E145 Comprehensive Exam Guide
What types of EICAS messages generally represent "root causes" of problems, and should be prioritized when possible?
"BUS" and "PUMP"-related messages.
If a Piedmont pilot wears corrective lenses, what is the requirement for their availability/use?
"Flight crewmembers will wear, or have in their possession, the required corrective lenses, contact, or eye glasses (as well as a spare set).
What does FAR 121.613 say about domestic weather forecasts?
"Reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, must indicate that the weather will be AT or ABOVE the authorized landing minima at ETA for a suitable approach."
"Piedmont Airlines is committed to providing customers with the ability to deplane the aircraft at a _________________________________ no later than _____________.
"gate or remote location" "three hours"
What constitutes a "significant deviation"?
- 60nm lateral deviation from the planned route - More than 4000ft from a planned altitude - Any action which could delay the arrival of the flight by more than 15 minutes.
IN NORMAL CRUISE FLIGHT CONDITIONS, THE ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC PUMPS ARE PRODUCING A PSI OUTPUT OF___________.
0 psi.
WHAT DETERMINES IF AN ALTERNATE IS REQUIRED?
1 hour before, 1 hour after ETA destination wx is <2000 and 3 miles
All Alternates require derived values for landing minima. Name and describe the two methods.
1-Approach Method: Add 400' to ceiling and 1SM to visibility minima. 2-Approach Method: Two approaches to two runways with different names and Morse identifiers (can be opposite ends of same runway). Add 200' to the higher ceiling and 1/2SM to higher visibility minima.
What flight crew requirements must be met for a Special Qualification Airport?
1. Within the preceding 12 calendar months the PIC or SIC has made an entry (including a takeoff or landing) to that airport while serving as a flight crewmember; or 2. The flightcrew must review the Airport Qualification charts and Ops Advisory pages for that airport.
FMS Terminal scaling as confirmed by the blue (TERM) label will provide CDI scaling of ________ (full scale) and should be present until _______ from the departure airport or (for UNS-1Lw) until completion of the SID. Enroute scaling follows with no PFD label and a CDI scaling of _______ for UNS-1Lw or _______ (full scale).
1.0 NM, 30 NM; 2.0 NM, 5.0 NM
IMC, 2 ENGINES OPERATING, NOT ON A SID. WHEN CAN YOU TURN?
1000
STANDARD EFP SHOULD BE FOLLOWED AND NO VECTORS MAY BE ACCEPTED UNTIL WHAT ALTITUDE?
1000
WHEN CONDUCTING AN APPROACH, THE AIRCRAFT MUST BE IN THE APPROVED LANDING CONFIG NO LOWER THAN___
1000 above TDZE IMC and 500 VMC
A SIMPLE SPECIAL MUST BE FOLLOWED UNTIL WHAT ALTITUDE?
1000' AFE in radar contact; 3000' AFE (or a safe altitude, if higher) in non-radar
WHAT PITCH ATTITUDE DOES THE GA FLIGHT GUIDANCE MODE PRESENT IMMEDIATELY AFTER BEING ARMED (AIRSPEED ABOVE THE WHITE BAND OF THE LOW SPEED AWARENESS TAPE)?
10°.
HOW MANY VORTEX GENERATORS ARE INSTALLED ABOVE EACH WING?
12
What is the engine oil capacity? When will the oil quantity display in Amber?
12 qts. It will display in Amber at 5 qts.
How many stages does the engine compressor have?
14
By Piedmont regulations, a First Officer cannot perform Takeoff with visibility less than _____________.
1600RVR
WHAT IS THE MINIMUM BATTERY VOLTAGE FOR ATTEMPTING AN APU START?
19.0 V
HOW MANY TRANSPONDERS ARE ON THE EMB-145 AIRCRAFT?
2
How many Gs is the Embraer-145 rated to?
2 Gs
HOW MANY HALON FIRE EXTINGUISHERS ARE AVAILABLE FOR THE ENGINES?
2 Halon fire extinguishers are installed and are usable by either engine.
WHAT COMPONENTS ARE IN THE ENGINE'S ACCESSORY DRIVE GEAR BOX?
2 engine driven generators, oil pump, hydraulic pump, a fuel pump metering unit, a permanent magnet alternator, and an air turbine starter.
WHAT VERTICAL SPEED DOES FLC GIVE YOU IN A DESCENT ABOVE 12,000 FEET?
2,000 FPM.
An ASAP report should be submitted with in how many hours of knowing about the event?
24 hours
ASAP SHOULD BE SUBMITTED WITHIN HOW LONG?
24 hours of knowing of event
What is the voltage and Amp-Hour rating of the NiCad main batteries?
24V DC, 44AH
What is the voltage and Amp-Hour rating of the backup, SLAB battery?
24V, 5AH
When a new medical certificate is due, pilots must accomplish what procedure by the ________ of the month to avoid removal of bid line?
25th To submit a Medical Certificate: 1. Email a copy of the certificate to the Chief Pilot's office 2. Log into the Piedmont employee website a. Select Flight under the list of departments b. Select "Medical/Pilot Certificates" under Quick Links c. Enter the updated information under Medical Certificate d. Click Submit Form Note: If unable to obtain a new medical certificate by the 25th of the month contact the Chief Pilot.
WHAT SHOULD BE THE VOLTAGE RANGE OF THE GPU PRIOR TO SELECTING IT?
26V to 29V
ABOVE 12,000 IN FLC, THE AIRCRAFT CLIMBS AT WHAT SPEED?
270 KIAS until MACH 0.56.
WHAT EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT IS LOCATED IN THE COCKPIT?
3 life vests, oxygen masks 2 escape ropes, flashlights, smoke goggles 1 PBE, halon extinguisher, crash axe
HOW MANY PORTABLE HALON FIRE EXTINGUISHERS AND PBEs DOES THE EMB-145 CONTAIN?
3 of each.
DURING NORMAL FLIGHT, THE ENGINE DRIVEN HYDRAULIC PUMP SUPPLIES A TOTAL PRESSURE OUTPUT OF _______ PSI.
3,000 psi.
HOW MANY VORTILONS DOES EACH WING HAVE?
4
How long do batteries last under Essential Power?
40 minutes. Another five minutes can be made up if Pitot System 3 is shut off.
SID SAYS TO TURN (2 ENGINE), BUT NO ALTITUDE PUBLISHED. WHEN CAN YOU TURN?
400
WHEN CAN YOU TURN AFTER RADAR VECTOR TAKEOFF IN VMC, 2 ENGINES?
400
HOW MANY STATIC DISCHARGERS ARE ON THE WINGS?
5 on each wing
How long may the engine vibrations exceed the green range?
5-minutes during take-off or go-around; 10-seconds during all other phases of flight.
THE AIRCRAFT MUST REMAIN WITHIN HOW MANY MILES OF THE SHORELINE?
50nm except to the extent necessary to maintain safe operation
THE SYSTEM 2 ACCUMULATOR HAS ENOUGH STORED HYDRAULIC PRESSURE TO SUPPLY A TOTAL OF ________ APPLICATIONS OR ________ HOURS OF CONTINUOUS EMERGENCY BRAKE PRESSURE?
6 applications or 24 hours.
The approximate minimum pavement width required to turn an E145 180° is...
70ft.
How much thrust is produced by each engine?
7426 lbs.
THE AIRCRAFT HEADING MUST BE WITHIN ___ DEGREES OF THE FINAL APPROACH COURSE (FRONT COURSE) PRIOR TO SELECTING THE APR OR NAV MODE.
90°
When does the APU generator come online?
95%, plus 7 seconds
WHAT CONTROLS THE APU?
A FADEC.
WHEN MUST A "FULL SEARCH" SECURITY INSPECTION AND A "CANADA" SECURITY INSPECTION BE PERFORMED?
A Full Search must be performed prior to the first revenue flight of the day for domestic operations and prior to all international departures. A Canada inspection must be completed prior to all US to Canada and Canada to US departures.
What determines the necessity for a Takeoff Alternate Airfield?
A Takeoff Alternate is required anytime weather conditions at the departure airport are below CAT I landing minimums or reduced CAT I landing minimums. Both ceiling and visibility are controlling and must be considered when determining need for a takeoff alternate.
WHAT DOES AN AMBER HDG COMPARISON MONITOR FLAG ON THE PFD/MFD INDICATE?
A difference of 6 degrees between the heading information compared by the two symbol generators.
What information must be on a dispatch release?
A dispatch release must list: - ID Number of the aircraft flying - The trip or flight number - Departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate airports - A statement of the type of operation to be performed - Minimum fuel required for the flight
WHAT ARE THE INDICATIONS OF A BLEED LEAK?
A red 'LEAK' inscription appears over the button of the affected bleed. Additionally, the EICAS BLD 1(2) LEAK master warning will be presented.
A FAILURE OF AN ADC WOULD BE INDICATED BY___________.
A red X failure indication appearing on the airspeed tape, altitude tape, and the vertical speed pointer is removed and replaced by a red boxed VS.
What drives the N1 Fan?
A three-stage, low-pressure turbine.
How long does the CVR record for?
A two-hour loop.
What drives the Engine Compressor?
A two-stage, high-pressure turbine.
WHAT INDICATIONS WOULD BE VISIBLE ON THE APU BLEED VALVE BUTTON IF THE APU IS OFF AND THE APU BLEED VALVE IS SELECTED OPEN?
A white line only. The 'OPEN' inscription would not be visible.
How is AHARS 1 powered? AHARS 2?
AHARS 1 is powered by Essential Bus 1, with the Backup ESS Bus as Backup. AHARS 2 is powered by DC Bus 2, with the Backup Bus 2 as backup.
Who must be present for the Captain's briefing? What topics must the briefing cover?
