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A "run" of ventricular tachycardia occurs if at least ____ PVCs occur in a row. Select one: A. three B. two C. four D. five

A

A 19-year-old female is complaining of lower right abdominal pain with fever and chills. The patient complains of extreme pain upon palpation with rebound tenderness. What should you suspect? a. Appendicitis b. Ruptured Spleen c. Ectopic Pregnancy d. Cystitis

A

A 2-year-old child has experienced a proximal humeral fracture involving the growth plate. This plate is also called the: Select one: A. epiphyseal plate. B. diaphyseal plate. C. metaphyseal plate. D. endosteum plate.

A

A 29-year-old woman is experiencing a severe asthma attack. Her husband reports that she was admitted to an intensive care unit about 6 months ago, and had a breathing tube in place. Prior to your arrival, the patient took three puffs of her rescue inhaler without effect. She is anxious and restless, is tachypneic, and has audible wheezing. You should: Select one: A. apply a CPAP unit, transport immediately, and attempt to establish vascular access en route to the hospital. B. begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen and prepare to intubate her trachea. C. start an IV of normal saline, administer methylprednisolone via IV push, and transport as soon as possible. D. attempt to slow her breathing with respiratory coaching, administer a nebulized bronchodilator, and transport.

A

A 29-year-old woman was found unresponsive by her husband. When you arrive at the scene and begin your assessment, you note that the patient's respirations are slow and shallow, her pulse is slow and weak, and her pupils are dilated. Your partner begins assisting the patient's ventilations as you assess her blood pressure, which is 70/48 mm Hg. The patient's husband hands you an empty bottle of phenobarbital, which was filled the day before, and tells you that his wife takes the medication for seizures. After establishing vascular access, you should: Select one: A. administer crystalloid fluid boluses to improve her blood pressure. B. begin a dopamine infusion at 10 µg/kg/min and titrate as needed. C. instruct your partner to hyperventilate the patient at 24 breaths/min. D. give her up to 10 mg of naloxone to reverse the effects of the drug.

A

A 36-year-old man experienced significant burns to his face, head, and chest following an incident with a barbeque pit. Your assessment of his airway reveals severe swelling. After administering medications to sedate and paralyze the patient, you are unable to intubate him. Furthermore, bag-mask ventilations are producing no chest rise. The quickest way to secure a patent airway in this patient is to: Select one: A. perform a needle cricothyrotomy. B. ventilate with a demand valve. C. perform an open cricothyrotomy. D. insert a supraglottic airway device.

A

A 39-year-old man presents with severe abdominal cramping accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea. During your assessment, the patient tells you that in an attempt to kill himself, he intentionally ingested some castor beans because he heard they were poisonous. The patient's blood pressure is 96/58 mm Hg, heart rate is 112 beats/min, and respirations are 24 breaths/min. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? Select one: A. Your patient has ingested the key ingredient for ricin and is at high risk for vascular collapse and death. B. This patient has exposed himself to botulinum toxin and will soon experience diaphragmatic paralysis. C. You should quickly don a mask and gown because this patient's condition is highly communicable. D. Castor beans commonly cause the symptoms your patient is experiencing but rarely result in death.

A

A 39-year-old woman presents with signs and symptoms of an acute hemorrhagic stroke. She is responsive to deep painful stimuli only and has bilaterally dilated and sluggishly reactive pupils. Her respirations are slow and irregular, blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and pulse is 40 and bounding. Initial treatment for this patient involves: Select one: A. positive-pressure ventilatory support. B. immediate transcutaneous cardiac pacing. C. rapid infusion of a crystalloid solution. D. high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A

A 50-year-old man is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction. He has no prior history of cardiac problems, takes no medications, and has no drug allergies. His oxygen saturation is 96%. He should receive: Select one: A. Aspirin. B. lidocaine. C. nitroglycerin. D. oxygen.

A

A 55-year-old male who is currently receiving radiation therapy for cancer complains of dyspepsia and upper abdominal pain. He tells you that the pain worsens when he lies supine. What should you suspect? Select one: A. Esophagitis B. Hiatal hernia C. Acute pancreatitis D. A tracheal fistula

A

A 60-year-old woman presents with fever, chills, and shortness of breath. She has a history of mitral valve prolapse. Assessment reveals flat, painless red lesions on the palms of her hands. What should you suspect? Select one: A. Endocarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Pericarditis D. Myocarditis

A

A 69-year-old man presents with confusion, a headache, dyspnea, and palpitations after he rescued his two grandchildren from their burning house. During your assessment, you note that he has an odd odor on his breath; however, he denies being diabetic. You should: Select one: A. have him inhale amyl nitrate for 20 seconds and then 100% oxygen for 40 seconds out of each minute. B. administer 1 to 2 g of pralidoxime infused with normal saline solution over a 5- to 10-minute period. C. start an IV line, sedate and chemically paralyze the patient, and then perform endotracheal intubation. D. start an IV line of normal saline and administer 10 mL of a 10% solution of calcium chloride. Clear my choice

A

A 7-year-old conscious boy presents with marked respiratory distress. Your assessment reveals the presence of intercostal and supraclavicular retractions and nasal flaring. His oxygen saturation is 93% on room air, and his heart rate is rapid. The MOST appropriate initial treatment for this child involves: Select one: A. administering oxygen as tolerated, auscultating his lung sounds, and being prepared to assist his ventilations. B. assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device and determining if his tachycardia is ventricular or supraventricular in origin. C. recognizing that the child is in respiratory failure and making immediate preparations to perform endotracheal intubation. D. conducting a focused history and physical exam and allowing him to breathe room air to see if his oxygen saturation falls.

A

A 79 year old male complains of shortness of breath. He smokes cigarettes for 60 years. On physical exam you notice that he has a barrel shaped chest. What pathophysiology is most likely causing his symptoms? a. Collapsed bronchial tubes b. Excessive mucus production c. Inflammation of the trachea d. Spasm of bronchial muscle

A

A 9-year-old who fell off his bike has an isolated deformity to his forearm and is in significant pain. The child is conscious and alert, his vital signs are stable, and his mother is present. Your initial effort to relieve this child's pain should involve: Select one: A. providing calm reassurance to both mother and child. B. not allowing the child to visualize his deformed arm. C. encouraging the child to breathe high-flow oxygen. D. administering morphine or fentanyl via slow IV push.

A

A patient has partial-thickness burns to both lower extremities and blisters have formed. What should you do? Select one: A. Elevate the extremities to reduce edema. B. Carefully rupture the blisters and irrigate the burn. C. Administer 2 liters of fluid within 45 minutes. D. Administer half the usual dose of IV analgesia.

A

A right-sided ECG is indicated for patients who present with: Select one: A. ECG evidence of an inferior infarction. B. a systolic BP greater than 150 mm Hg. C. chest pain that occurs only during exertion. D. chest pain that is unresolved with nitroglycerin. Clear my choice

A

A vagus nerve-mediated form of cardiogenic shock without compensatory vasoconstriction that may be seen following a blast injury would MOST likely present with: Select one: A. bradycardia and hypotension. B. hypotension and tachycardia. C. syncope and hypertension. D. hypertension and bradycardia.

A

A wide QRS complex that is preceded by a normal P wave indicates: Select one: A. an abnormality in ventricular conduction. B. rapid conduction through the ventricles. C. that the rhythm is ventricular in origin. D. a delay in conduction at the AV junction.

A

An elderly woman with COPD presents with peripheral edema. The patient is conscious but agitated. She is breathing with slight difficulty but has adequate tidal volume. During your assessment, you note that her jugular veins engorge when you apply pressure to her right upper abdominal quadrant. She tells you that she takes a "water pill" and Vasotec for high blood pressure. You should: Select one: A. suspect acute right-sided heart failure and administer oxygen. B. expect to hear crackles when you auscultate her lungs. C. start an IV of normal saline and give her a 250-mL bolus. D. conclude that she has been noncompliant with her diuretic.

A

Cells and rods are the sensory part of: Select one: a. The Retina b. The cornea c. The Pupil d. The Iris

A

Cor pulmonale is MOST often the result of: Select one: A. COPD. B. hypertension. C. stable angina. D. acute MI.

A

Damage to nerves, tendons, or ligaments would MOST likely occur during venipuncture if: Select one: A. the selected IV site is near a joint. B. the patient moves suddenly. C. the patient has diabetes. D. a small vein in the hand is cannulated.

A

Exposure to hydrofluoric acid causes: Select one: A. immediate pain and coagulation necrosis.1655 B. little pain and coagulation necrosis. C. immediate pain and liquefaction necrosis. D. little pain and liquefaction necrosis.

A

Failure of a child's SpO2 to increase despite high-flow oxygen is MOST indicative of: Select one: A. congenital heart disease. B. right-sided heart failure. C. decreased vascular tone. D. relative hypovolemia.

A

First-degree heart block in children: Select one: A. is typically asymptomatic and does not require special treatment. B. should be treated with cardiac pacing, even if the child is stable. C. does not respond to atropine and should be treated with dopamine. D. should be suspected when a randomly dropped QRS is observed.

