi and epi

Which of the following situations will result in the firing of an action potential? Assuming the resting membrane potential = -70mV and the threshold potential = -55mV. A. Summation of graded potentials = -50mV at the synaptic cleft B. Summation of graded potentials = -50mV at the axon hillock C. Summation of graded potentials = -60mV at the synaptic cleft D. Summation of graded potentials = -60mV at the synaptic cleft E. Summation of graded potentials = -75mV at the axon terminal

B. Summation of graded potentials = -50mV at the axon hillock The axon hillock is the area of the neuron's cell body that is adjacent to the beginning of the axon. This is where graded potentials received at the dendrites summate. If the summation is higher (less negative) than the threshold potential, an action potential will fire down the axon (headed towards the axon terminal). If summation of graded potentials at the axon hillock = -50mV this is a higher potential than the threshold potential of -55mV and an action potential will fire for the given nerve.

Which of the following describes the origin and the target organ of glucagon, respectively? A. Beta cells; adrenal gland B. Alpha cells; brain C. Alpha cells; liver D. G cells; stomach E. Beta cells; small intestine

C. Alpha cells; liver Alpha cells, located in the pancreas in the islets of Langerhans, secrete glucagon. Glucagon is released when the blood has a low concentration of glucose ("glucose-is-gone"). Glucagon targets the liver to release glucose from its glycogen stores. It also targets amino acids and fatty acids to be converted into glucose. Beta cells, located in the pancreas in the islets of Langerhans, secrete insulin. Insulin is released when there is too much blood glucose. It promotes the uptake and conversion of glucose into glycogen by the cells, especially the liver. Some of the glucose is also converted into fat.

Which of the following would result in a "shift to the right" in the hemoglobin dissociation curve? A. Decreased carbon dioxide B. Decreased body temperature C. Decrease in pH D. Increase in pH E. Fetal hemoglobin

C. Decrease in pH A left-shifted curve is representative of hemoglobin binding more tightly to oxygen, which means it does not release it as easily to the body. A right shifted is representative of hemoglobin binding more loosely to oxygen, meaning that it is easier to release the oxygen to the tissues. Helpful mnemonic: "CADET, face Right!" CO2 Acid 2,3-DPG Exercise Temperature An increase in any of the "CADET" factors will cause oxygen to be released more easily, and a shift to the right in the hemoglobin dissociation curve. A decrease would cause a shift to the left.

All of the following hormones are derived from cholesterol EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Epinephrine D. Testosterone E. Progesterone

C. Epinephrine: Epinephrine is a catecholamine, which is a class of amino-acid derived hormones. Cholesterol is characterized by four rings and is the precursor to many steroid hormones. Aldosterone, testosterone, and progesterone are all steroids derived from cholesterol. Cortisol is another steroid that is released by the adrenal cortex and is involved in stress adaptation.

After the blastocyst has successfully implanted into the endometrium, what hormone prevents the corpus luteum from degenerating? A. LH B. FSH C. HCG D. Estrogen E. Progesterone

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin HCG is secreted by a portion of the placenta after implantation of the blastocyst in order to maintain the corpus luteum

Which of the following would be expected in an individual with an impaired ability to produce secretin? A. Decreased gastric juice secretions into the stomach B. Failure to digest carbohydrates in the mouth C. Inability to neutralize chyme in the small intestine D. Decreased secretin of pepsin into the kidneys E. Impaired secretion of salts from the bloodstream into the colon.

C. Inability to neutralize chyme in the small intestine Secretin causes the pancreas to release bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the duodenum. Bicarbonate (an alkaline solution) then neutralized the chyme from the stomach to prevent the acidity from damaging the small intestine. If secretin release were impaired, the digestive system would be incapable of producing bicarbonate to neutralize chyme. Answer review: A. Distension of the stomach (stretching) stimulates gastrin release, which causes release of the gastric juices B. Chewing stimulates release of salivary amylase in the mouth, which is responsible for beginning digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth D. Pepsinogen is released into the stomach by the chief cells in response to gastrin, where it is activated by the acidity of the stomach into pepsin E. The colon (large intestine) absorbs salts from the digested food in the bloodstream

Which pituitary gland hormone acts where to directly stimulate testosterone production? A. FSH acting on the seminiferous tubules B. GH acting on Sertoli cells C. LH acting on the Leydig interstitial cells D. Prolactin acting on the prostate gland E. Estrogen acting on the epididymis

C. Luteinizing hormone acting on the Leydig interstitial cells The Leydig cells of the testes produce testosterone. They are stimulated to do so by luteinizing hormone.