ALL crewmembers must be present for the Captain's briefing. Required topics: - Statement of the Captain's focus on safety - Cabin to flight deck communications, including sterile cockpit procedures - A review of any aircraft MELs - Expected equipment changes
WHERE CAN THE CREW FIND INSTRUCTIONS ON HOW TO CONFIGURE THE AIRCRAFT DURING DE- ICING/ANTI-ICING OPERATIONS?
AOM Volume I Chapter 2
WHAT INDICATIONS WOULD BE DISPLAYED ON THE MFD AND PFD IMMEDIATELY FOLLOWING AN AHRS FAILURE?
ATT FAIL, HDG FAIL, HDG FAIL (on MFD if in MAP mode).
How are the engine FADECs powered?
Above 50% N2: by the PMA Below 50% N2 (or if the PMA fails): by the Essential DC Bus
What constitutes a "Stabilized Approach" IAW the FOM and AOM?
Absent aircraft system non-normal procedures that require a higher rate of descent: - Below 2000 ft. AGL, do not descend at a rate greater than 2000 ft./min. - Below 1000 ft. AGL, do not descend at a rate greater than 1000 ft./min. To limit configuration changes at low altitude, the aircraft must be in landing configuration by 1000 feet AFL (gear down and landing flaps). — IMC - 1000 feet AFL — VMC - 500 feet AFL. A stabilized approach with normal bracketing means the aircraft must be: — At Approach Speed • Minimum: Target speed -5 knots • Maximum: Target speed +10 knots. — On the proper flight path at the proper sink rate, — At stabilized thrust (spooled).
WHEN LANDING, HOW SHOULD VAPP BE ADJUSTED?
Add 1/2 of the reported headwind component and the gust factor to Vref. Min 5 knots; Max 15 knots for flap 45, Max 20 knots for flap 22
WHAT STEPS SHOULD BE TAKEN IF THE EICAS MESSAGE E1(2) A/ICE FAIL IS DISPLAYED WHILE TAXING IN GROUND OPERATIONS WHILE IN ICING OR WHILE IN CRUISE FLIGHT WITH THRUST LEVERS TOWARDS IDLE?
Advance the thrust levers to see if the EICAS message goes away and the OPEN inscriptions for the engine anti-ice valves remain open.
EXPLAIN THE START SEQUENCE OF THE ENGINE.
After selecting START, verify N2 rotation within 10 seconds and oil pressure rise. At approximately 14% N2, verify ignition on. At approximately 28.5% N2 or 12 seconds after ignition is activated, verify fuel flow and then monitor ITT for light-off (within 10 seconds of fuel flow) and verify N1 rotation. Fuel flow and ITT indications should increase at approximately 31.5% N2. Monitor ITT, N2 and oil pressure throughout the start so as not to exceed normal parameters.
What are the power sources for Fire Protection and Detection?
All Fire Protection and Detection systems are Essentially-powered, except for: • Engine Fire Protection (Hot) • Baggage Smoke & Lav Smoke Detection (DC) • Lav Fire Protection (Mechanical)
What does the FOM list as the mandatory crew reporting time for flights?
All crews originating in a crew domicile will report for duty at the appropriate crew room 60-minutes prior to the flight's scheduled departure time Crews commencing duty from an overnight at a non-domicile station will report for duty no later than 45-minutes prior to the flight's scheduled departure time.
WHEN OPERATING THE EMERGENCY BRAKES, HYDRAULIC PRESSURE IS APPLIED TO WHICH BRAKES?
All main gear brakes.
When MUST preflight inspections be completed by?
All preflight inspections and preparations MUST be completed NLT 10-minutes before scheduled departure time under normal circumstances.
When will an amended dispatch release be required?
An amended dispatch release will be required whenever there are changes to the following items: - ID Number of the aircraft flying - The trip or flight number - Departure, intermediate, destination, and alternate airports - A statement of the type of operation to be performed - Minimum fuel required for the flight - MEL/CDL items
WHAT WILL OCCUR IF A FIRE IS DETECTED IN THE APU COMPARTMENT WHILE ON THE GROUND?
An automatic shutdown will occur 10 seconds after a fire is detected.
WHAT HAPPENS WHEN BOTH FADECS FOR AN ENGINE FAIL?
An engine shutdown would occur. The engine requires at least one FADEC to operate
WHAT ARE THE DIFFERENT PHASES OF FLIGHT OF THE FMS LATERAL DEVIATION SCALE?
Approach - within 2nm of FAF or if manually activated Terminal - within 30nm of departure/destination Enroute - beyond 30nm of dep/dest
HOW LONG DOES PASSENGER OXYGEN LAST?
Approximately 12 minutes.
IS A TAKEOFF ALLOWED WITH THE FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS MESSAGE DISPLAYED?
As long as the imbalance is not exceeded (800 lbs.). The EICAS message remains illuminated until the imbalance is within 100 lb.
What destinations are Special Qualification airports for Piedmont?
Ashville, NC- KAVL Burlington, VT - KBTV Huntington, WV - KHTS Roanoke, VA - KROA Washington, DC (Nat'l) - KDCA
DESCRIBE THE FUNCTION OF THE GO-AROUND SUB-MODE.
Assuming the aircraft is below 2,500' RA (or below 15,000' pressure altitude if the RA signal is invalid) the go-around sub mode is activated when one of the GA buttons is pressed. ROL/GA will be the active lateral and vertical modes with a 10° pitch-up commanded on the flight director. Transition from go-around sub-mode to IAS vertical mode will automatically occur: • If, at any time, the speed is lower than 1.23 Vs • If, 20 seconds after go-around engagement, the speed is higher than 170 KIAS. In this case, 170 KIAS is targeted automatically. • If, 20 seconds after go-around engagement, the speed is within 5 kts of the pre-selected speed bug (the blue bug which is normally selected to Vga9), the pre- selected speed is maintained.
When do the engine-driven generators come online?
At 56.4% N2.
WHAT CRITERIA MUST BE ESTABLISHED IN ORDER TO HAVE SHED BUS POWER IN FLIGHT?
At least 3 generators must be online for shed bus power in flight.
Where in the compressor is the Bleed Air tapped off?
At the 9th and 14th stages.
When must pilots wear headsets?
Below 18000'MSL. Boom mics are mandatory below that same altitude.
WHEN WILL THE LOW ALTITUDE AWARENESS TAPE BE DISPLAYED ON THE ALTIMETER?
Below 550 feet of Radio Altitude the brown, low altitude awareness tape will be displayed on the bottom of the altitude tape.
What additional time restrictions apply to giving blood or SCUBA diving?
Blood Donations: Pilots will not serve as flight crewmembers within 24 hours after giving blood. Scuba Diving: Pilots will not serve as flight crewmembers within 24 hours after scuba diving.
HOW WOULD THE PACKS OPERATE DURING A GO-AROUND AT 1100 AGL?
Both PACKS would turn off.
HOW CAN BRAKE WEAR BE CHECKED?
Brake wear indicators. No less than flush with the housing.
If an engine failure is detected on an ALT T/O 1 take-off, how does ATTCS respond?
By automatically setting the thrust on the operating engine to T/O 1 (max thrust setting). In this case, "ATTCS" will display in the center above the N1 indicators on the EICAS.
HOW CAN THE CREW BE ASSURED THAT THE OXYGEN CYLINDER PRESSURE REGULATING SHUTOFF VALVE IS OPEN?
By inspecting the cylinder head located behind the FO seat in the cockpit.
How is Pitch Trim accomplished?
By positioning the horizontal stabilizer.
When entering information into the FMS, what acronym is used to guarantee accuracy?
CAMI Confirm FMS inputs with the other pilot when airborne Activate the input Monitor mode annunciations to ensure autopilot system performs as desired Intervene if necessary
If gate delays occur, what requirements must be met by the Captain?
Captain must keep passengers and flight attendants advised with periodic updates every 15-minutes.
WHEN MUST THE SPS TEST BE PERFORMED?
Captain's Final Cockpit Scan, prior to every flight.
THE ERJ IS UNDER WHICH APPROACH CATEGORY?
Category C
HOW SHOULD THE FLIGHT CONTROLS BE CHECKED PRIOR TO TAKEOFF?
Check full movement and freedom of the ailerons. Ten seconds after the gust lock is positioned to the full forward (FREE) position, move the control column to the full up (aft) stop, the full down (forward) stop, and back to the full up stop position. This check must be performed each time the gust lock is set to the FREE position.
WHAT IS A PRE-TAKEOFF CHECK?
Check of wings or representative surfaces for contaminants within the HOT. May be made by observing representative surfaces.
WHAT WEIGHT TO BE USED FOR MUSICAL INSTRUMENT IN SEAT?
Child weight
WHILE FLYING AN APPROACH FULLY CONFIGURED YOU NOTICE THAT VREF SPEED, AS CALCULATED BY AERODATA, IS 2KIAS BELOW THE TOP OF THE WHITE RANGE ON THE LOW SPEED AWARENESS TAPE. WHAT WOULD YOU DO IN ORDER TO FLY THE APPROPRIATE TARGET SPEED?
Computed reference speeds should result in speeds above the white range on the low speed awareness tape (1.13 - 1.23 Vs). If there is a discrepancy between computed reference speed and the low speed awareness tape, the low speed awareness tape shall be used to keep the aircraft at a safe flying speed for approach.
WHEN INSPECTING THE RVSM AREA, WHAT WOULD PRECLUDE RVSM FLIGHT?
Creases, dents, deformations, bulges.
What requirements must be satisfied if a flight departs early?
Departure greater than five-minutes prior to scheduled departure time must have concurrence between the Captain and dispatch.
What defines "Marginal" WX?
Destination: Ceiling OR visibility touches the ceiling or visibility of a suitable approach. First Alternate: Ceiling OR visibility touches the ceiling or visibility of derived values.
MAY A CB BE RESET PRIOR TO POWER UP?
