eatrightPREP practice test 3
Which of the following populations has the highest prevalence of diagnosed type 2 diabetes? A. American Indian/Alaska Native B. Asian, Non-Hispanic C. Hispanic D. Black, Non-Hispanic
A According to data on US adults in 2013-2016, American Indians/Alaska Natives had the highest prevalence of diagnosed diabetes (14.7%).
What is the recommended way to serve fruit on the IDDSI Level 5 diet? A. Mashed B. Cubed C. Sliced D. Julienned
A According to the International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative, fruits served on Level 5 Orange Minced & Moist should be served mashed with excess thin juice drained and skin and pips removed.
Which laboratory values can be abnormally low when evaluating nutritional status in patients with liver disease? A. Prealbumin B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Vitamin C
A Albumin and prealbumin may be moderately or abnormally low in patients with liver disease, even in the presence of good nutrition. These proteins decrease in production in a diseased liver.
What should a dietetics practitioner consider before recommending curcumin supplements to an athlete? A. There is currently not enough evidence to support this recommendation B. The therapeutic dose to see benefits is very low, so excessive intake is a potential side effect C. It may exacerbate an injury because curcumin induces inflammation D. Excessive curcumin use has been linked to bone fracture in athletes
A At this time, curcumin has not been the subject of extensive research in humans, and particularly in rehabilitation, so there is no specific evidence that supports curcumin supplementation in athletes. However, it has been noted that curcumin may have potential to reduce inflammation after eccentric exercise and during healing, though the therapeutic dose is notably high.
Which of the following has a potential causal relationship with cognitive decline and dementia? A. B12 deficiency B. Excessive vitamin D intake C. Insulin resistance D. Soy allergy
A B12 deficiency is associated with dementia.
Which of the following is an example of benchmarking? A. Evaluating a pricing model by evaluating competitors' pricing models B. Establishing which equations are preferred for estimating energy intake in patients C. Evaluating employee performance using a predecessor's performance as baseline D. Reconciling cash and receipts during employee shift changes
A Benchmarking involves comparing performance against the standards established within a field to identify areas for improvement. Benchmarking comprises internal performance evaluation and external criteria such as what competitors are doing.
Calculate the labor cost percent of the following: Salaries: $40,240 Benefits: $3,100 Wages: $20,000 Total sales: $560,420 A. 11% B. 22% C. 8% D. 16%
A Calculate total cost of labor (salaries + wages + benefits) /total number of sales. In this scenario, the organization has a labor cost of 11%
The anatomical structures of the lungs where gas exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen occurs are the A. alveoli B. trachea C. bronchioles D. bronchi
A Carbon dioxide and oxygen exchange occurs in the alveoli. Disruptors of the gas exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen include inadequate 02 consumption, impairment of alveolar-capillary membrane, decreased blood flow, and decreased blood oxygenation. Understanding of this element of homeostasis is necessary to appreciate the role that nutrition support plays in positively or negatively affecting lung function.
Which substance is necessary for production of bile? A. Cholesterol B. Long-chain fats C. Medium-chain fats D. Vitamin E
A Cholesterol is of one of many components of bile; it is the primary sterol in bile.
An extended-care facility has one central kitchen in which foods are purchased in different preparation stages. Production, distribution, and service are completed on the same premises. What type of foodservice operation is this? A. Conventional B. Ready prepared C. Commissary D. Assembly/serve
A Conventional foodservice involves purchasing foods in different stages of preparation for an individual operation, and production, distribution and service are completed on the same premise. In ready-prepared foodservice, menu items are produced and held chilled or frozen until heated for serving. Cook-chill, cook-freeze and souse vide are all types of ready prepared food-service. Commissary foodservice comprises centralized procurement and production facilities with distribution of prepared menu items to several remote areas for final prep and service. With assembly/serve foodservice, menu items are purchased preprepared and require minimal cooking before service.
In which type of foodservice is food processed onsite and then prepared and distributed on the premises and served after holding for a short period of time? A. Conventional B. Ready prepared C. Commissary D. Assembly/serve
A Conventional foodservice prepares food on the premises, which is served after production.
Diabetic ketoacidosis is most commonly seen in which type of diabetes mellitus? A. Type 1 diabetes B. Type 2 diabetes C. Gestational diabetes D. Maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY)
A Diabetic ketoacidosis is commonly present when type 1 diabetes is diagnosed, though it is often mistaken for the flu. Symptoms include elevated urine ketones, severe weight loss, extreme thirst, blurred vision, lethargy, and disorientation. Inadequate insulin leads to increased lipolysis and beta-oxidation of fatty acids, resulting in overproduction of ketone bodies and loss of ketone bodies in the kidneys. This leads to retention of hydrogen ions, lowering the serum pH. It is a serious, life-threatening condition.