A

How many bones in the thoracic region are floating? a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. 0

A

If the ET tube is placed in the trachea properly, the colorimetric paper inside the CO2 detector should: Select one: A. turn yellow during exhalation. B. turn yellow during inhalation. C. remain purple during ventilations. D. not change colors.

A

On the ECG graph paper, 6 seconds is represented by how many large boxes? Select one: A. 30 B. 40 C. 20 D. 50

A

On the ECG strip, a third-degree AV block usually appears as a: Select one: A. slow, wide QRS complex rhythm with inconsistent PR intervals. B. slow, narrow QRS complex rhythm with irregular P-P intervals. C. narrow QRS complex rhythm with a rate less than 60 beats/min. D. wide QRS complex rhythm with a rate between 50 and 70 beats/min.

A

Pain caused by the activation of pain receptors in the body's superficial tissues is: Select one: a. Somatic b. Referred c. Phantom d. Visceral

A

Patients with ______________ are at an increased risk for anaphylaxis. Select one: A. atopic dermatitis B. immunosuppression C. acute pharyngitis D. strep infection

A

Repolarization and myocardial contraction are occurring through phases ____ of cardiac cellular action potential. Select one: A. 2 and 3. B. 3 and 4. C. 1 and 2. D. 0 and 1.

A

Select one: A. Trochanter B. Sacroiliac joint C. Iliac crest D. Pubic symphysis

A

Sensory receptors convert energy into: Select one: a. Action Potentials b. Alpha Receptors c. None of the above d. Beta Receptors

A

Specific functions that the paramedic should perform prior to contacting medical control are called: Select one: A. standing orders. B. predefined standards. C. physician directives. D. online protocols.

A

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes: Select one: A. diaphoresis. B. vasodilation. C. bradycardia. D. warm, moist skin.

A

Systemic effects of epinephrine include: Select one: A. increased afterload. B. decreased preload. C. diffuse vasodilation. D. bronchoconstriction.

A

The 6-second method for calculating the rate of a cardiac rhythm: Select one: A. involves counting the number of QRS complexes in a 6-second strip and multiplying that number by 10. B. takes longer than other methods of calculating the rate and is thus impractical to use with critical patients. C. will yield an estimated heart rate that is typically within 2 to 3 beats per minute of the actual heart rate. D. is an accurate method for calculating the heart rate if the cardiac rhythm is grossly irregular and very fast.

A

The MOST significant factor that determines how well the body compensates for blood loss is: Select one: A. the period of time over which the blood is lost. B. whether the bleeding is internal or external. C. the patient's pulse rate at the time of the injury. D. whether the bleeding is venous or arterial.

A

The __________ is the largest component of the central nervous system and contains billions of neurons that serve a variety of functions. Select one: A. brain B. spinal cord C. medulla D. cerebellum

A

The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the: Select one: A. 5th lumbar vertebra. B. 8th thoracic vertebra. C. 12th thoracic vertebra. D. 3rd lumbar vertebra.

A

The base of the epidermis, which continuously produces new cells that rise to the skin's surface, is called the: Select one: A. germinal layer. B. sebaceous layer. C. corneal layer. D. melanin layer.

A

The outermost layer of the epidermis: Select one: A. consists of nonliving cells that are continuously being shed. B. contains numerous fibroblasts that secrete collagen and elastin. C. is a tough, highly elastic layer than contains melanin granules. D. is comprised of living cells that give rise to the stratum corneum.

A

The parietal lobe of the brain: Select one: A. controls the body's ability to perceive body limb movement. B. controls functions such as long-term memory, taste, and smell. C. is where the optic nerve originates and processes vision. D. is important for voluntary motor action and personality traits.

A

The presence of a J wave (Osborn wave) on the ECG is an indicator of: Select one: A. hypothermia. B. hypercalcemia. C. a delta wave. D. hyponatremia.

A

The seizures associated with nerve agent exposure: Select one: A. will continue until a MARK 1 antidote is administered. B. cannot be reversed with any pharmacologic agent. C. should be treated with large quantities of a benzodiazepine. D. are often more severe in patients with a seizure history.

A

The separation of the intracellular and extracellular areas by a selectively permeable membrane helps to maintain: Select one: A. homeostasis. B. exocytosis. C. endocytosis. D. hemostasis.

A

The substance that contains all the cellular contents between the cell membrane and the nucleus is called the: Select one: A. cytoplasm. B. protoplasm. C. Golgi apparatus. D endoplasmic reticulum

A

The vasodilation that accompanies distributive shock creates: Select one: A. relative hypovolemia. B. increased preload. C. increased afterload. D. decreased cardiac contractility.

A

This consists of dead cells that have had their cytoplasm replaced with keratin. Select one: a. Stratum corneum b. Germinal layer c. None of these d. Stratum germinativum

A

Typically, the ________ level is approximately 2 to 5 mm Hg lower than the _______ level. a. ETCO2, PaCO2 b. PaCO2, ETCO2

A

Ventricular shunts are typically placed in children who: Select one: A. have impaired circulation and absorption of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to increased size of the ventricles of the brain and increased intracranial pressure. B. are born with a congenital condition in which the ventricles of the brain produce excessive amounts of cerebrospinal fluid. C. have experienced a severe traumatic brain injury that results in chronic cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure. D. are born with an abnormally small brain, which results in a relative increase in the amount of circulating cerebrospinal fluid.

A

What is the pathophysiology of decompression sickness? Select one: A. An imbalance of nitrogen in the tissues and alveoli due to rapid ascent B. Increasing quantities of nitrogen and oxygen in the blood during descent C. Excess carbon dioxide accumulation in the muscles due to a rapid ascent D. Diffusion of nitrogen out of the tissues during too slow of an ascent

A

What medication is an appropriate treatment for anaphylaxis? a. Epinephrine b. Albuterol c. Nitroglycerin d. Naloxone

A

What rhythm is being shown? ekg a. Accelerated Junctional b. Atrial Fibrillation c. Idioventricular d. Junctional

A

What rhythm is being shown? ekg a. Sinus Tachycardia Narrow Complex b. Sinus Tachycardia Wide Complex c. Supraventricular Tachycardia d. Atrial Flutter

A

What rhythm is being shown? ekg a. Wandering Atrial Pacemaker b. Normal Sinus c. Sinus Bradycardia d. Sinus Bradycardia

A

What subcutaneous tissue is composed of adipose and areolar tissue? Select one: a. Fascia b. Dermis c. Germinal layer d. Stratum corneum

A

What type of Stemi is this?stemi a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Septal d. Inferior

A

When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of: Select one: A. aerobic metabolism. B. anaerobic anabolism. C. anaerobic metabolism. D. aerobic catabolism.

A

When the blood vessels supplying the skin are fully dilated, the skin becomes: Select one: A. warm and pink. B. blue or mottled. C. cool and pale. D. cold and moist.

A

Which imbalance would MOST likely be observed in a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? Select one: A. Normal fluid volume with hyponatremia 423 B. Fluid deficit with hypernatremia C. Fluid excess with hyponatremia D. Fluid excess with hypernatremia

A

Which of the following conditions can cause edema secondary to decreased colloidal osmotic pressure in the capillaries? Select one: A. Liver disease B. Pregnancy C. Environmental heat stress D. Prolonged standing

A

Which of the following is NOT one of the 6 Ps of musculoskeletal injury assessment? Select one: A. Passive extension B. Pulselessness C. Pallor D. Parasthesias

A

Which of the following is the MOST immediate and significant complication associated with posterior epistaxis? Select one: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Hemorrhagic shock C. Severe sinus infection D. Nasal inflammation

A

Which of the following statements regarding packed red blood cells (PRBCs) is correct? Select one: A. In general, the rate of administration of PRBCs should be proportional to the rate of blood cell loss. B. For every 3 mL of whole blood that is lost, the patient should be given 1 to 2 mL of PRBCs. C. PRBCs should not be given to patients with hemolysis, as this will cause a transfusion reaction. D. In a patient with ongoing RBC loss, one unit of PRBCs will increase the hematocrit by about 5%.

A

You are asked to administer 30 mg of a medication that is supplied in a 10 ml vial containing 100 mg. How many ml will you give? a. 3 mL b. 1 mL c. 0.3 mL d. 0.003 mL

A

________ radiation is very penetrating and easily passes through the body and solid materials. Select one: A. Gamma B. Beta C. Alpha D. Ionizing

A

a. cell wall permeability changes and sodium rushes into the cell b. calcium ions rapidly enter the cell, facilitating contraction. c. cardiac muscle relaxes in response to a cellular influx of calcium d. potassium ions escape from the cell through specialized channels.

A

A 21-year-old woman presents with a severe headache, body aches, and a fever of 102.8°F. She tells you that she returned from a humanitarian aid mission overseas a week and a half ago and began feeling ill yesterday morning. Given this patient's travel history and clinical presentation, you should expect her to develop: Select one: A. a rash and blisters on her face B. spontaneous hemorrhaging. C. cutaneous lesions on her arms. D. bradycardia and hypersalivation.