Do not reset until contacting MX control
WHEN IS CROSS FEED OPERATION PERMITTED?
During all phases of operation except for takeoff and go-around.
WHEN DO THE EMERGENCY LIGHTS ILLUMINATE AUTOMATICALLY IN THE ARM POSITION?
During an electrical emergency with power being supplied by the dedicated batteries.
What are the only times the XBleed Valve will open automatically in the "AUTO" position?
During engine starts and in icing conditions.
WHAT ITEMS ARE POWERED FROM THE 115 VAC BUS?
E-GPWS, TCAS, windshear, ACARS printer.
WHAT MESSAGES WILL BE PRESENTED ON THE EICAS AFTER DISCHARGING HALON INTO ENGINE #1?
E1 EXTBTLA INOP, and E1 EXTBTLB INOP due to low bottle pressure.
WHERE SHOULD THE ICE DETECTION OVERRIDE SWITCH BE SELECTED AFTER THE NORMAL AFTER START FLOW WHILE TAXING IN ICING CONDITIONS? HOW SHOULD THE PNEUMATIC PANEL BE CONFIGURED WHILE TAXIING IN ICING?
ENG; the APU may supply pneumatic air for pack operation while taxiing in icing conditions; engine lip anti-ice does not require the EBVs to be selected open in order to operate normally.
Who is responsible for performing SABER check-in at the start and end of the crew day?
Each crewmember is responsible for performing their own check-in and check-out. Check-ins should be performed at or before scheduled show time.
What are the Dry Unfactored Landing Distances generates from?
Embraer test flights using Embraer test pilots using max braking.
HOW WOULD THE BLEEDS AND PACKS BE CONFIGURED FOR A TAKEOFF USING ALT-TO THRUST?
Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, XBleed Auto, PACKS on.
HOW WOULD THE BLEEDS AND PACKS BE CONFIGURED FOR AN ICING TAKE-OFF?
Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, XBleed Auto, PACKS on.
What is the exemption to the requirement for domestic weather in FAR 121.613?
FAA Exemption 17347: Main body of the forecast must be AT or ABOVE landing minima, BUT Remarks (TEMPO/PROB) may indicate the weather may be below landing minima at destination OR 1st-Alternate, except: - Destination cannot be < half the visibility - 1st-Alternate cannot be < half the ceiling and visibility of the DERIVED values - Must have 2nd-Alternate, and it must be AT or ABOVE DERIVED values
What engine protections are provided by the FADEC?
FAIL Flameout detection and auto-relight: • If FADEC detects a flameout and N2 is above 53%, a relight will be automatically attempted • If the relight isn't successful, or a flameout is detected and N2 is below 53%, the Engine is shut down Acceleration/Deceleration limiting: • Controls fuel rate to prevent Accel surges or Decel lean blow-outs Initiates engine shutdown for: • N1 & N2 overspeed • N2 underspeed Limits fuel flow to: • Prevent overspeed of Low-Pressure and High-Pressure turbines • Prevent ITT overtemp (except during start)
A CREW CAN CONTACT DISPATCH THROUGH ARINC IF ABOVE WHAT ALTITUDE?
FL200
IF A PILOT LEAVES THE COCKPIT, ABOVE WHAT ALTITUDE DOES THE OTHER PILOT NEED TO PUT ON O2 MASK?
FL250
WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM OPERATIONAL ALTITUDE WITH ONE PACK INOPERATIVE?
FL250
WHICH DISPLAY CONTROL PANEL BUTTON SHOULD BE PRESSED TO DISPLAY FMS COURSE DATA ON THE PFD?
FMS.
WHO MAY DO THE TERMINATION CHECKLIST?
FO challenge and the CA respond to all items
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE FPA SCALE WHEN TRANSITIONING TO APP MODE?
FPA scale changes from 250 feet per dot to 75 feet per dot.
What is the alternate emergency signal method in the case of an Interphone failure?
FSTN BELTS - Off EMERGENCY LIGHTS - On EMERGENCY CALL BUTTON - Press
T/F TAKE OFF DURING MODERATE OR HEAVY FREEZING RAIN IS PERMITTED?
False
Define VFS
Final Segment climb speed, which is based upon one-engine inoperative climb, clean configuration, and maximum continuous power setting.
What are the three Takeoff abort criteria between V1 and VR?
Fire, engine failure, or pilot's perception that the aircraft won't fly.
WHAT FLAP SETTINGS MAY BE USED FOR NORMAL LANDING PROCEDURES?
Flaps 22°/Flaps 45°
Define FIL
Flight Information Letters. - Issued periodically to simplify company business and to transmit information in an expeditious manner. - May be distributed via: •Hard copies to individual crew mail boxes or domicile bulletin boards •Electronically through the Piedmont Airlines website •Electronically through email
CREWS MUST ALWAYS VERIFY THAT THE AUTOPILOT IS COUPLED TO THE PF BY LOOKING AT THE ___________.
Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).
WHAT INFORMATION MUST THE CAPTAIN COLLECT IF DEICING/ANTI-ICING OCCURRED?
Fluid type, mixture ratio, time when the final deicing/anti-icing application began, and employee certifying a clean aircraft.
Why do Engine FADECs need to communicate with one another?
For Engine starting, ignition, and fault protection.
WHAT SHOULD BE CHECKED WHEN CONDUCTING ICE TEST PNEUMATIC ON THE GROUND?
For each side, separately, check that the OPEN inscriptions in the deice valve buttons are illuminated and that ICE DET 1 (2) FAIL and BLD 1 (2) LOW TEMP caution messages and the ICE CONDITION advisory message are displayed on the EICAS.
When must Piedmont E145 crews be in the aircraft prior to its departure?
For the FIRST flight of the crew pairing, preflight duties should be completed, and the flight crew should be ready for passengers to board, NLT 30-minutes prior to scheduled departure. Thereafter, the Captain and FO should be aboard the flight deck NLT 20-minutes prior to scheduled departure.
WHICH DOORS ON THE MFD DOORS PAGE ARE NOT PRESSURIZED?
Forward avionics compartment, fuel access panel.
HOW CAN THE RVSM CRITICAL AREA BE IDENTIFIED?
Four yellow corner markings surrounding the primary static sources
Which generators are connected to which engines?
Generators 1 and 3 are connected to the left engine; generators 2 and 4 are connected to the right engine.
WHERE CAN CREWS LOOK TO DETERMINE WHETHER SUFFICIENT OXYGEN IS ONBOARD FOR 2 OR 3 CREWMEMBERS ON THE FLIGHT DECK?
Green Reference Card
THE NOSE WHEEL STEERING IS HYDRAULICALLY POWERED BY WHICH HYDRAULIC SYSTEM?
Hydraulic System 1.
DURING CLIMB, FLC WORKS JUST LIKE...
IAS/Mach but with preset speeds.
HOW IS LIGHT-OFF RECOGNIZED DURING ENGINE STARTS?
ITT rise (digital numbers)
When can the Packs be expected to shutoff automatically?
If any of the following conditions occur: • Icing conditions below 24,600' (Pack #1 shuts off) • Go-around situation
WHEN SHOULD THE CREW ADVISE ATC OF A MINIMUM FUEL STATUS?
If any undue delay cannot be accepted due to the fuel status. Note: Anticipation of landing at your destination or farthest alternate airport with less than Reserve fuel is most often considered Minimum Fuel by most Part 121 carriers.
WHAT WILL BE HEARD IF THE AURAL WARNING UNIT TEST IS SUCCESSFUL?
If both aural warning unit channels are operating properly, the voice message "AURAL UNIT OK" is generated.
When must contact be made with ATC when entering or holding on a runway?
If holding in position for more than 90 seconds, or if a potential conflict is discovered.
WHEN IS ENGINE LIP ANTI-ICE REQUIRED?
If icing conditions are present from the surface to 1500' AGL. Icing conditions are defined as a temperature of 10 degrees Celsius or less and the presence of visible moisture (clouds, precipitation, Fog of 1SM or less, standing water, ice, slush or snow present on the runway)
WHEN MUST ENG REF ANTI-ICE BE SELECTED ON WHEN STORING THE TAKEOFF DATA?
If icing conditions are present from the surface to 1500' AGL. Icing conditions are defined as a temperature of 10 degrees Celsius or less and the presence of visible moisture (clouds, precipitation, Fog of 1SM or less, standing water, ice, slush or snow present on the runway)
What is Rudder Shutoff Protection?
If you have 130# of force applied in one direction, and the rudder is deflected at least 5°+/-1° in the other direction, both hydraulic systems powering the rudder will be disconnected from the rudder.
What is the purpose of the Priority Valve in Hydraulic System 1?
In the event of the loss of the #1 Hydraulic System, the Priority Valve will restrict flow to the landing gear and give priority to the flight control surfaces.
WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE ESS PWR BUTTON IS PRESSED?
It forces the electrical system into Essential Power regardless of Electrical Distribution Logic (EDL).
WHAT REQUIREMENT EXISTS FOR THE NOSE GEAR STATIC DISCHARGER?
It must be touching the ground
WHAT DOES THE FREE-FALL LEVER DO?
It requires no electrical or hydraulic power to extend the landing gear. It extends the gear by mechanically actuating the Free-Fall Selector Valve, thus removing hydraulic pressure and unlocking the three landing gear leg uplocks via cable linkage. All three gear then gravity fall to their downlock devices.
WHAT DOES THE EICAS WARNING "FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL" MEAN?
Less than approximately 30 minutes (463 lbs.) of fuel remains in the respective tank.
HOW IS LIGHT-OFF RECOGNIZED DURING ENGINE STARTS?
Light-off occurs when the digital numbers on the ITT indicator increases.
WHAT MUST PILOTS DO PRIOR TO OPENING THE COCKPIT DOOR WHILE IN FLIGHT?