What process would an RDN use to determine if a patient's gastrointestinal symptoms are related to food sensitivity, food allergy, or celiac disease? A. Differential diagnosis B. Triage process C. Clinical manifestation D. Adjuvant therapy
A Differential diagnosis is the process of identifying a correct diagnosis among a slate of potential, competing diagnoses.
What is the term for the ratio that reflects whether an organization can pay its short-term bills? A. Liquidity B. Solvency C. Activity D. Profitability
A Liquidity ratio is the ratio between liquid assets and liabilities. This ratio represents the relationship between the organization's cash on hand/assets that can be readily converted to cash and the current financial obligations.
Women with gestational diabetes typically require less carbohydrates at which meal, compared to the others? A. Breakfast (morning) B. Lunch (afternoon) C. Dinner (evening) D. Bedtime snack
A Many women with gestational diabetes are more insulin resistant in the early morning and can thus tolerate less carbohydrate at breakfast.
Calculate the menu sales price using the factor pricing method. The raw cost of an item is $.42 and the pricing factor is 2.5. A. $1.05 B. $0.42 C. $0.82 D. $2.08
A Menu sales price = Raw food cost (.42) x pricing factor (2.5) = $1.05
_____ is the accumulation of excess fat in the liver. A. NAFLD B. NASH C. Fibrosis D. Cirrhosis
A Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is fatty buildup in the liver with inflammation or scarring, and NAFLD is the accumulation of fat in the liver. Cirrhosis is the most severe consequence of NASH.
Which of the following correctly reflects what is required on a Nutrition Facts label? A. Vitamin D, 2 mcg, 10% DV B. Vitamin A, 5% DV C. Potassium, 240 mg D. Magnesium, 63 mg, 2% DV
A Nutrition Facts labels include both the actual amount of a nutrient as well as its % daily value. Vitamin D, calcium, iron and potassium must appear on the label and all others are declared voluntarily.
Which part of the foodservice systems model encompasses human labor and skill? A. Input B. Output C. Control D. Transformation
A The primary components of the foodservice system model include input, transformation, and output. Additional components in the foodservice system model include control, memory, environmental factors, and feedback. Input categories include human, materials, facilities, and operational. Human labor and skills are required to meet the objectives of the system.
What are the stages of motivational interviewing? A. Engaging, focusing, evoking, planning B. Express empathy, develop discrepancy, roll with resistance, support self-efficacy C. Exploring each component of DARN (desire, ability, reason, need) D. Affirmation, autonomy, accurate empathy, absolute worth
A The stages of motivational interviewing are engaging, focusing, evoking, and planning. The principles listed in option B are components of motivational interviewing, but they do not represent the stages in the process. To explore DARN is to consider the reasons someone would change and can be part of evoking. The items listed in option D are the 4 components of acceptance.
What is the intrinsic factor in B12 absorption? A. It is a glycoprotein that is secreted by parietal cells of the stomach that binds to B12 and is taken up by the distal ileum B. It is a fatty acid that attaches to glycerol C. It is a protein that contributes to osmosis to allow for B12 to enter through the small intestine D. It is any enzyme secreted by the stomach that breaks down B12
A This glycoprotein is required in order for B12 to be absorbed properly. This condition is not present in any other vitamins. B12 is essential for consumption and deficiency can cause serious harm.
Which of the following complications can result from persistent hyperglycemia in diabetes? A. Microvascular disease resulting in neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy B. Decreased urine output, increasing risk for urinary tract infection C. Improved gut microbiota as a result of increased glucose availability D. Improved wound healing and circulation
A When hemoglobin A1c rises above 7%, there is a progressive increase in the risk of retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy.
Which of the following processes occurs in response to an increase in plasma glucose concentrations? A. Glycogen synthesis occurs B. Gluconeogenesis is stimulated C. Insulin decreases D. Glycogenolysis takes place
A With an increase in plasma glucose, glycogen synthesis occurs. Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by glucagon, growth hormone, epinephrine, and cortisol; insulin increases; and glycogenolysis takes place when there is a decrease in glucose levels.
At what age should peanut-containing foods be introduced to an infant with egg allergy and severe eczema? A. 4-6 months B. 7-12 months C. After age 3 D. Never
A To reduce risk of peanut allergy, it is recommended that infants with severe eczema, egg allergy, or both be introduced to age-appropriate, peanut-containing foods as early as age 4-6 months. Infants should be introduced to other solid foods first to determine developmental readiness.
Which compound is found in the skin and converted to vitamin D3 through ultraviolet B exposure? A. Ergocalciferol B. 7-dehydrocholesterol C. Cholecalciferol D. Ergosterol
B 7-dehydrocholesterol is found in the skin of humans and is converted to vitamin D3 through UVB exposure. Ergocalciferol is vitamin D2 (largely human-made and added to foods), ergosterol is previtamin D2 (forms found in plant sources), and cholecalciferol is vitamin D3 in the final form after synthesis in the skin.
