E1 Maternity
1) The nurse is assessing a pregnant client in the second trimester of pregnancy during a scheduled prenatal visit. Which questions are appropriate during the assessment process? Select all that apply. 1. "Do you feel bloated?" 2. "Do you have hemorrhoids?" 3. "Are you experiencing heartburn?" 4. "Are you experiencing constipation?" 5. "Are you experiencing nausea and vomiting?"
1 2 3 4
1) The nurse is preparing material to present to a group of patients in the second trimester of their pregnancies. Which topics should the nurse include in this presentation? Select all that apply. 1. Clothing 2. Infant feeding 3. Fetal movement 4. Exercise and rest 5. Skin and breast care
1 2 3 5
1) During a routine prenatal visit, the nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing undiagnosed depression. What findings did the nurse use to make this clinical determination? Select all that apply. 1. Insomnia 2. Headaches 3. Fear of labor 4. Ritualistic behavior 5. Lack of interest in the pregnancy
1 2 5
1) The nurse is preparing teaching material for a patient with multiple sclerosis who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. What information should the nurse emphasize with this patient? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Plan for frequent rest periods 2. Breastfeeding should be avoided 3. Plan to experience heightened pain during labor 4. Determine the need for childcare help after delivery 5. Relapses may increase during the first 3 months after delivery
1 4 5
1) A 38-year-old client in her second trimester states a desire to begin an exercise program to decrease her fatigue. What is the most appropriate nursing response? A) "Fatigue should resolve in the second trimester, but walking daily might help." B) "Avoid a strenuous exercise regimen at your age. Drink coffee to combat fatigue." C) "Avoid an exercise regimen due to your pregnancy. Try to nap daily." D) "Fatigue will increase as pregnancy progresses, but running daily might help."
A
1) After teaching a pregnant client about the effects of smoking on pregnancy, the nurse knows that the client needs further education when she makes which statement? A) "I am at increased risk for preeclampsia." B) "I am at increased risk for preterm birth." C) "I am at increased risk for placenta previa." D) "I am at increased risk for abruptio placentae."
A
1) If a woman has the pre-existing condition of cardiac disease, the nurse knows that she would be prone to what high-risk factor when pregnant? A) Vasospasm B) Postpartum hemorrhage C) Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia D) Cerebrovascular accident (C V A)
A
1) The nurse at the prenatal clinic has four calls to return. Which call should the nurse return first? A) Client at 32 weeks, reports headache and blurred vision. B) Client at 18 weeks, reports no fetal movement in this pregnancy. C) Client at 16 weeks, reports increased urinary frequency. D) Client at 40 weeks, reports sudden gush of fluid and contractions.
A
1) The nurse has completed a community presentation about the changes of pregnancy, and knows that the lesson was successful when a community member states that which of the following is one probable or objective change of pregnancy? A) "Enlargement of the uterus" B) "Hearing the baby's heart rate" C) "Increased urinary frequency" D) "Nausea and vomiting"
A
1) The nurse is explaining to a new prenatal client that the certified nurse-midwife will perform clinical pelvimetry as a part of the pelvic exam. The nurse knows that teaching has been successful when the client makes which statement about the reason for the exam? A) "It will help us know how big a baby I can deliver vaginally." B) "Doing this exam is a part of prenatal care at this clinic." C) "My sister had both of her babies by cesarean." D) "I am pregnant with my first child."
A
1) The nurse is seeing prenatal clients in the clinic. Which client is exhibiting expected findings? A) 12 weeks' gestation, with fetal heart tones heard by Doppler fetoscope B) 22 weeks' gestation, client reports no fetal movement felt yet C) 16 weeks' gestation, fundus three finger-breadths above umbilicus D) Marked edema
A
1) The prenatal clinic nurse has received four phone calls. Which client should the nurse call back first? A) Pregnant woman at 28 weeks with history of asthma who is reporting difficulty breathing and shortness of breath B) Pregnant woman at 6 weeks with a seizure disorder who is inquiring which foods are good folic acid sources for her C) Pregnant woman at 35 weeks with a positive H B s A G who is wondering what treatment her baby will receive after birth D) Pregnant woman at 11 weeks with untreated hyperthyroidism who is describing the onset of vaginal bleeding
A
1) The primiparous client has told the nurse that she is afraid she will develop hemorrhoids during pregnancy because her mother did. Which statement would be best for the nurse to make? A) "It is not unusual for women to develop hemorrhoids during pregnancy." B) "Most women don't have any problem until after they've delivered." C) "If your mother had hemorrhoids, you will get them, too." D) "If you get hemorrhoids, you probably will need surgery to get rid of them."
A
1) A woman gave birth last week to a fetus at 18 weeks' gestation after her first pregnancy. She is in the clinic for follow-up, and notices that her chart states she has had one abortion. The client is upset over the use of this word. How can the nurse best explain this terminology to the client? A) "Abortion is the obstetric term for all pregnancies that end before 20 weeks." B) "Abortion is the word we use when someone has miscarried." C) "Abortion is how we label babies born in the second trimester." D) "Abortion is what we call all babies who are born dead."
