Elsevier questions test 2
B
The nurse identifies which host factor as the most important when choosing an antimicrobial drug? A-Age B-Competent immune function C-Genetic heritage D-Previous medication reaction
B
What term refers to a cell's decreased ability to fight new infections? A-Virion B-Anergy C-Apoptosis D-Syncytium
A
Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)? A-The factors include the brain, CSF, and blood. B-The normal range is from 50 to 150 mm Hg. C-Increased ICP rarely occurs with trauma. D-The brain has little compliance capacity.
B
A common radiologic diagnostic manifestation of fibrotic restrictive disease is the appearance of A-distended alveoli. B-a honeycomb lung. C-destruction of acini. D-constrictive bronchi.
D
A microbe acquires antibiotic resistance by which means? A- Development of medication resistance in the host B-Overriding of the minimum bactericidal concentration C- Incorrect dosing, which contributes to ribosome mutations D-Transfer of DNA coding to other bacteria
D
A nurse assessing a patient who is 12 years old should associate which complication with the patient's receiving tetracycline as a younger child? A-Delay in long bone growth B- Early onset of puberty C-Severe face and body acne D-Discoloration of the teeth
B
A nurse is administering a daily dose of tobramycin at 1000. At which time should the nurse obtain the patient's blood sample to determine the trough level? A- 8:00 AM B- 9:00 AM C- 11:30 AM D- 12:00 PM
D
A patient is receiving amphotericin B. The nurse identifies which medication as useful in preventing adverse effects of amphotericin B? A-Furosemide [Lasix] B-Insulin C-Vitamin K D-Potassium
A
A patient is receiving penicillin G [Bicillin C-R]. Which assessment should the nurse monitor as an indicator of an undesired effect? A-Cardiac rhythm B-Serum sodium level C-Lung sounds D-Red blood cell (RBC) count
B
A patient presents with eye movements that occur with the eye moving in different directions. What is the appropriate term for this finding? A-Oculocephalic reflex B-Dysconjugate gaze C-Nystagmus D-Doll's eyes
D
A patient presents with his arms extended with external rotation of the wrist. His legs and feet extend and rotate internally. Which best describes this condition? A-Mild coma B-Moderate coma C-Decorticate posturing D-Decerebrate posturing
A, B, D, E
A patient with a spinal cord injury at T4 diagnosed with autonomic dysreflexia is likely to develop which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A-Sudden hypertension B-Upper body flushing C-Tachycardia D-Diaphoresis E-Headache
A
A patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is participating in a rehabilitation program. The patient has just been started on baclofen [Lioresal] 5 mg 3 times a day to help manage spasticity. How will the baclofen interfere with rehabilitation activities? A-By producing drowsiness, lethargy, and blurred vision B-By causing gastrointestinal distress C-By reducing sensation in the extremities D-By impairing coordinated movements
A
After completing a course of ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a skin infection, the patient says, "I took the whole bottle of pills, but my infection hasn't gotten any better." Which additional information should the nurse recognize as most significant? A-The patient takes antacids on a daily basis. B-The medication was stored in a cool, dry area. C-The patient did not use sunscreen while taking the ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. D-The patient took two doses of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] while on ciprofloxacin [Cipro] therapy.
C
An antimicrobial medication that has selective toxicity has which characteristic? A- Ability to transfer DNA coding B-Ability to suppress bacterial resistance C-Ability to avoid injuring host cells D-Ability to act against a specific microbe
C
Before administering a cephalosporin to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for an allergy history to what? A-Soy products B- Peanuts C- Penicillins D- Opioids
A
Before administering an aminoglycoside, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A-Myasthenia gravis B-Asthma C-Hypertension D-Diabetes mellitus
B
Before administering intravenous (IV) penicillin, the nurse should do what? A- Flush the IV site with normal saline. B- Assess the patient for allergies. C- Review the patient's intake and output record. D- Determine the latest creatinine clearance result.
B
Before administering trimethoprim, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A-Heart failure B-Alcoholism C-Diabetes D-Emphysema
D, E
Characteristics of a petit mal seizure include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A-Rigid muscles B-Tongue biting C-Bladder incontinence D-Cessation of speaking E-Brief periods of staring
A, D, E
HIV can be transmitted by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A-Breast milk B-The aerosol route C-The exchange of saliva D-A mother, to the fetus, during delivery E-Sharing a hypodermic needle
D
It is most important for the nurse to assess a patient receiving a cephalosporin for the development of which manifestation of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (AAPMC)? A-Rigidity B-Ileus C-Ascites D-Diarrhea
B
It is true that an epidural hematoma A- is often caused by a fracture of the frontal bone. B-can cause the patient to experience a lucid interval. C-results from blood collecting in the subdural space. D-is caused by bleeding from the middle meningeal vein.