Which of the following would restrict a nutrition services employee from food handling? A. Acne B. Hepatitis A C. HIV D. Hepatitis B
B Because hepatitis A can be transmitted through food, infected workers are restricted from food handling.
Which non-essential compound is used to transport non-esterified long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria for beta oxidation? A. Cysteine B. Carnitine C. Choline D. Cholesterol
B Carnitine, found in most body tissues, is needed for the transport of fatty acids. This is especially true for long-chain fatty acids, which need carnitine across the inner mitrochondrial membrane for oxidation.
Stools that are clay-colored indicate a disturbance in the production or secretion of which of the following? A. Lipase B. Bilirubin C. Peptidases D. Amylase
B Clay color in stool may indicate biliary obstruction of the flow of bile to the intestine. This obstruction may be caused by a tumor or gallstone in the bile duct or pancreas. The change in stool color as related to these conditions is often a gradual process.
Which of the following reflects the purpose of using reference standards during the Monitoring and Evaluation step of the Nutrition Care Process? A. To research prevalence statistics to predict client risk B. To determine if the client was able to meet the intervention goal C. To capture a baseline measurement for nutrient levels D. To identify literature that supports use of a given medical nutrition therapy approach
B Criteria used to compare data during Monitoring and Evaluation includes reference standards and baseline measures that were evaluated and documented during Nutrition Assessment and recommendations and goals from Nutrition Intervention. These comparisons help to determine if the client has attained their intervention goals.
Which of the following refers to successfully producing a desired result? A. Efficiency B. Effectiveness C. Accuracy D. Accountability
B Effectiveness refers to successfully producing the desired result.
What percentage of total energy from fat should be provided through an elemental (hydrolyzed) formula to prevent essential fatty acid deficiency (EFAD)? A. 1%-2% B. 3%-4% C. 2%-3% D. 4%-5%
B Enteral formulas should provide the patient with at least 3%-4% of total energy as fat in order to decrease the chances of developing EFAD.
Practices and associated attitudes that predetermine what, when, why, and how a person eats is referred to as _____. A. Food preferences B. Food habits C. Meal pattern D. Meal plan
B Food habits are the practices and associated attitudes that predetermines what, when, why, and how a person eats. Food preference informs which foods a person likes and would rather eat when given a choice.
Which of the following should be the frontline test when diagnosing food allergy? A. Mediator release assay (LEAP diet) B. Double-blind placebo-controlled challenge C. Allergen-specific IgG, cytotoxicity assay D. Endoscopic allergen provocation
B For diagnosing a true food allergy, the gold standard is the double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge. According to the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, basophil histamine release/activation, lymphocyte stimulation, facial thermography, gastric juice analysis, endoscopic allergen provocation, hair analysis, applied kinesiology, provocation neutralization, allergen-specific IgG, cytotoxicity assays, electrodermal test (Vega), and mediator release assay (LEAP diet) all lack the requisite evidence to be recommended for use in diagnosing food allergy.
Which of the following budget types requires justification for all expenses at each new budgetary period? A. Incremental B. Zero based C. Activity based D. Value proposition
B In zero-based budgeting, all expenses must be justified for each new period. In this budgeting type, the process begins from a "zero base," with every function within an organization analyzed for needs and costs. The budget is then developed based on what is needed for the upcoming period, regardless of whether the budget represents an increase or decrease compared to the previous one.
A person with diabetes has an insulin to carbohydrate ratio of 1:10. How much rapid-acting insulin would this person need to cover a 72 g carbohydrate meal? A. 6 units B. 7 units C. 9 units D. 15 units
B Insulin to carbohydrate ratios are calculated based on the total amount of insulin used in one day divided by 500. To calculate the amount of insulin needed for an individual meal or snack, divide by the total grams of carbohydrate in the meal by the ratio (72/10=7).
When a person has phenylketonuria, which amino acid becomes essential? A. Tryptophan B. Tyrosine C. Threonine D. Methionine
B Phenylalanine is converted to tyrosine by phenylalanine hydrolase, a missing enzyme in individuals with PKU; therefore, tyrosine is an essential amino acid for these individuals.
If a company's total revenue for the year was $1,800,000, and the food cost was 40%, labor cost was 40%, and overhead cost was 5%, what is the company's profit? A. $90,000 B. $270,000 C. $720,000 D. $1,080,000
B Rationale: Profit = Revenue - Expenses Step 1. Determine actual dollar costs for food cost, labor cost, and overhead costs. Food cost: $1,800,000 x 0.4= $720,000 Labor cost: $1,800,000 x 0.4= $720,000 Overhead cost: $1,800,000 x 0.05= $90,000 Step 2: Add all dollar costs for food, labor, and overhead to comprise one total number for expenses. $720,000 + $720,000 + $90,000 = $1,530,000 Step 3: Determine the total profit by subtracting the total expenses (from step 2) from the total revenue ($1,800,000). $1,800,000 - $1,530,000=$270,000 Therefore, the company's total profit is $270,000.
