ECS tabs
When must the ACO be activated or deactivated?
(+/-) 30 seconds from the time specified on the ACO
RL-3 launchers should be located within _______ of the PTL.
+ or - 10 degrees of the PTL
Tab 95, current rs data field must be within how many degrees of the commanded azimuth to allow mapping?
+ or - 2 degrees
When must the ACO be activated or deactivated?
+ or - 30 seconds from the tiem specified on the ACO
Within how many degrees of the PTL must each local ls be emplaced?
+ or - 80 degrees
What is the clearance angle for a remote ls required to be for missile acquisition?
.5 degrees
How are radar frequencies numbered?
0-31
When is a new SAMSTAT reported?
0001z daily, when there is a change to a reportable status, upon assumption of a new alert state, at the completion of an RFA.
When is samstat reported?
0001z, after an RFA drill, alert state assumption, and any change in. The equipment status
How many sub-assets can a battery have?
1
What is the numbering for TB assets?
1-3 at the btry. 1-18 at the bn
What are the ID weight sets?
1-peacetime, 2-transition, 3-wartime. TAB 1, page 1
What are the alert states?
1. ABT 2. TBM 3. Passive search 4. Radiate- disable 5. CDR discretion 6. Maintenance 7. Destroyed / nmc 0. In transit
What are the 5 pages of the fault data S/I?
1. Major faults 2. Commo net status 3. CRG/lcs net ststion 4. Launcher commo (radio/fiber) 5. NFS/GPS status (emplacement status)
What are the range limits of RL-1?
1.3 to 10km
How many poimts can be programmed in tab 96?
10
The maximum allowable slope of the emplacement site for the EPP must not exceed ___________ degrees?
10
What is the distance of concern for plotting ISLB points?
10 km
What is the missile heat time of a PAC-3 interceptor?
10 minutes
How many database entries can an operator have?
10 total; numbered 0-9.
What is the maximum usable length of the RWCIU cable?
100 ft.
How far is a short shot on the AMG?
10km
What is the maximum length of the RWCIU cable?
120 ft.
The operator can select English or metric units in page 1 of tab ________
14
The elevation difference between OSLB points cannot exceed ______.
140 mils
When doing ISLB the elevation in mils cannot exceed a _____ mil difference from point to point, ______ mils maximum across all points.
140, 200
How many beams are in PPI?
15
How many letter codes are used on the SAMSTATREP?
15
It is recommended that the RSOP team have _______ members
15
How many radar frequencies are there?
160
How many ID weight sets are there and what do they mean?
1: peace time, 2: transition from peace to war, 3: war time
If terrain or artificial features between the RS and LS exceed ______ local LS or _______ remote LS above the LOS, radar acquisition may not occur.
2 degrees, 0.5 degrees
Tab 7 cannot be selected when tab _____, _______, _______, or ________ is displayed at the other man station?
2, 9, 63, 85
Once you power up the RS, how long does it take for the temperature control components to become stable?
20 minutes
ISLB elevation cannot exceed _______.
200 mils
How many traces are there in RHI?
21
How many types of ABT assets are there and what are they?
2: point and radial
When entering assets for defense, if you enter an AT asset, what is the size of the TBM defense that is automatically enabled?
2km within the radius of the at protected area
How many TB assets can the operator input?
3
How many methods of fire are available to the operator?
3
How many virtual targets can you input into tab 4?
3
How are PPI beams arranged?
3 sets of 5
What is the distance that a track has to move from its original detected position for it to pass a minimum distance test?
3% or 1km
Tab 70 can have up to _______ ASM/TBM defended assets and up to ______ ABT defended assets.
3, 6
Radar transmitter & bite data can be found in tab ________
30
Describe the size and slope of the fire control area
30 meters X 35 meters and less than a 10 degree slope
Winds are considered to be a gale force at ________nm per hour
35
How fast must the winds be in order to change the value in tab 7?
35 knots
How many ABT assets can the operator input?
36
When doing ISLB, you should only consider terrain between _________km and _________km.
3; 10km
How many targets can have traiks at each MS?
4
How many targets can have trails per MAN station?
4
The RSOP evaluation has how many phases?
4
What is the highest number of canisters that can be stacked in the MSA?
4
In order to do a 1 point ISLB, the horizon must not exceed a ______ tolerance.
4 mils
In order to do a 1-point ISLB, the horizon must not exceed a _______ tolerance.
4 mils
What is the numbering for ABT assets?
4-9 at the btry. 19-54 at the bn
What is the tiem between 1st and 2nd shot for a modified ripple?
4.8s delay unless the LNIP is less than 9km, in which it is 3.2s delay.
What is the maximum shot distance of the AMG?
40km
During initialization, the NFS alignment accuracy UTM coordinate can be no more than __________ from the actual radar location?
40km / 50 m by raytheon.
What is the maximum left to right width for RHI?
42km
For Table VIII certification, the Patriot system must rejoin the air battle within ________min. With minimum engagement capability.
45
How many hours of Mode 1 & 3 codes can be input into Tab 73?
48 hours
How many methods of fire are there?
4; 3 selectable
If an ACO is numbered 10D, what does this signify?
4th ACO on the tenth day of the month
A PATRIOT pure fire unit is required to deploy with at least how many launchers to complete a table VIII certification?
5
How many IFF conditions are there?
5
How many W codes are there?
5
How many prints can be programmed in tab 96?
