Tingnan ang lahat ng mga set ng pag-aaral

Dundon Sets with Rationale

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

D. An antonym is an opposite. The opposite of each is as follows: anterior (ventral), front - posterior (dorsal), back; caudal (inferior), tail - cephalic (cranial, superior), head; dorsal (posterior), back - ventral (anterior), front; proximal (toward) - distal (away), the direction of a limb toward or away from the center of a body; superficial - deep, the relative depth from the surface.

1. Anterior A. Cephalic B. Distal C. Deep D. Posterior E. Ventral

B. Each of the other muscles originates at a point other than the coracoid process.

101. The short head of the biceps brachii has a common origin with the A. Long head of the biceps brachii B. Coracobrachialis C. Brachialis D. Brachioradialis

C. The posterior tibial artery, under cover of the origin of the abductor hallucis, divides into the medial and lateral plantar arteries.

103. The medial and lateral plantar arteries are continuations of the A. Arteriae dorsalis pedis B. Anterior tibial artery C. Posterior tibial artery D. Plantar metatarsal arteries

A. Abduction and adduction of the toes are away from and toward the longitudinal axis of the second digit, rather than the third as in the hand.

104. The point of reference for defining abduction and adduction of the toes is A. Second toe B. Third toe C. Fourth toe D. First toe

A. The dorsal interossei abduct the fingers from an imaginary line drawn through the axis of the middle finger.

105. The muscles responsible for abduction of the fingers are A. The dorsal interossei B. The palmar interossei C. The lumbricals D. All the intrinsics of the hand

A. A The articulations of the elbow joint allow only the movements of flexion, extension, and rotation, and, in some persons, hyperextension.

135. The movement permitted at the elbow joint is A. Flexion B. Abduction C. Adduction D. Circumduction

D. Proprioceptors receive impulses from the tissues directly concerned with musculoskeletal movements and positions.

171. Receptors that transmit information concerning body position and movement are called A. Exteroceptors B. Thermoreceptors C. Visceroceptors D. Proprioceptors

D. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

180. Brachialis A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

A. An antonym is an opposite. The opposite of each is as follows: anterior (ventral), front - posterior (dorsal), back; caudal (inferior), tail - cephalic (cranial, superior), head; dorsal (posterior), back - ventral (anterior), front; proximal (toward) - distal (away), the direction of a limb toward or away from the center of a body; superficial - deep, the relative depth from the surface.

2. Caudal A. Cephalic B. Distal C. Deep D. Posterior E. Ventral

B. A nonaxial or irregular joint is irregularly shaped, allowing movement only of a singular gliding nature (nonaxial). A uniaxial joint has a spoollike (concave) surface, which allows only a hinge-type movement about a single (or uni-) axis of motion. A biaxial joint has an ovalm convex surface that fits into a reciprocally shaped concave surface. This allows forward and backward motion but also some side-to-side action. When these movements are performed sequentially they constitute circumduction. In the triaxial joint a spherical head of one bone fits in a cup- or saucer-like cavity of the other bone, allowing for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, horizontal flexion, and extension and rotation.

22. Trochoid A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

B. Through the baroreceptor system, when the arterial pressure is high, the respiratory center is depressed and ventilation is reduced correspondingly

220. When arterial pressure is high, respiration is A. Increased B. Decreased C. Unchanged D. Fluctuating

B. The main function of the kidney is formation of urine. The 2 kidneys contain approximately 2 million nephrons, which do the work of filtering out water and solutes form the blood.

221. The functional unit of the urinary system is the A. Collecting tubules B. Nephron C. Renal pelvis D. Urinary bladder

B. Permeability does not always remain exactly the same under different conditions. Excessive calcium in the extracellular fluid causes the permeability to decrease.

222. A high concentration of calcium in the extracellular fluid will A. Increase the permeability of the cell membrane B. Decrease the permeability of the cell membrane C. Cause no change in the permeability of the cell membrane D. Cause a great change in the permeability of the cell membrane

C. The nephron, which forms urine from the blood, is composed of 2 major parts: one is the glomerulus, which filters water and solutes from the blood.

233. Concerning the urinary system, the function of the glomerulus is to A. Reabsorb from the filtrate those substances needed in the body B. Remove the waste products of metabolism C. Filter water and solutes from the blood D. Increase filtration pressure

C. Nystagmus is a term applied to a more or less rhythmic oscillation of the eyes. One phase is called the slow component and is more prolonged; another phase is referred to as the quick component.

248. Nystagmus is a term used to denote A. A nervous twitching of the mouth B. A burning sensation in the ears C. A rhythmic oscillation of the eyes D. A hypersensitive nose

B. Pathways from receptor endings to the central cortex require a minimum of 3 neurons.

250. Pathways from receptor endings to the cerebral cortex require a minimum of A. Two neurons B. Three neurons C. Four neurons D. Five neurons

B. This is the final common pathway because it is acted upon by 6 separate tracts and 2 reflex neurons and is the ultimate pathway through which neural impulses reach the muscle.

251. The final common pathway is synonymous with the A. Upper motor neuron B. Lower motor neuron C. Peripheral nerve D. Motor unit

H. The proximal row of carpal bone is arranged in the following order: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform. The distal row of the carpal bones is arranged in the following order: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.

27. Fourth (Proximal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

B. In psychoanalytical terms, the stages of personality development were thought to occur in the following order: oral, anal, phallic, latency, adolescence, and adult

280. Fifth stage A. Phallic B. Adolescence C. Oral D. Oral E. Adult F. Anal

F. The proximal row of carpal bone is arranged in the following order: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform. The distal row of the carpal bones is arranged in the following order: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.

29. Second (Distal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

A If the stretch reflex is abnormal in only part of the body the related reflexes will be abnormal, as the stretch reflex contributes to muscle tone throughout the body

484. If in an evaluation, the stretch reflex is found to be abnormal in only part of the body, that related reflexes will be a. Abnormal b. Normal c. Asymmetrical d. Symmetrical

E. An antonym is an opposite. The opposite of each is as follows: anterior (ventral), front - posterior (dorsal), back; caudal (inferior), tail - cephalic (cranial, superior), head; dorsal (posterior), back - ventral (anterior), front; proximal (toward) - distal (away), the direction of a limb toward or away from the center of a body; superficial - deep, the relative depth from the surface.

3. Dorsal A. Cephalic B. Distal C. Deep D. Posterior E. Ventral

B. The proximal row of carpal bone is arranged in the following order: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform. The distal row of the carpal bones is arranged in the following order: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.

30. Third (Distal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

B. Stupor is defined as existing when a person is akinetic and mute, but consciousness is relatively preserved, the eyes move, and respiration occurs.

302. A person is akinetic and mute, but consciousness is relatively preserved, the eyes move and respiration occurs. The person is thought to be A. Intoxicated B. In a stupor C. In a dream state D. In a state of amnesia

E. After the last thoracic vertebra, the lumbar enlargement tapers rapidly into the conus medullaris and toward its distal end. The lumbar enlargement begins at the level of the T9 vertebra and corresponds to the origin of nerves that supply the lower limbs. The collection of rootlets and nerves beyond the termination of the cord is called the cauda equina.

34. Conus medullaris A. Origin of the large nerves of the upper limbs B. Rootlets and nerves beyond termination of cord C. Termination of spinal cord D. Origin of nerves that supply lower limbs E. Tapering to a point toward distal end

A. Ischemia is a condition in which the blood supply to a local part of the body is diminished or stopped.

351. Loss of blood supply to a part of the body is termed A. Ischemia B. Anoxia C. Anemia D. Embolism

A. An overactive pituitary that results in enlargement of the hands and feet, a markedly projecting lower jaw, and thick, coarse, furrowed skin is diagnosed as acromegaly.