A Abortion is the term used to describe a birth that occurs before 20 weeks or if the NB is under 500 g
1) The prenatal period should be used to expose the prospective parents to up-to-date, evidence-based information about which of the following topics? Select all that apply. A) Breastfeeding B) Pain relief C) Obstetric complications and procedures D) Toddler care E) Antepartum adjustment
A B C
1) What self-care measures would a nurse recommend for a client in her first trimester to reduce the discomfort of nausea and vomiting? Select all that apply. A) Avoid odors or causative factors. B) Have small but frequent meals. C) Drink carbonated beverages. D) Drink milk before arising in the morning. E) Eat highly seasoned food.
A B C
1) What are the three functions of the fallopian tubes? Select all that apply. A) Provide transport for the ovum from the ovary to the uterus B) Serve as a warm, moist, nourishing environment for the ovum or zygote C) Secrete large amounts of estrogens D) Provide a site for fertilization to occur E) Support and protect the pelvic contents
A B D
1) During the history, the client admits to being H I V-positive and says she knows that she is about 16 weeks pregnant. Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the plan of care both during the pregnancy and postpartally? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A) "During labor and delivery, I can expect the zidovudine (Z D V) to be given in my Ⅳ." B) "After delivery, the dose of zidovudine (Z D V) will be doubled to prevent further infection." C) "My baby will be started on zidovudine (Z D V) for six weeks following the birth." D) "My baby's zidovudine (Z D V) will be given in a cream form." E) "My baby will not need zidovudine (Z D V) if I take it during my pregnancy."
A C
1) The nurse is assessing a client in the third trimester of pregnancy. What physiologic changes in the client are expected? A) The client's chest circumference has increased by 6 cm during the pregnancy. B) The client has a narrowed subcostal angle. C) The client is using thoracic breathing. D) The client may have epistaxis. E) The client has a productive cough.
A C D
1) The nurse is conducting an initial prenatal assessment for a pregnant client. Which screenings should the nurse prepare the client for during this visit? Select all that apply. A) Complete blood count (C B C) B) Glucose tolerance test (G T T) C) A B O and Rh typing D) H I V screening E) Urinalysis
A C D E
1) The nurse understands that a client's pregnancy is progressing normally when what physiologic changes are documented on the prenatal record of a woman at 36 weeks' gestation? Select all that apply. A) The joints of the pelvis have relaxed, causing a waddling gait. B) The cervix is firm and blue-purple in color. C) The uterus vasculature contains one sixth of the total maternal blood volume. D) Gastric emptying time is delayed, and the client complains of constipation and bloating. E) Supine hypotension occurs when the client lies on her back.
A C D E
1) A 25-year-old primigravida is at 20 weeks' gestation. The nurse takes her vital signs and notifies the healthcare provider immediately because of which finding? A) Pulse 88/minute B) Rhonchi in both bases C) Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F) D) Blood pressure 122/78 m m H g
B
1) A 26-year-old client is 28 weeks pregnant. She has developed gestational diabetes. She is following a program of regular exercise, which includes walking, bicycling, and swimming. What instructions should be included in a teaching plan for this client? A) "Exercise either just before meals or wait until 2 hours after a meal." B) "Carry hard candy (or other simple sugar) when exercising." C) "If your blood sugar is 120 m g/d L, eat 20 g of carbohydrate." D) "If your blood sugar is more than 120 m g/d L, drink a glass of whole milk."
B
1) A Chinese woman who is 12 weeks pregnant reports to the nurse that ginseng and bamboo leaves help reduce her anxiety. How should the nurse respond to this client? A) Advise the client to give up the bamboo leaves but to continue taking ginseng. B) Advise the client to discuss all herbal remedies with the provider. C) Tell the client that the provider thinks the remedies have no scientific foundation. D) Assess where the client obtains her remedy, and investigate the source.
B
1) A client at 16 weeks' gestation has a hematocrit of 35%. Her prepregnancy hematocrit was 40%. Which statement by the nurse best explains this change? A) "Because of your pregnancy, you're not making enough red blood cells." B) "Because your blood volume has increased, your hematocrit count is lower." C) "This change could indicate a serious problem that might harm your baby." D) "You're not eating enough iron-rich foods like meat."
B
1) A client is at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby. She has cardiac disease, class Ⅲ. She states that she had been taking sodium warfarin (Coumadin), but her physician changed her to heparin. She asks the nurse why this was done. What should the nurse's response be? A) "Heparin is used when coagulation problems are resolved." B) "Heparin is safer because it does not cross the placenta." C) "They are the same drug, but heparin is less expensive." D) "Coumadin interferes with iron absorption in the intestines."
B
1) A client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse that she has developed a darkening of the line in the midline of her abdomen from the symphysis pubis to the umbilicus. What other expected changes during pregnancy might she also notice? A) Lightening of the nipples and areolas B) Reddish streaks called striae on her abdomen C) A decrease in hair thickness D) Small purplish dots on her face and arms
B
1) A newly diagnosed insulin-dependent type 1 diabetic with good blood sugar control is at 20 weeks' gestation. She asks the nurse how her diabetes will affect her baby. What would the best explanation include? A) "Your baby could be smaller than average at birth." B) "Your baby will probably be larger than average at birth." C) "As long as you control your blood sugar, your baby will not be affected at all." D) "Your baby might have high blood sugar for several days."