Look through the peep hole
A CLEARANCE IS ISSUED TO DESCEND BELOW MEA/MORA. WHAT MUST BE CHECKED TO DETERMINE A SAFE POINT TO THE DESCENT?
MEA/MORA/GRID MORA
WHERE CAN ENGINE OIL QUANTITY BE MONITORED?
MFD: T/O page.
WHAT ARE THE MAXIMUM HOLDING SPEEDS?
MHA-6000: 200 6000-14000: 230 14000 up: 265
WHAT IS MACH TUCK AS IT RELATES TO THE EMB-145?
Mach Tuck occurs when the center of pressure moves from its normal position on the top of the wing to a point slightly aft. As the center of pressure moves to the rear, it causes the nose of the aircraft to pitch down slightly. The EMB-145 does not present Mach Tuck tendencies until approximately .92 Mach.
IF GEAR UPLOCK HOOK IS LOCKED, WHAT MUST BE DONE?
Maintenance action
WHAT DOORS, IF OPEN, GIVE A MASTER CAUTION OR MASTER WARNING?
Master Caution: access panels (forward avionics, under cockpit access hatch, rear avionics), emergency exit access panels, fuel access panel, baggage door. Master Warning: main and service door (anytime in flight or on the ground with ENG 1 running).
NOSE WHEEL TIRE ROTATION IS STOPPED ON RETRACTION BY A ________.
Mechanical snubber.
EXPLAIN THE START SEQUENCE OF THE ENGINE
N2 within 10 seconds Oil pressure rise Ignition on at 14% N2 Fuel flow at 28.5% N2 ITT rise with light off N1 rotation Fuel flow and ITT rise at 31.5% N2
WHAT ARE THE RAM AIR DOORS AND WHEN WOULD THEY OPEN?
NACA vents on the underside of the fuselage. Ram air doors in the "emergency" position allow ambient air to flow into the cabin but will not pressurize the cabin. They open/go to emergency position any time the aircraft is in flight with both PACKS off.
DOES THE EICAS MASTER WARNING MESSAGE "LAV SMOKE" APPEAR DURING A COCKPIT FIRE DETECTION TEST?
NO - the lavatory smoke detector can only be tested by the flight attendant.
DURING ANY WINDSHEAR WARNING, SHOULD THE AIRCRAFT BE RECONFIGURED TO GEAR UP/FLAPS 9?
No
WHAT ARE SOME INDICATIONS OF SEVERE ENGINE DAMAGE?
No N1 rotation, No N2 rotation, High ITT, High Vibration, Zero Oil Pressure
WHAT ARE INDICATIONS OF SEVERE DAMAGE?
No N1 rotation, high ITT, high vibration, high oil temp, high oil press, low oil quantity, abnormal noise or vibration
HOW CAN THE FLIGHT CREW DETERMINE WHETHER OR NOT THE LAVATORY FIRE EXTINGUISHER HAS BEEN USED?
No cockpit indication is available. The extinguisher is inspected by MX personnel.
CAN THE GPU BE USED TO RECHARGE THE MAIN AIRCRAFT BATTERIES?
No, BC1 and BC2 open automatically when the GPU is selected and supplying power.
IS DME AVAILABLE WHEN IN ESSENTIAL POWER MODE?
No, but VOR or LOC type approaches may be flown so long as DME is not required.
IS IT POSSIBLE TO TRANSFER FUEL FROM BETWEEN THE MAIN WING TANKS?
No, fuel cannot be transferred between the two wing tanks.
WILL THE TUNING BACKUP CONTROL HEAD (TBCH) REMAIN POWERED IN ESSENTIAL POWER?
No, it is powered by DC Bus 2.
WILL THE SPEED BRAKES OPEN IF THE FLAPS ARE EXTENDED TO FLAPS 22°?
No, speed brakes will automatically close as flaps transition through 13 degrees
CAN THE EMERGENCY LIGHT BATTERIES BE CHARGED WHILE THEY ARE IN USE?
No, the batteries are only charged when the emergency light switch is in the ARM position and the lights are not in use.
WILL THE NOSEWHEEL TAXI AND NOSE LANDING LIGHT REMAIN ILLUMINATED FOLLOWING GEAR RETRACTION?
No, the lights are automatically extinguished when the nose gear isn't down and locked.
ARE THE FLAPS POWERED IN ESSENTIAL POWER.
No, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.
DURING ESSENTIAL POWER WITH A LOSS OF ALL GENERATORS, IS WING AND STABILIZER ANTI-ICE PROTECTION AVAILABLE?
No, wing & stabilizer anti-ice is DC powered.
CAN THE HYDRAULIC SYSTEM TEMPERATURE BE MONITORED ON THE EICAS OR MFDs?
No.
DOES AERODATA AUTOMATICALLY COMPUTE TAILWIND PENALTY?
No.
DURING A RED WINDSHEAR WARNING, SHOULD THE AIRCRAFT BE IMMEDIATELY RECONFIGURED TO GEAR UP/FLAPS 9°?
No.
IN ESSENTIAL POWER MODE, IS NOSE WHEEL STEERING AVAILABLE?
No.
Is Engine Under/Overspeed Protection available in Reversionary Mode?
No.
WHEN USING THE EMERGENCY BRAKES, DO YOU HAVE THE ANTI-SKID, LOCKED WHEEL AND TOUCHDOWN PROTECTIONS?
No.
WITH A TOTAL LOSS OF HYDRAULIC SYSTEM #1, WILL THE LANDING GEAR DEPLOY/OPERATE NORMALLY?
No.
Can Exemption 17347 be used for flights to Canada?
No. 17347 is an FAA Exemption and is applicable only within the U.S.
MAY A FLIGHT LEGALLY DEPART WHEN RVR IS 500/500/300?
No. All three are controlling. Min is 500 (with applicable lighting).
Does the aircraft only have DC power?
No. The aircraft also has a 115VAC, 260AMP, 400HZ single-phase inverter which supplies power to the TCAS, E-GPWS, Windshear System, and ACARS printer.
Is a dispatch release still valid if the aircraft returns to station after taking-off?
No; if an aircraft returns to station after taking off, its original dispatch release becomes void.
Is the engine spinner mounted directly on-center?
No; it's offset to create an imbalance that will help it shed ice.
IN ESSENTIAL POWER, HOW IS THE LANDING GEAR EXTENDED?
Normally.
When cleared for an approach outside the immediate terminal area, when can a descent to procedure altitude be commenced?
Not until the aircraft is on a segment of the published approach course.
WHAT IS THE MINIMUM ACCEPTABLE CONDITION REGARDING TIRE WEAR
Not worn past the bottom of the tire grooves.
WHEN IS THE WING AND HORIZONTAL STABILIZER ANTI-ICE PROTECTION INHIBITED?
On the ground with a wheel speed < 25 knot.
WHAT WILL THE APU SHUT DOWN FOR AUTOMATICALLY ON THE GROUND? IN FLIGHT?
On the ground: essentially any malfunction (Fire, after 10 seconds): • Heat related issues: Fire; EGT overtemp; loss of EGT; high oil temp/press; oil pressure switch short In-flight: anything not heat related: • Overspeed • Underspeed • Loss of speed data • Loss of FADEC data • Failure to start, accelerate, or light • External short
How often must a pilot fly in order to remain current?
Once every 90 days. If a pilot is in danger of becoming incurrent, scheduling should be notified so that time in the sim can be booked and the pilot's currency can be maintained.
THE EICAS MESSAGE "FLAP LOW SPEED" IS A RESULT OF A LOSS OF __________.
One of the flap motors.
WHEN DOES THE SPS/ICE SPEEDS MESSAGE CLEAR AFTER FLYING INTO ICING CONDITIONS?
Only on the ground after performing a stall test.
WHAT ANTI-ICE FLUID MUST BE USED WHEN OPERATING IN CONDITIONS WITH ICE PELLETS ADHERING TO THE AIRCRAFT?
Only undiluted Type IV fluid may be used during operations in ice pellets.
WHAT WOULD A MISSING SAFETY DISC NEXT TO THE OXYGEN SERVICE PANEL INDICATE?
Oxygen system has been over-pressurized.
HOW WOULD THE PACKS NORMALLY OPERATE IN ICING CONDITIONS AT 2000' AGL IN CLB THRUST?
PACK 1 is off and PACK 2 is on.
WHAT IS THE DEFAULT VERTICAL FLIGHT GUIDANCE MODE?
PIT (pitch).
WHAT ACTIONS WILL DISCONNECT THE AUTOPILOT?
Pilot actuation of either of the pitch trim switches, the 'AP' or 'YD' button on the Flight Guidance Control Panel', pressing the quick disconnect button.
What is the rule governing pilot consumption of alcoholic beverages?
Pilots will not consume alcohol while in uniform, or within 12 hours prior to scheduled report time.
WHAT PARAMETERS ARE CHECKED WITH THE TAKEOFF CONFIGURATION BUTTON
Pitch trim between 4°-8° (green band), flaps between 9°-22°, parking brake not set, and spoilers stowed.
WHERE DOES THE STANDBY AIRSPEED INDICATOR RECEIVE ITS PITOT/STATIC INFORMATION FROM?
Pitot/Static 3 provides dynamic pressure to the standby airspeed indicator.
THE STANDBY INSTRUMENTS RECEIVE INFORMATION FROM WHICH AIRCRAFT PITOT/STATIC SOURCE?
Pitot/Static tube 3.
WHAT PROCEDURE USED IF LED FOR CVR DOES NOT ILLUMINATE?
Plug headset in the CVR panel, press test and listen for tone.
HOW COULD WE DETERMINE DECISION FUEL OVER FLIGHT PLANNED WAYPOINT?
Present waypoint flight planned fuel minus hold, extra. Result is burn to destination plus alternate plus reserve.
WHAT IS THE PROCEDURE FOR STOPPING THE APU?