360. The person with a very large face, protruding lower jaw, abnormally large hands and feet, and thick, coarse, furrowed skin has a condition caused by an overactive pituitary gland and called A. Acromegaly B. Froelich‟s syndrome C. Gigantism D. Simmond‟s disease

D. When the CSF cannot escape the 4th ventricle, it accumulates and distends the ventricles, pressing against the skull. This condition is called hydrocephalus or water on the brain.

361. Hydrocephalus occurs when the intracranial pressure is raise as a result of blockage of the cerebrospinal fluid at the A. First ventricle B. Second ventricle C. Third ventricle D. fourth ventricle

B. A cretin is an individual in whom the thyroid has failed to develop, resulting in an underdeveloped body and brain.

362. Cretinism, a condition in which the person is dwarfed physically and mentally, is due to underactivity of which endocrine gland? A. Pituitary B. Thyroid C. Parathyroid D. Adrenals

C. The tendo calcaneus (tendon of Achilles) is the common tendon of the gastrocnemius and soleus and is the thickest and strongest in the body.

38. The thickest and strongest tendon of the body is the tendon of the A. Iliopsoas B. Biceps brachii C. Gastrocnemius and soleus D. Teres major and latissimus dorsi

C A rating of F (Fair) or 3 is a complete ROM against gravity; with gravity eliminated it is P (Poor) or 2; against gravity with full resistance it is N (Normal) or 5; and with some resistance it is G (Good) or 4

418. In manual muscle testing using a grading scale of 5 to 0 and/or N-Normal to 0-Zero, a rating of F-Fair or 3 is recorded. This rating is a complete ROM a. Against gravity with full resistance b. Against gravity with some resistance c. Against gravity d. With gravity eliminated

B. An antonym is an opposite. The opposite of each is as follows: anterior (ventral), front - posterior (dorsal), back; caudal (inferior), tail - cephalic (cranial, superior), head; dorsal (posterior), back - ventral (anterior), front; proximal (toward) - distal (away), the direction of a limb toward or away from the center of a body; superficial - deep, the relative depth from the surface.

4. Proximal A. Cephalic B. Distal C. Deep D. Posterior E. Ventral

D. 31 pairs of spinal nerves originate from the spinal cord: 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal.

40. How many pairs of spinal nerves originate from the spinal cord? A. 12 B. 24 C. 30 D. 31

A. The cervical region contains the atlantoaxial joint, which accounts for 90% of the movement in the spine. The other joints are interlocked, and their articulate process thus is limited.

42. Rotation of the spine is most free in the A. Cervical region B. lumbar region C. Sacral region D. Coccygeal region

B Passive movement of an extremity is used to evaluate muscle tone.

421. In the evaluation if muscle tone, the resistance a muscle offers to passive stretch, which is used to evaluate muscle tone on an extremity, is a. Active movement b. Passive movement c. Active resistive movement d. Active assistive movement

C. The lumbar vertebrae are the largest segments of the movable part of the vertebral column.

43. The largest movable vertebrae are found in the A. Cervical region B. Thoracic region C. Lumbar region D. Sacral region

C The body-righting activity of a normal child of 6 months to 5 years who is in the supine position with arms and legs extended and the head turned to one side is that the body will rotate around its axis, in the same direction, so that it starts at the shoulder, then the trunk, and then the pelvis.

433. When the child described in question 432 is past 6 months, up to age 4 or 5 years, and is placed in the same position and the therapist uses the same action, what is the result? a. The whole body will smoothly follow the head direction b. The whole body will smoothly follow in the opposite direction c. The body will follow a segmental rotation around the body axis in the same direction d. The body will follow a segmental rotation around the body axis in the opposite direction

C The therapist is testing for cognition, which is made up of some of, but is not limited to, the following: ability to follow simple instructions, ability to carry over learned skills from one day to the next, ability to attend to a task or check on attention span, ability to follow numerous steps in a process, and ability to perform in a logical sequence.

452. The therapist tells a person to do the following: pinch the pinch gauge, lay it down, read the dial, and pick it up. The therapist seems to be testing a. Hand strength b. Range of motion c. Cognition d. Endurance

A. The brachial plexus, as the name implies, supplies the nerves to the upper limb. The plan of the brachial plexus is as follows: roots, trunks, divisions, cords and nerves.

46. Second A. Trunks B. Branches C. Roots D. Cords E. Nerves

B The Gesell Developmental Tests rate mental growth to aid in determining school readiness

460. The Gesell Developmental Tests for age levels 5 to 10 are used by therapist to evaluate a. Developmental growth b. Mental growth for school readiness c. Motor and adaptive skills d. IQ only

E. The brachial plexus, as the name implies, supplies the nerves to the upper limb. The plan of the brachial plexus is as follows: roots, trunks, divisions, cords and nerves.

47. Third A. Trunks B. Branches C. Roots D. Cords E. Nerves

D Vision is evaluated to determine if the eyes follow an object and lead the movement of the head.

470. Assessment of motor function is necessary before treatment goals can be formulated and procedures and techniques selected. A sensory evaluation in the area of vision is made by the therapist to determine if the a. Person has a normal range of motion b. Eyes are infected and/or if the person needs glasses c. Eyes move in all directions and the hands reach out d. Eyes follow an object and lead the head in that direction

A The palmar pinch is measured by pinching the meter between the pad of the thumb and the pads of the index and middle fingers.

472. Which describes the palmar pinch? a. The person pinches the meter between the pad of the thumb and the pads of the index and middle fingers b. The person pinches the meter between the pads of the thumb and the pads of the palmar surface of the hand c. The person pinches the meter between the pad of the thumb and the palmar surface of the index finger d. The person pinches the meter between the palmar surface of the thumb and the pad of the index finger

A When an infant is sleeping, muscle tone falls so low as to approach flaccidity. An experienced therapist can assess the infant simply by looking at the infant's postures. A normal infant will have no single position dominating.

487. Resting postures are basically a reflection on the background muscle tone present in an infant at rest. An experienced therapist can assess muscle tone by a. looking at an infant's postures b. picking up the sleeping infant and recording its reactions c. recording reactions upon waling the infant d. rolling the infant over, holding the head in midline

C. An antonym is an opposite. The opposite of each is as follows: anterior (ventral), front - posterior (dorsal), back; caudal (inferior), tail - cephalic (cranial, superior), head; dorsal (posterior), back - ventral (anterior), front; proximal (toward) - distal (away), the direction of a limb toward or away from the center of a body; superficial - deep, the relative depth from the surface.

5. Superficial A. Cephalic B. Distal C. Deep D. Posterior E. Ventral

B. (F.) Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

50. Pectoralis major A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

C Activities will enable change to take place if they are based upon systematically organized and administered principles derived from a methodical treatment approach based on a theoretical rationale or empirical evidence.

515. In planning activities to enable change to occur the therapist should remember the activities must be systematically organized and administered according to principles derived from A. The concept "if it works use it" B. The concept that "what works for one will work for another" C. An approach based on a theoretical rationale D. An approach based on data provided by your school

D The AOTF was founded in 1965.

705. ATOA history includes the formation of the American Occupational Therapy Foundation (AOTF). In which year was it founded? A. 1931 B. 1948 C.1959 D. 1965

D The budget is a management tool. Through it the OT manager/director has the ability to establish programs by obtaining financial support.

769. One of the management tools used by an occupational therapy director to establish programs is A. Staff attitudes and concerns B. Staff consensus C. Current trends in treatment D. Budget

B It is possible to probe in greater depth the meaning of activities and their worth to a person by using an exploratory tool such as an activity inventory, which will produce a chronological listing of specific activities that have helped form a pattern of the individual's everyday life.

516. In planning activities for a patient the therapist should A. Use an intuitive approach based upon years of experience B. Use or develop and activity inventory showing a chronological listing of the person's past activities C. Shy away from past experience because the person's current level is where to start D. Try the person out on a number of different activities to see which ones seem to work best

A. (D.) These muscles or combinations of muscles are the only ones involved in the motion of the forearm. Each delivers its force to accomplish its given task relative to the force of gravity or other neutralizing forces, preventing normal function.