Which of the following is a non-nutritive sweetener? A. Sorbitol B. Stevia C. Mannitol D. Agave
B Stevia, which is produced from stevia leaves, is a purified glycoside. Agave is a nectar and sorbitol and mannitol are sugar alcohols, and all three are considered nutritive sweeteners.
What is the purpose of a tabletop drill in a foodservice organization? A. To repair foodservice equipment B. For emergency preparedness C. For sustainability practices D. To reduce energy use
B Tabletop drills are facilitator-guided, discussion-based exercises in which team members convene in a classroom-type setting to discuss their respective roles and expected responses during an emergency situation. These drills are used to help train department managers in preparedness for emergency situations.
Which federal legislation established an insurance program that protects covered employees against loss of earnings resulting from retirement, unemployment, or disability? A. American Disability Act B. Social Security Act C. Family and Medical Leave Act D. Employment Retirement Income Security Act
B The Social Security Act of 1935 established an insurance program to protect employees against wage loss resulting from retirement, unemployment, or disability.
Which of following are defined by standards of identity? A. How full a food product container must be B. What ingredients must be declared on a label C. Minimum specifications for quality requirements D. Serving size and nutrient analysis
B The Standards of Identity define what a given food product is, its name, and the ingredients which must or may be used, and which ones must be declared on the label.
What is the recommended time frame for avoiding pregnancy after bariatric surgery? A. 3-4 years B. 1-2 years C. 6-12 months D. 1-3 months
B Women are encouraged to avoid pregnancy for 1 to 2 years after bariatric surgery. Pregnancy during this time frame could result in complications related to potential nutrient deficiencies secondary to reduced food intake and malabsorption.
Which of the following is the term for "a general or modified diet prescribed and documented in a client's medical record"? A. Nutrition prescription B. Diet order C. Diet plan D. Eating plan
B A diet order is a general or modified diet prescribed and documented in a client medical record by a credentialed provider as part of a medical treatment plan
Which of the following is a good strategy for fostering trust between managers and employees and preventing workplace conflict? A. Create homogeneous teams to minimize differences B. Permit employees to voice dissent with the mission and strategies C. Avoid praising employees so as to not cause jealousy among their colleagues D. Explain whenever possible that slights were only perceived and not intentional
B Building trust in the workplace helps to prevent development of workplace conflicts. Welcoming dissent that focuses on tasks, strategies, and mission is a good strategy for creating trust. Creating teams with diverse expertise, backgrounds, and skill sets also helps to build trust. Praising employees as appropriate can help to create an environment where employees feel comfortable addressing problems. And although a slight may not have been intended, instructing an employee to not take something personally often does not succeed.
An employee who goes out of their way to succeed in one area or activity to make up for deficiencies in another area or activity is exhibiting what type of behavior? A. Substuition B. Compensation C. Aggression D. Projection
B Compensation is a defense mechanism wherein a person tries to make up for deficiencies by overachieving in other areas or activities.
Which of the following is the BEST example of an educational objective? A. Participant will understand components of a Mediterranean eating pattern B. Given a list of foods, participant will identify those highest in MUFA C. Participant will verbalize components of a Mediterranean eating plan D. Instructor will provide a list of foods high in MUFA
B Educational objectives specify the means to achieve an outcome, whereas educational goals do not specify how an outcome will be reached. Because options A and C do not specify the means to achieve an outcome, they are educational goals. Furthermore, educational objectives focus on what participants will learn, not what an instructor will do, so option D is not correct. That the student will learn something specific (foods high in MUFA) and how (by being given a list of foods),
What compound in tomatoes is considered a potential anticancer agent, especially in prostate cancer? A. Tocopherol B. Lycopene C. Retinol D. Quinone
B Lycopene, a non-provitamin A carotenoid also found in pink grapefruit, has demonstrated anticancer properties, especially in prostate cancer.
Which of the following actions would likely be the result of systems thinking? A. Select a produce vendor who could deliver high-quality produce twice daily. B. Reschedule kitchen staff to prepare more foods from scratch to meet customer expectations. C. Develop a catering menu for department meetings to generate revenue for equipment purchases. D. Select cleaning chemicals that do not harm the environment.
B Systems thinking is the management approach to considering the entire organization when making decisions or allocating resources. Rescheduling kitchen staff to prepare food to meet customer expectations changes the kitchen and staff/resource entirely. Making a change to the produce delivery does not change the kitchen.