Press the STOP button, monitor deceleration to 0% RPM. At 0% RPM, select the APU master knob to the OFF position.
WHAT SHOULD BE DONE IF THE INCORRECT NAMES ARE LISTED ON THE DISPATCH RELEASE?
Print new paperwork or get an amendment to that release with correct names.
AT WHAT ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE RANGE SHOULD THE IN-FIGHT PORTION OF THE PNEUMATIC ICE TEST BE ACCOMPLISHED?
Prior to 23,000' MSL and a TAT less than 10°C
WHEN MUST AN ORIGINATION CHECKLIST BE ACCOMPLISHED?
Prior to the first flight of the day; After any maintenance action was performed
How are the fuel pumps powered?
Pumps A & B are Essentially-powered, Pump C is DC-powered.
In the case of a disparity between Tower-reported visual range and RVR, which is governing?
RVR
DURING AN APPROACH, A PILOT MAY NOT DESCEND BELOW 100 ABOVE TDZE UNLESS WHAT IS VISIBLE?
Red terminating or red side row bars are visible and required flight visibility
WHAT ACTION ARE REQUIRED IF THE BAGG EXTG BUTTON REMAINS ILLUMINATED AFTER THE FIRE DETECTION TEST?
Repeat the fire detection test. Wait at least 6 seconds before pressing the test button again for at least 2 seconds.
WHAT IS METHOD 2?
Requires weight ensuring driftdown altitude will clear obstructions within 5nm by 2000' to at least one suitable alternate airport.
THE CAUTION "RUDDER OVER BOOST" MEANS?
Rudder hydraulic system 1 is still on above 135 KIAS.
WHAT RUNWAY EQUIPMENT IS REQUIRED FOR TAKEOFF WITH RVR 500/500/500?
Runway centerline lights, and HIRL. All three RVRs are controlling. One may be inop.
WHAT DOES THE EICAS MESSAGE SPS ADVANCED INDICATE?
SPS ADVANCED indicates that Stick Shaker and Pusher actuation is set to lower AOAs (higher speeds) due to a system component failure.
WHAT SHOULD BE CHECKED WHEN CONDUCTING THE IN-FLIGHT PORTION OF THE PNEUMATIC ICE TEST?
Select the Override knob to ALL for 20 seconds and check that the OPEN inscriptions in the buttons are illuminated and the NO ICE-A/ICE ON caution message is displayed on the EICAS.
IF AT PLANNED CRUISE ALTITUDE AND AN ENGINE IS LOST, HOW SHOULD THE AIRCRAFT BE FLOWN?
Set Continuous thrust. If unable to hold altitude, decelerate in level flight to Vfs.
How many fuel sensors are in each fuel tank?
Seven
WHAT INDICATIONS WOULD BE DISPLAYED IF PITOT TUBE 1 IS SUDDENLY BLOCKED?
Should the pitot tube become suddenly blocked (along with its drain hole) by ice, an insect or some other foreign material, it would probably go unnoticed in level flight. In a climb or a descent, however, an airspeed indicator relying on a blocked pitot tube would behave like an altimeter. The trapped pitot pressure is then measured against the varying static pressure and the result is displayed on the indicator. Should get an "IAS" flag on the captain's side PFD when the two ADC data differs by more than + 5 knots.
WHAT DOES AN AMBER ATT ON THE PFDS INDICATE?
Simultaneous activation of both Pitch and Roll comparison monitors. The amber ATT label will be displayed in the upper left portion of the attitude sphere, in the same field of the ROL and PIT comparison monitors.
Why must the AHRS 1(2) ALN message be allowed to display on the EICAS before starting the APU?
Starting the APU takes the #1 battery off the electrical system. Battery #1 is used to align the AHARS; this is why we have to wait to start the APU until the AHRS has aligned.
DURING LOW VIS TAXI (<1200RVR), WHAT CHARTS SHOULD BE UTILIZED BY THE CREW?
Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) charts
WHICH HYDRAULIC ACCUMULATOR IS RESPONSIBLE FOR SUPPLYING HYDRAULIC PRESSURE FOR EMERGENCY BRAKE APPLICATIONS?
System #2 accumulator.
THE AILERONS ARE NORMALLY ACTUATED BY WHICH HYDRAULIC SYSTEM(S)?
System 1 and System 2.
EMERGENCY BRIEF TO FA ACRONYM?
T-Time Available E-Emergency Type S-Signal to Brace T-Take Special Instructions
WHEN PRESSING THE TOGA BUTTONS ON THE GROUND WHILE TAXIING:
TO mode is activated on the flight director with 14-degrees pitch up (or 12-degrees pitch up if flaps 22 is selected).
TRUE/FALSE: THE YAW DAMPER IS AUTOMATICALLY TURNED ON WHEN THE AUTOPILOT IS ENGAGED.
TRUE
Define V1
Takeoff Decision Speed: the maximum speed during the Takeoff roll at which the pilot must take first action to either commit to the Takeoff or slow the aircraft down within the Accelerate-Stop Distance. V1 is also the minimum speed in the takeoff, following the failure of an engine, at which the pilot can continue to takeoff and achieve the required height above the surface within the takeoff distance. Under normal circumstances, V1 and VR are equal for the E145. Takeoff speeds presented in the speed cards are based on a V1/VR ratio equal to one, and not a balanced field condition. These speeds are only valid when used with runway analysis that includes a maximum V1 for each maximum weight.
Define V2
Takeoff Safety Speed: V2 is the minimum speed that needs to be maintained up to acceleration altitude, in the event of an engine failure after V1. Flight at V2 ensures that the minimum required climb gradient is achieved, and that the aircraft is controllable. V2 speed is always greater than VMCA, and facilitates control of the aircraft in flight.
REGARDING THE PRIORITY LOGIC OF THE AVAILABLE BLEED SOURCES, IF THE APU BLEED WAS SELECTED OPEN, WHAT WOULD OCCUR AFTER OPENING THE ENGINE 1 BLEED VALVE?
The APU bleed valve would close.
WHAT DOES THE EMERGENCY BUTTON (EMER) ON THE DIGITAL AUDIO PANEL DO?
The Captain is connected directly to COM 1 and NAV 1 and the First Officer is connected directly to COM 2 and NAV 2. Observer radio communication capability is lost. Interphone is disabled.
What is a Complex Special Departure Procedure?
The Complex-Special Procedure is issued when an engine failure procedure is too complex to fit in the Simple-Special table and/or other considerations must be taken into account. Often, all-engine procedures are also specified in order to ensure that the aircraft will remain in the obstacle protected area until reaching a safe engine failure altitude. FRA remains at 1,000' AFE unless otherwise specified in the procedure. Complex-Special Procedures may be specifically designed for a published instrument departure procedure. In these cases, the name of the applicable instrument departure procedure will be indicated on the Complex-Special and the Complex-Special is only valid for the instrument departure procedure specified. Complex-Special Procedures are mandatory under IMC and VMC.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE DUMP BUTTON ON THE AUTOMATIC PRESSURIZATION CONTROLLER?
The DUMP button will de-pressurize the cabin of the aircraft to an altitude of 14,500' MSL or to the actual altitude of the aircraft, whichever is lower.
WHICH ELECTRICAL BUS SUPPLIES POWER TO THE ISIS?
The Essential bus.
What constitutes a "Suitable Airport" for the purposes of an Emergency Landing?
The FAA does not define suitable airport in this context. The PIC and controlling dispatcher determine suitability based on all factors relevant to the situation. The nearest suitable airport should provide the highest level of safety while also considering the exposure to the non-normal. Factors to consider are: • in-flight hazard created by non-normal • time to diversion airport and aircraft performance • enroute weather and terrain • terminal weather, terrain, and instrument approach facilities • number, length, and condition of runways • pilot airport familiarity • airport NOTAMs • facilities including crash, fire, and rescue capabilities ATC controllers have charts and directories which are helpful in determining the best alternatives.
WHAT HAPPENS WHEN A THRUST REVERSER DEPLOYS IN FLIGHT?
The FADEC reduces the engine thrust to idle, however the thrust lever will not actually move.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE GAIN KNOB?
The GAIN knob can be used to vary the sensitivity of the receiver. This will also result in a variance of color intensity displayed for a radar return.
WHAT DOES THE GPU AVAIL INSCRIPTION ON THE GPU BUTTON ON THE OVERHEAD PANEL INDICATE?
The GPU AVAIL inscription indicates that the GPU is properly connected to the aircraft receptacle and some power is available (not necessarily sufficient or stable power though).
WHAT CONSIDERATION MUST BE MADE IF THE APU IS STARTED WITH LESS THAN 23.5 VOLTS?
The Main Battery Recharge Procedure must be performed.
Which compressor is connected to the Accessory Gearbox?
The N2 compressor.
How can a Hung Start be identified?
The N2 will "hang" around 40%. This can turn into a Hot Start if pilots don't intervene promptly.
On approach, when may the pilot flying make the "Landing." callout?
The PF may call "Landing" when: — the aircraft is cleared to land — the aircraft is in position to land safely, and — the runway environment will remain in sight until touchdown. Prior to the "Landing" Callout: All approach callouts will be made in accordance with the procedures outlined in the manual. The PM will callout any visual cues associated with the runway (e.g., strobe/approach lights, threshold location - left/ right/ ahead) until the PF calls out "Landing". After the "Landing" Callout: The PM will continue to monitor instruments and call out any deviations that would prevent a safe landing, and revert to visual approach callouts.
WHO HAS ULTIMATE RESPONSIBILITY FOR DETERMINING WHETHER THE AIRCRAFT IS FREE OF CONTAMINATION AND COMPLIES WITH THE CLEAN AIRCRAFT CONCEPT?
The PIC
Who is responsible for the preflight planning, delaying, dispatching, and conduct of a flight?