B
1) A pregnant client who swims 3-5 times per week asks the nurse whether she should stop this activity. What is the appropriate nursing response? A) "You should decrease the number of times you swim per week." B) "Continuing your exercise program would be beneficial." C) "You should discontinue your exercise program immediately." D) "You should consider a less strenuous type of exercise."
B
1) A woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She is H I V-positive but asymptomatic. The nurse knows that what would be important in managing her pregnancy and delivery? A) An amniocentesis at 30 and 36 weeks B) Weekly non-stress testing beginning at 32 weeks' gestation C) Application of a fetal scalp electrode as soon as her membranes rupture in labor D) Administration of intravenous antibiotics during labor and delivery
B
1) The client at 9 weeks' gestation has been told that her H I V test was positive. The client is very upset, and tells the nurse, "I didn't know I had H I V! What will this do to my baby?" The nurse knows teaching has been effective when the client makes which statement? A) "I cannot take the medications that control H I V during my pregnancy, because they will harm the baby." B) "My baby can get H I V during the pregnancy and through my breast milk." C) "The pregnancy will increase the progression of my disease and will reduce my C D4 counts." D) "The H I V won't affect my baby, and I will have a low-risk pregnancy without additional testing."
B
1) The nurse begins a prenatal assessment on a 25-year-old primigravida at 20 weeks' gestation and immediately contacts the healthcare provider because of which finding? A) Pulse 88/minute B) Respirations 30/minute C) Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F) D) Blood pressure 118/82 m m H g
B
1) The nurse is assessing a client who has severe preeclampsia. What assessment finding should be reported to the physician? A) Excretion of less than 300 m g of protein in a 24-hour period B) Platelet count of less than 150,000/m m3 C) Urine output of 50 m L per hour D) 12 respirations
B
1) The nurse is assessing a primiparous client who indicates that her religion is Judaism. Why is this information pertinent for the nurse to assess? A) Religious and cultural background can impact what a client eats during pregnancy. B) It provides a baseline from which to ask questions about the client's religious and cultural background. C) Knowing the client's beliefs and behaviors regarding pregnancy is not important. D) Clients sometimes encounter problems in their pregnancies based on what religion they practice.
B
1) The nurse is preparing to assess the pregnant client's fundal height during a routine prenatal visit. Which nursing action is appropriate in this situation? A) Telling the client not to eat or drink for one hour after the procedure B) Asking the client to empty her bladder prior to the procedure C) Obtaining informed consent for the procedure D) Assessing blood pressure after the procedure
B
1) The pregnant client has asked the nurse what kinds of medications cause birth defects. Which statement would best answer this question? A) "Birth defects are very rare. Don't worry; your doctor will watch for problems." B) "To be safe, don't take any medication without talking to your doctor." C) "Too much vitamin C is one of the most common issues." D) "Almost all medications will cause birth defects in the first trimester."
B
1) The prenatal clinic nurse is designing a new prenatal intake information form for pregnant clients. Which question is best to include on this form? A) Where was the father of the baby born? B) Do genetic diseases run in the family of the baby's father? C) What is the name of the baby's father? D) Are you married to the father of the baby?
B
1) The true moment of fertilization occurs when what happens? A) Cortical reaction occurs B) Nuclei unite C) Spermatozoa propel themselves up the female tract D) Sperm surrounding the ovum release their enzymes
B
1) Which of the following may be the main presenting symptom of iron deficiency anemia? A) Frequent urination B) Fatigue C) Nausea D) Headaches
B
1) Women with H I V should be evaluated and treated for other sexually transmitted infections and for what condition occurring more commonly in women with H I V? A) Syphilis B) Toxoplasmosis C) Gonorrhea D) Herpes
B
1) A woman is 16 weeks pregnant. She has had cramping, backache, and mild bleeding for the past 3 days. Her physician determines that her cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, with 10% effacement, but membranes are still intact. She is crying, and says to the nurse, "Is my baby going to be okay?" In addition to acknowledging the client's fear, what should the nurse also say? A) "Your baby will be fine. We'll start IV, and get this stopped in no time at all." B) "Your cervix is beginning to dilate. That is a serious sign. We will continue to monitor you and the baby for now." C) "You are going to miscarry. But you should be relieved because most miscarriages are the result of abnormalities in the fetus." D) "I really can't say. However, when your physician comes, I'll ask her to talk to you about it."
B If bleeding persists and abortion is imminent or incomplete, the woman may be hospitalized, Ⅳ therapy or blood transfusions may be started to replace fluid, and dilation and curettage (D&C) or suction evacuation is performed to remove the remainder of the products of conception.
1) The clinic nurse is assisting with an initial prenatal assessment. The following findings are present: spider nevi on lower legs; dark pink, edematous nasal mucosa; mild enlargement of the thyroid gland; mottled skin and pallor on palms and nail beds; heart rate 88 with murmur present. What is the best action for the nurse to take based on these findings? A) Document the findings on the prenatal chart. B) Have the physician see the client today. C) Instruct the client to avoid direct sunlight. D) Analyze previous thyroid hormone lab results.