A. a rash and blisters on her face

A 100-pound violent young woman who requires four large paramedics to subdue and contain her is MOST likely under the influence of: Select one: A. LSD. B. PCP. C. mescaline. D. ketamine.

B

A 20-year-old male presents with an acute onset of severe testicular pain. He denies any trauma to the genital region. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg, his heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. The MOST important aspect in the care of this patient involves: Select one: A. narcotic analgesia. B. prompt transport. C. high-flow oxygen. D. IV fluid therapy.

B

A 22-year-old woman experienced an acid chemical burn to her left forearm. She complains of intense pain and tingling in her fingers. She is conscious and alert, and denies any other symptoms. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. begin immediate irrigation with water. C. cover the burn and transport at once. D. apply a light coat of baking soda to the burn. Clear my choice

B

A 33-year-old male presents with chest pain that is alleviated when he sits forward. The 12-lead ECG shows ST elevation of 2 to 3 mm in multiple leads. What should you suspect? Select one: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Pericarditis C. Unstable angina D. Aortic aneurysm

B

A 45-year-old woman is found unresponsive in an alley. During your assessment, you note that she is tachycardic and breathing rapidly. She has an obvious odor of alcohol on her breath. Your MOST immediate concern should be to: Select one: A. start an IV line and administer naloxone. B. take actions to prevent aspiration. C. determine the etiology of her tachycardia. D. obtain a blood glucose reading.

B

A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, tinnitus, and blurred vision. He is conscious and alert and denies any other symptoms. His BP is 204/120 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 100 beats/min, and his oxygen saturation is 96%. The closest appropriate facility is 20 minutes away. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen and transport. B. monitor his cardiac rhythm and transport. C. keep him in a supine position and transport. D. start an IV line and administer labetalol.

B

A 52-year-old man sustained superficial and partial-thickness burns to his left arm approximately 15 minutes ago when he opened the radiator cap on his car. He is conscious, alert, and in severe pain. His BP is 138/76 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. He denies any other injuries. Initial management for this patient involves: Select one: A. administering oxygen and applying an anesthetic cream to the burn. B. applying cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevating his arm. C. applying ice to the burn to provide immediate pain relief. D. starting an IV of normal saline and administering 2 mg of morphine.

B

A 59-year-old construction worker collapsed on the job and fell into a pile of steel rods. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic, and has a 12-inch steel rod impaled in his epigastrium. As your partner and an emergency medical responder begin CPR, you should: Select one: A. carefully remove the steel rod, apply direct pressure to the wound, assess his cardiac rhythm, start a large-bore IV line and give 2 L of normal saline, and transport. B. control any external bleeding, stabilize the rod in place with bulky dressings, apply the cardiac monitor, and start at least one large-bore IV line en route to the hospital. C. remove the rod so you can perform effective CPR, control any external bleeding, start two large-bore IV lines, and assess his cardiac rhythm en route to the hospital. D. trim the steel rod to 6 inches, stabilize it in place with bulky dressing, apply firm direct pressure around the rod, and initiate IV therapy en route to a trauma center.

B

A common cause of overhydration is: Select one: A. prolonged hyperventilation. B. kidney failure. C. gastrointestinal drainage. D. hypertension.

B

A demand pacemaker: Select one: A. is easily identified on a cardiac rhythm strip by noting the presence of pacer spikes before all of the QRS complexes. B. generates pacing impulses only when it senses that the heart's natural pacemaker has fallen below a preset rate. C. attaches to the atria and the ventricles and only generates an impulse if it senses that the patient is in ventricular fibrillation. D. sends out single electrical impulses when the patient's inherent pacemaker rate exceeds 150

B

A patient with a blood pressure of 210/100 mm Hg would be expected to have a pulse that is: Select one: A. irregular. B. bounding. C. rapid. D. thready.

B

A patient with right ventricular failure would most likely present with: Select one: A. collapsed jugular veins. B. an enlarged liver. C. pulmonary edema. D. rhonchi in the lungs.

B

A regular rhythm with inverted P waves before each QRS complex, a ventricular rate of 70 beats/min, narrow QRS complexes, and a PR interval of 0.16 seconds should be interpreted as a(n): Select one: A. ectopic atrial rhythm. B. accelerated junctional rhythm. C. junctional escape rhythm. D. supraventricular tachycardia.

B

A subdural hematoma is classified as acute if clinical signs and symptoms develop: Select one: A. within 36 hours following the injury. B. within 48 hours following the injury. C. immediately following the injury. D. within 24 hours following the injury.

B

Adequately perfused kidneys put out at least ___ to ___ mL of urine per hour. Select one: A. 100, 110 B. 30, 50 C. 70, 100 D. 50, 70

B

Administering large amounts of an isotonic crystalloid solution to a patient with internal bleeding would MOST likely: Select one: A. expand the vascular space and improve systemic perfusion. B. increase the severity of internal bleeding by interfering with hemostasis. C. change the ratio of hemoglobin and red blood cells. D. cause acute hypotension as fluid is drawn from the vascular space.

B

Afterload is increased following alpha-1 stimulation because of: Select one: A. widespread vasodilation. B. arteriolar constriction. C. increased contractility. D. decreased preload.

B

All of the following are facial bones, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. palatine. B. parietal. C. lacrimal. D. maxilla.

B

Although __________ anthrax is the most deadly, __________ anthrax is the only form that is communicable. Select one: A. cutaneous, inhalation B. pulmonary, cutaneous C. cutaneous, gastrointestinal D. gastrointestinal, pulmonary

B

As you are administering epinephrine to an adult woman in ventricular fibrillation, your team members continue CPR. After 2 minutes, you reassess her and determine that she is still in ventricular fibrillation. You should: Select one: A. advise your team to stop CPR as you prepare to deliver another shock. B. instruct your team to continue CPR as the defibrillator is charging. C. administer 300 mg of amiodarone while CPR remains uninterrupted. D. deliver a monophasic defibrillation with 200 joules and resume CPR.

B

Distributive shock in children is MOST often the result of: Select one: A. spinal injury. B. sepsis. C. heart failure. D. anaphylaxis.

B

During the attempted resuscitation of a man in V-Fib cardiac arrest, your protocols call for the administration of 1.5 mg/kg of lidocaine. You have prefilled syringes of lidocaine in a concentration of 100 mg/5 mL. The patient weighs 180 lb. How many milliliters will you administer? Select one: A. 5.5 B. 6.2 C. 6.8 D. 6.5

B

Early distributive shock in children is characterized by: Select one: A. gross neurologic deficits. B. warm, flushed skin. C. pallor and diaphoresis. D. weak peripheral pulses.

B

Edema in an upper extremity following a mastectomy is the result of: Select one: A. localized vasoconstriction. B. decreased lymphatic drainage. C. obstruction of a large blood vessel. D. surgery-induced inflammation.

B

For purposes of refusing medical care, a patient's mental status may be considered impaired if he or she: Select one: A. makes a derogatory comment. B. makes nonsensical statements. C. is notably frightened. D. is not sure of the exact time.

B

Generalized abdominal pain following rupture of a hollow organ is MOST suggestive of: Select one: A. gas accumulation in the peritoneum. B. diffuse peritoneal contamination. C. inflammation of deep nerve endings. D. severe intraabdominal bleeding.

B

Hyperventilation of a patient who is in cardiac arrest: Select one: A. causes a marked decrease in intrathoracic pressure. B. has been shown to reduce coronary artery perfusion. C. increases preload and enhances cardiac output. D. is indicated if the arrest interval exceeds 10 minutes.

B

If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be: Select one: A. functional. B. idiopathic. C. pathologic. D. organic.

B

Intrinsic causes of cardiogenic shock include: Select one: A. pleural effusion. B. cardiomyopathy. C. pulmonary embolus. D. tension pneumothorax.

B

Manic patients may report that their thoughts are racing and they may rapidly skip from one topic to another. This is called: Select one: A. circumstantial thinking. B. tangential thinking. C. confabulation. D. thought broadcasting.

B

Neuromuscular blocking agents: Select one: A. are most commonly used as the sole agent to facilitate placement of an ET tube. B. convert a breathing patient with a marginal airway into an apneic patient with no airway. C. have a negative effect on both cardiac and smooth muscle and commonly cause dysrhythmias. D. induce total body paralysis within 10 to 15 minutes following administration via IV push.

B

Normally, the ST segment should be: Select one: A. invisible on a normal ECG tracing. B. at the level of the isoelectric line. C. elevated by no more than 1 mm. D. depressed by no more than 2 mm.

B

On the 12-lead ECG, extreme right axis deviation is characterized by: Select one: A. a positive QRS in lead I and a negative QRS in lead aVF. B. a negative QRS in lead I and a negative QRS in lead aVF. C. a positive QRS in lead I and a positive QRS in lead aVF. D. a negative QRS in lead I and a positive QRS in lead aVF.

B

On the ECG, an Osborne wave can be recognized as: Select one: A. an upward slurring at the beginning of the QRS complex. B. a positive deflection immediately after the QRS complex. C. a negative deflection that produces a biphasic P wave. D. acute widening of the QRS complex during the R wave.