5
The ACO will tell you which volumes to activate in tab________
5
Upon notification, the RSOP OIC has _______ minutes to brief the RSOP team?
5
Which two tabs can be used to activate or deactivate assets?
5, 70
In tab 96, what are the left and right azimuth limits?
5250 - 1150 mils
In tab 96 what are the left and right azimuth limits?
5250-1150 mils
How many pages does the ECS volumes tabs have?
55
Tab 71 can have up to ______ units and ____ points.
55 and 250
How amny corrals can be programmed in each sector of display E?
6
How many corrals can be programmed in each sector of display E?
6
You see that line 6 of the STO has an S6 in column 2. What does this signify?
6 LSs in standby on the PTL with TBM search on
What are the range limits of the RL-3?
6 to 30km
Mode 1 and mode 3 correlation sre turned in on tab ______ amd they are authorized in tab _____.
6, 1
Within how many degrees of the PTL must a remote ls be emplaced?
60 degrees
What is the maximum usable length of the EPP power cables?
60ft.
How many control centers may operate in the tactical net, which may span a radius of several hundred miles?
62
Tab ______ must be completed before launchers are emplaced in tab______.
68; 85
Display A allows the operator to map up to how many azimuth positions?
69
What is the maximum number of radar azimuth positions that can be skipped in tab 97?
7
Tab 5 in the ECS turms off everything in tab _________.
70
Tab 5 is updated for each entry into TABs _______ and ________.
70 and 71
During initialization, altitude and speed (English/metric) effect tabs _____, ______, _______, and _______.
71, 78, 79, 92
What is the maximum length of the EPP power cables?
75 ft.
If an ACO is numbered 13G, what does this signify?
7th ACO on the 13th day of that month
How many threat launch areas can an operator input?
8
The ECS operator can select ______ tabs at the control indicator?
8
What is the maximum number OCUs that the IDOCS can use?
8
Within how many degrees of the PTL must each local ls be emplaced?
80 degrees
How many TVM slots are available for non-PAC3 missiles?
9
If an aircraft is flying below the TMAT and not threatening an asset, what will its ATC be?
9
Local LSs must be emplaced at a minimum of how far away from each other?
90 meters
How many tracks can a single ECS track on scope at one time?
99
What negates the need for any threat assessment?
A friendly identity
Why is A-mapping better than C-mapping?
A-mapping establishes a separate OSLB for each azimuth position and maps the location of the radar masking terrain mapping
What does ID Authority originate with?
AADC
The alternate search sector tab page A is used for?
ABT
What are the five search modes?
ABT, TBM/ABT, CM/ABT, CM/ABT/TBM-SELF, TBM
Who ultimately approves the ACO before it disseminated?
ACA - airspace controlling agency
Who disseminates the STO, ACO, CAL/DAL?
ADAFCO
Who is the link between AADC DCA operations and land based ADA systems for engagement commands?
ADAFCO
If you are in tab 1 and you see a DEFCON warning of A, what does this mean?
ADE air defense emergency
What are the three degrees of air raid probabilities?
ADW red, yellow, white
Which ADW is understood as an air attack not being likely or probable?
ADW white
What is line G of the ACO? What are the volumes?
AIR CORRIDORS. F1H - F49H
__________ represent the greatest threat to the AMD, aviation, and intelligence radar community.
ARMs
What is ECS tab 4?
ASOJ virtual target control
What is ECS tab 34?
ATM3 cold fire prevention
Only _______ assets are used in the evaluation process.
Active
EDWA functios to evaluate both ________ and __________ ID data.
Active and passive
Which ACM is used to route combat aviation elements between areas, such as, forward arming and refueling points, holding areas, and battle positions?
Air corridor
Line 4 of the STO is what?
Air defense warning
What are the three types of reconnaissance?
Air, ground, map
How are changes to tab 55 activated?
Alternate search sector 1, alternate search sector 2, drop long range as appropriate
What is ECS tab 55?
Alternate search sector control
Weapons free is defined how?
Any target not positively identified as friendly may be engaged
The _______ S/I enables or disables the weapons controls status entered into tab 71 for pure weapons control volumes?
Area enable
Which S/I differentiates pure weapons control areas from residual weapons control areas?
Areas enable
Page 1 of tab 5 is ________ status/ control
Asset
What is ECS tab 5?
Asset / volume status / control
What is the responsibility for protecting assets assigned to the fire unit for protection?
Asset defense
What is ECS tab 5?
Asset/ volume status/ control
A missile commanded to climb because of URLAT will detonate in the air at what attitude?
At least 3km above local ground level
The term ADW red means what?
Attack is imminent or in progress
What does ADW white mean?
Attack is not probable
Define ID Authority
Authority to assign the identity of an unknown track as friendly or hostile, if possible
On page 1 of tab 1, the operwtor van set the ID mode to either ________ or _______.
Auto or manual
A _____ is set up aroumd an airbase and its size is limited to the engagement envelope of the SHORAD weapon system defending it.
BDZ
Which ACM is limited to thw size of the SHORADEZ Defending it?
BDZ
What is line H of the ACO? What are the volumes?
BDZ - base defense zone. F50H - F99H
Who directs the operator to gather RTG bite information?
BMO
BRAA?
Bearing range altitude aspect
What does the acronym BRAA stand for?
Bearing, range, altitude, aspect
Who decides whether to do mapping or not?