B
It is true that the neuronal tissue of the brain A-has low ATP requirements. B-is highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation. C-has the capacity for anaerobic metabolism. D-can accommodate large stores of glycogen.
B, D, E
Overdose of cholinesterase inhibitors causes which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A-Xerostomia B-Excessive muscarinic stimulation C-Constipation D-Respiratory depression E-Cholinergic crisis
A, C, D
Pulmonary function testing for restrictive diseases reveals which of the following to be decreased? (Select all that apply.) A-Vital capacity B-Respiratory rates C-Total lung capacity D-Residual volume E-Forced expiratory flow
C
The antiretroviral medication raltegravir [Isentress] achieves therapeutic effectiveness through which action when administered to a patient infected with HIV? A- It blocks the entry of HIV into CD4 T cells. B- It increases protease enzyme activity. C- It inhibits the enzyme integrase. D- It destroys reverse transcriptase
B
The development of a new infection as a result of the elimination of normal flora by an antibiotic is referred to as what? A- Resistant infection B-Superinfection C-Nosocomial infection D-Allergic reaction
A, C, E
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) uses which enzymes to replicate and infect a host cell? (Select all that apply.) A- Integrase B- Dihydrofolate reductase C- Reverse transcriptase D- Carbonic anhydrase E- Protease
C
The nurse identifies which medication as posing a significant risk of causing confusion, somnolence, psychosis, and visual disturbances in elderly patients? A-Metronidazole [Flagyl] B-Rifampin [Rifadin] C-Ciprofloxacin [Cipro] D-Daptomycin [Cubicin]
A
The nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected overdose of pancuronium, which was used during surgery. Which drug does the nurse anticipate will be used as a reversal agent? A-Neostigmine [Prostigmin] B-Atropine C-Pralidoxime [DuoDote] D-Dobutamine [Dobutrex]
A, B, C
The nurse should include which instructions when teaching a patient about tetracycline therapy? (Select all that apply.) A-"Use sunscreen when you are outside." B-"If you have diarrhea more than five times a day, notify your healthcare provider." Correct C-"Avoid using this drug if you are pregnant." D-"Stop taking the drug if you experience nausea." E-"Stop taking the drug if you experience vomiting."
B
The term that describes increased capillary pressure or damage to capillary endothelium in brain is A-cytotoxic edema. B-interstitial edema. C-intracellular edema. D-space-occupying process.
B
What condition is associated with initial HIV infection? A-Decreased CD8 T cells B-Flulike symptoms with rash C-Seroconversion within 3 to 6 days D-CD4 T-cell count less than 200 per µL
A
What is the pathophysiology for a myasthenic crisis? A-Insufficient ACh at the NMJ B-Excessive ACh at the NMJ C-Overdose with a cholinesterase inhibitor D-None of the above
B
When administering an aminoglycoside to a patient with myasthenia gravis, it is most important for the nurse to assess what? A-Deep tendon reflexes B-Breath sounds C-Eyelid movement D-Muscle strength
B, C, D
When performing a skin test for penicillin allergy, the nurse will do what? (Select all that apply.) A-Inject a tiny amount of the allergen subcutaneously. B- Observe for a local allergic response. C- Have epinephrine readily available. D- Have respiratory support readily available. E-Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl] as the first-line agent should anaphylaxis occur.
A
Which adverse event occurs as a result of reperfusion injury? A-Free radical formation B-Loss of arachidonic acid C-Loss of inflammatory cells D-A decrease in oxygen return
A, B, D
Which are a brainstem reflexes? (Select all that apply.) A-Oculovestibular reflex B-Pupil light response C-Painful stimuli D-Corneal reflex E-Broca aphasia
D
Which finding is consistent with Guillain-Barré syndrome? A-There is progressive descending paralysis. B-The symptoms usually begin in the arms and face. C-Sensory nerves are affected more than motor nerves. D-Patients often experience paresthesia or dysesthesia.
B
Which instruction should a nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient who is to start taking tetracycline? A- "You may stop taking the pills when you begin to feel better." B-"Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors." C-"You'll have to come back to the clinic for a weekly blood work." D- "Take the medication with yogurt or milk so you won't have nausea."