B

Pain that may be present after a limb amputation is know as: Select one: a. Refereed b. Phantom c. Visceral d. Somatic

B

Question text The skin helps regulate body temperature through: Select one: A. increased elastin production, which provides insulation to the epidermis. B. the production of sweat, which is evaporated from the surface of the skin. C. peripheral vasodilation, which shunts cool blood to the core of the body. D. cutaneous vasoconstriction, which brings warm blood to the skin's surface

B

Question text When selecting a vein for cannulation, you should avoid areas of the vein that: Select one: A. appear to be straight. B. pass over joints. C. are straight. D. are firm and springy.

B

Secondary brain injuries include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cerebral ischemia. B. axonal injury. C. cerebral edema. D. intracranial hemorrhage.

B

Sinus arrest is characterized by: Select one: A. an irregularly irregular rhythm. B. a dropped PQRST complex. C. PR intervals greater than 0.12 seconds. D. irregularity during the inspiratory phase.

B

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system: Select one: A. completely blocks the AV node, preventing ventricular depolarization. B. slows SA nodal discharge and decreases conduction through the AV node. C. causes a decrease in the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine. D. is characterized by a large P wave and a PR interval that is shorter than normal.

B

Stretch receptors are also know as : Select one: a. None of the above b. Mechanoreceptors c. Proprioceptors d. Baroreceptors

B

The MOST common cause of addisonian crisis is: Select one: A. overwhelming stress. B. abrupt termination of corticosteroid use. C. acute failure of one or both of the adrenal glands. D. a severe acute infectious process.

B

The MOST significant disadvantage associated with needle cricothyrotomy is: Select one: A. the inability to exhale via the glottis. B. the potential for pulmonary aspiration. C. local infection due to poor technique. D. air leakage around the insertion site.

B

The decline in cardiac function associated with aging is largely related to: Select one: A. bradycardia. B. atherosclerosis. C. hypotension. D. rheumatic heart disease.

B

The external jugular veins run ____________ and are located ____________ to the cricothyroid membrane. Select one: A. horizontally, lateral B. vertically, lateral C. horizontally, medial D. vertically, medial

B

The main purpose of continuing education is to: Select one: A. allow EMS personnel to function at a higher level. B. remain current with the latest treatment guidelines. C. facilitate networking of EMS personnel. D. recall material that was learned previously.

B

The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient that requires energy is called: Select one: A. osmotic pressure. B. active transport. C. endocytosis. D. facilitated diffusion.

B

The normal human PH is: Select one: a. 7.5 b. 7.4 c. 7.2 d. 7.3

B

The pain associated with pericarditis: Select one: A. improves when the patient takes a deep breath. B. improves when the patient leans forward. C. cannot be differentiated from acute myocardial infarction. D. is most often described as a crushing feeling.

B

The physician orders 0.3 mg/kg of a specific drug for a 67 kg patient. How many ml contain the prescribed dose if the vial is labeled 1 ml = 10 mg? a. 1 mL b. 2 mL c. 1 mL d. 0.5 mL

B

The posterior cavity of the eye is filled with __________ to help the globe maintain it's shape without distorting light. Select one: a. Surfactant b. Vitreous humor c. Aqueous humor d. Orbital Fat

B

The presence of a radial pulse: Select one: A. should be the sole guide for fluid resuscitation in shock. B. can lead to a gross overestimation of blood pressure. C. equates to a systolic blood pressure of at least 90 mm Hg. D. is a clinical indicator that the patient is adequately perfused.

B

The purpose of estimating a patient's total body surface area burns in the prehospital setting is to: Select one: A. obtain an accurate calculation of how severe the patient's burns are. B. help the paramedic determine the most appropriate destination hospital. C. ascertain how much IV fluid the patient should receive during transport. D. determine whether the patient should be transported via a helicopter.

B

The single MOST common cause of seizures in both term and preterm infants is: Select one: A. intracranial hemorrhaging. B. hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy. C. a severe derangement in electrolytes. D. congenital or developmental defects.

B

The size of the rescue area is dependent MOSTLY upon the: Select one: A. number of rescuers present. B. potential hazards that exist. C. severity of the patient's injuries. D. complexity of the rescue effort. Clear my choice

B

The skin becomes _________ when red blood cell perfusion to the capillary beds of the skin is poor. Select one: A. flushed B. pale C. mottled D. cyanotic

B

The term perfusion is BEST defined as: Select one: A. effective exchange of O2 and CO2 in the lungs. B. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue. C. the production of waste products from metabolism. D. sufficient removal of waste products from the body.

B

The threshold limit value/ceiling of a chemical is the concentration that: Select one: A. is only toxic if inhaled into the lungs. B. a person should never be exposed to. C. is nontoxic during short-term exposure. D. a person can be exposed to for 1 hour.

B

The upper section of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. angle of Louis. B. manubrium. C. jugular notch. D. xiphoid process.

B

To avoid inadvertently cannulating an artery, you should: Select one: A. recall that most patients' veins and arteries are transpositioned. B. always check for a pulse in any vessel you intend to cannulate. C. routinely cannulate veins on the anterior aspect of the arm. D. refrain from attempting to cannulate an external jugular vein.

B

Traumatic injuries to the aorta are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. motorcycle crashes. B. shearing forces. C. rear-end collisions. D. penetrating trauma.

B

What are the three layers of the blood vessel, starting with the outer layer? Select one: A. Tunica media, tunica intima, tunica adventitia B. Tunica adventitia, tunica media, tunica intima C. Tunica media, tunica adventitia, tunica intima D. Tunica intima, tunica adventitia, tunica media

B

What is the rhythm? ekg a. First Degree b. Third Degree Block c. Second Degree type 2 d. Second Degree type 1

B

What medication would you use to treat this rhythm? ekg a. Amiodarone b. Adenosine c. Magnesium Sulfate d. 0.9 % Normal Saline

B

What rhythm is being shown? ekg a. Atrial Fibrillation b. Normal Sinus c. Sinus Bradycardia d. Normal Sinus with PVC's

B

What rhythm is being shown?ekg a. Junctional Escape b. Sinus Bradycardia c. Atrial Flutter d. Normal Sinus

B

What rhythm is this? ekg a. Normal Sinus b. Second Degree Type 2 c. First Degree d. Second Degree Type 1

B

What substance covers the end of bones? Select one: a. Tendon b. Cartilage c. Ligament d. Collagen

B

What type of STEMI is thSTEMIis? a. Inferior Wall b. Anterior Wall c. Posterior Wall d. Septal Wall

B

Which hormone stimulates release of calcium from the bones? Select one: a. calcitonin b. parathyroid c. thyroid d. testosterone

B

Which hormone stimulates the release of calcium from bones? Select one: a. Thyroid b. Parathyroid c. Calcitonin

B

Which medical condition is associated with an increased risk of death following administration of an antipsychotic medication? Select one: A. Lung disease B. Dementia C. Seizures

B

Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome? Select one: A. Sequential failure of two or more organs or organ systems caused by an acute injury or illness affecting any part of the patient's central nervous system B. Combined failure of two or more organs or organ systems that were initially unharmed by the acute disorder or injury that caused the patient's initial illness C. Progressive failure of two or more organs or organ systems that were directly affected by the acute disorder or injury that caused the patient's initial illness D. Acute and predictable failure of the kidneys, liver, lungs, and heart that resulted from any disorder or injury that directly affected these organs Clear my choice

B

Which of the following statements regarding the thyroid cartilage is correct? Select one: A. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage. B. It is the anterior part of the larynx. C. It is not easily seen in most people. D. It lies directly posterior to the larynx.

B

While attempting to start an IV on a patient with large protruding veins, you note that the vein rolls from side to side during your cannulation attempt. The BEST way to remedy this situation is to: Select one: A. place a chemical heat pack over the vein for 10 minutes in order to decrease movement of the vein. B. apply downward manual traction below the venipuncture site to stabilize the vein in position. C. use a through-the-needle IV catheter in order to gain better control over the rolling vein. D. remove the proximal constricting band to improve venous return and decrease the size of the vein.

B

A 10-month-old infant presents with an acute onset of increased work of breathing. According to the infant's mother, the child was crawling around in the living room prior to the event and was fine 10 minutes earlier. Your assessment reveals that the infant appears alert to his surroundings, has loud inspiratory stridor, and pink skin. You should: Select one: A. look inside the infant's mouth using a tongue blade and penlight. B. apply a pediatric nonrebreathing mask and transport expeditiously. C. avoid agitating the infant, offer supplemental oxygen, and transport. D. deliver five sharp back slaps between the infant's shoulder blades.

C

A 13 year old has been found unresponsive on her bedroom floor. She has shallow respirations at four-times-a-minute, unobtainable radial pulse, pinpoint pupils, and a slow carotid pulse. Her mother provides you with a prescription bottle labeled morphine. Assisted ventilations are started with a bag-valve mask and an IV has been established. What medication would benefit this patient the most? a. Lidocaine b. Atropine c. Naloxone d. Epi

C

A 13-year-old, 40-pound girl is experiencing an acute asthma attack that has been unresponsive to three puffs of her albuterol inhaler. She is conscious and alert, but is notably dyspneic and has diffuse wheezing. In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. give epinephrine 1:1,000 SQ. B. ventilate her with a bag-mask device. C. give nebulized ipratropium. D. administer dose of albuterol.