Bn s-3 or the battalion commander
What are the engagement statuses?
CHEEPJEWSLVFC - cease fire, hold fire, engage, engagement failure, pending engagement, jammer range, engagement hold, weapons hold, slow target, low missile status, valid SIF, false target, confirmed/ probable kill.
What is line O of the ACO?
COORDINATING ALTITUDE
What is the file EDWA generates on a track as it enters the PCF?
CTDR - composite track data record
Which S/I inhibits further automatic engagements on the target but will allow any engagements in progress to continue until completion?
Cease fire
Which S/I is used to prevent over engagement of a track?
Cease fire
Which S/I is used to prevent over-engagement of a track?
Cease fire
What is ECS tab 2?
Communications control + TOD master
How can you verify that the horizon plot is set correctly?
Compare the HORP printout to actual terrain or a map
What is ECS tab 74?
Compass rose tables
Define refraction parameter.
Compensation for refraction of light and radar beams
What are the 2 states if classification?
Confirmed or presumed
What is the only type of jammer that gets negative points for ECM emitter?
Continuous
What is ECS tab 32?
Continuous diagnostic control and review
Which track bypass the PCF?
Continuous jammers, down-told tracks from the ICC, target classified as TBMs
Which tracks bypass the PCF?
Continuous jammers, down-told tracks from the ICC, targets classified as TBM
Which ACM may include a buffer zone for small altitude deviations and extend from the forward edge of the communication zone to the FLOT?
Coordinating altitude
What is ECS tab 76?
Counter ARM threat parameters
What is the CAL?
Critical asset list - list of all assets that the supported has determined to require AMD protection
What form is used to record manual emplacement data for the radar?
Da form 7616-R
What form is used to record radar supplemental roll and cross-roll data?
Da form 7617-r
When is a new STO issued?
Daily at 0001z, and whenever there is a chamge to the STO
What is ECS tab 98?
Data base control
What is ECS tab 13?
Data base initialization selection
What is ECS tab 90?
Data collection control
What is ECS Tab 68?
Data communications control
What is ECS tab 68?
Data communications control
What is ECS tab 13?
Database or initialization selection
What is the DAL?
Defended asset list - prioritized list of assets that need to be defended based on criticality and threat
What is the top down interactive process that covers the full spectrum of ADA operations?
Defense design
There is only one input that allows the operator input into launcher scoring, what is it?
Depletion rule set in tab 78
What are the TBM events that are printed out automatically?
Detection, engagement, interception
During mapping, which display should be used when the contour is irregular?
Display A
What type of display is used for fairly level terrain?
Display C
Equipment crews that score a 95% or better in all related sub-areas on the 1st attempt are designated as what?
Distinguished equipment crews
Whish S/Is work in conjunction with tab 55?
Drop short range, drop long range, altern sector 1, altern sector 2
What S/I causes surveillance of a target in coverage area to stop and if it continues in the sector, is regenerated and new track recorded?
Drop track
What is line 2b on the STO?
EA - engagement authority
What are the authorizations found on page 1 of tab 1 in the ECS?
ECM, Pop-Up, minimum safe velocity, slow tgt eng, Mode 4 friend, SIF friend, assumed friend, ARM class
What are the passive counter ARM measures?
Emplace under EMCOM silent, emplace on hardened site, use an external air picture
What is brevity code hostile?
Enemy: cleared to engage
Brevity code bandit means what?
Enemy: not cleared to engage
What S/I causes engagement of eligible hooked target as soon as possible?
Engage
The 9 most threatening targets will be found on the left hand side of what tab?
Engage data
What is described as the air defense echelon at which positive management of the air battle is being conducted?
Engagement authority
What does ETRO stand for?
Estimated time until return to operations
What is line h on the ACO?
F50H-F99H, BDZ, base defense zone
What is ECS tab 1?
FIDOC + operational parameters change
What is ECS tab 8?
FP control
What is ECS tab 91?
FP data acquisition Mode select / control
What is ECS tab 91?
FP data acquisition Mode select/ control
What is ECS tab 99?
FP data transfer control
What tab does the operator check launcher coverage?
FP status tab
What tab does the operator check the emplacement status of a launcher?
FP status tab
What tab does the operator verify the PTL of the radar and the launchers?
FP status tab
What tab does the operator check the emplacement status of the radar?
FP status tab, page 5
What tab does the operator check if launchers are in standby?
FP status tab, tab 7, FP status panel
What are the 6 different threats mentioned in line 2b of the STO?
FW, TBM, ARM, CM, UAV, RW
What tab do you check the NFS/GPS status of a launcher?
Fault data tab
What tab does the operator confirm launchers are in on fiber or radio?
Fault data tab
In which tab can you find LS emplacement status percentage?
Fault data tab page 5
In which tab can you find LS emplacement status percentage?
Fault data tab, page 5
What are the three categories of response to fix or fight?
Fight, must fix, decision required
The fire control cell consists of which four personnel?
Fire control officer(FCO), PASO, FCA-M, ALO
When is salvo fire used?
For self defense threats (ATC 1 and TLL less than 30) amd asset defemse against targets whose TLL is less than 30
The ECCM enable S/I will command the radar to use _________ if authorized in tab 54.
Frequency diversity
What are the four missions conducted inside the ECS?
Friendly protect, weapons control, equipment control, ECCM assist
What are the three ARM alerts?