The PIC and controlling dispatcher are jointly responsible for those duties.
How much fuel must be on-board prior to a scheduled flight?
The PIC must verify that AT LEAST minimum fuel required plus taxi fuel is on-board the aircraft prior to initiating the Before Start checklist.
What procedure is to be followed if a crewmember is unaccounted for at show time?
The PIC will notify scheduling.
WHEN YOUR AIRSPEED IS IN THE AMBER BAND OF THE LOW SPEED AWARENESS TAPE, WHAT COLOR IS THE PLI?
The PLI is red.
What powers the Engine Igniters? Is there a back-up power source?
The PMA powers the Igniters above 10% N2. The is no back-up power source.
WHAT MODE CAN BE USED TO DISPLAY AREAS WHERE ALL RADAR ENERGY HAS BEEN ATTENUATED?
The REACT, or "Rain Echo Attenuation Compensation Technique" mode.
When the red Fire Extinguishing Handle is pulled, what Fuel Shutoff Valve is activated?
The SOV in the belly of the aircraft (there are three there: two for the engines and one for the APU).
What is a Simple Special Departure Procedure?
The Simple-Special Procedure differs from Standard Procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1,000'. FRA remains at 1,000' AFE unless otherwise specified in the FLAP RETRACT box. Simple-Special Procedures are mandatory in IMC. They are also mandatory in VMC until reaching 1,000' AFE. The turn to the NAVAID or heading is to be made at the highest bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3,000' AFE at which time you may proceed on course (as applicable). Simple-Special Procedures, when required, are provided on the top of each page of takeoff runway analysis. Above is a sample Simple-Special Procedure depiction.
What margin of planned outside air temperature (POAT) variance invalidates the dispatch release?
The Takeoff Report is valid when the actual OAT is no less than POAT - 10°C. For example, if the dispatcher selected a POAT of 25°C, then the report is valid if the actual OAT is no lower than 15°C. If the actual OAT falls below 15°C, then a new Takeoff Report must be generated or a radio revision may be accepted. The temperature can be as much HOTTER as the hottest section depicted on the Dispatch Release before the Dispatch is invalidated.
What connects the Accessory Gearbox to the N2 Compressor?
The Tower Shaft. It's what starts the compressor from the Bleed Air, and is designed to shear in the event of a pump seizure causing engine shutdown.
If an aircraft has an inoperative lavatory, within what time limit must it return to the gate?
The aircraft must return to the gate within 90 minutes.
APPROXIMATELY HOW MANY SECONDS OF TREND INDICATION DO THE AIRSPEED AND ALTITUDE TREND VECTORS PROVIDE, RESPECTIVELY?
The airspeed trend vector provides a 10-second trend indication while the altitude trend vector provides a 6-second indication.
HOW LONG WILL THE EMERGENCY LIGHTING LAST?
The batteries will provide power for approximately 15 minutes.
DURING A TAKEOFF IN ICING CONDITIONS, WHEN WILL PRESSURIZATION BEGIN?
The cabin will begin to pressurize when the thrust is set for takeoff.
WHO CALLS FOR ALL CHECKLISTS ON THE GROUND?
The captain
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE ACTIVE FD MODES AND/OR AUTOPILOT AS A RESULT OF PRESSING THE COUPLE BUTTON?
The couple button can be pressed with the Autopilot engaged or disengaged. However, if the FD is switched, the modes will drop out and the Autopilot will remain engaged and revert to basic autopilot modes (PIT and ROL).
WHY SHOULD THE COURTESY LIGHT SWITCH BE PLACED OFF PRIOR TO LEAVING THE AIRCRAFT?
The courtesy lights are powered by hot bus 2; should the main door stay open with the courtesy light switch ON or AUTO, BAT 2 will drain.
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE LANDING GEAR ELECTRICAL OVERRIDE SWITCH?
The electrical override system is used to extend the landing gear should there be a normal landing gear extension failure. The system bypasses the LGEU (Landing Gear Electronic Unit) and directly actuates the landing gear electrovalve and the nose gear doors solenoid valve.
DEFINE THE EICAS MASTER WARNING "ELEC ESS XFR FAIL".
The electrical system has failed to properly transfer into the essential power mode following a loss of all generators.
HOW ARE THE BLEEDS CONFIGURED FOR A TAKEOFF IN ICING CONDITIONS?
The engine bleeds should be open and the APU bleed should be closed.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTIONALITY OF ENGINE LIP ANTI-ICE PROTECTION IN THE ESSENTIAL POWER CONFIGURATION WITH A LOSS OF ALL GENERATORS?
The engine lip anti-ice system operates continuously and cannot be turned off. The engine-lip anti-ice valve is DC powered and fails open.
If the Engine Start/Stop Selector is moved to "Stop" with the associated Thrust Lever not in the idle position, what will happen?
The engine won't shut down.
Where can pilots find the taxi rate or Hot Spot information for a particular airport?
The expected taxi rate is on the Airport Diagram or Taxi Chart. Potential runway incursion hot spots and and any ramps or taxiways that have size restrictions will also be found on those documents. Pilots will have the Airport Diagram or Taxi Chart in view while taxiing, and will cross-check the diagram chart against the airport signage.
WHAT DOES THE EICAS MASTER CAUTION "E1-2 FIRE DET FAIL" MEAN?
The fire detection system of the affected engine has failed. The integrity switch has detected a low-pressure condition in the affected fire loop.
WHAT SUPPLIES OXYGEN TO THE FLIGHT CREW WHILE WEARING THE OXYGEN MASK?
The fixed oxygen cylinder.
WHAT ARE THE REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SPEED BRAKES TO BE OPEN?
The flap lever has to be at 0 or 9 degrees, the speed brake lever has to be selected to OPEN, a low TLA (thrust lever angle).
WHAT ARE SOME INDICATIONS OF ANTI-ICING FLUID FAILURE?
The fluid begins to appear opaque rather than transparent and glossy; the ability to discern structural details (screws, rivets, seams) through the fluid is no longer apparent.
HOW CAN THE RADAR BE BROUGHT OUT OF FSBY ON THE GROUND?
The forced standby mode may be overridden on the ground by pushing the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE GREEN DISCHARGE INDICATOR ON THE FUSELAGE, ADJACENT TO THE OXYGEN SERVICE PANEL?
The green discharge indicator provides evidence of over-servicing of the oxygen cylinder if it is missing/blown out.
WHEN IS THE GROUND SERVICE BUS POWERED?
The ground service bus will be powered when a GPU is powered, plugged into the aircraft, but not selected, and the batteries are off.
What flight control surface does the Gust Lock, when engaged, restrict from movement?
The gust lock restricts only the Elevator from moving.
WHEN THE LANDING GEAR IS LOWERED BELOW 15,000', WHICH TARGET THRUST RATING WILL THE FADEC DEFAULT TO?
The highest thrust rating a pilot would be able to select for takeoff (TO-1 for A1 engines).
What color are the Thrust Reverser "REV" indications on the EICAS?
The indications are Amber while the Reversers are transitioning open, and green when they are fully deployed.
WHAT ALTITUDE MUST BE SET IN THE PRESSURIZATION CONTROLLER?
The landing elevation
THE EICAS CAUTION MESSAGE "AURAL WARN FAIL" WILL ONLY BE PRESENTED WHEN?
The message is displayed when both channel A and channel B of the aural warning unit have failed simultaneously.
WHAT ARE THE MINIMUM OIL QUANTITIES NEEDED FOR TAKEOFF?
The minimum recommended oil quantities for engine start are 8 quarts and 7 quarts after start.
WHAT IS THE POWER SOURCE OF THE NOSEWHEEL TAXI AND NOSE LANDING LIGHTS?
The nosewheel lights are shed bus powered
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE ENGINE WHEN THE FADEC IN CONTROL FAILS?
The other FADEC takes over control of the engine.
DURING THE PNEUMATIC TEST ON THE GROUND, WHERE SHOULD THE OVERRIDE KNOB BE POSITIONED AND HOW LONG SHOULD THE TEST SWITCH BE HELD?
The override knob should be placed in the ALL position and the test switch must be held in each position for at least 10, no longer than 15 seconds.
WHEN WILL THE PASSENGER OXYGEN MASKS DROP WHEN THE OXYGEN SELECTOR KNOB IS SET TO AUTO?
The oxygen masks will deploy at approximately 14,000 feet cabin altitude
WHAT WILL OCCUR IF THE PASSENGER OXYGEN SELECTOR KNOB IS SET TO MANUAL?
The oxygen masks will deploy immediately, regardless of cabin altitude.
WHY ARE THE WINGS OF THE EMB-145 SWEPT?
The primary reason for wing sweep is to reduce the velocity of the air flowing perpendicular to the wing, thus reducing drag when operating in the upper limits of the transonic region. The secondary effect of wing sweep is improved lateral stability. The swept wing permits higher cruise speed performance because only a portion of the wing is actually exposed to the critical Mach speed.
ASSUMING BOTH ENGINES RUNNING WITH THE ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC PUMP KNOB IN THE AUTO POSITION, WHAT IS THE STATUS OF THE ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC PUMPS?
The pump is kept in standby until the engine driven pump pressure drops below 1600PSI or the associated engine N2 drops below 56.4%.
WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE CROSS-FEED VALVE IS PLACED TO LOW 1?
The pump turns off in tank 1 and the cross-feed valve opens.
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE PRESSURIZATION/ STATIC PORTS LOCATED ON THE LOWER / REAR PORTION OF THE FUSELAGE?
The purpose of the pressurization/static ports is to provide over-pressure/under- pressure relief should the cabin differential exceed 8.1 psi or -0.3 psi.
WHAT HAPPENS IF THE SELECTED FUEL PUMP FAILS?
The remaining wing pumps are automatically switched on and start cycling until the pilot selects one of them.