B ; mottled skin is a sign of anemia
1) Absolute contraindications to exercise while pregnant include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Abruptio placentae B) Placenta previa after 26 weeks' gestation C) Preeclampsia-eclampsia D) Cervical insufficiency (cerclage) E) Intrauterine growth restriction (I U G R)
B C D
1) What signs would indicate that a pregnant client's urinalysis culture was abnormal? Select all that apply. A) p H 4.6-8 B) Alkaline urine C) Cloudy appearance D) Negative for protein and red blood cells E) Hemoglobinuria
B C E
1) What are the three functions of cervical mucosa? Select all that apply. A) Form the relatively fixed axis of the birth passage B) Provide lubrication for the vaginal canal C) Provide nourishment and protective maternal antibodies to infants D) Provide an alkaline environment to shelter deposited sperm from the acidic vaginal secretions E) Act as a bacteriostatic agent
B D E
1) A client who is experiencing her first pregnancy has just completed the initial prenatal examination with a certified nurse-midwife. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional information? A) "Because we heard the baby's heartbeat, I am undoubtedly pregnant." B) "Because I have had a positive pregnancy test, I am undoubtedly pregnant." C) "My last period was 2 months ago, which means I'm 2 months along." D) "The increased size of my uterus means that I am finally pregnant."
C
1) A client with a normal prepregnancy weight asks why she has been told to gain 25-35 pounds during her pregnancy while her underweight friend was told to gain more weight. What should the nurse tell the client the recommended weight gain is during pregnancy? A) 25-35 pounds, regardless of a client's prepregnant weight B) More than 25-35 pounds for an overweight woman C) Up to 40 pounds for an underweight woman D) The same for a normal weight woman as for an overweight woman
C
1) A woman asks her nurse what she can do before she begins trying to get pregnant to help her baby, as she is prone to anemia. What would the nurse correctly advise her to do? A) Get pregnant, then start iron supplementation. B) Add more carbohydrates to her diet. C) Begin taking folic acid supplements daily. D) Have a hemoglobin baseline done now so her progress can be followed.
C
1) A woman is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. The nurse is meal-planning with the client and encourages a diet that is high in what? A) Sodium B) Carbohydrates C) Protein D) Fruits
C
1) If a woman has the pre-existing condition of diabetes, the nurse knows that she would be prone to what high-risk factor when pregnant? A) Vasospasm B) Postpartum hemorrhage C) Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia D) Cerebrovascular accident (C V A)
C
1) Screening for gestational diabetes mellitus (G D M) is typically completed between which of the following weeks of gestation? A) 36 and 40 weeks B) Before 20 weeks C) 24 and 28 weeks D) 30 and 34 weeks
C
1) The client has delivered her first child at 37 weeks. The nurse would describe this to the client as what type of delivery? A) Preterm B) Postterm C) Early term D) Near term
C
1) The client in the prenatal clinic tells the nurse that she is sure she is pregnant because she has not had a menstrual cycle for 3 months, and her breasts are getting bigger. What response by the nurse is best? A) "Lack of menses and breast enlargement are presumptive signs of pregnancy." B) "The changes you are describing are definitely indicators that you are pregnant." C) "Lack of menses can be caused by many things. We need to do a pregnancy test." D) "You're probably not pregnant, but we can check it out if you like."
C
1) The maternal health nurse is caring for a pregnant client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (O C D). Which action will the nurse take when teaching the client, based on the client's psychological disorder? A) Allow the client opportunity for repetitive rituals. B) Ask the client to follow along with written material. C) Repeat instructions as needed. D) Provide multiple handouts with various photographs
C
1) The nurse has received a phone call from a multigravida who is 21 weeks pregnant and has not felt fetal movement yet. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A) Reassure the client that this is a normal finding in multigravidas. B) Suggest that she should feel for movement with her fingertips. C) Schedule an appointment for her with her physician for that same day. D) Tell her gently that her fetus is probably dead.
C
1) The nurse is assessing an obese pregnant client during a routine prenatal visit. Which is the priority assessment for this client? A) Complete blood count (C B C) B) Basic metabolic panel (B M P) C) Blood pressure D) Fetal heart rate
C
1) The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is experiencing a sickle cell crisis. Which is the priority assessment by the nurse? A) Blood pressure B) Lochia C) Temperature D) Fundal height
C
1) The nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a pregnant client who is in labor. Which finding would cause the nurse to expect that the client has been abusing an illegal substance? A) The client is asking for an epidural and rates pain as an 8 on a 0 to 10 numeric scale. B) The client is diaphoretic during the transition stage of labor. C) The client has constricted pupils and inflamed nasal mucosa. D) The client has a history of precipitous labor.
C
1) The nurse is creating a handout on reproduction for teen clients. Which piece of information should the nurse include in this handout? A) The fertilized ovum is called a gamete. B) Prior to fertilization, the sperm are zygotes. C) Ova survive 12-24 hours in the fallopian tube if not fertilized. D) Sperm survive in the female reproductive tract up to a week.
C
1) The nurse is creating a poster for pregnant mothers. Which description of fetal development should the nurse include? A) Four primary germ layers form from the blastocyst. B) After fertilization, the cells only become larger for several weeks. C) Most organs are formed by 8 weeks after fertilization. D) The embryonic stage is from fertilization until 5 months.