C

A 17-year-old female is unresponsive and lying supine in her backyard. She has a skin rash on her right arm and is wheezing. Her parents state that she has no history of respiratory problems or other medical disorders. What should you suspect? Select one: A. Status asthmaticus B. Febrile seizures C. Anaphylaxis D. Epiglottitis

C

A 19-year-old woman fell from a second story window and landed on her head. She is unconscious with a blood pressure of 168/104 mm Hg, heart rate of 56 beats/min, and irregular respirations of 8 breaths/min. Further assessment reveals blood draining from her nose and bilaterally dilated pupils that are slow to react. In addition to employing full spinal precautions, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves: Select one: A. hyperventilating her with a bag-mask device at a rate of 20 breaths/min, starting two large-bore IV lines, applying a cardiac monitor, administering 5 mg of Valium to prevent seizures, and transporting to a trauma center. B. applying oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, covering her with blankets, starting an IV of normal saline set to keep the vein open, applying a cardiac monitor, initiating transport, and monitoring her pupils while en route to the hospital. C. intubating her trachea after preoxygenating her for 2 to 3 minutes with a bag-mask device, transporting immediately, starting at least one large-bore IV en route, applying a cardiac monitor, and performing frequent neurologic assessments. D. preoxygenating her with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen for 2 to 3 minutes, performing nasotracheal intubation, transporting at once, starting at least one large-bore IV line en route, and obtaining her Glasgow Coma Scale score.

C

A 20-year-old female presents with severe lower abdominal pain. She does not believe that she is pregnant, but states that her breasts have been unusually tender and that she has been nauseated. What is the pathophysiology of this patient's suspected condition? Select one: A. The placenta has prematurely detached from the uterine wall. B. A fertilized ovum is implanted somewhere other than the uterus. C. High levels of estrogen are affecting the gastrointestinal system. D. The normal flow of bile from the liver has been interrupted.

C

A 50-year-old woman called 9-1-1 after she was suddenly awakened in the middle of the night with the feeling that she was being smothered. Your assessment reveals that she is clearly anxious, is trembling, and complains of chest pain and numbness and tingling to her face and hands. Her blood pressure is 168/96 mm Hg, pulse rate is 140 beats/min, and respirations are 30 breaths/min. Her medications include Xanax, Lipitor, and Vasotec. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. applying a nonrebreathing mask with the flow rate set at 2 L/min, assessing her blood glucose level, administering diazepam for sedation, and transporting her without lights and siren. B. applying a cardiac monitor, establishing vascular access and administering adenosine, administering oxygen via nasal cannula, considering a beta adrenergic antagonist to lower her blood pressure, and transporting. C. coaching her to slow her breathing, monitoring her oxygen saturation and end-tidal carbon dioxide levels, administering supplemental oxygen, assessing her cardiac rhythm, establishing vascular access, and transporting. D. attempting to regulate her breathing by asking her to hold her breath, assessing her end-tidal carbon dioxide level, administering 1 µg/kg of fentanyl IM for sedation, and transporting. Clear my choice

C

A 56-year-old man presents with an acute onset chest pressure, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. His airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. You should: Select one: A. acquire a 12-lead ECG tracing. B. establish vascular access. C. administer supplemental oxygen. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

C

A 70-year-old homeless man presents with a rash to his hands, wrists, and ankles. He denies any known allergies and states that the rash itches severely at night. His vital signs are stable, and he is breathing without difficulty. You should: Select one: A. be highly suspicious that he has body lice and use a high-level disinfectant when cleaning the ambulance. B. establish vascular access in case he begins to experience signs and symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. C. transport him to the hospital and thoroughly wash your hands after patient care has been completed. D. administer 25 mg of diphenhydramine IM and transport him to an appropriate medical facility.

C

A compression or burst fracture of the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following: Select one: A. a direct blow to the occipital region of the skull. B. axial loading after a patient falls and lands feet first. C. a significant fall in which the patient lands head first. D. rapid acceleration following a motor vehicle crash.

C

A hypertonic solution has an osmolarity higher than that of serum, meaning that the solution: Select one: A. may cause the cells to expand and rupture due to the increased intracellular osmotic pressure exerted by the solution. B. has a lower ionic concentration than serum and pulls fluid and electrolytes from the intravascular compartment into the intracellular and interstitial compartments. C. has more ionic concentration than serum and pulls fluid and electrolytes from the intracellular and interstitial compartments into the intravascular compartment. D. contains high concentrations of proteins and can result in fluid overloading in patients with impaired cardiac function or renal insufficiency.

C

A patient with status asthmaticus commonly presents with: Select one: A. compensatory respiratory alkalosis and stridor. B. accessory muscle use and inspiratory wheezing. C. physical exhaustion and inaudible breath sounds. D. audible expiratory wheezing and severe cyanosis.

C

A patient with suspected internal bleeding has a systolic BP of 104 mm Hg. What is the appropriate fluid management? Select one: A. 5 to 10 mL/kg, repeated one time B. 250 mL, repeated twice C. Fluid challenge is not necessary D. 500 mL, repeated one time

C

A slight dilation at the carotid bifurcation, called the ________________, contains structures that are important in regulating blood pressure. Select one: A. circle of Willis B. foramen ovale C. carotid sinus D. fossa ovalis

C

A specialized part of the venous system that filters the blood and metabolizes various drugs is called the: Select one: A. duodenal portal system. B. renal portal system. C. hepatic portal system. D. splenic portal system.

C

A wandering atrial pacemaker: Select one: A. has consistent P-wave shapes. B. is generally treated with atropine. C. may have variable PR intervals. D. is generally faster than 100 beats/min.

C

A young child with marked respiratory distress who is agitated and thrashing about should receive oxygen via: Select one: A. positive pressure ventilation after he or she has been properly sedated. B. nonrebreathing mask because agitation indicates cerebral ischemia. C. a method that minimizes metabolic demand and oxygen consumption. D. the blow-by technique while he or she sits on the lap of a caregiver.

C

According to the Einthoven triangle, lead II is assessed by placing the: Select one: A. negative lead on the left arm and the positive lead on the left leg. B. positive lead on the left arm and the negative lead on the right arm. C. negative lead on the right arm and the positive lead on the left leg. D. positive lead on the left leg and the negative lead on the right arm.

C

According to the rule of nines, an adult with partial- and full-thickness burns to his or her head, face, and anterior chest has burns to ____% of his total body surface area. Select one: A. 36 B. 27 C. 18 D. 45

C

All of the following are voluntary muscles, EXCEPT: Select one: A. somatic muscle. B. striated muscle. C. smooth muscle. D. skeletal muscle.

C

An accelerated idioventricular rhythm is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. QRS complexes greater than 0.12 seconds in duration. B. wide QRS complexes with P waves buried in the T waves. C. irregular R-R intervals and a rate less than 40 beats/min. D. regular R-R intervals and a rate between 40 and 100 beats/min.

C

An adult patient presents with a blood pressure of 78/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 120 beats/min and irregular, and labored breathing. Further assessment reveals pale, cool, moist skin and diffuse crackles in all lung fields. You should suspect: Select one: A. neurogenic shock. B. septic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. hypovolemic shock.

C

Cells that mature in the bone marrow where they differentiate into memory cells or immunoglobulin-secreting (antibody) cells are called: Select one: A. T lymphocytes. B. memory B cells. C. B lymphocytes. D. plasma cells.

C

Common signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. fever, chills, and diarrhea. B. recurrent abdominal pain. C. bloating after milk ingestion. D. pus or blood in the stools.

C

Disruption of blood flow into the left common carotid artery would MOST likely produce signs and symptoms of a(n): Select one: A. pericardial tamponade. B. hemorrhagic stroke. C. ischemic stroke. D. myocardial infarction.

C

Dr. Eugene Nagel advanced emergency medical treatment in 1969 by: Select one: A. training paramedics to administer certain medications directly through the chest wall and into the left ventricle. B. developing and implementing closed-chest cardiac massage (CPR) in order to pump blood in a patient without a pulse. C. developing a telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patient's electrocardiogram to the physician at the hospital. D. implementing the "golden hour," which dramatically increased survival rates of patients who experienced severe trauma.

C

During the acute inflammatory response: Select one: A. increased vessel wall permeability forces fluid out of the interstitial spaces, resulting in cell shrinkage and eventual death. B. active hyperemia causes the blood vessels to constrict, which diverts blood flow away from the affected site. C. transient arteriolar constriction is followed by arteriolar dilation, which allows an influx of blood under increased pressure. D. chemical mediators, which are primarily produced by monocytes, cause localized constriction of the vessels adjacent to the affected site.

C

During the attempted resuscitation of a patient in cardiac arrest, you are informed that the patient is a diabetic and takes multiple pain medications for chronic back pain. What drug should you administer? Select one: A. Dextrose B. Calcium C. Naloxone D. Lidocaine

C

Full-thickness circumferential burns to the chest: Select one: A. require the paramedic to incise the burn to decompress it. B. necessitate immediate intubation and ventilatory support. C. may cause significant restriction of respiratory excursion. 1 D. are generally not significant unless the skin is unyielding.