WHICH FUEL TANK NORMALLY SUPPLIES FUEL TO THE APU (ASSUMING NO CROSS-FEED OPERATION IS TAKING PLACE)?
The right fuel tank
WHAT COLOR OF THE LOW SPEED AWARENESS TAPE INDICATES POSSIBLE STICK SHAKER ACTUATION?
The stick shaker may be actuated in the amber range.
TANK 1 HAS 3500 LBS. TANK 2 HAS 3700 LBS. HOW SHOULD THE CROSS-FEED SWITCH BE POSITIONED TO BALANCE FUEL?
The switch should be set to LOW 1.
What requirements must be met for an airfield to qualify as a Takeoff Alternate?
The takeoff alternate must be within one hour from the departure airport based on normal cruise speed in still air with one-engine inoperative (about 270nm for an E145).
WHAT IS A CRANKED WING AS IT RELATES TO THE EMB-145?
The wing on the EMB-145 is cranked meaning that the wing is twisted to provide a varying angle of incidence between the root and the tip. The wing root is set at a +3° angle of incidence, while the crank/twist of the wing places the wing tip at a -1° angle of incidence. This design characteristic provides adequate airflow over the ailerons for roll control even when the root of the wing is stalled.
WHAT ARE THE DIFFERENT PHASES OF FLIGHT OF THE FMS LATERAL DEVIATION SCALE?
There are three phases of flight pertaining to the lateral scale of the FMS: • Approach - within 2 NM of FAF • Terminal - within 30 NM of departure or destination points • Enroute - beyond 30 NM of departure and destination points
WHAT DOES THE MESSAGE 'CAS MSG' INDICATE WHEN PRESENTED ON THE PFD?
There is a disagreement between the IC-600s on the EICAS message displayed. Reference: AOM2 3.2.3 "Warnings and Alerts" p. 35
What is the minimum RVR for taxi?
There is no fixed number: only "adequate visual reference" is required.
How are the landing gear commanded and actuated?
They are electrically commanded, hydraulically actuated, and mechanically locked.
WHAT POWER SOURCES MAY BE USED TO START THE APU?
Three power sources may be used to start the APU: a GPU, battery 2 alone or battery 2 assisted by the main generators. Battery 1 cannot be used for APU starting.
How do FADECs on the same engine communicate with one another?
Through the cross-channel data link.
To whom does a PIC report?
To the Chief Pilot or Regional Chief Pilot as assigned.
To whom does the Flight Attendant report?
To the PIC.
To whom does a SIC report?
To the PIC. If no PIC is assigned, then to the Chief Pilot.
HOW SHOULD THE ELECTROMECHANICAL GUST LOCK BE UNLOCKED?
To unlock the elevator proceed as follows: • Release the gust lock lever to the intermediate position. The locking pins will open and the elevators will be unlocked after approximately 10 seconds. • The GUST LOCK indication lights will illuminate during pin movement and extinguish when unlocked. When the lights are extinguished, pull the control column backwards to any position from neutral to full nose up. • Move the gust lock lever from the intermediate position to its full forward FREE position. • The First Officer's hand must remain on the Gust Lock during the entire unlocking procedure (e.g. do not continue the Before Takeoff flow with the Gust Lock in the intermediate position)
TRUE/FALSE. THE FLAPS ARE POWERED BY DC POWER.
True, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.
TRUE/FALSE: THE GROUND SPOILERS OPEN WHEN THE AIRPLANE IS ON THE GROUND (WOW), WHEEL SPEED >25 KNOTS AND A LOW TLA.
True.
TRUE/FALSE: PIEDMONT ALLOWS TAKEOFFS TO BE MADE WITH FLAP 22 DEGREES SELECTED.
True. Flaps 9, and 22 are the approved takeoff flaps settings
WHAT IS THE INITIAL RESPONSE TO AN RA?
Turn Autopilot off
What type of engines does the E145 have?
Two Rolls Royce AE3007A1 Turbofans
WHICH DOORS, WHEN OPEN, WILL CAUSE AN "ACCESS DOORS OPEN" EICAS MESSAGE?
Under cockpit access hatch, forward electronic access hatch, rear electronic access hatch.
What is the Hydraulic System 1 Accumulator used for?
Upward actuation of the landing gear.
WHAT IS METHOD 1?
V1 to destination allows obstruction clearance within 5nm by 1000'.
WHAT SPEED PROVIDES FULL BANK PROTECTION?
V2+15
Define VAC
VAC is Missed-Approach Climb speed for flap configuration with the critical engine inoperative (2.1% climb gradient).
Define VAP
VAP is the Approach Target speed. It is the VREF plus configuration (Flaps) and wind factor.
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE FPA SCALE WHEN TRANSITIONING TO THE APP MODE?
VPI scale changes from 250' per dot to 75'
Define VREF
VREF is usually 1.3 times the stalling speed of an aircraft in a stated landing configuration and at a given aircraft weight. In the E145, the VREF is usually 1.23VS.
THE FLIGHT-GUIDANCE DES MODE IS PROGRAMMED TO FUNCTION LIKE.
VS mode but with preset vertical speeds.
How do FADECs on different engines communicate with one another?
Via the Inter-Nacelle Data Bus.
WHAT ARE VORTEX GENERATORS AND ARE ANY ALLOWED TO BE MISSING?
Vortex generators are installed on the upper wing surface forward of the ailerons. They energize the boundary layer in order to overcome the adverse pressure associated with the shock wave. In this way, vortex generators serve to delay boundary layer separation and enhance flight control effectiveness. Some vortex generators are allowed to be missing per CDL procedures.
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF VORTILLONS?
Vortilons only act at high AOA. When span wise flow encounters them they create a vortex. This vortex energizes the flow over the wing (not under) and delays separation.
WHAT CONSIDERATIONS SHOULD BE MADE DURING A TARMAC DELAY OF TWO HOURS?
Water, food, lav access
WHAT ITEMS MUST BE CHECKED ON THE EXTERIOR SAFETY INSPECTION?
Wheel chocks in place, flight control surfaces clear
How is flight time on a dispatch release computed?
Wheels-up to wheels-down (i.e. taxi, de-ice, release times, etc. are not figured in).
WHEN WILL THE CROSS-BLEED VALVE OPEN AUTOMATICALLY WHEN THE CROSS-BLEED KNOB IS IN THE AUTO POSITION?
When an engine is being started using a pneumatic source from the other side of the system. (e.g. crossbleed start, Engine #2 start using APU bleed, Engine #1 start using external air source), and sometimes during an ICE CONDITION (Pre-mod aircraft)
WHEN SHOULD THE AFTER LANDING CHECKLIST BE ACCOMPLISHED?
When clear of the runway and the Captain calls for it.
WHEN POSITIONING THE START/STOP SELECTOR KNOB FROM STOP TO START, HOW LONG SHOULD THE KNOB BE PAUSED IN THE RUN POSITION PRIOR TO START AND WHY SHOULD THIS PAUSE OCCUR?
When positioning the START/STOP selector knob from STOP to START, pause for 2 seconds in the RUN position prior to selecting START. Quickly moving from STOP to START without pausing in the RUN position may be misinterpreted by the FADEC as a shutdown command, thereby triggering an un-commanded, on-ground engine shutdown.
WHAT OCCURS WHEN THE FIRE HANDLE IS PULLED?
When pulled, the fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and engine lip anti-icing shutoff valves of the associated engine are closed.
WHEN WOULD AN AMBER IAS COMPARISON MONITOR FLAG BE PRESENTED?
When the CA and FO indicated airspeeds (calibrated) differ by 5 knots or more than for longer than 2 seconds.
WHEN WOULD AN AMBER ALT COMPARISON MONITOR FLAG BE PRESENTED?
When the CA and FO indicated altitudes differ by 200 feet or more for longer than 2 seconds.
When does the CVR start recording?
When the aircraft is first powered up.
WHEN DOES THE DIGITAL FLIGHT DATA RECORDER BEGIN RECORDING?
When the beacon is turned on or weight off wheels.
WHEN IS A TAKEOFF ALTERNATE REQUIRED?
When the departure airport is below CAT1 mins
When is a Predictive RAIM Check required at the gate?
When the only approach available at the destination is an RNAV approach and WAAS outages are anticipated.
WHEN DOES THE DFDR BEGIN RECORDING?
When the red beacon is switched ON or when the airplane becomes airborne.
WHEN CAN A CIRCLE TO LAND MANEUVER BE ACCEPTED?
When the weather is at least 1000' and 3SM, or at/above vis/ceiling mins, whichever is higher
WHEN SHOULD MIN FUEL BE DECLARED?
While no specific guidance exists, consider landing at destination or most distant alternate with less than planned reserve a prudent time to declare MIN FUEL.
WHAT DO THE DIFFERENT COLORS ON THE LOW SPEED AWARENESS TAPE MEAN?
White indicates the speed range from 1.23Vs to 1.13Vs. Amber indicates the speed range from 1.13Vs to Vs. Red indicates Vs.
WHEN SHOULD SPEED BE LIMITED TO 200?
Within 4 miles of primary airport in class C or D unless above 2500 AGL or operating below the "shelf" of class B
Can refueling be performed with passengers aboard the aircraft?
Yes, but the Flight Attendant must be positioned in the cabin by the main entry door. The cabin door must remain open. Additionally, on aircraft not equipped with air stairs, the jetway or stairway must be in a position that will allow egress from the aircraft.
"Can I be dispatched to destination?"
Yes, if TAF (and METAR for flights <1hr) indicate the visibility (and sometimes ceiling) will be AT or ABOVE landing minima for a suitable approach at ETA. THREE cases in which ceiling must be considered: 1.) If no IAP, WX must be at least 1000' and 3SM VIS, or whichever is higher. 2.) If the only IAP is a circling approach, WX must be at or above circling minima. 3.) When required on the approach plate.