General ARM threat warning, ARM carrier alert, ARM attack warning
What is ECS tab 72?
General purpose maps entry
Define GLIF.
Ground level interference filter. Reduces frequent ground level clutter.
What type of ACM is 123H?
HIDACZ
Which ACM also restricts the use of specific airspace because of the large volume and density of fires supporting the ground operations within the described geographical area?
HIDACZ
Which ACM has defined dimensions that usually coincide with geographical features or navigational aids?
HIDACZ
What is line M of the ACO? What are the volumes?
HIDACZ - high density airspace control zone. 100H - 149H
Which ACM is normally reserved for medium to long range AD missile systems?
HIMEZ
What is line A of the ACO? What are the volumes?
HIMEZ - high altitude missile engagement zone. H150H/T/F - H199H/T/F
What are the 5 missile engagement zones on the ACO?
HIMEZ, JES, LOMEZ, SHORADEZ, WEZ
The _________ display is a horizontal plot of the ISLB and OSLB.
HORP
Which S/I is used to destroy a missile in flight?
Hold fire
What is ECS tab 94?
Horizon plot control
Line 2a on the STO is what?
ID Authority
What S/I work in conjunction with tab 71?
ID areas and weapon control areas
What two S/Is work in conjunction with tab 71?
ID areas, weapons control areas
What is ECS tab 6?
IFF/SIF control
What is line P of the ACO?
IFFON, IFFOFF, IFPID, PIDON, FSCL
What are the 5 IFF conditions?
IGEMS - IP, garble, emergency, mult-reply, spoof
What is ECS tab 79?
Identification parameters
What is ECS tab 96?
Initial search lower bound data entry
Declare?
Inquire ID
What does the second page of tab 2 allow?
It allows the operator to set the DLT and LS prime path modes
What is significant ofnthe ECM attribute?
It is a permanent indicator
H201H is an example identity for which ACM?
JEZ
H201H is an example of what ACM?
JEZ
What is line B of the ACO? What are the volumes?
JEZ - joint engagement zone. H200H/T/F - H249H/T/F
What is ECS tab 73?
KAA-63 table AM and table PM
What is ECS tab 73?
KAA-63 table Am and PM
What is line I of the ACO? What are the volumes?
LLTR - low level transit route. F250H - F259H
What is H301H an example identity of?
LOMEZ
What is line C of the ACO?
LOMEZ
Which ACM is a volume of airspace established to control engagements of low to medium altitude SAM units?
LOMEZ
What is line C of the ACO? What are the volumes?
LOMEZ - low altitude missile engagement zone. H300H - H349H
What two indicators will come on after tab 85 has been entered?
LS OPER and DDL
What is ECS tab 7?
LS control + wind speed
What is ECS tab 7?
LS control and wind speed
What is ECS tab 16?
LS fault data
What is ECS tab 85?
LS location / alignment
What is ECS tab 3
LS test results
What is ECS tab 3?
LS test results
What is ECS tab 78?
Launch decision parameters
What is ECS tab 16?
Launcher fault data
What is ECS tab 63?
Launcher group assignments
What is ECS tab 85?
Launcher location / alignment
On what line of the STO would you look to find your directed alert state?
Line 6
The WFZ is on which line if the ACO?
Line F
Thw WFZ is on which line if the ACO?
Line F
What are the 2 lines of the ACO that do not have a number value assigned to them?
Line O: coordinating altitude. Line P: IFPID, PIDON, FCSL, IFFON, IFFOFF
What will cause the RSOP team to become decertified?
Loss of OIC, NCOIC, or four or more team members
How do down told tracks appear in the ECS?
Low bright
What is displayed when system meets missile cutoff threshold parameters, engagements must then meet ATC criteria IAW the threat cutoff threshold parameters and missile cutoff threshold parameters?
Low missile status - LOMSL
When utilizing RL-3 capabilities, operators should prefer the LS be at a _________ elevation than the RS
Lower
What report is used to report jamming of radio frequencies?
MIJI
What is line J of the ACO? What are the volumes?
MRR - minimum risk route. F350H - F359H.
The purpose of ______ is to point out terrain features that could mask an aircraft.
MTM - masked terrain mapping
Radar location data confidence level comes from what 3 sources?
Map, survey, modified survey
What is ECS tab 97?
Mapping display / control select entry
What is ECS tab 97?
Mapping display/ control select entry
What is ECS tab 92?
Masked areas drawing control
What S/I displays masked terrain corrals?
Masked terrain/ maps
What switch indicator must be activated while putting data into TAB 72?
Masked terrain/ maps
What are the three major pre-classification tests that are run by the pre-classification filter?
Minimum distance test, slow speed test, and false target test
What tab does the operator check missile inventory?
Missile inventory & status tab
Which IFF code set is the general code set amd is used by US and coalition aircraft?
Mode 1
Mode 1 codes include_____?
Most US and coalition
Are pop-up criteria applied within a friendly origin?
No
Can a PAC-2 launcher be used at an RL3 launcher farm?
No
What is brevity code winchester?
No ordinance remaining
Brevity code spades means what?
No response
Whike preparing the ECS for power-up and operation, CM2 verifies that the lighting control panel normal/off/maintenance switch is in what position?
Normal
What are the 9 types of displays that are present in the tabular display area?
North pointer, alert messages, TBM/ASM mode indicators, tabular displays, program build ID, auxiliary messages, A-scope display, windowed out hooked target, time of day
Which RSOP team member validates the PTL?