C

Grey Turner sign is defined as ecchymosis to the _________ and is indicative of _________. Select one: A. umbilicus, peritoneal bleeding B. back, traumatic aortic dissection C. flank, retroperitoneal bleeding D. epigastrium, stomach rupture

C

Hypoventilation causes a(n) __________ and leads to __________. Select one: A. increased minute volume, hypercapnia B. increased minute volume, hypocapnia C. decreased minute volume, hypercapnia D. decreased minute volume, hypocapnia

C

If a patient is confined to bed for a prolonged period of time, you would expect edema to form in the: Select one: A. face, neck, and chest. B. upper extremities. C. sacrum. D. peritoneum.

C

If an impulse generated by the AV node begins moving upward through the atria before the other part of it enters the ventricles: Select one: A. the PR intervals will be greater than 0.20 seconds. B. a small inverted P wave will be buried in the QRS complex. C. an inverted P wave will appear before the QRS complex. D. an upright P wave will appear after the QRS complex.

C

Major risk factors for lung cancer include: Select one: A. chewing tobacco use and a history of allergies. B. frequent respiratory infections and asthma. C. cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos. D. female sex and age over 40 years.

C

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for patients: Select one: A. with suspected left circumflex artery occlusion. B. with a systolic BP less than 110 mm Hg. C. with suspected right ventricular infarction. D. who are also taking beta-blocker medication.

C

Patients with _________________ are at significant risk for toxic effects of medications or metabolic waste products in the body. Select one: A. heart failure B. diabetes mellitus C. renal failure D. stomach cancer

C

Receptors found in the joint capsules, skeletal muscles, and tendons are: Select one: a. Baroreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Proprioceptors d. All of the above

C

Slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis are also known as: Select one: A. histamine. B. mast cells. C. leukotrienes. D. eosinophils.

C

Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors: Select one: A. causes profound systemic hypertension. B. constricts the vascular smooth muscle. C. suppresses the release of norepinephrine. D. increases the release of norepinephrine.

C

The Levine sign is defined as: Select one: A. rubbing the arm to which pain is radiating. B. pushing on the sternum with the fingertips. C. a subconsciously clenched fist over the chest. D. a state of denial in patients with an acute myocardial infarction.

C

The MOST common cause of circulatory overload in the prehospital setting is: Select one: A. overestimating the patient's baseline hydration level and giving too much IV fluid. B. not using a Volutrol administration set when administering IV fluids to the elderly. C. failure to readjust the drip rate after flushing the IV line immediately after insertion. D. administering excessive crystalloid solutions to patients with hypovolemic shock.

C

The MOST important prehospital intervention for a footling breech or transverse presentation of the baby is: Select one: A. maternal vascular access. B. keeping the mother warm. C. rapid transport to the hospital. D. delivery of high-flow oxygen.

C

The QRS in lead I is a negative deflection and the QRS in lead aVF is a positive deflection. This indicates: Select one: A. a normal axis. B. extreme right axis deviation. C. right axis deviation. D. left axis deviation.

C

The QRS in lead I is a positive deflection and the QRS in lead aVF is a negative deflection. This indicates: Select one: A. extreme right axis deviation. B. right axis deviation. C. left axis deviation. D. a normal axis.

C

The aorta and pulmonary artery exit the heart just beneath the: Select one: A. costal angle. B. xiphoid process. C. manubrium. D. sternal body.

C

The first and second cervical vertebrae are called the: Select one: A. odontoid and axis. B. dens and atlas. C. atlas and axis. D. axis and dens.

C

The judicial branch at the state level is responsible for: Select one: A. reporting to the governor in the state capitol. B. carrying out and administering the laws. C. resolving disputes based on interpretation of law. D. establishing and defining the law.

C

The large cartilaginous external portion of the ear is called the: Select one: A. ossicle. B. cochlea. C. auricle. D. oval window.

C

The mean arterial pressure must be greater than or equal to ____ mm Hg to ensure that the brain, coronary arteries, and kidneys remained perfused. Select one: A. 80 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70

C

The mnemonic "OPQRST" is a tool that: Select one: A. allows the paramedic to reach a field diagnosis quickly and initiate treatment. B. is only effective when assessing a patient who is experiencing severe pain. C. offers an easy-to-remember approach to analyzing a patient's chief complaint. D. is used commonly to rule out conditions that are immediately life threatening.

C

The precordial leads do NOT view the __________ wall of the heart. Select one: A. septal B. anterior C. inferior D. lateral

C

The right and left coronary arteries arise from the: Select one: A. aortic arch. B. descending aorta. C. ascending aorta. D. abdominal aorta.

C

The signs and symptoms that occur when an IV catheter is sheared and becomes a free-floating segment in the circulatory system MOST closely resemble: Select one: A. right-sided heart failure. B. left-sided heart failure. C. an air embolus. D. pneumothorax.

C

The spinal column conisists of ______ bones divided into _____ sections. Select one: a. 33, 7 b. 35, 7 c. 33, 5 d. 32, 5

C

The vagus nerve releases _________________, which acts on _________________ receptors. Select one: A. acetylcholinesterase, nicotinic B. norepinephrine, alpha-1 C. acetylcholine, muscarinic-2 D. epinephrine, beta-2

C

These joints are the most mobile and complex. Select one: a. Fibrous b. Ball and socket c. Synovial d. Cartilaginous

C

What do the spleen and liver have in common? Select one: A. The liver and spleen are well protected by the abdominal muscles. B. They are less likely to be crushed by blunt trauma than other organs. C. They are both highly vascular and bleed profusely when injured. D. The liver and spleen are the only solid organs in the abdominal cavity

C

What is the cardiac output of a person with a stroke volume of 60 mL and a heart rate of 90 beats/min? Select one: A. 4.2 L B. 2.1 L C. 5.4 L D. 5.0 L

C

What is the rhythm that is shown?ekg a. Sinus Tachycardia b. Atrial Fibrillation c. Ventricular Fibrillation d. Ventricular Tachycardia

C

What is the rhythm? ekg a. Second Degree Block Type 2 b. Third Degree c. Sinus Arrest d. First Degree Block

C

What rhythm is being shown? ekg a. Sinus with PAC's b. Sinus Tachycardia c. Atrial Fibrillation d. Normal Sinus

C

When nerve cells and cardiac myocytes are injured: Select one: A. a slow influx of blood flow causes progressive repair. B. they are replaced by regeneration from remaining cells. C. scar tissue forms because these cells cannot be replaced. D. their cells divide completely and thus heal completely

C

When oxygen does not reach the cell, the cell reverts to: Select one: A. fat metabolism and begins producing ketoacids. B. anaerobic metabolism and produces bicarbonate. C. anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid. D. aerobic metabolism and produces carbon dioxide.

C

Which layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells? Select one: A. Lumen B. Tunica adventitia C. Tunica media D. Tunica intima

C

Which of the following is the BEST example of an indirect injury? Select one: A. Dislocated olecranon process following direct trauma to the elbow B. Patellar fracture after the knee strikes an automobile's dashboard C. Shoulder dislocation secondary to falling on an outstretched hand D. Fractured ankle after stepping in a hole and twisting the lower leg

C

Which of the following medications or conditions would MOST likely cause or contribute to hyperkalemia? Select one: A. Reduction in potassium dietary intake B. Any non-potassium-sparing diuretic C. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors D.

C

Which of the following represents an abnormal electrolyte serum level? Select one: A. Chloride, 100 mEq/L B. Calcium, 9.9 mEq/L C. Potassium, 5.9 mEq/L425 D. Sodium, 140 mEq/L

C

Which of the following statements regarding paralysis is correct? Select one: A. Most patients who are paralyzed have normal sensation or hyperesthesia. B. Paralysis always entails the loss of both sensory and motor functions. C. A paralyzed patient has lost the ability to voluntarily move a body part. D. Injuries to the thoracic or lumbar spine generally result in quadriplegia.

C

Which portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis? Select one: A. Coccyx B. Lumbar C. Sacral D. Thoracic

C

Which type of cell breaks down and reabsorbs bone? Select one: a. Osteocytes b. Osteoblasts c. Osteoclasts d. None of these

C

While attempting to ventilate an unresponsive, apneic drowning victim, you notice poor lung compliance. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of this? Select one: A. Acute pneumonitis B. Excess pulmonary surfactant C. Diffuse alveolar collapse D. Water within the pleural space

C

With regard to the heart, ejection fraction is defined as the: Select one: A. volume of blood ejected from both atria. B. volume of blood that enters the lungs. C. percentage of blood ejected from the heart. D. percentage of blood returned to the heart.