"Do I need a T/O Alternate?"
Yes, if ceiling OR visibility are below landing minima. Alternate must be within 1hr-range at single-engine cruise in still air (≈270NM).
"Can I take-off?"
Yes, if visibility ≥ the requirements listed on the back of the airport diagram.
"Do I need a second Alternate?"
Yes, if: - destination AND first Alternate are Marginal - exemption 17347 is applied.
CAN THE HYDRAULIC QUANTITY FOR SYSTEM 1 AND SYSTEM 2 BE MONITORED?
Yes, on the MFD (HYD) Hydraulics page.
WHEN THE FUEL GAUGE IS MELd, IS THE FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS MESSAGE VALID IF ILLUMINATED?
Yes, the FUEL LO LEVEL message illuminates based on the actual fuel in the respective fuel tank from the low-level sensor and not based on the fuel values presented on the EICAS page.
WHILE TAXIING IN ICING CONDITIONS, IS IT POSSIBLE FOR THE APU BLEED TO BE USED ON THE GROUND FOR THE PACKS WHILE SIMULTANEOUSLY USING ENGINE LIP ANTI-ICE PROTECTION?
Yes, the bleed air used for engine lip anti-ice protection does not require the engine bleed valve to be open.
IS IT POSSIBLE FOR THE FLIGHT ATTENDANT TO ACTIVATE EMERGENCY LIGHTING IF THE COCKPIT EMERGENCY LIGHT SWITCH IS SET TO OFF?
Yes, the flight attendant may override the cockpit switch and turn on emergency lighting anytime.
IS FUEL CROSS FEED AVAILABLE WITHOUT DC POWER?
Yes, the valve is essentially powered.
"Do I need a destination Alternate?"
Yes, unless the 1-2-3 rule applies: 1hr before ETA until 1hr afterward, WX at destination is at least 2000ft and 3SM vis. Yes, if the only approaches at the destination are GPS or RNAV. Alternate MUST have a conventional approach.
WHEN IN ESSENTIAL POWER MODE WOULD YOU HAVE NORMAL BRAKING?
Yes.
WHEN IN MANUAL REVERSION, CAN THE ELEVATORS, AILERONS AND RUDDER ALL BE ACTUATED MECHANICALLY?
Yes.
IS ENGINE FIRE PROTECTION AVAILABLE WHEN THE AIRCRAFT IS DE-POWERED?
Yes. Engine fire protection is powered by the hot battery bus.
Can fuel still be drawn from the tanks if all pumps have failed?
Yes. If ALL three pumps fail, the engine will suction fuel out of the tanks through a Suction Check Valve. There is an altitude limit of 25000', though.
CAN AIRCRAFT BE DISPATCHED WITH MISSING STATIC DISCHARGERS?
Yes. Must be deferred per CDL.
IS IT POSSIBLE TO USE THE APU BLEED FOR AIR CONDITIONING WHILE TAXIING IN ICING CONDITIONS?
Yes. The APU bleed may be used to provide air conditioning. The engine lip anti-icing bleed air is tapped off prior to the engine bleed valve. For this reason, the engine bleed may be closed during a taxi in icing conditions.
Is a dispatch release required for departure?
Yes: all company flights require a dispatch release under Part 91 and Part 121 operations.
IS IT ALLOWABLE TO USE COLD FORCED AIR FOR LOOSE SNOW REMOVAL FROM AIRCRAFT SURFACES?
Yes; however, this does not replace the need for deicing procedures.
When considering the need for a takeoff alternate:
both the ceiling and visibility landing minimums (derived values) are controlling at the departure airport.
What are the PIC's responsibilities?
— Must complete initial or recurrent training phases in the preceding twelve months. — Maintain proficiency and competence as a required crewmember on the aircraft to which assigned. — Ensure revisions to company issued manuals are inserted in a timely manner and manuals are maintained in an up to date condition. — Ensure compliance with flight/duty time limitations and rest periods in accordance with established policies. — Reviews Section 14.2, "Recording Mechanical Irregularities" (as applicable) to ensure the airworthiness of the aircraft and coordinates with appropriate maintenance personnel for the accomplishment of any required maintenance. — Will ensure all normal, non-normal, and emergency checklists are executed in accordance with company policy. — Perform other duties as assigned.
Describe the primary electrical system.
• 28VDC system • 4 independent, engine-driven DC generators: 28VDC, 400A • Two NiCad 24VDC, 44AH batteries • 1 Lead acid backup battery: 24VDC, 5AH • External power source receptacle: must have 26-29V output
WHAT ALERTS ARE NOT INHIBITED DURING THE TAKEOFF ROLL?
• APU FIRE • BATT 1 (2) OVTEMP • BRAKE OVERHEAT • ENG 1 (2) FIRE • ELEC ESS XFR FAIL • GPWS • GPWS INOP • ICE CONDITION • LATERAL MODE OFF • LG AIR/GND FAIL • LG/LVR DISAGREE • SPS ADVANCED • SPS 1 (2) INOP • STICK PUSHER FAIL • WINDSHEAR INOP Note: Takeoff phase is inhibited when the airplane passes V1 minus 15 KIAS; most messages can appear prior to this speed.
What engine indications can we expect to see once an engine has stabilized following a start?
• Approx. 24% N1 • Approx. 64% N2 • Approx. 300PPH fuel flow • Approx. 400° ITT • Pressure, temperature, and vibration indications should be approximately half-scale, in the green range
Piedmont Airlines is approved for what three types of operations?
• Domestic • Flag (any international operation) • Supplemental (charter)
What happens when the APU fire extinguishing button is pressed?
• FADEC shutdown of the APU is commanded • Fuel is closed off at the APU and the APU Fuel Shutoff Valve is commanded to close • Discharges a fire extinguishing bottle into the APU compartment
What speeds does FLC mode provide when selected?
• From the surface to 10,000': 240 knots • From 10,000' to 18,000': 270 knots • From 18,000' to 37,000': .56 Mach.
What is the priority of power supply in the aircraft?
• GPU • APU/Generators • Batteries
WHEN SHOULD THE IGNITION BE PLACED TO ON?
• If standing water, ice, slush or snow is present on the runway for takeoff • During heavy precipitation • Takeoff into suspected windshear • Moderate or greater Turbulance • When the temperature is below 5°C and the engines have been shut down for more than 90 minutes. • As directed per the QRH
WHAT ARE SOME ITEMS TO CONSIDER FOR TAKEOFF IN ICING CONDITIONS?
• Ignitors should be placed to ON if standing water, ice slush or snow is present on the runway • If the runway condition is such that the flight crew feels the ability of the aircraft to accelerate could be degraded, select the maximum available takeoff thrust setting • Both engine bleeds must be open
DESCRIBE THE NORMAL VISUAL INDICATIONS OF A DC BUS 2 FAILURE.
• MFD 1 and PFD 2 are blank • MFD 2 has red X • FMS 2 is blank
WHAT ARE THE INDICATIONS OF A SUCCESSFUL FIRE DETECTION TEST?
• Master Warning and Master Caution buttons illuminated • ENG 1(2) FIRE EICAS warning message • APU FIRE EICAS warning message • BAGG SMOKE EICAS warning message • E1(2) FIREDET FAIL EICAS caution message • APU FIREDET FAIL EICAS caution message • Both fire handles illuminated • BAGG EXTG Button illuminated • Aural Fire Bell
WHEN SHOULD THE ENGINE START BE ABORTED?
• N2 indicates no rotation up to 10 seconds after the start command • No light off within 10 seconds after first fuel flow indications (on ground only) • ITT approaches start limit (800°C) • N2 decreases or remains steady for more than 30 seconds • Any unusual noise or vibration • Engine instruments indicate abnormal conditions • Flames are visible from the exhaust pipe • Oil pressure does not reach at least 34 psi after the engine reaches stabilized idle
WHEN IS THE STICK PUSHER INHIBITED?
• On the ground (except during the test) • Below .5 G • If the quick disconnect button is kept pressed • Below 200 ft. AGL (reverts to 10 seconds after takeoff if the radio altimeters have failed) • If either SPS cutout button has been pressed (released, or unlatched button position) • Above 200 KIAS • If at least one SPS channel is inoperative
DESCRIBE THE NORMAL VISUAL INDICATIONS OF A DC BUS 1 FAILURE.
• PFD 1 and MFD 2 are blank • FMS 1 is blank
WHEN SHOULD IGNITION BE PLACED TO ON FOR GROUND OPERATIONS?
• Standing water, ice, slush, snow on runway • Prior to engine start for the first flight of the day when the temp is below 10 degrees or engines are cold soaked (shutdown for >90 minutes with outside temps <10°C) • Reported Windshear
How does the aircraft design keep the fuel pumps in the wing submerged?
• The dihedral of the wings causes fuel to flow "downhill" to the pumps • The Transfer Ejector Pump uses motive flow to take fuel from the middle of the tank and move it to the Collector Box • The Collector Box gathers fuel in the wing root where it is easily fed by the pumps • "Flapper Valves" allow fuel to flow through the wing • Two NACA vents allow air to replace the spent fuel area
WHAT ARE CONSIDERED CRITICAL SURFACES?
• Upper/lower wing surfaces • Control surfaces • Horizontal stabs • Engine inlets • Fuselage
WHAT ARE SOME ITEMS TO CONSIDER WHEN TAXIING IN ICING CONDITIONS?
• Windshield heat may be selected on • Ice detection override knob should be selected to ENG • Avoid taxiing in deep snow • Taxi with flaps up • Maintain greater distance from aircraft ahead • Monitor engine vibration
UNDER WHAT CONDITIONS ARE SHED BUSES POWERED WHILE ON THE GROUND?
• With GPU powering the aircraft and the shed bus switch in the auto or override position. • With at least one generator online and the shed bus in the override position. • With 3 or more generators online.