Calculate the kcal from a 500 mL 20% intralipid in a parenteral nutrition regimen A. 500 B. 750 C. 1,000 D. 1,250
C 500 mL × 2.0 kcal/mL = 1000 kcal
If a facility requires 80 hours of work per week, how many full-time equivalents should be hired? A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 2 D. 2.5
C A full-time equivalent employee is 8 hours per day, 5 days per week.
A long-term care facility requires a cook, server, trayline personnel, and supervisor for 8 hours daily to serve residents. How many full-time equivalents (FTEs) are needed to run the foodservice operation at this facility? A. 4 FTEs B. 5.2 FTEs C. 5.6 FTEs D. 6.4 FTEs
C A full-time equivalent is based on the work done by a full-time employee, typically 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week, or 2,080 hours a year. In this question, the facility is open 7 days/week, so 4 positions x 8 hrs/day x 7 days/week = 224 hours/week. Divide hours needed by FTE (224 hours / 40 hours). The result is 5.6 FTEs.
How does one typically become a union shop steward? A. Appointed by supervisor B. Hired by human resources C. Elected by employees D. Selected based on tenure
C A shop steward—also known as a union steward or union representative—is a volunteer position held by an employee who serves as a labor official representing and defending nonmanagement employees' interests. The person serving in this role is typically selected by democratic election, though a higher union body may appoint the individual.
According to Herzberg's dual theory of motivation/hygiene, which of the following is considered a motivator? A. Salary B. Company policy C. Recognition D. Working conditions
C According to Herzberg, hygiene factors do not motivate but simply prevent employee dissatisfaction and act as a precondition for motivation. In Herzberg's theory, salary, company policy, and working conditions are all hygiene factors, whereas recognition is a motivator.
The cook's tally shows 141 grilled chicken breasts for lunch. However, the hospital anticipates a 2% increase in hospital census during this time. How many chicken breasts should the cook prepare? A. 135 B. 141 C. 144 D. 150
C Adjust the cook's tally for the increase in hospital census by multiplying the number of chicken breasts to be cooked (141) by the increase in hospital census (2%) 141 x 0.02 = 2.82 141 + 2.82 = 143.82 Round up to 144 chicken breasts
Which of the following may develop from taking antiretroviral therapy? A. Hypoglycemia B. Pruritus C. Type 2 diabetes D. Blount's disease
C Antiretroviral therapy (ARV) is a treatment for HIV/AIDS and includes a host of long-term and short-term side effects. Type 2 diabetes is a potential side effect with ARV.
What are COLAs based on? A. Lifetime contribution to Social Security B. Childhood disability history C. Increases in cost of living D. Duration of benefits collection
C COLAs are cost-of-living adjustments applied to Social Security general benefits. Increases to COLAs have been based on Consumer Price Index measurements.
Calculate the energy content (kcal) of a 100-g piece of apple pie with the following macronutrient contents: 37 g water, 3 g protein, 16 g fat, 44 g carbohydrate. A. 144 B. 176 C. 332 D. 396
C Carbohydrate (CHO), fat, and protein contribute energy to the food 3 g protein × 4 kcal/g = 12 kcal from protein 16 g fat × 9 kcal/g = 144 kcal from fat 44 g CHO × 4 kcal/g = 176 kcal from CHO Total = 332 kcal
What are protein recommendations for a person with diabetes based on? A. Hydrogen breath test B. Average of a series of A1c measurements C. RDA for healthy individuals D. Resting metabolic rate
C Currently there is insufficient evidence to support a recommendation for ideal protein intake in people with diabetes. The Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of protein for healthy Americans can serve as the basis for protein recommendations in individuals with diabetes.
What is used to calculate protein needs in individuals with pressure ulcer? A. Dietary Reference Intakes B. Bone mineral density C. Staging D. Age
C Dietary Reference Intakes and age are generally used to determine protein needs in healthy individuals. Protein needs in pressure ulcers are primarily based on pressure ulcer stage.
Intake of _____ should be carefully monitored in patients with kidney disease because phosphorous is more easily absorbed from this source. A. Dairy B. Meat C. Inorganic phosphate food additive D. Whole grains
C Dietary phosphorus is found in organic and inorganic sources. Organic sources are animal and vegetarian; inorganic sources are food preservatives. A concern for patients with chronic kidney disease is that the body could absorb as much as 100% of inorganic phosphorus via processed foods. Because absorption rate is variable among different sources, whether a phosphorus source is organic or inorganic and whether it is animal or vegetarian, is noteworthy for this population. Emphasize intake of plant-based proteins and foods containing no inorganic phosphorus additives in these patients.
A foodservice has a 35% labor cost, 23% fixed costs, and a desired profit of 12%. Given a raw food cost of $4.55, what would be the selling price of an item when rounded up to $0.99 on the dollar? A. $13.99 B. $14.99 C. $15.99 D. $16.99
C First determine the divisor: Divisor - (labor cost + fixed costs + desired profit). In this case 100% - (35% + 23% +12%) = 100% - 70% = 30%. To calculate sales price: Cost/Divisor = $4.55/0.3 = $15.16. Round up to $15.99.