Which of these is known as the pacemaker of the heart? A. AV node B. Purkinge fibers C. SA node D. Bundle of His E. Vagus nerve

C. SA node The SA node initiates the contraction of the heart and is known as the cardiac pacemaker. The SA node is located in the upper right atrium of the heart. It contracts the atria to fill the ventricles with blood and sends a delayed signal to the AV node. The AV nose sends an impulse through the bundle of His and Purkinje fibers, which results in the contraction of the ventricles. The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve that functions in parasympathetic activities.

Which of the following is involved in the monitoring and control of respiration? A. Monitoring of blood [H+] by central chemoreceptors of the medulla B. Increased production of surfactant by the alveoli in response to rise of blood CO2 C. Signaling from the medulla to the diaphragm to alter the rate and depth of ventilation D. Monitoring of cerebrospinal fluid by peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies E. Increasing respiratory rate in response to a sharp rise in blood pH

C. Signaling from the medulla to the diaphragm to alter the rate and depth of ventilation The medulla is responsible for control of human respiration, and can signal the diaphragm (and rib muscles) to alter the rate and depth of ventilation in response to signals from the central and peripheral chemoreceptors. Answer review: A. The central chemoreceptors of the medulla monitor [H+] levels in the CSF, NOT the blood B. The function of pulmonary surfactant is to decrease the surface tension in the alveoli. This makes inspiration less challenging, but production of surfactant is not used as a respiratory control mechanism. D. The peripheral chemoreceptors located in the carotid bodies (and aortic arch) monitor blood levels of [CO2], [O2], and [H+] E. Respiratory rate would INCREASE in response to a DECREASE in blood pH. Increased ventilation is the response to respiratory acidosis, which is signaled by a decline in blood pH.

An increase in calcitonin would lead to which of the following? A. Increase calcium concentration in the blood B. Decrease calcium reabsorption into bones C. Stimulate osteoblast activity D. Stimulate osteoclast activity E. An increase in muscle contractions

C. Stimulate osteoblast activity Two hormones regulate calcium levels in the blood: calcitonin (produced by the thyroid) and parathyroid hormone (produced by the parathyroid). Calcitonin serves to lower calcium levels in the blood. It does this by stimulating osteoblast activity, which helps build up bone, which requires using calcium in the blood. Parathyroid hormone is the opposite; if calcium levels are too low in the blood, it will stimulate osteoclast activity to release calcium from the bones to the blood.

A fluorescent tag is placed on glucagon that appears red at its site of production, but slowly shifts to blue as it circulates throughout the body. When observed under a fluorescent microscope, where will the highest concentration of red be seen? A. The liver B. The beta cells of the pancreas C. The alpha cells of the pancreas D. The gall bladder E. The duodenum

C. The alpha cells of the pancreas Glucagon is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas, and would therefore have the highest concentration of red fluorescently tagged glucagon. Beta cells produce insulin. Insulin lowers blood glucose. It causes skeletal muscle to take up glucose and fat to be taken up and stored. Alpha cells produce glucagon. Glucagon stimulates glycogen polymer breakdown into glucose monomers for the body's use; this raises blood glucose.

The sensation of touch is transmitted to the human brain via A. efferent nerve fibers B. motor nerve fibers C. afferent nerve fibers D. autonomic nerve fibers E. ventral root nerve fibers

C. afferent nerve fibers -- afferent nerve fibers are sensory nerves and transmit sensory signals Answer review: A. Efferent nerve fibers are motor nerves and transmit motor signals B. Motor nerve transmit motor signals D. Autonomic nerve fibers transmit sympathetic and parasympathetic singals E. Ventral root nerve fibers represent motor nerve fibers and transmit motor signals

Cholchicine is used for the treatment of gout. Its mechanism of action inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to tubulin. Consuming this drug before or during pregnancy would most likely have an adverse effect on all of the following cellular activities EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Embryonic cell cleavage B. Mitotic spindle formation C. Egg transportation into the fallopian tube D. Cleavage furrow formation E. Fertilization

D. Cleavage furrow formation Microtubules may be required at the structural level of a cell (as in sperm or fimbriae), or in intracellular processes (mitotic spindle formation and cell division). Only cleavage furrow formation, which uses MICROFILAMENTS rather than microtubules, would not be affected by inhibition of microtubules.