83.Biceps brachii A. Flexion B. Extension C. Pronation D. Supination

C Another principle of planning is to schedule activities with sufficient frequency of repetition and duration to ensure integration of learning

520. In planning, the therapist should schedule activities so that there is sufficient frequency of repetition and duration to A. Have the person feel secure and comfortable in the service area B. Have the person become familiar with routine C. Ensure an integration of learning D. Assure the person, family, and physician that everything planned will be accomplished

H. Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

53. Supraspinatus A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Organization and completion of unfinished business 5. Depression 6. Acceptance B Kubler-Ross believes there are 6 stages of death and dying, beginning with denial and, all things being equal, ending with acceptance.

537. Coping techniques and stages associated with death and dying process: Kubler-Ross

B Detachable arms are necessary for depression or sliding transfers.

552. The detachable arms are most necessary for A. Ease to get up to a desk or table B. A depression transfer C. Easy mobility on the chair D.A lift transfer

D A person with a diagnosis of quadriplegia in whom the injury occurred at the C6 level of below is considered a potential candidate for driver training.

558. A person who has suffered an injury resulting in quadriplegia and wishes to be a potential candidate for driver training will do better, on the average, if the injury is at the A. C3 level and below B. C4 level and below C.C5 level and below D.C6 level and below

D Organic brain syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that can be classified as one of 2 basic types: (1) acute or reversible and (2) chronic or irreversible.

564. Organic brain syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that reflects brain cell loss or impairment of brain tissue function. In planning to work with this group of people, the therapist should know that basic type(s) that will be encountered is A.A mixed group with other diagnoses B. A chronic group C.An acute group D. An acute group and a chronic group

B Understanding the client's goals is the first priority in any therapeutic setting. Therapists should be cognizant of the client's grasp of reality.

572. In planning a person's goals in the treatment process, the therapist should know that understanding the client's goals is to be A. Taken into consideration in the overall goals B. The first priority in any treatment setting C. Taken into consideration in view of the therapist's ability D. Taken into consideration in view of the department's facilities

D When treatment objectives have been planned, the most difficult step in the process is knowing that the treatment methods will help the client achieve the objectives.

578. In the treatment planning process the most difficult step is A. Development of the treatment objectives B. Gathering the necessary data about the person C. Determining if occupational therapy can be employed D. Making the assumption that the treatment methods will meet the objectives

B Spasticity is usually evaluated by estimating the degree of resistance to passive movement of a given muscle group or pattern of movement. There is no standardized method of evaluating muscle tone with absolute objectivity.

584. In planning treatment for a person with spasticity, the therapist should know that A. A standardized method exists for evaluation of muscle tone B. No standardized method exists for evaluation of muscle tone C. Evaluation of muscle tone falls in an average category D. Evaluation of muscle tone can largely be ignored

A Rigidity is an increase in tone of agonistic and antagonistic muscles simultaneously; both groups contract steadily, resulting in an increased resistance to passive movement in any direction throughout the ROM.

585. In planning treatment for a person with rigidity, the therapist should know that evaluation of the ROM will show that A. The agonistic and antagonistic muscle groups contract steadily B. The agonistic and antagonistic muscle groups work with a "clasp-knife" phenomenon C. The agonistic muscle group works with a jerk immediately followed by the jerk of the antagonistic group D. Co-contraction of the agonistic and antagonistic muscle groups is weak or absent.

C It is important, at the onset of planning a program under the MOHO, for a therapist to examine his/her own perspective of people with chronic disabilities. All clinicians are in danger of becoming preoccupied with pathology, and the child, being vulnerable, could absorb this pathology-centered attitude as his/her own.

599. In planning a program using the model of human occupation, the therapist must examine which of the following perspectives in order to prevent becoming preoccupied with the pathology of the child? A. The parents' or family's view of chronicity B. The child's view of his or her won chronicity C. His or her own view of chronicity D. The team's overall view of chronicity

C. The sagittal, anteroposterior, or median plane is a vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into right and left halves. The horizontal or transverse plane is a horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves. The frontal, lateral, or coronal plane is a vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves.

6. Sagittal A. A horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves B. A vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into front and back halves C. A vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into left and right halves

G. Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

60. Flexor carpi ulnaris A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

A. The following nerves have their first roots in the cervical or thoracic nerves indicated: phrenic nerve, C5; axillary, C5; musculocutaneous, C5; median, C6; ulnar, C8; radial, C5.

63.Musculocutaneous A. Cervical nerve 5 B. Cervical nerve 6 C. Cervical nerve 7 D. Cervical nerve 8 E. Thoracic nerve 1

B The therapist should be aware that static splints can cause swelling and edema. Prolonged static splinting can cause immobility of joints.

669. With respect to the use of splints, the therapist should indicate to the student the precautions that should be taken. One complication to watch for is edema. Another problem that arises with prolonged use of a static splint is that A. Splints get dirty and need to be cleaned B. A joint may become immobile C. Different parts of the splint may move out of alignment D. Prolonged pressure on the plastic will cause splitting

B At the present time, it appears that the primary sensory ending of the neuromuscular spindle is highly sensitive to vibration, which is why vibrators are used in treatment.

677. Vibration is used in treatment when the therapist wishes to A. Dampen or enhance the vestibulocochlear system B. Stimulate the sensory ending of the neuromuscular spindle C. Improve sensory response and increase motor function of flaccid muscles D. Stimulate individual muscle responses

A The connections and pathways of the vestibulocochlear system are many and intricate. Stimulation of either the vestibular or cochlear system will enhance the other. Basically any movement done slowly and repeatedly will dampen the system, while rapid movement will enhance it

678. Vestibular therapy is used in treatment when the therapist wishes to A. Dampen or enhance the vestibulocochlear system B. Stimulate the sensory ending of the neuromuscular spindle C. Improve sensory response and increase motor function of flaccid muscles D. Stimulate individual muscle responses

B Although OTs may treat people who have had severe burns upon emergency admission, later in therapy ROM and MMT of the burn site may be too painful. However, the therapist can evaluate unaffected body segments as a comparison and develop an information base for further treatment when the area heals.

686. Occupational therapy for person with burns may often start in the emergency room. Later in treatment the therapist may not do a ROM or muscle test on the burn site areas. Why would a ROM and muscle test be done on the unaffected body segments? A. To prevent contractures and deformity B. To develop an information base C. To develop rapport with the person during this period D. To do planning as part of ongoing therapy

B In normal development, scapula adduction reinforces back extension and stability. It is normal in 4- and 6-month-old infants in a prone suspension. If this action does not occur, primitive and abnormal development may result.

692. A therapist working with an infant just past 5 months is attempting to develop back extension and stability to reinforce sitting, standing, and walking. Which action would most likely be strengthened? A. Scapula elevation B. Scapula adduction C. Scapula abduction D. Scapula depression

B. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

70.Rhomboideus minor A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

B The NSPOT was founded in 1917.

700. The American occupational therapy association (AOTA) was formerly the National Society for the promotion of occupational therapy, Inc. In which year was the society founded? A. 1914 B. 1917 C.1920 D.1923

C. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

71.Pectoralis major A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

A. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

72.Pectoralis minor A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

A The executive director has, among other duties, management of the operations of the national office.

720. The executive director of the AOTA A. Manages the operations of the national office B. Is the manager of the representative assembly C. Is the chief executive officer of the association D. Discharges presidential duties in the absence of the president

A Research in OT is in its infancy.

739. Research in occupational therapy is A. In its infancy B. Well established C. Done only in conjunction with other disciplines D. Not necessary

F. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

76.Infraspinatus A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

C In most cases the format of the records to be kept is outlined by regulations such as laws or policies in and for the institution.