The World Health Organization growth charts for children younger than age 2 are based on data from A. Children from the United States only B. Children from the United States and Europe C. Children from six different countries on different continents D. Children from the United States and Canada
C Growth chart data were measured in the United States, Oman, Norway, Brazil, Ghana, and India for a global representation of normal growth based on a foundation of exclusive breastfeeding for at least 4 months
When is it OK to store raw poultry immersed in ice? (Assume all other conditions for safe storage have been met.) A. If it will be used by the end of the day B. If it will be used by the end of the week C. If it was received that way D. Never
C If raw poultry or raw fish is received immersed in ice in shipping containers, they may be stored in that condition until preparation, display, service, or sale.
Which of the following is a likely diagnosis if acanthosis nigricans are present? A. High blood sugar B. Hypertension, in a person who also has diabetes C. High insulin levels in the blood D. Low insulin levels in the blood
C Insulin crosses the dermoepidermal junction to affect the keratinocytes. The binding of excess insulin to insulin-like growth factors stimulates proliferation of keratinocytes and fibroblasts, leading to acanthosis nigricans.
What is the recommended test to screen for gestational diabetes in a client who has a history of roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery and is experiencing dumping syndrome? A. Perform 1-hour oral glucose tolerance test with a 75 g glucose load B. Check hemoglobin A1c levels C. Check fasting and 2-hour postprandial glucose levels for 1 week D. Perform 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test with a 100 g glucose load
C It is recommended to check fasting and 2-hour postprandial blood glucose levels for 1 week during 24-28 weeks gestation. A 1-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) or 3-hour GTT could trigger dumping syndrome, as a high glucose load causes a hyperosmolar environment in the small bowel and the GTT can also result in hypoglycemia in patients who are post gastric bypass surgery. Checking Hgb A1c levels is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes since it is not as reliable as oral glucose tolerance testing.
Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Beta carotene B. Acetaminophen C. Beta hydroxybutyrate D. Acetyl CoA
C Ketone bodies are produced in the liver when carbohydrate availability is reduced. They serve as an alternative fuel source for peripheral tissues including the brain, heart, and skeletal muscle. The three ketone bodies are acetone, acetoacetate, and beta-hydroxybutyrate.
What should be avoided when purchasing bivalve mollusks? A. Shucked oysters B. Tightly closed shells C. Opened shells D. Canned clams
C Living bivalve mollusks have tightly closed shells. Open shells indicate that they are dead and should not be consumed. Shucked and canned mollusks are safe to eat.
Long-term use of corticosteroids can lead to which of the following? A. Low blood pressure B. Increased loss of body fluids C. Hyperglycemia D. Thickened skin
C Long-term use of corticosteroids like prednisone leads to hyperglycemia, hypertension, increased risk of infection, osteoporosis, and bone fracture, thin skin, suppressed adrenal gland hormone production.
Tyramine is a pressor agent in food that can affect which class of drugs? A. Statins B. H blockers C. MAO inhibitors D. Lithium
C Monoamine oxidase inhibitors interact with pressor agents in food such as tyramine, dopamine, histamine, and phenylethylamine, which can result in a sudden increase in blood pressure.
Which of the following is a person with opioid addiction likely to experience? A. Diarrhea B. Weight loss C. Constipation D. Excessive saliva production
C Opioids delay gastric emptying, leading to constipation.
A foodservice employee dissatisfied with a newly implemented policy in the department tells the supervisor that another employee is displeased with the policy rather than admitting personal displeasure. What type of defensive behavior is this? A. Substitution B. Withdrawal C. Projection D. Compensation
C Projection occurs when a person assigns their own thoughts or feelings to someone else.
For adults older than 19 years, how many grams of carbohydrate are needed daily for an adequate supply of glucose to the brain? A. 60 g B. 75 g C. 130 g D. 160 g
C The National Academy of Sciences recommends consuming at least 130 g (520 kcal) carbohydrate per day, the minimum amount of carbohydrates needed to produce enough glucose for the brain to function.
What does the Older Americans Act Nutrition Program (OAANP) offer? A. Nutrition counseling for older adults via federally funded clinics B. Food vouchers for low-income, elderly individuals C. Grants to support nutrition services at the state level for individuals older than 60 years of age D. Nutrition-related promotional materials to be distributed in nursing homes.
C The OAANP offers state grants to support nutrition services for older adults, including programs that provide health-promoting meals in a variety of group settings, such as senior centers, and faith-based settings, as well as in the homes of frail, isolated homebound older adults
Which vitamin deficiency is likely to develop in a patient with liver disease? A. A B. E C. D D. K
C Vitamin D deficiency is frequently reported in liver disease patients and is thought to result from impaired synthesis and absorption.