OIC
What are the 4 attributes found in tab 71?
ORIG - origin, SPC - safe passage corridor, RVA - restricted volume attribute, PVA - prohibited volume attribute
What are the 4 attributes programmed in tab 71?
ORIG origin, SPC safe passage corridor, RVA restricted volume attribute, PVA prohibited volume attribute.
When the equipment control S/I is turned on, the alert filter is turned _____.
Off
Which S/I displays the situation centered relative to the cursor selected position?
Offset
When is ripple fire used?
On multiple tracks whose TLL is greater than 30, TLR is 0, inside 50km
Tab 31 is updated how often?
Once every second
What does the term weapons tight mean?
Only targets positively identified as hostile may be engaged
What tab shows system operational status?
Operational assessment tab
What is command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the combatant command?
Operational command
What S/I shows current condition of the system as assessed by the status monitor Mode Control program?
Operator assess
Which ECS party line is used for intelligence and reports?
PL2
On what page of the FP status tab would you look to find information on launcher location?
Page 2
Self-defense criteria can be found on what page of tab 1?
Page 4
What are the two types of ID information a fire unit acquires?
Passive and active
What is PPI?
Plan position indicator
What are the two types of ABT assets?
Point and radial
What arr the 3 types of TBM assets?
Point, radial, polygon
What is brevity code bittersweet?
Possible fratricide
What are the four phases of RSOP?
Preparation, movement, survey, emplacement
Whare the two types of jammers than can be identified using A-scope?
Quiet & repeater
What are the two types of jammers that can be identified using A-scope?
Quiet and repeater
What is line N of the ACO? What are the volumes?
ROA - restricted operations area. 400H - 449H
The mission of the ______ team is to select the best terrain and equipment sites that enable the Patriot battery to perform its mission.
RSOP
What RSOP team member is responsible for setting up the OE-254?
RSOP OIC driver
What is ECS tab 54?
Radar frequency control
What is ECS tab 31?
Radar functions summaries, in percent
What is ECS tab 81?
Radar location / alignment
What is ECS tab 81?
Radar location/ alignment data entry
That is ECS tab 95?
Radar mapping train control
What is ECS tab 95?
Radar mapping train control + summary
Brevity code gadget means what?
Radar or emitter equipment
What is RHI?
Range height indicator
What is ECS tab 9?
Reorientation control
If RRT Ports are set from an external source, what is set in tab 68?
S synchronous
What is line K of the ACO? What are the volumes?
SAAFR - standard use army aircraft flight route. F450H - F499H
Who is the ADAFCO co-located with in order to organize AD and airspace ops?
SADC/ RADC
What is line D of the ACO? What are the volumes?
SHORADEZ - short range air defense system engagement zone. H500H - H549H
What attribute would you authorize in tab 71 for a SAAFR?
SPC
What should you map first, the PTL or the STL?
STL
On which report will the IDA and EA be distributed?
STO
An order that directs AMD units to posture their system IAW the current enemy and friendly situation is called the ________.
STO - surface to air missile tactical order
Which ACM is labeled H/550-899H/T/F?
SUA
Which ACM is labeled H/F550 - 899H/T/F?
SUA
Which ACM is used to define airspace for a specific purpose?
SUA
What is line L of the ACO? What are the volumes?
SUA - special use area. H/F550H/T/F - H/F899H/T/F
What S/I is used to illuminate adjacent FUs search and track sectors while performing FU-FU ops?
Sector bounds
What is ECS tab 93?
Sector mapping review control
What are the 4 methods of fire?
Shoot-look-shoot, ripple, salvo, hi/lo ripple; modified ripple is the fifth)
What are the two methods of estimating the range of a continous jammer?
Software and operator
When no previous data base is available, which type of emplacement will be selected in tab 91?
Standard emplacement
What are the 4 types of initialization?
Standard, long-term reinitialization, short term reinitialization, standard emplacement with database read
Radar location data confidence level comes from what 3 sources?
Survey, map, modified survey
What tab do you set the RLRIU address for the FU?
TAB 68
What does brevity code alligator mean?
TADIL-A
What is brevity code beaver?
TADIL-B
Brevity code timber means what?
TADIL-J
Explain how there is TBM coverage in an ABT asset.
TBM coverage is applied to a 2km radius within the ABT assets.
What is ECS tab 15?
TBM discrimination parameters
What is ECS tab 44?
TBM threat set control
What is ECS tab 70?
TBM/ABT defended assets
What is ECS tab 70?
TBM/ASM/ABT defended assets
What housee the TADIL-A radio equipment?
TCS
How can the operator tell is an asset is being overrun?
TLL is negative
What is ECS tab 30?
TWT select + transmitter bite data
What is ECS tab 30?
TWT select and transmitter bite data
In what tab is operator override time adjusted?
Tab 1
TBM A engagement range bias is modified in which tab?
Tab 1
What tab does the operator authorize ARM class?
Tab 1
What tab does the operator authorize mode 4 friend?
Tab 1
What tab does the operator input ADW?
Tab 1
What tab does the operator input DEFCON?
Tab 1
What tab does the operator input the alert state?
Tab 1
On what tab and page is ABT engagement range bias found?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab and page can you change DEFCON?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab and page can you change ID mode?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab and page is ADW programmed in?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab can you change ABT engagement range bias?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab can you change ID weight set?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab can you change air defense warning?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab can you you change alert state?