760. In most cases the format for record keeping is A. Outlined by the occupational therapy manager B. Agreed upon by consensus in the occupational therapy department C. Outlined by regulations for and by the institution D. Agreed upon by the top manager of the institution

D All records should include objective facts, augmented but not replaced by subjective feelings that should be based upon objective facts.

761. Record keeping should above all else A. Include mainly subjective feelings B. Contain mainly objective facts C. Contain some objective feelings and some objective facts D. Include objective factors and subjective feelings based on objective facts

A In record keeping, facts that can be measured should be used to the maximum extent possible.

762. In record keeping the most desirable practice is to A. Use facts that can be measured to the maximum B. Use any fact as long as the information is covered C. Utilize any information heard, seen, or experienced D. Utilize only the data heard, seen or experienced

A The problem with the systems approach is that it lacks clarity. Its framework is built on communication, which breaks down, there is a constant need for arbitration of conflicts between various members of the agency, and it demands absolute clarity of objectives. Objectives for each individual must be derived from the objectives as a whole.

766. A problem of the system's approach is that it A. Lacks clarity B. Seems so clear that no one believes it will work C. Often goes counter to the agency's general system D. Is only a theory

A Staffing pattern and staff ratios will depend on the nature of the patient population. Budgets must be developed to meet these ratios.

794.An occupational therapy manager in establishing staffing patterns and ratios of staff to patients will depend mainly on the A. Nature of the patient population and organizational structure of the center B. Standard ratios of other comparable departments in a center C. Established budget set by the center D. Standard ratio set by the AOTA

B Ideally, nonsupervisory staff should spend 60% of their time in direct patient care and approximately 40% in support services. These percentages will depend on many factors: the manager, the supervisor, the center, and the need for patient services.

795.A manager in establishing particular roles and duties assigned to staff as well as considering other unique factors in a given center will influence how staffing ratios are set. Ideally, nonsupervisory staff should spend what percent of their time in direct patient care and what percent in support service? A. 50%-50% B. 60%-40% C. 70%-30% D. 80%-20%

A. (C.) These muscles or combinations of muscles are the only ones involved in the motion of the forearm. Each delivers its force to accomplish its given task relative to the force of gravity or other neutralizing forces, preventing normal function.

80.Pronator teres A. Flexion B. Extension C. Pronation D. Supination

D Too often a manager in planning development or redirecting a program addresses what changes must be made rather than what the program model should look like in the future.

800.A manager in a new system who wishes to do program planning and development will first address A. What changes must be made B. Who the people available to make changes are C. Why the changes are necessary D. What the service system look like

A. These muscles or combinations of muscles are the only ones involved in the motion of the forearm. Each delivers its force to accomplish its given task relative to the force of gravity or other neutralizing forces, preventing normal function.

81.Brachialis A. Flexion B. Extension C. Pronation D. Supination

C. The axillary nerve is the last branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

87. Which cords of the brachial plexus are formed by the axillary nerve branches? A. Medial B. Lateral C. Posterior D. Anterior

A. The sagittal, anteroposterior, or median plane is a vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into right and left halves. The horizontal or transverse plane is a horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves. The frontal, lateral, or coronal plane is a vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves.

9. Horizontal A. A horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves B. A vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into front and back halves C. A vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into left and right halves

C. The atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) splits into 2 branches. The right bundle branch continues and breaks up into small bundles of what are called the terminal conducting fibers or Purkinje fibers.

91.The purkinje fibers of the heart are the terminal fibers of the A. Pacemaker B. Sinoatrial node C. Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) D. Tricuspid valve

C. The common bile duct of the liver is formed by the junction of the hepatic and cystic ducts.

93. The common bile duct is formed by the union of the A. Pancreatic and cystic ducts B. Accessory pancreatic and pancreatic ducts C. Hepatic and cystic ducts D. Accessory pancreatic and hepatic ducts

C. The erector spinae muscle commences as a large mass in the lumbosacral region and divides into 3 branches: the iliocostalis, the longissimus, and the spinalis.

95. The iliocostalis, longissimus and spinalis are branches of a muscle called the A. Erector costalis B. Semispinalis C. Erector spinae D. Splenius

D A growth group is used to increase a member's sensitivity to self and to others

Questions 443-446: In the evaluation of people with psychosocial dysfunction different group goals may be accomplished depending upon the type of group model used. Match the type of group with the group goals suggested below: 446. Group goal attempting to increase a members sensitivity to self and to others. A. Active group B. Intrapsychic group C. Social systems group D. Growth group

A. The cervical vertebrae are the smallest of the true vertebrae and can be distinguished by the presence of a foramen in each transverse process.

44. The vertebrae that can be distinguished by a foramen in each transverse process are the A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Lumbar D. Sacral

B. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

77.Levator Scapulae A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

D. The radial nerve is the largest branch of the brachial plexus.

86. The largest branch of the brachial plexus is the A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve C. Axillary nerve D. Radial nerve

B. The sagittal, anteroposterior, or median plane is a vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into right and left halves. The horizontal or transverse plane is a horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves. The frontal, lateral, or coronal plane is a vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves.

10. Frontal A. A horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves B. A vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into front and back halves C. A vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into left and right halves

11. Anteroposterior A. A horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves B. A vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into front and back halves C. A vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into left and right halves

B. The coronal suture, nearly transverse in direction, is located between the frontal and parietal bones. The sagittal suture, placed in the midline, is located between the 2 parietal bones. The lambdoidal suture is located between the parietal and occipital bones. The squamosal arches posteriorly from the pterion and lies between the temporal squama and the inferior borders of the parietal bones.

12. Coronal A. Between the parietal and occipital bones B. Between the frontal and parietal bones C. Between the two parietal bones D. Between the parietal and temporal bone

C. The coronal suture, nearly transverse in direction, is located between the frontal and parietal bones. The sagittal suture, placed in the midline, is located between the 2 parietal bones. The lambdoidal suture is located between the parietal and occipital bones. The squamosal arches posteriorly from the pterion and lies between the temporal squama and the inferior borders of the parietal bones.

13. Sagittal A. Between the parietal and occipital bones B. Between the frontal and parietal bones C. Between the two parietal bones D. Between the parietal and temporal bone

D. The coronal suture, nearly transverse in direction, is located between the frontal and parietal bones. The sagittal suture, placed in the midline, is located between the 2 parietal bones. The lambdoidal suture is located between the parietal and occipital bones. The squamosal arches posteriorly from the pterion and lies between the temporal squama and the inferior borders of the parietal bones.

15. Squamosal A. Between the parietal and occipital bones B. Between the frontal and parietal bones C. Between the two parietal bones D. Between the parietal and temporal bone

D. A nonaxial or irregular joint is irregularly shaped, allowing movement only of a singular gliding nature (nonaxial). A uniaxial joint has a spoollike (concave) surface, which allows only a hinge-type movement about a single (or uni-) axis of motion. A biaxial joint has an ovalm convex surface that fits into a reciprocally shaped concave surface. This allows forward and backward motion but also some side-to-side action. When these movements are performed sequentially they constitute circumduction. In the triaxial joint a spherical head of one bone fits in a cup- or saucer-like cavity of the other bone, allowing for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, horizontal flexion, and extension and rotation.

16. Ball-and-socket A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

A. A nonaxial or irregular joint is irregularly shaped, allowing movement only of a singular gliding nature (nonaxial). A uniaxial joint has a spoollike (concave) surface, which allows only a hinge-type movement about a single (or uni-) axis of motion. A biaxial joint has an ovalm convex surface that fits into a reciprocally shaped concave surface. This allows forward and backward motion but also some side-to-side action. When these movements are performed sequentially they constitute circumduction. In the triaxial joint a spherical head of one bone fits in a cup- or saucer-like cavity of the other bone, allowing for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, horizontal flexion, and extension and rotation.