In infected cells, the MHC produces proteins with which of the following functions? A. Rupture the plasma membrane of antigens B. Engulf antigens by phagocytosis C. Stimulate adjacent cells to prepare for infection D. Display "nonself" markers on the plasma membrane E. Dilate the blood vessels to facilitate white blood cell movement

D. Display "nonself" markers on the plasma membrane MHC is a mechanism our body uses to distinguish between self and nonself cells. When an antigen infects a cell, our cells display a "nonself" marker on the plasma membrane so that T cells can destroy the correct infected cell. Basophils secrete histamines to dilate the blood vessels to facilitate white blood cell movement. White blood cell movement to an infected area is known as diapedesis.

What matching component between identical twins allows for donation of a kidney without the need for immunosuppression? A. Blood type B. Circulating antibodies C. Thymus and spleen D. Major histocompatibility complex molecules E. Lymph

D. Major histocompatibility molecules

Where is ADH stored in the body? A. Thyroid B. Pancreas C. Pineal gland D. Posterior pituitary E. Anterior pituiatry

D. Posterior pituitary ADH is produced in the hypothalamus. The posterior pituitary stores oxytocin and ADH (also known as vasopressin). The pineal gland produces melatonin to help regulate our sleep patterns. The anterior pituitary is often regulated by the hypothalamus. You can remember the hormones released by the anterior pituitary with the mnemonic "FLAT PiG" (FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin and Growth hormone)

All of the following are true of red blood cells EXCEPT one. What is the EXCEPTION? A. Red blood cells lack a nucleus and most organelles B. Red blood cells transport both oxygen and carbon dioxide C. Red blood cells are the most abundant type of blood cell D. Red blood cells are rigid in order to prevent damage to the cell E. More than 95% of oxygen traveling through the blood is traveling within red blood cells

D. Red blood cells are rigid in order to prevent damage to the cell An important feature of RBCs is their flexibility. Flexibility allows them to fit inside capillaries that are more narrow than the diameter of the RBC itself. Answer review: A. RBC do not have a nucleus and lack most organelles in order to more efficiently carry the highest amount of hemoglobin possible B. Most of the CO2 in blood is transported in the form of bicarbonate C. RBC make up ~40% of the cells in blood. In terms of abundance: RBCs > platelets > leukocytes (neutrophils > lymphocytes > monocytes > eosinophils > basophils)

Which of the following is a component of a human's axial skeleton? A. Tibia B. Tarsals C. Pelvis D. Rib cage E. Humerus

D. Rib cage The human skeleton is divided into two components: the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the head and trunk; the appendicular skeleton consists of the bones that support the appendages.

Which of the following is true of sodium ions entering a neuron during depolarization? A. Sodium ions pass through a neuron's cell membrane via a peripheral membrane protein B. Sodium ions require ATP hydrolysis in order to be shuttled across the neuron's cell membrane C. Sodium ions entering cause the membrane of the neuron to become hyperpolarized D. Sodium ions have their transport influenced by an electrochemical gradient E. Sodium ions can diffuse directly through the neuron's cell membrane

D. Sodium ions have their transport influenced by an electrochemical gradient

Which of the following is true of bile? A. Produced in the gallbladder B. Functions to enzymatically break down fat C. Released into the stomach D. Stimulated for release cholecystokinin (CCK) E. Important for the absorption of Vitamin C

D. Stimulated for release by cholecystokinin (CCK) -- CCK stimulates the gall bladder to contract and release bile Answer review: A. The gall bladder stores and releases bile, but bile is produced in the liver B. Bile is an emulsifier, and does not enzymatically break down fats. As an emulsifier, it stabilized hydrophobic fat and allows fat to break down into smaller globules rather than aggregating as a large single globule C. Bile is released into the duodenum E. Vitamin C is not a fat soluble vitamin, and bile/fat digestion would not be involved in vitamin C's absorption

Which layer of the integumentary system helps the body conserve heat and protects the body from injury by acting as a "shock absorber"? A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Endodermis D. Subcutaneous layer E. Mesoderm

D. Subcutaneous layer The subcutaneous layer contains a network of fat cells and collagen. It is the deepest layer and the fat cells help insulate the body and act as a shock absorber to protect it from minor damage. The top-most layer is the epidermis, which usually contains dead skin cells and melanocytes. The dermis is the middle layer and is highly vascularized. The dermis contains blood vessels, hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerves.