A, C
Which instructions will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cephalosporin therapy? (Select all that apply.) A-"Notify your healthcare provider if you develop diarrhea." B-"Take aspirin if you develop a headache." C- "Notify your healthcare provider if you develop a rash." D-"Cephalosporins may not be taken with food." E-"Do not take cephalosporins if you have lactose intolerance."
D
Which is associated with early increased intracranial pressure? A-Inability to verbalize B-Unresponsiveness C-Inability to move D-Headache
A, B, C, D
Which is important for cell attachment? (Select all that apply.) A-CD4 receptor B-CXCR4 C-gp120 D-CCR5 E- p17
B, C, D
Which manifestations does the nurse associate with the development of hemolytic anemia? (Select all that apply.) A- Urticaria B- Fever C- Pallor D-Jaundice E-Diarrhea
D
Which statement is true regarding amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? A-Early symptoms include speech abnormalities and respiratory failure. B-Most patients lose their sensory and cognitive functions. C- Most patients die within 1 year from cardiac failure. D-The hands or upper extremities are affected first.
A, B, C
Which statement is true regarding multiple sclerosis (MS)? (Select all that apply.) A-Genetics may play a role in MS. B-The triggering process for MS is not completely understood. C-The main pathophysiology is demyelination of the nerves. D-MS is believed to be a result of a bacterial infection. E-MS follows a predictable clinical course.
D
Which statement is true regarding myasthenia gravis? A-Men are affected more than women. B-Weakness begins with respiratory muscles. C-The peak age in women is 40 to 50 years of age. D-Acetylcholine receptor antibodies are produced
D
Which statement regarding the Glasgow Coma Scale is true? A-Severe coma is below 12. B-The highest score is 10. C-Mild coma is below 8. D-The lowest score is 3.
A, C, D
Which statement(s) are true regarding the HIV virus structure? (Select all that apply.) A-There are two strands of RNA. B-The nucleocapsid or core is composed of p17. C-The gag gene encodes the core antigen proteins. D-The pol gene encodes reverse transcriptase proteins. E-Between the envelope and core is a protein layer called p24.
B, C, E
Which statements about CDAD associated with clindamycin therapy does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A- Leukopenia commonly occurs. B-It is a potentially fatal condition. C- Patients usually experience abdominal pain. D-Anticholinergics are effective in treating the diarrhea. E-Clindamycin therapy should be discontinued and vancomycin started.
A, B, C
Which statements about vancomycin [Vancocin] does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A-Vancomycin is the most widely used antibiotic in U.S. hospitals. B-Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of Clostridium difficile infection. C-Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of MRSA infections. D-Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin. E-The major toxicity of vancomycin therapy is liver failure.
C
patient newly diagnosed with MS asks the nurse how a person gets this disease. Which response by the nurse is most accurate and appropriate? A-"Multiple sclerosis is a congenital condition that typically manifests itself in late adulthood." B-"Multiple sclerosis is a disease believed to be caused by exposure to drugs during a mother's pregnancy." C- "This is an autoimmune disease that occurs in people with certain genetic traits when they are exposed to some environmental trigger factor." D-"This disease is most often caused by an increase of rapidly dividing cells in the central nervous system."
B
The nurse prepares to administer the antidote to a patient in cholinergic crisis. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to order? A-Neostigmine [Prostigmin] B-Atropine C-Pralidoxime [DuoDote] D-Dobutamine [Dobutrex]
C
A nurse monitors a patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) for symptoms of vestibular damage. Which finding should the nurse expect the patient to have first? A-Unsteadiness B-Vertigo C-Headache D-Dizziness
C
A nurse removes a central line access device once the patient no longer requires intravenous (IV) antibiotics. This action is an example of which strategy to prevent antimicrobial resistance established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A-Preventing transmission B-Proper diagnosis C-Preventing infection D-Prudent antibiotic use
A
A nurse should recognize that a patient who is infected with HIV is at the highest risk to develop opportunistic infections during which clinical phase of HIV? A-Late B-Intermediate C-Initial D-Prodromal
B
A nurse should recognize that which laboratory result is used as a major factor in deciding when antiretroviral therapy is indicated for a patient infected with HIV? A-Plasma HIV RNA assay B-CD4 T-lymphocyte count C-Western blot assay D-OralQuick Rapid HIV-1 Antibody Test
A
A nurse should teach a patient who has Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) about the dosing and therapeutic effects of which medication? A- Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim] B- Azithromycin [Zithromax] C- Acyclovir [Zovirax] D- Ganciclovir [Cytovene]
A
A patient develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during an IV infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]. Which action should a nurse take? A- Reduce the infusion rate. B-Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. C-Change the IV tubing. D-Check the patency of the IV.