C
1) The nurse is listening to the fetal heart tones of a client at 37 weeks' gestation while the client is in a supine position. The client states, "I'm getting lightheaded and dizzy." What is the nurse's best action? A) Assist the client to sit up. B) Remind the client that she needs to lie still to hear the baby. C) Help the client turn onto her left side. D) Check the client's blood pressure.
C
1) The nurse is providing care to a client who would like to become pregnant within the next year. The client has a history of folic acid deficiency anemia and asks, "What can I do to decrease the risk of neural tube defects?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A) "You will need to have genetic testing done to identify your risk." B) "Do you have a family history of these disorders?" C) "Daily consumption of orange juice decreases your risk." D) "You will be prescribed an iron supplement, which decreases your risk."
C
1) The nurse is providing care to a pregnant client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (U T I) during a routine prenatal visit. What will the nurse educate the client about based on this data? A) Gestational hypertension B) Gestational diabetes mellitus C) Preterm labor D) Anemia
C
1) The nurse is providing care to a pregnant client who is experiencing an increase in white, thick, and "cottage-cheese-like" vaginal discharge. Based on this data, which diagnosis does the nurse anticipate for this client? A) Syphilis B) Gonorrhea C) Moniliasis D) Chlamydia
C
1) The nurse is teaching an early pregnancy class for clients in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which statement by a client requires immediate intervention by the nurse? A) "When my nausea is bad, I will drink some ginger tea." B) "The fatigue I am experiencing will improve in the second trimester." C) "It is normal for my vaginal discharge to be green." D) "I will urinate less often during the middle of my pregnancy."
C
1) The pregnant client in her second trimester states, "I didn't know my breasts would become so large. How do I find a good bra?" The best answer for the nurse to give would be which of the following? A) "Avoid cotton fabrics and get an underwire bra; they fit everyone best." B) "Just buy a bra one cup size bigger than usual, and it will fit." C) "Look for wide straps and cups big enough for all of your breast tissue." D) "There isn't much you can do for comfort. Try not wearing a bra at all."
C
1) The prenatal client in her third trimester tells the clinic nurse that she works 8 hours a day as a cashier and stands when at work. What response by the nurse is best? A) "No problem. Your baby will be fine." B) "Do you get regular breaks for eating?" C) "Your risk of poor pregnancy outcomes may be higher." D) "Standing might increase ankle swelling."
C
1) What is the increased vascularization causing the softening of the cervix known as? A) Hegar sign B) Chadwick sign C) Goodell sign D) McDonald sign
C
1) What would the nurse include as part of a routine physical assessment for a second-trimester primiparous patient whose prenatal care began in the first trimester and is ongoing? A) Pap smear B) Hepatitis B screening (H Bs A g) C) Fundal height measurement D) Complete blood count
C
1) The nurse is providing care to a pregnant client who is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which teaching statement from the nurse to the client is appropriate? A) "You will need to begin iron supplements at 30 m g/day." B) "You will need to increase your intake of bananas." C) "You will need to increase your intake of green leafy vegetables." D) "You will need to begin iron supplements at 150 m g/day."
C iron supplements should be 60-120 mg a day
1) The nurse is explaining the difference between meiosis and mitosis. Which statements would be best? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A) Meiosis is the division of a cell into two exact copies of the original cell. B) Mitosis is splitting one cell into two, each with half the chromosomes of the original cell. C) Meiosis is a type of cell division by which gametes, or the sperm and ova, reproduce. D) Mitosis occurs in only a few cells of the body. E) Meiotic division leads to cells that halve the original genetic material.
C E
1) Which of the following drugs and drug categories can cause multiple fetal central nervous system (C N S), facial, and cardiovascular anomalies? A) Category C: Zidovudine B) Category B: Penicillin C) Category X: Isotretinoin D) Category A: Vitamin C
C acne medication
1) A 20-year-old woman is at 28 weeks' gestation. Her prenatal history reveals past drug abuse, and urine screening indicates that she has recently used heroin. The nurse should recognize that the woman is at increased risk for which condition? A) Erythroblastosis fetalis B) Diabetes mellitus C) Abruptio placentae D) Pregnancy-induced hypertension
D
1) A 21-year-old at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby has known cardiac disease, class Ⅲ, as a result of childhood rheumatic fever. During a prenatal visit, the nurse reviews the signs of cardiac decompensation with her. The nurse will know that the client understands these signs and symptoms if she states that she would notify her doctor if she had which symptom? A) "A pulse rate increase of 10 beats per minute" B) "Breast tenderness" C) "Mild ankle edema" D) "A frequent cough"
D
1) A 21-year-old woman is at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby. She has cardiac disease, class Ⅲ, as a result of having had childhood rheumatic fever. Which planned activity would indicate to the nurse that the client needs further teaching? A) "I will be sure to take a rest period every afternoon." B) "I would like to take childbirth education classes in my last trimester." C) "I will have to cancel our trip to Disney World." D) "I am going to start my classes in water aerobics next week."