Tab 1, page 1
What tab and page can you change GLIF + TWS velocity threshold?
Tab 1, page 2
What tab and page can you change GLIF?
Tab 1, page 2
What tab and page can you change STD-ATM1T TBM engagement alt bias?
Tab 1, page 2
What tab and page can you change STD-ATM1T TBM engagement range bias?
Tab 1, page 2
What tab and page can you change TWS interference filter?
Tab 1, page 2
What tab and page can you change helo discrimination?
Tab 1, page 2
What tab and page does the operator change GLIF?
Tab 1, page 2
What tab can you change FP search mode?
Tab 1, page 2
Where is the FP search mode located in your tabs?
Tab 1, page 2
Refraction parameters are set in what tab and page?
Tab 1, page 3
What tab and page can you change ATM2 bias?
Tab 1, page 3
What tab and page can you change ATM3 bias?
Tab 1, page 3
On what tab and page would you find URLAT?
Tab 1, page 4
What tab and page can you change TBMA dive angle?
Tab 1, page 4
What tab and page can you change TBMA dive calculation?
Tab 1, page 4
What tab and page can you change URLAT?
Tab 1, page 4
What tab and page can you change refraction parameters?
Tab 1, page 4
What tab and page does the operator change refraction parameters?
Tab 1, page 4
What tab can you change TBMA dive altitude?
Tab 1, page 4
What tab and page can you change ABT self defense MOF?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab and page can you change TTLL cutoff?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab and page can you change altitude limit?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab and page can you change approach angle limit?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab and page can you change invalid IFF response A criteria?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab and page can you change range limit?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab and page can you change self defense criteria?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab and page can you change speed threshold?
Tab 1, page 5
What tab does the operator change in order to conduct ducting procedures?
Tab 1, tab 55
During initialization, what tab appears first?
Tab 13
If I wanted to identify my tactical DB version, what tab would I select?
Tab 13
What tab does the operator select a database from?
Tab 13
What tab does the operator change from English to metric?
Tab 14
Which tab do you control the print out of TBM events amd TBM launch piint determinations?
Tab 14
You cam see a continous jammer displayed at 50km. What tab would you go into in order to change the displayed range?
Tab 14
On what tab and page are altitude bands found?
Tab 14, page 2
Where is a jammer strobe line display range entered?
Tab 14, page 2
Where is launch point discrimination turned on?
Tab 14, page 3
What tab do you turn VTWS on?
Tab 15
What tab is used for TBM discrimination parameters?
Tab 15
Where do you find fault data for an ELES launcher?
Tab 16
What tab do you select centralized method of control?
Tab 2
What tab does the operator allow launchers on fiber and radio?
Tab 2
What tab does the operator allow/disallow the BCP?
Tab 2
Where does the operator go to allow or disallow radio or fiber?
Tab 2
In which tab can the operator specify wether communication with the ICC, BCP, or adjacent FPs is to be allowec or disallowed?
Tab 2 page 1
What tab and page can you change commo control authority?
Tab 2, page 1
What tab and page can you change commo state?
Tab 2, page 1
What tab and page can you change remote launcher group control?
Tab 2, page 1
What tab and page can you change repeat launcher group?
Tab 2, page 1
What tab and page can you change tod master?
Tab 2, page 1
What tab and page can you reinitialize RLRIU?
Tab 2, page 1
What tab and page can you change DLT modes?
Tab 2, page 2
What tab and page can you change prime path control?
Tab 2, page 2
What tab and page can you change reported DLT modes?
Tab 2, page 2
What tab does the operator view the results of the special test?
Tab 3
Which tab allows the operator to gather RTG bite faults detected during tactical operations?
Tab 30
In what tab do you recycle the radar?
Tab 30, page 2
If you wanted to view unscheduled track actions, you would call up what tab?
Tab 31
What tab shows the operator the radar function summaries?
Tab 31
On what tab would look to find the 5 most recent radar faults?
Tab 32
Which tab can display the 5 most recent radar faults?
Tab 32
What tab alows you to create a virtual target?
Tab 4
What tab and page can you change hot ASOJ missile count?
Tab 4
What tab and page can you change target control?
Tab 4
What tab and page can you change virtual target count?
Tab 4
What tab and page can you change wedge count?
Tab 4
What tab and page can you see range FP to cursor?
Tab 4
Which mode code is strictlt used for US aircraft?
Tab 4
What Tab displays specific threats to your theater of operations?
Tab 44
What tab does the operator input your threats?
Tab 44
What tab does the operator check the TBM discrimination parameters?
Tab 5
What tab and page can you change or control assets?
Tab 5, page 1
What tab and page can you change or control volumes?
Tab 5, page 2
What tab does the operator activate the asset?
Tab 5, tab 70
What tab does the operator check radar frequencies?
Tab 54
What tab does the operator check the first intercept altitude based off of radar resources?
Tab 54
What tab does the operator check the standard frequency?
Tab 54
What tab does the operator input the W code?
Tab 54
What tab does the operator check in order to come into radiate?
Tab 54, tab 9
What is the difference between frequency diversity in tab 54 and 76?
Tab 54: (ECCM enable) reactive freq. Hop; tab 76: (CARM mode) proactive freq.
In which tab can you modify your left and right search sector boundary limits?