C

You need to give Amiodarone to your patient. Per your protocol you take 150mg of Amiodarone and mix it into a 100cc bag of NS. It need to be given over 10 minutes with a microdrip set. How many drips per minute will you set your drip chamber to? a. 100 gtts/min b. 60 gtts/min c. 600 gtts/min d. 6 gtts/min

C

__________ is a term used to describe changes in a person's ability to perform coordinated motions, such as walking. Select one: A. Myoclonus B. Decussation C. Ataxia D. Bradykinesia

C

_____________ are a type of white blood cell that phagocytizes bacteria. Select one: A. Eosinophils B. B lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Basophils

C

"The awareness of a body state or condition that results from stimulation of sensory receptors" defines which term? Select one: a. Adaptation b. Somatic Pain c. Perception d. Sensation

D

A 15-year-old child can be difficult to treat for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cognizance of body image. B. peer pressure. C. independence issues. D. stranger anxiety.

D

A 16-year-old boy collapsed after being struck in the center of the chest by a line drive during a high school baseball game. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. As your partner initiates one-rescuer CPR, your MOST important action should be to: Select one: A. start an IV line and administer an antiarrhythmic drug. B. perform intubation to secure the patient's airway. C. rapidly assess the chest for signs of a sternal fracture. D. attach the ECG leads and be prepared to defibrillate.

D

A 30-year-old woman presents with bright red vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. She tells you that she is 35 weeks pregnant and that this episode began suddenly about 30 minutes ago. She further tells you that she has not felt the baby move in over an hour. As your partner is treating the patient for shock, you obtain her medical history. The patient tells you that she has high blood pressure and admits to using cocaine throughout her pregnancy. What should you suspect? Select one: A. Placenta previa B. Threatened abortion C. Ruptured uterus D. Abruptio placenta

D

A 40-year-old man fell 20 feet from a tree while trimming branches. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive. You cannot open his airway effectively with the jaw-thrust maneuver. You should: Select one: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess his respirations. B. suction his oropharynx and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. assist his ventilations and prepare to intubate him immediately. D. carefully open his airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

D

A 40-year-old man had a syncopal episode after receiving news of the death of a loved one. He complains of a headache and is unable to walk without becoming dizzy. You should be the MOST suspicious for: Select one: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypovolemia. C. a dysrhythmia. D. a head injury.

D

A 40-year-old man presents with bizarre behavior. His speech is slurred and he is very belligerent. His blood glucose level is 35 mg/dL. The patient tells you to get out of his house. You should: Select one: A. monitor the patient's condition for 15 minutes and then begin emergency treatment if he does not improve. B. administer oxygen only until you can obtain a court order to start an IV and administer dextrose. C. utilize law enforcement to help restrain the patient so that you can start an IV line and give him dextrose. D. remain professional and advise the patient that he is not legally capable of refusing EMS treatment.

D

A 55-year-old man complains of severe pain between his shoulder blades, which he describes as "ripping" in nature. He tells you that the pain began suddenly and has been intense and unrelenting since its onset. His medical history includes hypertension, and he admits to being noncompliant with his antihypertensive medication. Which of the following assessment findings would MOST likely reinforce your suspicion regarding the cause of his pain? Select one: A. Bruits to both carotid arteries during auscultation B. ST-segment depression on the 12-lead ECG tracing C. Disappearance of radial pulses during inspiration D. Difference in blood pressure between the two arms

D

A 59-year-old female presents with severe substernal chest pain. She is anxious and diaphoretic. What should you do? Select one: A. Administer nitroglycerin. B. Establish IV access. C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG. D. Administer aspirin.

D

A 69-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of shortness of breath that woke her from her sleep. She is conscious, but anxious, and is coughing up pink sputum. She can only speak in two-word sentences and has cyanosis to her face. Her BP is 170/90 mm Hg, pulse rate is 130 beats/min, and respirations are 28 breaths/min. What should you do? Select one: A. Administer nitroglycerin and obtain a 12-lead ECG. B. Establish vascular access and transport immediately. C. Administer a sedative and paralytic and intubate. D. Provide noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.

D

A 9-year-old, 55-pound girl presents with generalized hives, marked facial swelling, and loud inspiratory stridor. She is conscious but appears sleepy. You can MOST rapidly improve this child's condition by: Select one: A. administering a nebulized bronchodilator. B. administering diphendydramine. C. starting an epinephrine infusion. D. administering epinephrine IM.

D

A STEMI should be suspected in a 45-year-old female if the ST segments in leads V2 and V3 are elevated by ____ or more. Select one: A. 1.0 B. 0.25 C. 0.5 D. 1.5

D

A classic sign of atrial flutter is: Select one: A. a constant 2:1 conduction ratio. B. an irregular but consistent R-R interval. C. a ventricular rate less than 100 beats/min. D. the presence of sawtooth F waves.

D

A complete spinal cord injury to the upper cervical spine: Select one: A. results in quadriplegia but the patient usually retains his or her ability to breathe spontaneously. B. is not compatible with life and results in immediate death due to cardiopulmonary failure. C. results in neurologic dysfunction that is considered to be permanent if it lasts longer than 24 hours. D. will result in permanent loss of all cord-mediated functions below the level of the injury.

D

A concordant precordial pattern exists when all QRS complexes: Select one: A. are less than 120 milliseconds. B. are greater than 120 milliseconds. C. in V1 through V6 end with a R wave. D. are upright in leads V1 through V6.

D

A delta wave is identified on a cardiac rhythm strip as a(n): Select one: A. apparent P wave that occurs at the end of the QRS complex. B. acute widening of the QRS complex immediately after the R wave. C. delay between the end of the P wave and the beginning of the R wave. D. slurring of the upstroke of the first part of the QRS complex

D

A medication that possesses a positive chronotropic effect is one that: Select one: A. decreases cardiac contractility. B. increases the conduction of electricity. C. decreases heart rate. D. increases heart rate.

D

A patient remains in pulseless ventricular tachycardia despite two shocks, a dose of epinephrine, high-quality CPR, and 300 mg of amiodarone. Following the next shock, you should resume CPR and then: Select one: A. administer 1.5 mg/kg of lidocaine. B. double the dose of the epinephrine. C. cardiovert with 100 biphasic joules. D. administer 150 mg of amiodarone.

D

A patient with severe dehydration is found to be hypotensive during your assessment. The MOST important intervention in this case is: Select one: A. high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B. immediate fluid resuscitation at the scene. C. applying blankets to keep the patient warm. D. transport with fluid resuscitation en route.

D

A positive Babinski reflex is observed when the: Select one: A. toes curve or move downward when the sole of the foot is touched. B. patient's reflexes are hyperactive in response to an external stimulus. C. patient responds to pain by flexing the arms and extending the legs. D. toes move upward in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot.

D

A positive QRS deflection in lead I means the vector is heading toward the: Select one: A. right leg. B. right arm. C. left leg. D. left arm.

D

A right ventricular infarction is characterized by: Select one: A. ST-segment elevation greater than 2 mm in lead V5R and ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. B. ST-segment elevation greater than 1 mm in lead V5R and ST-segment depression in leads II, III, and aVF. C. ST-segment depression greater than 2 mm in lead V4R and ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. D. ST-segment elevation greater than 1 mm in lead V4R and ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

D

A vasovagal reaction is the result of: Select one: A. acute bradycardia. B. sudden hypertension. C. massive vasoconstriction. D. dilation of the vasculature.

D

According to the Haddon matrix, which of the following is a post-event strategy to reduce the severity of an injury? Select one: A. An infant or child is properly restrained in a child safety seat. B. The vehicle design provides certain crash protection features. C. The driver maintains control of his vehicle around a corner. D. The ambulance is outfitted with up-to-date equipment

D

Adenosine may be considered for a hemodynamically stable child with a wide complex tachycardia if: Select one: A. the QRS complex is less than 0.12 seconds. B. the heart rate is over 180 beats/min. C. the child has a history of congenital heart disease. D. the ventricular rhythm is regular and monomorphic.

D

Cor pulmonale is a term used to describe: Select one: A. increased right atrial pressure caused by valvular dysfunction. B. left ventricular failure caused by systemic hypertension. C. any condition that causes abnormal atrial depolarization. D. right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary disease.

D

Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. microorganisms attack the blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation. B. a significant decrease in cardiac contractility causes decreased perfusion. C. central vasoconstriction forces blood from the core of the body. D. blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases.

D

During an explosion, secondary blast injuries occur when: Select one: A. hollow organs rupture due to the pressure wave. B. the patient is thrown against a stationary object. C. the patient sustains severe burns from the intense heat. D. the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel.

D

Epinephrine is primarily administered during cardiac arrest because its ________effects cause ________. Select one: A. beta-2 agonistic, dilation of the bronchioles B. antidysrhythmic, decreased cardiac irritability C. vasodilatory, a reduction in cardiac afterload D. vasoconstrictive, enhanced coronary blood flow

D

Following blunt force trauma to the lower right rib cage, a 40-year-old woman presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and unlabored tachypnea. You should be MOST concerned that she has a: Select one: A. pyloric injury. B. splenic rupture. C. pneumothorax. D. liver injury.