What is the minimal internal temperature for cooking chicken breast? A. 145°F B. 150°F C. 155°F D. 165°F
D
The standard recipe for the entrée makes 24 servings and each entrée serving is sold for $3.99. The sales goal for the entrée is $1200 total in one day. How many batches of the standard recipe should be prepared to meet the goal? A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13
D 1200/3.99= 300.75 entrees 300.75 entrees/24 servings= 12.5 Round up to make 13 batches of the recipe to have enough entrees to sell to meet the sales goal.
Which of the following lists the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, the job's working condition, and the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform it? A. Job specification B. Job identification C. Job qualifications D. Job description
D A job description details the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, as well as the working conditions and tools and equipment to be used on the job.
Xerostomia is a condition marked by which of the following? A. Abnormal smell and taste B. Cloudiness of cornea C. Inflammation of lips and gums D. Decreased salivary secretion and dry mouth
D A person with xerostomia experiences decreased saliva production and dry mouth
Which of the following is the best option for a vegan menu? A. Honey-roasted carrots B. Coffee with nondairy creamer C. Cauliflower prepared with buffalo sauce D. Quinoa mixed with tamari
D Among those listed, quinoa mixed with tamari is the best option for a vegan diet. Many nondairy creamers contain a small percentage of sodium caseinate, which is derived from milk; honey is derived from animals; and buffalo sauce often contains butter.
What is the term for a budget that includes rental and labor costs needed to run the business? A. Capital budget B. Forecast budget C. Flexible budget D. Operating budget
D An operating budget includes revenue, fixed costs such as rent, variable costs such as labor, and non-operating and non-cash expenses.
In type 1 diabetes, what is the risk of trying to keep the blood sugars very low (as close to the non-diabetic range as possible)? A. Increase in occurrence of nephropathy B. Increase in occurrence of retinopathy C. Hyperglycemia D. Hypoglycemia
D Attempts to keep blood glucose levels within a narrow range via aggressive insulin dosing will inevitably result in some low levels of blood glucose, which can have significant adverse effects, particularly in children.
People with cystic fibrosis are most likely to become deficient in A. thiamine and iron B. vitamin B12 C. selenium and magnesium D. zinc and fat-soluble vitamins
D Both zinc and fat-soluble vitamins are lost in the stool of individuals with cystic fibrosis due to pancreatic insufficiency.
Which chemical compound causes irritation that stimulates nerve endings to provide the sensation of spicy-hot? A. Bromelain B. Papain C. Piperine D. Capsaicin
D Capsaicin is a chemical compound in hot chili peppers. Bromelain and papain are enzymes found in pineapple and papaya, respectively. Piperine is chemical compound found in black peppers.
Which of the following is present in steatohepatitis? A. Benign accumulation in the liver B. Excess glycogen in the liver C. Protein toxicity in the liver D. Fat accumulation and inflammation of the liver
D Damage occurs to hepatocytes due to an excess of primary metabolic substrates (glucose, fructose, and fatty acids) in the liver, resulting in diversion of fatty acids into pathways that promote cellular injury and a dysfunctional response to that injury.
Which acts as an emulsifier in food preparation? A. Egg white B. Whole milk C. Bananas D. Egg yolk
D Egg yolks are high in phospholipids, which contain both lipophilic fatty acid groups and hydrophilic head groups. These allow aqueous and fatty substances to become stable in an emulsion.
Among the following foods, which would be reintroduced last after bowel resection? A. Mashed potatoes B. Coffee C. Bananas D. Strawberries
D Fluids and soft foods are reintroduced to the diet first following bowel resection. Coffee has proven to be effective in stimulating postsurgical bowel movements. It is recommended that eating any fresh fruit except bananas be delayed until 4-6 weeks postsurgery.
After a major flood, which of the following is OK to retain? A. A screw-top jar of peanut butter B. A snap-top container of snack chips C. A box of infant formula D. A retort pouch of cashews
D Foods with retort pouches and cans are waterproof and safe to retain, so long as certain precautionary measures are followed, such as removing labels, thoroughly washing the pouches or cans with hot water (if available), brushing or wiping away any silt, and sanitizing by immersion. Jars and canisters with screw tops or snap lids and baby formula boxes are not waterproof and should be thrown out.
Which transporter distributes fructose across the intestinal apical membrane? A. Glut-1 B. Glut-3 C. Glut-2 D. Glut-5
D Glut-5 is primarily located in the apical membrane of the jejunum and is the main transporter of fructose from the lumen to the enterocytes. Fructose is passively transported by glut-5 across the intestinal apical membrane and then glut-2 transports fructose from the cytosol to the blood.
What may develop as a result of excessive milk consumption? A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Hemolytic anemia C. Intestinal bleeding disorder D. Microcytic anemia
D Milk is low in iron content and larger intakes of milk (cow, goat, and soy) may displace high-iron foods, leading to iron-deficiency anemia. The most common cause of microcytic anemia is iron-deficiency anemia. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by folate or vitamin B12 deficiency. Hemolytic anemia is associated with vitamin E deficiency.