17. Arthrodial A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

18. Hinge A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

19. Pivot A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

20. Ginglymus A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

C. A nonaxial or irregular joint is irregularly shaped, allowing movement only of a singular gliding nature (nonaxial). A uniaxial joint has a spoollike (concave) surface, which allows only a hinge-type movement about a single (or uni-) axis of motion. A biaxial joint has an ovalm convex surface that fits into a reciprocally shaped concave surface. This allows forward and backward motion but also some side-to-side action. When these movements are performed sequentially they constitute circumduction. In the triaxial joint a spherical head of one bone fits in a cup- or saucer-like cavity of the other bone, allowing for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, horizontal flexion, and extension and rotation.

21. Condyloid A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

23. Enarthrodial A. Nonaxial B. Uniaxial C. Biaxial D. Triaxial

C. The proximal row of carpal bone is arranged in the following order: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform. The distal row of the carpal bones is arranged in the following order: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.

24. First (Proximal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

A. The proximal row of carpal bone is arranged in the following order: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform. The distal row of the carpal bones is arranged in the following order: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.

25. Second (Proximal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

G. The proximal row of carpal bone is arranged in the following order: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform. The distal row of the carpal bones is arranged in the following order: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.

26. Third (Proximal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

E. The proximal row of carpal bone is arranged in the following order: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform. The distal row of the carpal bones is arranged in the following order: trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate.

28. First (Distal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

31. Fourth (Distal Row) A. Lunate B. Capitate C. Scaphoid (Navicular) D. Pisiform E. Trapezium (greater multi-angular) F. Trapezoid (lesser multi-angular) G. Triquetrum (triangular) H. Hamate

C. The filum terminale continues down the vertebral canal to the first segment of the coccyx. The cervical enlargement extends from the cervical to the T2 vertebra; it corresponds to the origin of the large nerves that supply the upper limbs. After the last thoracic vertebra, the lumbar enlargement tapers rapidly into the conus medullaris and toward its distal end. The lumbar enlargement begins at the level of the T9 vertebra and corresponds to the origin of nerves that supply the lower limbs. The collection of rootlets and nerves beyond the termination of the cord is called the cauda equina.

32. Filum terminale A. Origin of the large nerves of the upper limbs B. Rootlets and nerves beyond termination of cord C. Termination of spinal cord D. Origin of nerves that supply lower limbs E. Tapering to a point toward distal end

A. The cervical enlargement extends from the cervical to the T2 vertebra; it corresponds to the origin of the large nerves that supply the upper limbs. After the last thoracic vertebra, the lumbar enlargement tapers rapidly into the conus medullaris and toward its distal end. The lumbar enlargement begins at the level of the T9 vertebra and corresponds to the origin of nerves that supply the lower limbs. The collection of rootlets and nerves beyond the termination of the cord is called the cauda equina.

33. Cervical enlargement A. Origin of the large nerves of the upper limbs B. Rootlets and nerves beyond termination of cord C. Termination of spinal cord D. Origin of nerves that supply lower limbs E. Tapering to a point toward distal end

D. The filum terminale continues down the vertebral canal to the first segment of the coccyx. The cervical enlargement extends from the cervical to the T2 vertebra; it corresponds to the origin of the large nerves that supply the upper limbs. After the last thoracic vertebra, the lumbar enlargement tapers rapidly into the conus medullaris and toward its distal end. The lumbar enlargement begins at the level of the T9 vertebra and corresponds to the origin of nerves that supply the lower limbs. The collection of rootlets and nerves beyond the termination of the cord is called the cauda equina.

35. Lumbar enlargement A. Origin of the large nerves of the upper limbs B. Rootlets and nerves beyond termination of cord C. Termination of spinal cord D. Origin of nerves that supply lower limbs E. Tapering to a point toward distal end

B. The filum terminale continues down the vertebral canal to the first segment of the coccyx. The cervical enlargement extends from the cervical to the T2 vertebra; it corresponds to the origin of the large nerves that supply the upper limbs. After the last thoracic vertebra, the lumbar enlargement tapers rapidly into the conus medullaris and toward its distal end. The lumbar enlargement begins at the level of the T9 vertebra and corresponds to the origin of nerves that supply the lower limbs. The collection of rootlets and nerves beyond the termination of the cord is called the cauda equina.

36. Cauda Equina A. Origin of the large nerves of the upper limbs B. Rootlets and nerves beyond termination of cord C. Termination of spinal cord D. Origin of nerves that supply lower limbs E. Tapering to a point toward distal end

B. The concentration of connective tissue that envelops the entire muscle is known as the epimysium.

37. The connective tissue that covers the entire muscle is the A. Perimysium B. Epimysium C. Endomysium D. Muscle Fiber

A. The curvature at this level (thoracic) is a kyphosis. Other curvatures at different levels have different names.

39. An increase in the anterior curvature of the vertebral column in the thoracic region results in A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Scoliosis D. Spondylolysis

C. The thoracic and sacrococcygeal curves are called primary because they exist before birth; the cervical and lumbar curves develop during infancy and early childhood.

41. The primary curves of the spine are A. Cervical and lumbar B. Sacrococcygeal and lumbar C. Thoracic and sacrococcygeal D. Thoracic and lumbar E. Convex anteriorly

C. The brachial plexus, as the name implies, supplies the nerves to the upper limb. The plan of the brachial plexus is as follows: roots, trunks, divisions, cords and nerves.

45. First A. Trunks B. Branches C. Roots D. Cords E. Nerves

D. The brachial plexus, as the name implies, supplies the nerves to the upper limb. The plan of the brachial plexus is as follows: roots, trunks, divisions, cords and nerves.

48. Fourth A. Trunks B. Branches C. Roots D. Cords E. Nerves

B. The brachial plexus, as the name implies, supplies the nerves to the upper limb. The plan of the brachial plexus is as follows: roots, trunks, divisions, cords and nerves.

49. Fifth A. Trunks B. Branches C. Roots D. Cords E. Nerves

F. Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

51. Pectoralis minor A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

D. Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

52. Deltoideus A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

54. Teres minor A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

E. Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

55. Corachobrachialis A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

C. Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

56. Triceps brachii A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

57. Biceps brachii A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

58. Extensor pollicis brevis A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

A. Anatomically and physiologically these muscles are innervated by the following nerve fibers: pectoralis major, lateral pectoral and medial pectoral; pectoralis minor, medial pectoral; deltoideus, axillary; supraspinatus, suprascapular; teres minor, axillary; coracobrachialis, musculocutaneous; triceps brachii, radial; biceps brachii, musculocutaneous; EPB, radial; FCR, median; FCU, ulnar.

59. Flexor carpi radialis A. Median B. Lateral Pectoral C. Radial D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous F. Medial Pectoral G. Ulnar H. Suprascapular

A. The following nerves have their first roots in the cervical or thoracic nerves indicated: phrenic nerve, C5; axillary, C5; musculocutaneous, C5; median, C6; ulnar, C8; radial, C5.

61.Phrenic nerve A. Cervical nerve 5 B. Cervical nerve 6 C. Cervical nerve 7 D. Cervical nerve 8 E. Thoracic nerve 1

A. The following nerves have their first roots in the cervical or thoracic nerves indicated: phrenic nerve, C5; axillary, C5; musculocutaneous, C5; median, C6; ulnar, C8; radial, C5.

62.Axillary A. Cervical nerve 5 B. Cervical nerve 6 C. Cervical nerve 7 D. Cervical nerve 8 E. Thoracic nerve 1

B. The following nerves have their first roots in the cervical or thoracic nerves indicated: phrenic nerve, C5; axillary, C5; musculocutaneous, C5; median, C6; ulnar, C8; radial, C5.

64.Median A. Cervical nerve 5 B. Cervical nerve 6 C. Cervical nerve 7 D. Cervical nerve 8 E. Thoracic nerve 1

D. The following nerves have their first roots in the cervical or thoracic nerves indicated: phrenic nerve, C5; axillary, C5; musculocutaneous, C5; median, C6; ulnar, C8; radial, C5.