Tab 55
What tab correlates with ALT search sector 1 and ALT search sector 2?
Tab 55
What tab does the operator drop all sesrch segments?
Tab 55
What tab does the operator open its search sector?
Tab 55
In which tab can you activate a BMOA?
Tab 56
TBM threat set control tab 44 works inconjunction with what other tab?
Tab 56
What tab does the operator check radar resources?
Tab 56
What tab does the operator input threat launch areas?
Tab 56
What tab does the operator input threats in the different launch threat areas?
Tab 56
What tab does the operator select general threat launch area?
Tab 56
What tab does the operator select load check?
Tab 56
Final IFF authorization is found where?
Tab 6
In which tab can you change the IFF mode to auto?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you change ABT/IFF/SIF state?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you change TBM/ASM IFF/SIF authorization?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you change code entry forms?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you change mode 4 code hold?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you change mode 4 code?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you change mode 4 low randomness?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you select SIF table?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you select compass rose automatic change?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you select interrogate SIF after valid mode 4/5?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you select mode 1 or mode 3 correlation?
Tab 6
What tab and page can you select unused SIF codes?
Tab 6
What tab does the operator find the launcher assignments?
Tab 63
Tab 85 will not be displayed until you have completed what tab?
Tab 68
What tab does the operator find the RLRIU address?
Tab 68
What tab can be used to perform an emergency off for an LS?
Tab 7
What tab can you deassign ls?
Tab 7
What tab can you emergency off ls?
Tab 7
What tab can you put ls into local?
Tab 7
What tab can you put ls into operate?
Tab 7
What tab can you put ls into standby?
Tab 7
What tab can you select ls special test?
Tab 7
What tab can you stow ls azimuth?
Tab 7
What tab does the operator bring launchers into operate?
Tab 7
What tab does the operator special test the launcher?
Tab 7
What tab does the operator change below or above gale?
Tab 7, tab 81
What tab does the operator select general asset?
Tab 70
What tab does the operator set the ATC for an asset?
Tab 70
TBM defended assets are entered into what tab and pages?
Tab 70, pages 1-3
ABT defended assets are entered into what tab and pages?
Tab 70, pages 4-9
What tab correlates with the S/I defended areas?
Tab 70, tab 5
A SPC volume is entered in which tab?
Tab 71
In what tab do you enter an origin volume?
Tab 71
What tab does the operator change special direction of a volume?
Tab 71
What tab does the operator change the special tolerance for a volume?
Tab 71
What tab does the operator input volumes?
Tab 71
What tab woukd you use to inout a minimum risk route into the system
Tab 71
What tab correlates with ID areas?
Tab 71, tab 5
What tab does the operator activate volumes?
Tab 71, tab 5
If you have to enter the coordinates for a CRG, what tab would you use?
Tab 72
In what tab can you input a ballistic missile operations area BMOA?
Tab 72
In what tab are mode 1 and 3 codes programmed?
Tab 73
What tab are the modes 1 and 3 codes programmed?
Tab 73
What tab is KAA-63?
Tab 73
What tab does the operator input mode 1 codes?
Tab 73 & tab 74
What tab does the operator input mode 3 codes?
Tab 73, tab 74
What tab does the operator select table 1 or table 2 for mode 1 codes?
Tab 73, tab 74
This tab allows you to tailor the EDWA process of classifying a track as an ARM, what is it?
Tab 76
What tab does the S/I CARM mode correlate with?
Tab 76
What tab does the operator turn low power on?
Tab 76
What tab does the operator turn reduced search on?
Tab 76
In what tab and page are ARM classification parameters modified?
Tab 76 page A
Low power/ reduced search/ frequency diversity can be found in what tab and page?
Tab 76 page B
In what tab and page are ARM classification parameters modified?
Tab 76, page A
What tab does the operator change the parameters for an ARM when assessed on scope, STO is red for ARMs, or it has AS-11 or AS-17 threats in the remarks?
Tab 76, tab 78, tab 1
In which tab is target to mask angle threshold modified?
Tab 78
What Tab would you use to configure the system to automatically engage TBM B?
Tab 78
What tab do you create a NEZ in?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator activate ASM?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator change depletion of all launchers?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator change the 1st shot altitude for ATM2?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator change the 1st shot altitude of ATM3?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator change the ARM parameters?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator change the engagement modes for TBM A-E?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator change the residual weapons control?
Tab 78
What tab does the operator enter the missile selection for OLZ?
Tab 78
What tab would you use to define the minimum speed used for slow target engagement?
Tab 78
Which tab allows you to set the missile cut off thresholds?
Tab 78
In what tab are low missile procedures programmed?
Tab 78, page 4
What tab is TMAT changed?
Tab 78, page 4
What tab do you activate intercept dynamics?
Tab 78, tab 56
In which tab are pop-up parameters programmed?
Tab 79
What tab are pop-up parameters programmed?
Tab 79
What tab does the operator change MSV?
Tab 79
What tab does the operator change the medium speed category limits?
Tab 79
What tab does the operator battle-short the EPP?
Tab 8
What tab is radar battle-short authorized?
Tab 8
What tab is used to put the radar into battle-short?
Tab 8
During data acquisition, MS3 can begin inputting additional data in only after what tab has been entered?
Tab 81
In which tab do you enter the UTM world model being used?
Tab 81
What tab does the operator emplace the radar?
Tab 81
What tab does the operator input launchers durin initialization?