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that affects transport of which mineral across the cell membrane? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Phosphorus D. Chloride
D Mutation of cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR) on chromosome 7 results in the abnormal CFTR protein that transports chloride across the membranes of lungs, liver, pancreas, digestive tract, reproductive tract, and skin.
What term is defined as an obsession with avoiding unhealthful foods and eating a "correct" diet? A. Binge-eating disorder B. Bulimia nervosa C. Avoidant restrictive food intake disorder D. Orthorexia
D Orthorexia was coined in 1998 and has been gaining awareness in the health community but it has not yet been recognized as a diagnosis in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. Orthorexia refers to behavior that may begin with the desire to eat healthy but then ultimately turns to fixated thoughts on healthful eating and drastically changed eating behaviors. The other answer options are eating disorders with specific diagnostic criteria and that are marked more by a fixation on the amount of food consumed rather than the source of food.
Eating seasonally is a principle of which of the following eating practices? A. Organic B. Orthorexic C. Biodiverse D. Sustainable
D Principles of sustainable eating include growing at home, shopping locally, and eating seasonally. Focusing on local, fresh, in-season foods supports sustainability because it helps to eliminate the need to ship foods from farther locales.
Which of the following conditions may benefit from a nutrition intervention that removes synthetic dyes from the diet? A. Prader-Willi syndrome B. Hypertension C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder
D Removal of synthetic food dyes (eg, blue 1&2, citrus red 2, green 3, red 40, and yellow 5&6 may reduce hyperactive and attentional symptoms in individuals with neurobehavioral disorders such as ADHD and ASD.
Which part of a rhubarb plant is typically eaten? A. Flower B. Root and tuber C. Fruit D. Stem
D Rhubarb is like celery— typically the stem of the plant is the portion that is eaten.
Which of the following is an effect of lung disease on nutritional status? A. Increased appetite B. Increased intake due to fluid restriction C. Decreased energy expenditure, altered metabolism, decreased work of breathing D. Difficulty preparing food due to fatigue
D Shortness of breath related to lung disease can cause fatigue, which may affect a person's ability to procure and prepare food and could result in poor nutritional intake.
Which of the following businesses is exempt from Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) penalties for noncompliance with job discrimination according to the Americans with Disabilities Act? A. A state-funded School Nutrition Association with 18 full-time staff and 20 part-time staff B. A public hospital system with 3 hospitals within the same region C. A university's on-campus café with 15 full-time employees assigned to one of 3 shifts D. A private practice with 2 RDNs and 5 staff
D The Americans with Disabilities Act mandates that all employers, including state and local governments, with 15 or more employees must comply with the job discrimination laws set forth in the Americans with Disabilities Act.
Which of the following is a tenet of the DASH diet? A. Dice foods into pieces no bigger than 1.5 cm x 1.5 cm B. Limit sodium intake to 1000 mg/day C. Follow a vegetarian eating pattern D. Choose low-fat dairy options
D The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension, or DASH, diet recommends that dairy intake be limited to low-fat options. The DASH diet limits sodium to no more than 2300 mg/day. The DASH diet does emphasize fruits and vegetables, but entirely removing meat from the diet is not necessary. The recommendation for dicing foods into bite-sized pieces is more typically applicable to individuals with conditions that affect chewing and swallowing and is not included in the DASH diet.
Which of the following is an expected outcome from obtaining a National Provider Identification (NPI) number? A. To prevent other less-qualified nutritionists from obtaining one B. To share with prospective clients for an outpatient nutrition counseling center C. To obtain a certificate to display nutrition expertise D. To demonstrate adequate workforce capacity for Medicare payment policies
D The NPI serves as a "digital footprint" that can enable better understanding of the care provided, including specific nutrition interventions, RDN attribution to patient care, and the evaluation and reporting of outcomes and quality measures. The individual NPI is an important mechanism for demonstrating a viable workforce of RDN and NDTRs to external stakeholders, including public and private payors. All credentialed nutrition and dietetics practitioners (RDNs and NDTRs) should have an individual NPI regardless of work environment, employment status, or whether claims are submitted to payers
If a saucepan that conducts heat well is needed, which gauge should be used? A. 4 B. 10 C. 14 D. 20
D The higher the gauge of a saucepan, the thinner the metal. Heavier stainless steel does not conduct heat well. Therefore, the best option in this case is a 20-gauge saucepan.
An inventory control tool that uses high, medium and low value system is known as the _____ method. A. minimum-maximum B. economic order quantity C. inventory valuation D. A-B-C Inventory
D The principle of the ABC inventory method is that effort, time, and money for inventory control should be allocated among products according to their value.