D

How does the body respond to hypoperfusion? Select one: A. A compensatory decrease in cardiac output and cardiac oxygen demand B. Splenic retention of red blood cells secondary to systemic hypoxia C. Decreased preload, stroke volume, and heart rate D. Catecholamine release and increased systemic vascular resistance

D

If an injury leading to cell degeneration is of sufficient intensity and duration: Select one: A. the cell will undergo coagulation necrosis. B. the cell will become inflamed and may burst. C. ischemia will result in simple necrosis. D. irreversible cell injury will lead to cell death.

D

In a small child, loss of as little as ____% of total body fluid can cause illness. Select one: A. 5 to 10 B. 20 to 25 C. 3 to 5 D. 10 to 15

D

In contrast to alpha radiation, beta radiation: Select one: A. travels slowly and is less penetrating. B. is easily stopped by a piece of paper. C. can easily penetrate the human body. D. requires a layer of clothing to stop it.

D

In the presence of infection, white blood cells release endogenous chemicals called _________, which produce fever. Select one: A. histamines B. leukotrienes C. catecholamines D. pyrogens

D

Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. consistent PR intervals and upright P waves. B. minimal variation between the R-R intervals. C. a consistent heart rate between 60 and 100 beats/min. D. QRS complexes that are up to 140 milliseconds.

D

Shock in the trauma patient should be considered _____________ until proven otherwise. Select one: A. neurogenic B. obstructive C. distributive D. hemorrhagic

D

Spinal cord injuries that cause neurogenic shock generally produce: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin distal to the site of the spinal cord injury. B. reflex tachycardia due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation. C. signs and symptoms that are identical to those of hypovolemic shock. D. flaccid paralysis and complete loss of sensation distal to the injury.

D

Strength of a person's peripheral pulses is related to: Select one: A. cardiac output and heart rate. B. physical size and blood pressure. C. heart rate and preload. D. stroke volume and pulse pressure.

D

The CNS may temporarily or permanently reduce sensitivity to a particular stimulus through what means? Select one: a. Perception b. Proprioception c. Olfaction d. Adaptation

D

The PR interval should be no shorter than ____ seconds and no longer than ____ seconds in duration. Select one: A. 0.14, 0.30 B. 0.16, 0.40 C. 0.18, 2.0 D. 0.12, 0.20

D

The _________ reflex happens when an infant is startled and opens his or her arms wide. Select one: A. palmar B. rooting C. vagal D. Moro

D

The ability of the heart to generate its own muscle contractions is known as? a. Cardiac contractility b. Spontaneous muscle contraction c. Involuntary muscle movement d. Myocardial automaticity

D

The alpha-adrenergic effects of epinephrine produce: Select one: A. decreased chronotropy. B. increased inotropy. C. bronchodilation. D. vasoconstriction.

D

The average total body water content of a healthy adult is approximately ____% of his or her body weight. Select one: A. 80 B. 50 C. 70 D. 60

D

The first artery to branch from the aortic arch is the: Select one: A. common iliac artery. B. external carotid artery. C. internal carotid artery. D. brachiocephalic artery.

D

The integumentary system includes all of the following structures, EXCEPT: Select one: A. sweat glands. B. hair follicles. C. the epidermis. D. blood vessels.

D

The left main coronary artery rapidly divides into the: Select one: A. left posterior descending and acute marginal arteries. B. posterior descending and left ventricular arteries. C. circumflex and right anterior descending arteries. D. left anterior descending and circumflex arteries.

D

The point where the first cervical vertebra (C1) articulates with the base of the skull is called the: Select one: A. odontoid process. B. vertebral foramen. C. vertebra prominens. D. atlanto-occipital joint.

D

The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint where the humeral head articulates with the: Select one: A. popliteal fossa. B. acromion process. C. acetabulum. D. glenoid fossa.

D

The signs, symptoms, clinical presentation, and treatment for cancer largely depends on: Select one: A. whether or not the patient has diabetes. B. the gender of the patient. C. the patient's family history. D. the present location of the cancer.

D

The son of a 76-year-old woman called 9-1-1 because his mother is "ill." The patient presents with mild confusion, poor skin turgor, and tachycardia. She is incontinent of urine and asks you for a glass of water. Her son tells you that she had not been feeling well for the past several weeks, but would not allow him to take her to the doctor. Which of the following assessment parameters will MOST likely reinforce your suspicion regarding the underlying cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Orthostatic vital signs B. Cardiac rhythm C. Cincinnati stroke scale D. Blood glucose

D

The three small bones in the middle ear are the: Select one: A. malleus, anvil, and incus. B. stapes, anvil, and malleolus. C. malleus, stapes, and foramina. D. incus, malleus, and stapes.

D

The upper peritoneal cavity includes all of the following organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. gallbladder. B. spleen. C. stomach. D. pancreas.

D

Transport of a patient in anaphylactic shock may be delayed for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: Select one: A. aggressive airway control. B. epinephrine administration. C. assessment of lung sounds. D. a secondary assessment.

D

What 12-lead ECG finding should make you suspect a posterior STEMI? Select one: A. ST depression in leads I and aVL B. ST elevation in leads III and aVF C. ST elevation in leads V3 and V4 D. ST depression in leads V1 and V2

D

What happens when systemic vasoconstriction occurs? Select one: A. Afterload and preload increase. B. Afterload and preload decrease. C. Preload decreases. D. Afterload increases.

D

What is the cardiac rhythm being shown? ekg a. Sinus Tachycardia b. Atrial Fibrillation c. Normal Sinus d. Sinus Bradycardia

D

What is the normal bodily pH? a. 6.25-6.45 b. 7.55-8.0 c. 7.10-7.25 d. 7.35-7.45

D

What occurs naturally in white blood cells and produces allergic and inflammatory reactions? a. Eosiniphils b. Thromboxanes c. Histamine Blockers d. Leukotrienes

D

What rhythm is being shown? ekg a. Third Degree b. Second Degree Type 2 c. First Degree d. Second Degree Type 1

D

What type of STEMI is this?Elevation. a. Anteroseptal Wall b. Septal Wall c. Normal Sinus d. Inferior Wall

D

What type of tissue covers and lines internal organs? Select one: A. Striated B. Connective C. Muscle D. Epithelial

D

When evaluating a child's oxygen saturation level with a pulse oximeter: Select one: A. a reading of less than 96% on room air indicates respiratory distress and necessitates the administration of supplemental oxygen. B. you should recall that peripheral vasodilation from a warm environment will typically yield a false reading. C. you should provide ventilatory assistance with a bag-mask device if the reading is below 94% and not increasing rapidly. D. it should be evaluated in the context of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle and remainder of the primary assessment.

D

Which nerve supplies taste buds on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? Select one: a. Vagus b. Cranial c. Glossopharyngeal d. Facial

D

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST suggestive of an organic cause of abnormal behavior? Select one: A. Auditory hallucinations B. Skin that is cool and dry C. Multiple tattoos D. Unusual breath odor

D

Which of the following physical changes occurs in adults over 25 years of age? Select one: A. An increase in muscle strength B. A decrease in the body's fatty tissue C. Hyperactivity of the reflexes D. Settling of the disks in the spine

D

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? Select one: A. Hemophilia is generally not an inherited disorder and affects males and females in equal numbers. B. Hemophilia is characterized by factor VIII deficit and is passed from asymptomatic fathers to daughters. C. Hemophilia is caused by excessive production of factor VIII. D. Hemophilia is an inherited disorder, is characterized by excessive bleeding, and occurs predominantly in males

D

Which of the following structures comprise different types of tissues that work together to perform a particular function? Select one: A. Body systems B. Cells C. Organisms D. Organs

D

While assessing a patient, you note that she is making repetitive hand gestures as though she is trying to grasp at something. This is an example of ________________ movements. Select one: A. obsessive B. circumstantial C. compulsive D. stereotyped

D

Your medical control orders you to give 25mg of Diphenhydramine to your patient having a mild allergic reaction. It comes packaged as 50mg/1ml in a vial. How many mls do you draw up? a. 0.05 mL b. 5 mLs c. 0.25 mL d. 0.5 mL

D

__________ is the protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot. Select one: A. Plasmin B. Kinin C. Collagen D. Fibrin

D

________ is a way of buffering bad news until a person can mobilize the resources to deal with that news more effectively. Select one: A. Bargaining B. Denial C. Anger D. Depression

Denial

Question text The junction of the manubrium and the sternal body is the suprasternal notch. Select one: a. False b. True

False

The middle ear functions in balance and hearing Select one: a. True b. False

False

A 30-year-old woman presents with 3 days of generalized weakness, dizziness, and excessive urination. She is conscious but restless, and she tells you that she is extremely thirsty. Her blood pressure is 96/66 mm Hg, her pulse is 110 beats/min and full, and her respirations are rapid and deep. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, she will MOST likely require: Select one: A. crystalloid fluid hydration. B. 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon. C. in-hospital antibiotics. D. 25 g of 50% dextrose.

a

A 30-year-old woman who is 35 weeks pregnant is pulseless and apneic. As CPR is initiated, you or another team member should: Select one: A. ventilate her at a slightly faster rate. B. tilt her entire body slightly to the left. C. manually displace her uterus to the left. D. start and IV line and give epinephrine.

c