D
1) A 26-year-old client is 26 weeks pregnant. Her previous births include two large-for-gestational-age babies and one unexplained stillbirth. Which tests would the nurse anticipate as being most definitive in diagnosing gestational diabetes? A) A 50g, 1-hour glucose screening test B) A single fasting glucose level C) A 100g, 1-hour glucose tolerance test D) A 100g, 3-hour glucose tolerance test
D
1) A pregnant woman is married to an intravenous drug user. She had a negative H I V screening test just after missing her first menstrual period. What would indicate that the client needs to be retested for H I V? A) Hemoglobin of 11 g/d L and a rapid weight gain B) Elevated blood pressure and ankle edema C) Shortness of breath and frequent urination D) Persistent candidiasis
D
1) The client at 20 weeks' gestation has had an ultrasound that revealed a neural tube defect in her fetus. The client's hemoglobin level is 8.5. The nurse should include which statement when discussing these findings with the client? A) "Your low iron intake has caused anemia, which leads to the neural tube defect." B) "You should increase your vitamin C intake to improve your anemia." C) "You are too picky about food. Your poor diet caused your baby's defect." D) "You haven't had enough folic acid in your diet. You should take a supplement."
D
1) The client has just been diagnosed as diabetic. The nurse knows teaching was effective when the client makes which statement? A) "Ketones in my urine mean that my body is using the glucose appropriately." B) "I should be urinating frequently and in large amounts to get rid of the extra sugar." C) "My pancreas is making enough insulin, but my body isn't using it correctly." D) "I might be hungry frequently because the sugar isn't getting into the tissues the way it should."
D
1) The clinic nurse is compiling data for a yearly report. Which client would be classified as a primigravida? A) A client at 18 weeks' gestation who had a spontaneous loss at 12 weeks B) A client at 13 weeks' gestation who had an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks C) A client at 14 weeks' gestation who has a 3-year-old daughter at home D) A client at 15 weeks' gestation who has never been pregnant before
D
1) The nurse explains to a preconception class that if only a small volume of sperm is discharged into the vagina, an insufficient quantity of enzymes might be released when they encounter the ovum. In that case, pregnancy would probably not result, because of which of the following? A) Peristalsis of the fallopian tube would decrease, making it difficult for the ovum to enter the uterus. B) The block to polyspermy (cortical reaction) would not occur. C) The fertilized ovum would be unable to implant in the uterus. D) Sperm would be unable to penetrate the zona pellucida of the ovum.
D
1) The nurse is assessing a newly pregnant client. Which finding does the nurse note as a normal psychosocial adjustment in this client's first trimester? A) An unlisted telephone number B) Reluctance to tell the partner of the pregnancy C) Parental disapproval of the woman's partner D) Ambivalence about the pregnancy
D
1) The nurse is providing care to a client who is entering the second trimester of pregnancy. Which client statement does the nurse anticipate when assessing this client? A) "We picked out a name for a boy and for a girl." B) "We bought the baby's crib and car seat this past weekend." C) "I am so uncomfortable all the time and I can't seem to sleep at night." D) "I am angry with my husband for not showing more interest in my pregnancy."
D
1) The nurse is teaching a pregnant client the clinical manifestations associated with preterm labor. Which client statement indicates the need for further education? A) "Menstrual-like cramps are a sign of preterm labor." B) "A dull low backache is a sign of preterm labor." C) "Diarrhea is a sign of preterm labor." D) "Vomiting is a sign of preterm labor."
D
1) The partner of a client at 16 weeks' gestation accompanies her to the clinic. The partner tells the nurse that the baby just doesn't seem real to him, and he is having a hard time relating to his partner's fatigue and food aversions. Which statement would be best for the nurse to make? A) "If you would concentrate harder, you'd be aware of the reality of this pregnancy." B) "My husband had no problem with this. What was your childhood like?" C) "You might need professional psychological counseling. Ask your physician." D) "Many men feel this way. Feeling the baby move in a few weeks will help make it real to you."
D
1) The primigravida at 22 weeks' gestation has a fundal height palpated slightly below the umbilicus. Which of the following statements would best describe to the client why she needs to be seen by a physician today? A) "Your baby is growing too much and getting too big." B) "Your uterus might have an abnormal shape." C) "The position of your baby can't be felt." D) "Your baby might not be growing enough."
D
1) The client with thalassemia intermedia has a hemoglobin level of 9.0. The nurse is preparing an education session for the client. Which statement should the nurse include? A) "You need to increase your intake of meat and other iron-rich foods." B) "Your low hemoglobin could put you into preterm labor." C) "Increasing your vitamin C intake will help your hemoglobin level." D) "You should not take iron supplements."
D; pt. should take folic acid not iron
7) A maternity client is in need of surgery. Which healthcare member is legally responsible for obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure? A) The nurse B) The physician C) The unit secretary D) The social worker
C
1) The nurse is working with a client who has experienced a fetal death in utero at 20 weeks. The client asks what her baby will look like when it is delivered. Which statement by the nurse is best? A) "Your baby will be covered in fine hair called lanugo." B) "Your child will have arm and leg buds, not fully formed limbs." C) "A white, cheesy substance called vernix caseosa will be on the skin." D) "The genitals of the baby will be ambiguous."