A virus infects the kidney, destroying aquaporins (channels allowing the transport of water). Which portion of the nephron of the kidney would be least directly affected in function? A. The glomerulus B. The proximal convoluted tubule C. The descending loop of Henle D. The ascending loop of Henle E. The distal convoluted tubule

D. The ascending loop of Henle A virus that destroys aquaporins would affect the permeability of water -- correctly answering this question relies on simply identifying the structure that is already impermeable to water. Answer review: A. The glomerulus is the primary site of filtration of both water and dissolved solutes from the blood into the tubules B. The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs water along with ions, salts, glucose, and amino acids C. The descending loop of Henle reabsorbs water along with ions and salts D. The ascending loop of Henle reabsorbs ions and salts but is impermeable to water E. The distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs water along with ions and salts

Which of the following is a method marine fish use to maintain homeostasis? A. Swim towards fresh water B. Rarely drink water C. Absorb salts through gills D. Constantly urinate E. Constantly drink water

E. Constantly drink water A marine fish is hypoosmotic to its environment, meaning that it is less salty than the concentrated saltwater surrounding it. Thus, it will constantly lose water to the environment. To make up for this, the marine fish must constantly drink water. It also rarely urinates to not waste any water, and it secretes the salts it acquires from constantly drinking. In contrast, freshwater fish are hyperosmotic, or saltier than their environment. Water will constantly flow into these fish, so the fish must constantly urinate to get rid of excess water. It also rarely drinks, and absorbs salt through its gills to maintain homeostasis.

Which of the following factors is involved in both specific and non-specific immunity? A. MHC II B. B cells C. Lysozyme D. Helper T cells E. Macrophages

E. Macrophages Macrophages can act as either non-specific or specific phagocytes. In non-specific defense, they directly engulf pathogens by phagocytosis. In specific defense, they engulf antibody-coated antigens using phagocytosis after B cell antibody production and present antigens for T cell activation. MHC II and B cells are only used in specific immunity. Lysozyme is involved only in non-specific defense as an anti-bacterial enzyme. Helper T cells are lymphocytes that originate in the bone marrow like B cells, but mature in the thymus (hence why they're called T cells). They have antigen receptors on their surface and are only used in specific immunity.

If a person were to be knocked unconscious due to a head injury, damage to which part of the brain would be of the most immediate and critical concern? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum C. Occipital lobe D. Thalamus E. Medulla

E. Medulla When knocked unconscious, many of the brain's functions -- including processing the high volume of sensory input and coordinating motor output -- become temporarily irrelevant. What remains critical is that the body's autonomic functions continue uninterrupted, as damage to the areas of the brain that regulate vital functions such as breathing and heart rate would be of immediate concern and can lead to death. Answer review: A. The cerebellum helps to coordinate/refine movement B. The cerebrum is composed of the two hemispheres of the brain C. The occipital is the visual cortex of the brain and processes visual information D. The thalamus received sensory, motor, visual, and auditory stimulus and routes it to other areas of the brain E. The medulla controls autonomic (involuntary) functions of the body like breathing, heart rate, and digestion.

In which blood vessel type is blood pressure the lowest? A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Venules E. Veins

E. Veins The blood pressure is lowest when it reaches the veins, having travelled through the systemic circulation.

Which of the following correctly described the path of blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation, and entering the pulmonary circulation? A. Vena cava --> left atrium --> tricuspid valve --> left ventricle --> pulmonary semilunar valve --> pulmonary artery --> lungs B. Aorta --> right atrium --> bicuspid valve --> right ventricle --> aortic semilunar valve --> pulmonary vein --> lungs C. Vena cava --> left atrium --> tricuspid valve --> left ventricle --> pulmonary semilunar valve --> pulmonary vein --> lungs D. Vena cava --> right atrium --> bicuspid valve --> right ventricle --> pulmonary semilunar valve --> pulmonary artery, lungs E. Vena cava --> right atrium --> tricuspid valve --> right ventricle --> pulmonary semilunar valve --> pulmonary artery --> lungs

Helpful mnemonic: Toilet paper my ass E. Vena cava --> right atrium --> tricuspid valve --> right ventricle --> pulmonary semilunar valve --> pulmonary artery --> lungs

Where are B and T cells produced and where do they mature?

They are both produced in the bone marrow from blood stem cells. B cells mature in the bone marrow, but T cells travel to the thymus to mature

This is the body's first line of defense against infection, and it is a nonspecific response. This type of immunity begins with physical and physiological barriers that prevent infection from entering the body: skin, mucous membranes, cilia in the lungs, stomach acidity, lysozymes, etc. What is this?

innate immunity

acronym for remembering the relative number of leukocytes circulating in the blood from highest number of cells to lowest number of cells: Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes/macrophages, eosinophils, basophils (which form mast cells)

_____________________________ forms the membrane attack complex

the complement system