65.Ulnar A. Cervical nerve 5 B. Cervical nerve 6 C. Cervical nerve 7 D. Cervical nerve 8 E. Thoracic nerve 1

A. The following nerves have their first roots in the cervical or thoracic nerves indicated: phrenic nerve, C5; axillary, C5; musculocutaneous, C5; median, C6; ulnar, C8; radial, C5.

66.Radial A. Cervical nerve 5 B. Cervical nerve 6 C. Cervical nerve 7 D. Cervical nerve 8 E. Thoracic nerve 1

E. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

67.Trapezius A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

C. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

68.Latissimus dorsi A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

B. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

69.Rhomboideus major A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

7. Transverse A. A horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves B. A vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into front and back halves C. A vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into left and right halves

B. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

73.Serratus anterior A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

D. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

74.Deltoideus A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

F. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

75.Supraspinatus A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

C. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

78.Teres major A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

F. These muscles insert at these areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

79.Teres minor A. Coracoid process of scapula B. Vertebral border of scapula C. Bicipital groove of humerus D. Deltoid tuberosity of humerus E. Lateral third of clavicle, spine of scapula, acromion F. Greater tuberosity of humerus

8. Coronal A. A horizontal plane that passes through the body, dividing it into upper and lower halves B. A vertical plane that passes through the body from side to side, dividing it into front and back halves C. A vertical plane that passes through the body from front to back, dividing it into left and right halves

D. These muscles or combinations of muscles are the only ones involved in the motion of the forearm. Each delivers its force to accomplish its given task relative to the force of gravity or other neutralizing forces, preventing normal function.

82.Supinator A. Flexion B. Extension C. Pronation D. Supination

B. These muscles or combinations of muscles are the only ones involved in the motion of the forearm. Each delivers its force to accomplish its given task relative to the force of gravity or other neutralizing forces, preventing normal function.

84.Anconeus A. Flexion B. Extension C. Pronation D. Supination

85. Triceps brachii A. Flexion B. Extension C. Pronation D. Supination

A. The musculocutaneous nerve is one of the 2 branches formed when the lateral cord of the brachial plexus splits into 2 branches; the other branch is the median nerve.

88. The musculocutaneous nerve and part of the median nerve are the branches of the A. Lateral cord of the brachial plexus B. Medial cord of the brachial plexus C. Posterior cord of the brachial plexus D. Anterior cord of the brachial plexus

C. Because of the wide origin of the trapezius its full contraction will only pull the shoulders back, contraction of parts of the trapezius will result in other actions.

96. Contraction of the entire trapezius will cause A. Depression of the scapula B. Flexion of the neck toward the same side C. Retraction of the shoulder girdle D. Rotation of the scapula

A. One of the 3 prime flexors of the wrist joint is the flexor carpi ulnaris, which will not flex the wrist or abduct it toward the ulnar side.

98. The movement that is performed at the wrist by the flexor carpi ulnaris is A. Flexion B. Extension C. Adduction (ulnar deviation) D. Abduction (ulnar deviation)

B. The multipenniform arrangement of the bundles making up the middle portion of the deltoid gives it a potential for great strength and makes it a powerful abductor of the humerus

99.Abduction of the humerus is accomplished primarily by the A. Anterior deltoid B. Middle deltoid C. Posterior deltoid D. Pectoralis major

B Chorea or choreoid movements are rapid, jerky, irregular movements involving primarily the face and distal extremities.

(In implementing treatment for persons with basal ganglia lesions or disease the therapist notices that conditions listed (lettered). Match the condition with its description.) 606. The person demonstrates rapid, jerky, irregular movements, involving primarily the face and distal extremities. A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Tremor

D Nonintention or resting tremor occurs when muscles are at rest and disappears temporarily with voluntary activity.

(In implementing treatment for persons with basal ganglia lesions or disease the therapist notices that conditions listed (lettered). Match the condition with its description.) 607. When the person is at rest, rapid movement begins; but when the person works at an activity, the excessive movements disappear. A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Tremor

A Athethosis or athetoid movements are slow, writhing, twisting, and wormlike movements, involving particularly the neck, face, and extremities.

(In implementing treatment for persons with basal ganglia lesions or disease the therapist notices that conditions listed (lettered). Match the condition with its description.) 608. Movement about the neck, face, and extremities is characterized as slow, writing, twisting, and wormlike. A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Tremor

C Dystonia (a form of athetosis) occurs when increased muscle tone causes distorted postures of the trunk and extremities

(In implementing treatment for persons with basal ganglia lesions or disease the therapist notices that conditions listed (lettered). Match the condition with its description.) 609. A person demonstrates a distorted posture of the trunk and extremities. A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Dystonia D. Tremor

F. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

108. Greater sciatic notch A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

A. The 3 scalenes originate at and run diagonally upward from the sides of the 2 upper ribs to the transverse process of the cervical vertebrae.

136. The three scalenes originate on A. The first two ribs B. Transverse processes of cervical vertebrae C. The second and third ribs D. Spinous processes of cervical vertebrae

D. The muscles known as the prevertebral muscles are the longus colli, the longus capitis, and the rectus capitis, anterior and lateral. The right and left muscles acting together flex the head and neck. Acting separately, they flex the head and neck laterally or rotate it to the opposite side

137. The muscles longus capitus, longus colli, rectus capitis anterior, and rectus capitis lateralis are collectively known as the A. Strap muscles B. Suboccipitals C. Abdominal muscles D. Prevertebral muscles

D. The cribriform plate is received into the ethmoid notch of the ethmoid bone.

138. On which bone is a cribriform plate located? A. Sphenoid B. Palatine C. Nasal D. Ethmoid

C. The inferior extensor retinaculum is a Y-shaped band placed anterior to the ankle joint.

139. The Y-shaped band at the front of the ankle joint is the A. Superior extensor retinaculum (transverse crural ligament) B. Lateral crural ligament C. Inferior extensor retinaculum (cruciate crural ligament) D. Flexor retinaculum (laciniate ligament)

C. In psychoanalytical terms, the stages of personality development were thought to occur in the following order: oral, anal, phallic, latency, adolescence, and adult

276. First stage A. Phallic B. Adolescence C. Oral D. Oral E. Adult F. Anal

F. In psychoanalytical terms, the stages of personality development were thought to occur in the following order: oral, anal, phallic, latency, adolescence, and adult

277. Second stage A. Phallic B. Adolescence C. Oral D. Oral E. Adult F. Anal

A. In psychoanalytical terms, the stages of personality development were thought to occur in the following order: oral, anal, phallic, latency, adolescence, and adult

278. Third stage A. Phallic B. Adolescence C. Oral D. Oral E. Adult F. Anal

B. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

183. Pronator quadratus A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

E. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

184. Extensor digitorum (communis) A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

A. The coronal suture, nearly transverse in direction, is located between the frontal and parietal bones. The sagittal suture, placed in the midline, is located between the 2 parietal bones. The lambdoidal suture is located between the parietal and occipital bones. The squamosal arches posteriorly from the pterion and lies between the temporal squama and the inferior borders of the parietal bones.

14. Lamboidal A. Between the parietal and occipital bones B. Between the frontal and parietal bones C. Between the two parietal bones D. Between the parietal and temporal bone

D. A neutralizer is a muscle that acts to prevent an undesired action of one of the movers. Thus, if a muscle both flexes and abducts but only flexion is desired in the movement, an adduction contracts to neutralize the abductory action of the mover.

140. A muscle that acts to prevent an undesired action of another muscle is A. A prime mover B. An antagonist C. A synergist D. A neutralizer

D. In psychoanalytical terms, the stages of personality development were thought to occur in the following order: oral, anal, phallic, latency, adolescence, and adult

279. Fourth stage A. Phallic B. Adolescence C. Oral D. Oral E. Adult F. Anal

C. The following people, humanitarians of the mentally ill, worked in the countries indicated: Chiaruggi, Italy; Philippe Pinel, France; Daniel Tuke, England; Dorothea Dix, United States.