A
1) A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy is experiencing ptyalism. What should the nurse suggest to help this patient? Select all that apply. 1. Use chewing gum 2. Suck on hard candy 3. Snack on soda crackers 4. Use an astringent mouthwash
1 2 4
1) The nurse is providing care to a client in labor who admits to using heroin throughout the pregnancy. Which will the neonate be at risk for following birth? A) Seizure activity B) Congenital anomalies C) Large for gestational age D) Cardiac anomalies
A
1) A client in her third trimester of pregnancy reports frequent leg cramps. What strategy would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest? A) Point the toes of the affected leg B) Increase intake of protein-rich foods C) Limit activity for several days D) Flex the foot to stretch the calf
D
1) A patient with gestational diabetes (G D M) is instructed to measure capillary blood glucose levels 4 times a day. If the patient eats meals at 8 a.m., 1 p.m., and 7 p.m., at which times should the nurse reinforce glucose testing to occur? Select all that apply. 1. 10 a.m. 2. 12 noon 3. 4 p.m. 4. 3 p.m. 5. 9 p.m.
1 4 5
1) A pregnant client who is at 14 weeks' gestation asks the nurse why the doctor used to call her baby an embryo, and now calls it a fetus. What is the best answer to this question? A) "Fetus is the term used from the ninth week of gestation onward." B) "We call a baby a fetus when it is larger than an embryo." C) "An embryo is a baby from conception until the eighth week." D) "The official term for a baby in utero is really zygote."
A
1) The nurse is caring for a client pregnant with twins. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional information? A) "Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical." B) "If my twins came from one fertilized egg that split, they are identical." C) "If I have one boy and one girl, I will know they came from two eggs." D) "It is rare for both twins to be within the same amniotic sac."
A
1) Which term will the nurse use when teaching a client information regarding the entire female external genitalia? A) Vulva B) Clitoris C) Mons pubis D) Perineal body
A
7) A nurse who tells family members the sex of a newborn baby without first consulting the parents would have committed which of the following? A) A breach of privacy B) Negligence C) Malpractice D) A breach of ethics
A
1) Which serum markers are assessed when conducting a quadruple screen? Select all that apply. A) Alpha-fetoprotein (A F P) B) Human chorionic gonadotropin (h C G) C) Unconjugated estriol (U E) D) Inhibin-A E) Glycated hemoglobin
A B C D
1) Remedies for back pain in pregnancy that are supported by research evidence and may safely be taught to any pregnant woman by the nurse include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Pelvic tilt B) Water aerobics C) Sit-ups D) Proper body mechanics E) Good posture is important because it allows more room for the stomach to function.
A B D E
1) The nurse educator is teaching student nurses what a fetus will look like at various weeks of development. Which descriptions would be typical of a fetus at 20 weeks' gestation? Select all that apply. A) The fetus has a body weight of 435-465 g. B) Nipples appear over the mammary glands. C) The kidneys begin to produce urine. D) Nails are present on fingers and toes. E) Lanugo covers the entire body.
A B D E
1) Ovarian hormones include which of the following? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A) Estrogens B) Progesterone C) Parathyroid hormone D) Luteinizing hormone E) Testosterone
A B E
1) The nurse is teaching the pregnant client about the symptoms of preeclampsia. Which clinical manifestations will the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply. A) Dizziness B) Blurred vision C) Abdominal pain D) Vaginal bleeding E) Severe headache
A B E
1) The nurse manager is consulting with a certified nurse-midwife about a client. What is the role of the C N M? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A) Be prepared to manage independently the care of women at low risk for complications during pregnancy and birth. B) Give primary care for high-risk clients who are in hospital settings. C) Give primary care for healthy newborns. D) Obtain a physician consultation for any technical procedures at delivery. E) Be educated in two disciplines of nursing.
A C E
1) Which statement, if made by a pregnant client, would indicate that she understands health promotion during pregnancy? A) "I lie down after eating to relieve heartburn." B) "I try to limit my fluid intake to 3 or 4 glasses each day." C) "I elevate my legs while sitting at my desk." D) "I am avoiding exercise to stay well rested."
C
7) For prenatal care, the client is attending a clinic held in a church basement. The client's care is provided by registered nurses and a certified nurse-midwife. What is this type of prenatal care? A) Secondary care B) Tertiary care C) Community care D) Unnecessarily costly care
C
1) Which statement by a pregnant client to the nurse would indicate that the client understood the nurse's teaching? A) "Because of their birth relationship, fraternal twins are more similar to each other than if they had been born singly." B) "Identical twins can be the same or different sex." C) "Congenital abnormalities are more prevalent in identical twins." D) "Identical twins occur more frequently than fraternal twins."
C
1) If a woman has the pre-existing condition of hyperthyroidism, the nurse knows that she would be prone to what high-risk factor when pregnant? A) Vasospasm B) Postpartum hemorrhage C) Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia D) Cerebrovascular accident (C V A)
B
1) Which statement regarding cervical mucus is accurate during ovulation and appropriate to include in an educational session with the client? A) Cervical mucus is thicker during ovulation. B) Cervical mucus is opaque during ovulation. C) Cervical mucus is clearer during ovulation. D) Cervical mucus is acidic during ovulation.