Tab 85
What tab does the operator do a zero degree slew in?
Tab 9
What tab does the operator slew the launchers?
Tab 9
What tab does the operator slew the radar to PTL?
Tab 9
In what tab can you find out how many minutes you have remaining on your recording device?
Tab 90
What tab do you turn data collection on?
Tab 90
What tab is data collection?
Tab 90
In what tab would you select your data acquisition Mode?
Tab 91
What is the last tab in the mapping sequence?
Tab 92
In what tab do you compute missing data?
Tab 93
What tab is HORP in?
Tab 94
What is the first tab during radar mapping?
Tab 95
What tab does the operator input PTL?
Tab 95
In which tab can you select the type of mapping you need to conduct?
Tab 97
In which tab would you select the type of mapping you need to conduct?
Tab 97
What tab does the operator input C-mapping?
Tab 97
What tab does the operator have to manually select in order to complete initialization?
Tab 98
What tab would you go to save your tabular entries during initialization?
Tab 98
What tab does the operator save the database?
Tab 98, tab 8
Where would you request a data transfer?
Tab 99
What tab does the operator fine the Julian date?
Tab. 2
What tab and page correlates with the S/I ALT A, ALT B, ALT C, ALT D?
Tabe 14, page 2
Which two tabs can be used to activate or deactivate assets?
Tabs 5 and 70
What is ECS tab 0?
Tabular display index
What must the computer control program select switch be set to load operational software?
Tactical
What does TIBS stand for?
Tactical information broadcast system
What is ECS tab 56?
Tailored TBM search data
What is ECS tab 14?
Target display control
Brevity code squawk means what?
Target is emitting
What is the status of a target that shows uo on the right side of the engage data tab?
Target is engaged
What is the difference between the CAL and the DAL?
The CAL is a list of assets the supported commander deems necessary for AD protection. The DAL is the prioritized list of what will be defended.
Which ACM is primarily used for cross-FLOT ooerstions? It is a temporary corridor used by high speed, FW A/C when transitioning to and from the combat zone?
The MRR
Who makes the initial fix or fight decision?
The TCO
What is minimum engagement?
The ability to fire 2 missiles from 2 different launchers, no must fix faults, all tabs entered correctly
What is minimum engagement?
The ability to fire two missiles from two different launchers, no must fix faults, all tabs entered correctly
Who declares an air defense emergency?
The area air defense commander
Who is the officer managing all engagements in the entire battalion?
The fire control officer
What are the first four blocks of information on the STO known as?
The preamble
Low missile procedures are programmed using missile cutoff threshold and _________?
Threat cutoff threshold
What does the acronym TBEQ stand for?
To be engaged queue
What is the purposemof remote launch capabilities?
To extend the TBM coverage footprint
What is the mission of the RSOP team?
To validate and prepare a site to be used for a PATRIOT battery
Define TWS.
Track While Scan. Reduces number of clutter targets above GLIF.
What tab is used to view the IFF response from an interrogated track?
Track amp data
What are two major sub-functions of threat assessment?
Track evaluation and engagement control
What does the target classification process evaluate?
Track velocity, altitude, and rate of climb or dive against a set of performance characteristics
What S/I displays the flight path data and also starts collection and display of flight path history for a hooked track?
Trails
According to the PATRIOT brigade Gunnery program, an individual should train on RFA drills how often?
Twice weekly
What function prohibits intercepts under the minimum intercept altitude?
URLAT
What is used to prevent inadvertent ground impact?
URLAT
What is brevity code bogey?
Unknown
When reorienting the RS the operator must first _____________, if this is not done the system will have to be _________.
Update the operational data base, reinitialized
What is the range estimate S/I for?
Used to enter an estimated range for a non-range resolved jammer
What are the 6 IFF responses?
VVNNIIH - Valid response, valid ambiguous, no response, not interrogated, invalid, invalid ambiguous, hi valid/lo valid
How would you connect TADIL-A data/ voice to the ICC?
Via a 26 pair cable
Page 2 of tab 5 is _________ status/ control
Volume
Defien VTWS.
Volume Track While search. Debris mitigation
What is ECS tab 71?
Volumes
What is on line 3 of the STO?
WCS
Which WCS is the least restrictive and gives enough leeway to fire at targets not positively identified as hostile?
WCS free
Which WCS is less restrictive and allows you to fire at targets positively identified as hostile?
WCS tight
What is line E of the ACO? What are the volumes?
WEZ - weapons engagement zone. H900H/T/F - H949H/T/F
H950F-H999F are the ID numbers that signify which ACM?
WFZ
What is line F of the ACO? What are the volumes?
WFZ - weapons free zone. H950F - H999F
Line 3 of the STO is what?
Weapon control status
____________ & ______________ are the primary air battle functions
Weapons control and friendly protect
What does the pre-classification filter attempt to determine?
Wether a new track is chaff, clutter, or an actual aircraft
When will the system automatically engage an ARM?
When the ARMs GIP is within 2 km of the PATRIOT RS
When will the system automatically engage an ARM?
When the ARMs GIP is within 2km of the PATRIOT RS
What does the PCF attempt to determine?
Whether a new track is chaff, clutter, or an actual aircraft
Does the alternate RSOP position need to meet the same requirements as the primary?
Yes
Does the local FP address have to be the same as its RLRIU?
Yes
What is ECS tab 94?
horizon plot control HORP