262. Dix A. England B. France C. United states D. Italy E. Spain

A. The transverse carpal ligament is a thick fibrous band on the palmar surface of the carpal bones, forming a tunnel through which the long flexor tendons and the median nerve pass.

141. The thick fibrous band on the palmar surface of the carpal bones that forms a tunnel for the long flexor tendons and the median nerve is the A. Transverse carpal ligament B. Palmar carpal ligament C. Dorsal carpal ligament D. Lateral crural ligament

J. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

107. Second largest bone in the skeleton A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

D. The infraspinatus muscle and the teres major acting as one combined muscle have 2 functions: to cause the humerus to have outward rotation and to aid in holding the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa.

100. Outward (external) rotation of the humerus is caused by the A. Anterior deltoid B. Middle deltoid C. Posterior deltoid D. Infraspinatus

A. Although the heart moves freely and is not attached to the surrounding organs, it is maintained in its proper position, in the thorax, by an enclosing membranous sac called the pericardium.

102. The enclosing membrane sac that aids the heart in maintaining proper position in the thorax is the A. Pericardium B. Endocardium C. Epicardium D. Mesocardium

B. The palmar aponeurosis is made up of 2 components: a thick superficial stratum of longitudinal bundles, which are the direct continuation of the tendon palmaris longus, and a thinner deep stratum continuous with the palmar carpal ligament.

106. The superficial component of the palmar aponeurosis is a continuation of the A. Transverse carpal ligament B. Tendon of the palmaris longus C. Palmar carpal ligament D. Dorsal carpal ligament

I. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

122. Rectus femoris A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

I. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

109. Largest of the tarsal bones A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

H. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

110. Supports the tibia above it A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

A. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

111. Iliac spine A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

C. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

112. Fovea capitis femoris A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

G. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

113. Anterior part of the innominate bone A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

B. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

114. Sesamoid bone A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

B. The cerebral arteries originate from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which at the base of the brain form a remarkable anastomosis known as the arterial circle of Willis.

133. The circle of Willis is an anastomosis of the A. Internal carotid and external carotid arteries B. Internal carotid and vertebral arteries C. External carotid and innominate arteries D. Internal carotid and innominate arteries

D. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

115. Linea aspera A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

E. The tibia, situated at the medial side of the leg, is the 2nd longest bone of the skeleton. The greater sciatic notch is a part of the bone called the ischium. The calcaneus is the largest of the tarsal bones of the foot. The talus is the 2nd largest of the tarsal bones and occupies the proximal part of the torsus, supporting the tibia which is above it anatomically. The iliac spine is located in a part of the hip bone called the ilium. An ovoid depression on the head of the femur is called the fovea capitis femoris. The hip bone, or innominate bone, has as its anterior portion a section called the pubis. The patella, usually regarded as the sesamoid, is also called the knee cap. The linea aspera, the posterior border of the shaft, is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the femur bone. The distal portion of the fibula forms the lateral part of the ankle joint.

116. Forms lateral part of the ankle joint A. Ilium B. Patella C. Femoral head D. Femoral shaft E. Fibula F. Ischium G. Pubis H. Talus I. Calcaneus J. Tibia

C. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

117. Tensor fasciae latae A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

J. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

118. Psoas major A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

119. Sartorius A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

F. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

120. Gracilis A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

G. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

121. Gluteus maximus A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

C. Dupuytren's contracture operates at the distal end of the metacarpals and palmar ligaments and around the fibrous sheaths of the long flexor tendons. Thus, contractures in this area lead to flexion of the digits and nothing else.

134. Dupuytren‟s contracture will result in A. Marked flexion of the elbow B. Marked extension of the wrist C. Marked flexion of the digits D. Marked flexion of the wrist

D. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

123. Semitendinosus A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

124. Adductor brevis A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

125. Gluteus medius A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

126. Gastrocnemius A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

E. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

127. Flexor digitorum longus A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

128. Tibialis anterior A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

B. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

129. Popliteus A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

130.Peroneus brevis A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

H. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

A. Anatomically and physiologically, these muscles are innervated by these nerves as follows: tensor fasciae latae - deep peroneal; psoas major - 2nd and 3rd lumbar; sartorius - femoral; gracilis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus maximus - inferior gluteal; rectus femoris - femoral; semitendinosus - sciatic; adductor brevis - ant. branch of obturator; gluteus medius - superior gluteal; gastrocnemius - tibial; flexor digitorum longus - tibial; tibialis anterior - deep peroneal; popliteus - tibial; peroneus brevis - superficial peroneal; extensor digitorum brevis - deep peroneal; flexor digitorum brevis - medial plantar.

132.Flexor digitorum brevis A. Medial plantar B. Tibial C. Superior gluteal D. Sciatic E. Deep peroneal F. Anterior branch of obturator G. Inferior gluteal H. Superficial peroneal I. Femoral J. Second and third lumbar

A. It is customary to define the movements of the shoulder girdle in terms of the movements of the scapula. In doing this there is some danger that the reader will visualize the movement as taking place solely in the joint between the scapula and the clavicle. It is important to emphasize that every movement of the scapula involves motion in both joints, the acromioclavicular and the sternoclavicular.

142. Movements of the shoulder girdle occur at the A. Acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular articulation B. Glenohumeral articulation C. Scapula and clavicle D. Scapula and humerus

B. The upper trapezius, the levator scapulae, and the rhomboideus major and minor help to elevate the scapula.

143. The scapula is elevated by the A. Upper fibers of the serratus anterior B. Upper trapezius C. Anterior deltoid D. Middle deltoid

C. The teres minor and the infraspinatus both arrive from the axillary borders of the scapula and are inserted into the greater tubercle of the humerus; thus, they perform the same function.

144. The same functions are performed by the teres minor and the A. Teres major B. Latissimus dorsi C. Infraspinatus D. Supraspinatus

C. The quadriceps or quadriceps femoris group consists of the 3 vasti and the rectus femoris.

145. The three vasti and the rectus femoris are collectively called the A. Hamstrings B. Intermedius C. Quadriceps D. Hipstrings

C. This joint is the only one allowing rotation of the head of the radius, which produces pronation and supination.

146. Pronation and supination of the forearm are allowed at the A. Humero-ulnar joint B. Humeroradial joint C. Proximal radio-ulnar joint D. Intercarpal joints

C. The linea alba is the name given to a portion of the anterior abdominal aponeurosis sheath. It represents the insertion of the obliquus externus, obliquus internus, and transversus by the fusion of their aponeuroses with those of the opposite side

147. The fibers of the aponeuroses of the two oblique abdominis and the transversus interlace to form the A. Linea semilunaris B. Tendinous inscriptions C. Linea alba D. Linea postscriptions

C. A concentric contraction occurs when the muscle actually shortens and when one end is stabilized; the other pulls the bone and thus serves as a lever with the joint as its fulcrum. In a static contraction the muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing it length. Isometric contraction is a contraction without any appreciable change in length. An eccentric contraction is a gradual release of the contraction. The muscle actually returns from its shortened condition to its normal resting length. Isotonic contraction occurs when the tension remains constant as the muscle shortens.

148. Concentric A. Gradual releasing of the contraction B. Tensions remains constant as the muscle shortens C. Pulls the free end of the lever around the fixed point D. No appreciable change in length E. Muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing its length

E. A concentric contraction occurs when the muscle actually shortens and when one end is stabilized; the other pulls the bone and thus serves as a lever with the joint as its fulcrum. In a static contraction the muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing it length. Isometric contraction is a contraction without any appreciable change in length. An eccentric contraction is a gradual release of the contraction. The muscle actually returns from its shortened condition to its normal resting length. Isotonic contraction occurs when the tension remains constant as the muscle shortens.