C
1) A woman has been unable to complete a full-term pregnancy because the fertilized ovum failed to implant in the uterus. This is most likely due to a lack of which hormone? A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) F S H D) L H
B
1) The nurse is presenting a class to pregnant clients. The nurse asks, "The fetal brain is developing rapidly, and the nervous system is complete enough to provide some regulation of body function on its own, at which fetal development stage?" It is clear that education has been effective when a participant makes which response? A) "The 17th-20th week" B) "The 25th-28th week" C) "The 29th-32nd week" D) "The 33rd-36th week"
B
1) The nurse teaching a high school class explains that during the menstrual cycle, the endometrial glands begin to enlarge under the influence of estrogen and cervical mucosal changes occur; the changes peak at ovulation. In which phase of the menstrual cycle does this occur? A) Menstrual B) Proliferative C) Secretory D) Ischemic
B
1) nursing student investigating potential career goals is strongly considering becoming a nurse practitioner (N P). The major focus of the N P is on which of the following? A) Leadership B) Physical and psychosocial clinical assessment C) Independent care of the high-risk pregnant client D) Tertiary prevention
B
7) The nurse is reviewing care of clients on a mother-baby unit. Which situation should be reported to the supervisor? A) A 2-day-old infant has breastfed every 2-3 hours and voided four times. B) An infant was placed in the wrong crib after examination by the physician. C) The client who delivered by cesarean birth yesterday received oral narcotics. D) A primiparous client who delivered today is requesting discharge within 24 hours.
B
7) The nursing instructor explains to the class that according to the 1973 Supreme Court decision in Roe v. Wade, abortion is legal if induced: A) Before the 30th week of pregnancy. B) Before the period of viability. C) To provide tissue for therapeutic research. D) Can be done any time if mother, doctor, and hospital all agree.
B
1) The nurse is preparing a presentation on the menstrual cycle for a group of high school students. Which statement should the nurse include in this presentation? A) "The menstrual cycle has five distinct phases that occur during the month." B) "One hormone controls the phases of the menstrual cycle." C) "The secretory phase occurs when a woman is most fertile." D) "Menstrual cycle phases vary in order from one woman to another."
C
1) A nurse is examining different nursing roles. Which example best illustrates an advanced practice nursing role? A) A registered nurse who is the manager of a large obstetrical unit B) A registered nurse who is the circulating nurse during surgical deliveries (cesarean sections) C) A clinical nurse specialist working as a staff nurse on a mother-baby unit D) A clinical nurse specialist with whom other nurses consult for her expertise in caring for high-risk infants
D
1) The nurse is preparing a handout for female adolescents on the menstrual cycle. What phase of the cycle occurs if fertilization does not take place? A) Menstrual B) Proliferative C) Secretory D) Ischemic
D
1) The nurse is preparing a handout on the ovarian cycle to a group of middle school girls. Which information should the nurse include? A) The hormone human chorionic gonadotropin stimulates ovulation. B) Irregular menstrual cycles have varying lengths of the luteal phase. C) The ovum leaves its follicle during the follicular phase. D) There are two phases of the ovarian cycle: luteal and follicular.
D
1) The nurse is presenting a community education session on female hormones. Which statement from a participant indicates the need for further information? A) "Estrogen is what causes females to look female." B) "The presence of some hormones causes other to be secreted." C) "Progesterone is present at the end of the menstrual cycle." D) "Prostaglandin is responsible for achieving conception."
D
1) The nurse teaching the phases of the menstrual cycle should include that the corpus luteum begins to degenerate, estrogen and progesterone levels fall, and extensive vascular changes occur in which phase? A) Menstrual phase B) Proliferative phase C) Secretory phase D) Ischemic phase
D
1) What is the function of the scrotum? A) Produce testosterone, the primary male sex hormone B) Deposit sperm in the female vagina during sexual intercourse so that fertilization of the ovum can occur C) Provide a reservoir where spermatozoa can survive for a long period D) Protect the testes and the sperm by maintaining a temperature lower than that of the body
D
7) The registered nurse who has completed a master's degree program and passed a national certification exam has clinic appointments with clients who are pregnant or seeking well-woman care. What is the role of this nurse considered to be? A) Professional nurse B) Certified registered nurse (R N C) C) Clinical nurse specialist D) Nurse practitioner
D
A) Gestational diabetes is diagnosed if two or more of the following values are met or exceeded after taking the 100 g, 3-hour O G T T:
Fasting: 95 m g/d L; 1 hour: 180 m g/d L; 2 hours: 155 m g/d L; 3 hours: 140 m g/d L.
1) Student nurses in their obstetrical rotation are learning about fertilization and implantation. The process of implantation is characterized by which statements? Select all that apply. A) The trophoblast attaches itself to the surface of the endometrium. B) The most frequent site of attachment is the lower part of the anterior uterine wall. C) Between days 7 and 10 after fertilization, the zona pellucida disappears, and the blastocyst implants itself by burrowing into the uterine lining. D) The lining of the uterus thins below the implanted blastocyst. E) The cells of the trophoblast grow down into the uterine lining, forming the chorionic villi.
a c e
1) If a woman has the pre-existing condition of HTN, the nurse knows that she would be prone to what high-risk factor when pregnant? A) Vasospasm B) Postpartum hemorrhage C) Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia D) Cerebrovascular accident (C V A)
d