149. Static A. Gradual releasing of the contraction B. Tensions remains constant as the muscle shortens C. Pulls the free end of the lever around the fixed point D. No appreciable change in length E. Muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing its length

D. A concentric contraction occurs when the muscle actually shortens and when one end is stabilized; the other pulls the bone and thus serves as a lever with the joint as its fulcrum. In a static contraction the muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing it length. Isometric contraction is a contraction without any appreciable change in length. An eccentric contraction is a gradual release of the contraction. The muscle actually returns from its shortened condition to its normal resting length. Isotonic contraction occurs when the tension remains constant as the muscle shortens.

150. Isometric A. Gradual releasing of the contraction B. Tensions remains constant as the muscle shortens C. Pulls the free end of the lever around the fixed point D. No appreciable change in length E. Muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing its length

A. A concentric contraction occurs when the muscle actually shortens and when one end is stabilized; the other pulls the bone and thus serves as a lever with the joint as its fulcrum. In a static contraction the muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing it length. Isometric contraction is a contraction without any appreciable change in length. An eccentric contraction is a gradual release of the contraction. The muscle actually returns from its shortened condition to its normal resting length. Isotonic contraction occurs when the tension remains constant as the muscle shortens.

151. Eccentric A. Gradual releasing of the contraction B. Tensions remains constant as the muscle shortens C. Pulls the free end of the lever around the fixed point D. No appreciable change in length E. Muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing its length

B. The following muscles insert only at the area indicated; otherwise their functional motion would be different than normal; psoas major, lesser trochanter of femur; gluteus medius, greater trochanter of femur; peroneus tertius, dorsal surface of base of 5th metatarsal bone; vastus medialis, patella, tibial tubercle; iliacus, lesser trochanter of femur; piriformis, greater trochanter of femur; rectus femoris, patella,tibial tubercle; tibialis anterior, medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone and base of 1st metatarsal bone.

160. Tibialis anterior A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

B. A concentric contraction occurs when the muscle actually shortens and when one end is stabilized; the other pulls the bone and thus serves as a lever with the joint as its fulcrum. In a static contraction the muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing it length. Isometric contraction is a contraction without any appreciable change in length. An eccentric contraction is a gradual release of the contraction. The muscle actually returns from its shortened condition to its normal resting length. Isotonic contraction occurs when the tension remains constant as the muscle shortens.

152. Isotonic A. Gradual releasing of the contraction B. Tensions remains constant as the muscle shortens C. Pulls the free end of the lever around the fixed point D. No appreciable change in length E. Muscle remains in partial or complete contraction without changing its length

E. The following muscles insert only at the area indicated; otherwise their functional motion would be different than normal; psoas major, lesser trochanter of femur; gluteus medius, greater trochanter of femur; peroneus tertius, dorsal surface of base of 5th metatarsal bone; vastus medialis, patella, tibial tubercle; iliacus, lesser trochanter of femur; piriformis, greater trochanter of femur; rectus femoris, patella,tibial tubercle; tibialis anterior, medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone and base of 1st metatarsal bone.

153. Psoas major A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

C. The following muscles insert only at the area indicated; otherwise their functional motion would be different than normal; psoas major, lesser trochanter of femur; gluteus medius, greater trochanter of femur; peroneus tertius, dorsal surface of base of 5th metatarsal bone; vastus medialis, patella, tibial tubercle; iliacus, lesser trochanter of femur; piriformis, greater trochanter of femur; rectus femoris, patella,tibial tubercle; tibialis anterior, medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone and base of 1st metatarsal bone.

154. Gluteus medius A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

D. The following muscles insert only at the area indicated; otherwise their functional motion would be different than normal; psoas major, lesser trochanter of femur; gluteus medius, greater trochanter of femur; peroneus tertius, dorsal surface of base of 5th metatarsal bone; vastus medialis, patella, tibial tubercle; iliacus, lesser trochanter of femur; piriformis, greater trochanter of femur; rectus femoris, patella,tibial tubercle; tibialis anterior, medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone and base of 1st metatarsal bone.

155. Peroneus terius A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

A. The following muscles insert only at the area indicated; otherwise their functional motion would be different than normal; psoas major, lesser trochanter of femur; gluteus medius, greater trochanter of femur; peroneus tertius, dorsal surface of base of 5th metatarsal bone; vastus medialis, patella, tibial tubercle; iliacus, lesser trochanter of femur; piriformis, greater trochanter of femur; rectus femoris, patella,tibial tubercle; tibialis anterior, medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone and base of 1st metatarsal bone.

156. Vastus medialis A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

157. Iliacus A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

158. Piriformis A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

159. Recuts femoris A. Patella, tibial tubercle B. Medial and plantar surface of medial cuneiform bone, base of first metatarsal bone C. Greater trochanter of femur D. Dorsal surface of base of fifth metatarsal bone E. Lesser trochanter of femur

E. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

161. The smallest bone of the face A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

G. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

162. Light, spongy, cubical A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

A. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

163. Ethmoidal spine A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

D. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

164. Supraorbital notch A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

B. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

165. Foramen magnum A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

H. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

166. Horseshoe-shaped A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

F. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

167. Coronoid process A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

C. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

168. External acoustic meatus A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

J. (F.) The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

169. Alveolar process A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

I. The lacrimal bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face. The ethmoid bone in the skull is exceedingly light and spongy. The ethmoidal spine is a part of the sphenoid bone. The supraorbital notch or foramen is a part of the frontal bone. The foramen magnum is a large oval aperture at the base of the occipital bone. The hyoid bone was named because of its resemblance to the capital letter "U" (horseshoe shape). The coronoid process is thin and triangular and varies in shape and size relative to the overall size of the mandible bone. A part of the temporal bone is the external acoustic meatus. The alveolar process is a part of both the mandible and maxilla bones for the reception of teeth. The vomer forms the posterior and inferior parts of the nasal septum.

170. Forms posterior and inferior parts of nasal septum A. Sphenoid B. Occipital C. Temporal D. Frontal E. Lacrimal F. Mandible G. Ethmoid H. Hyoid I. Vomer J. Maxilla

A. Rotatory or angular motion occurs when any object acting as a rigid bar moves in an arc about a fixed point.

172. Movement about an axis in which all parts of the object moving describe an arc is A. Rotatory motion B. Rectilinear motion C. Circular motion D. Curvilinear motion

B. Translatory motion means that an object is translated as a whole from one location to another.

173. Movement in which the object is translated as a whole from one location to another is A. Angular motion B. Translatory motion C. Rotatory motion D. Circular motion

A. The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body. It supplies the skin of the foot and most of the leg, the muscles of the posterior thigh, all the muscles of the leg and foot, and other parts of the leg.

174. The largest nerve in the body is A. Sciatic B. Median C. Femoral radial

B. The ulnar nerve, covered at one part only by skin and fascia, is called the "funny bone".

175. What is known as the "funny bone" of the elbow is actually the A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous

C. The sacral and coccygeal vertebrae in the adult unite to form 2 bones, five entering into formation of the sacrum and four into that of the coccyx

176. The sacrum of the adult compromises __ united bones A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

B. The arteries and veins in skeletal muscles are in a large vascular channel found only in the perimysium.

177. The arteries and veins in skeletal muscles are found in the A. Endomysium B. Perimysium C. Epimysium D. Endocardium

E. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

178. Supinator A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

G. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

179. Flexor carpi radialis A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

G. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

181. Palmaris Longus A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

A. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

182. Flexor digitorum profundus A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

F. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

185. Extensor pollicis longus A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

E. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

186. Extensor carp A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus

C. These muscles have their origin in these general areas only, or their functional motion would be incorrect.

187. Lumbricales A. Medial and anterior surface of the ulna B. Distal fourth of the anterior surface of the ulna C. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus D. Lower two thirds of the anterior surface of the humerus E. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus F. Middle third of the posterior surface of the ulna G. Medial epicondyle of the humerus