B
A patient has been prescribed efavirenz [Sustiva]. The nurse should instruct the patient to use which administration approach to minimize central nervous system (CNS) adverse effects? A-The drug should be taken in divided doses throughout the day. B-Bedtime dosing is most effective. C-The drug should be mixed only with an acidic beverage. D-A steroid medication should be used concurrently.
A
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). When taking the patient's history, a nurse recognizes which information as the most important? A-Plays a contact sport and is an athlete B-Currently resides in a long-term care facility C-Did not complete the last course of antibiotics D-Had gallbladder surgery in the previous month
C
A patient is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse identifies what as the most common toxic effect of vancomycin therapy? A- Ototoxicity B- Hepatotoxicity C- Renal toxicity D- Cardiac toxicity
C
A patient is scheduled to receive intravenous amphotericin B. Which medication should a nurse administer as pretreatment before the infusion? A-10 units of regular insulin intravenously B-20 mg famotidine [Pepcid] in 50 mL of 5% dextrose C-50 mg of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] and 650 mg of acetaminophen D-1 g of calcium gluconate in 100 mL of normal saline
B
A patient taking a sulfonamide is breast-feeding an infant. Which complication in the infant would the nurse associate with kernicterus? A-Hemolytic anemia B-Neurologic deficits C-Hepatocellular failure D-Ophthalmic infection
D
A patient who has HIV and is taking the nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) zidovudine [Retrovir] reports vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, and hyperventilation. Which laboratory result is the priority for the nurse to evaluate? A-Megakaryocytes B-Red blood cell (RBC) counts C-CD4 T-lymphocyte counts D-Arterial blood lactate
C
A patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is receiving trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]. Which response should a nurse expect if the medication is achieving the desired effect? A-Increase in CD4 T cells B-Increased appetite and weight gain C-Resolution of pneumonia D-Decrease in joint pain
D
A patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) has a urinalysis result with all of these findings. Which finding should a nurse associate most clearly with an adverse effect of gentamicin? A-White blood cells (WBCs) B-Glucose B-Ketones D-Protein
D
A patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin] IV for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection asks a nurse, "Why can't I take this medicine in a pill?" Which response should the nurse make? A-"The prescription could be changed, because vancomycin comes in two forms." B-"You're allergic to penicillin, and this is the only way this medication can be given." C-"It will cause too much loss of appetite and nausea if given in the oral form." D-"It is more effective by IV, because the pill form will stay in the digestive tract."
D
A patient who takes ciprofloxacin [Cipro] and runs 6 miles daily tells a nurse about heel and calf tenderness. The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider to take which action? A-No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect. B-Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication. C-Slow the running pace and walk more. D-Discontinue the medication, because severe damage can result.
B
A patient with a history of numbness, weakness, and blurred vision recently was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). What does the nurse understand to be the underlying pathophysiology for these symptoms? A- An imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine in the central nervous system B- Inflammation and myelin destruction in the central nervous system C-An inability of serotonin to bind to its receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone D- High-frequency discharge of neurons from a specific focus area of the brain
A, B, C, E
Abnormal fluid accumulations in the pleural space affect the lung function by causing which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A-Dyspnea B-Dry cough C-Pleuritic pain D-Expiratory grunting E-Localized diminished breath sounds
B
Tachycardia, decreased or absent breath sounds on the affected side, hyperresonance, and sudden chest pain on the affected side are clinical manifestations of A-sarcoidosis. B-pneumothorax. C- hypersensitivity pneumonitis. D- adult respiratory distress syndrome.
A, B, E
The nurse identifies which statements about penicillins as true? (Select all that apply.) A-Penicillins are the safest antibiotics available. B-The principal adverse effect of penicillins is allergic reaction. C-A patient who is allergic to penicillin always has a cross-allergy to cephalosporins. D- A patient who is allergic to penicillin is also allergic to vancomycin, erythromycin, and clindamycin. E-Penicillins are normally eliminated rapidly by the kidneys but can accumulate to harmful levels if renal function is severely impaired
C
The nurse is assessing a patient receiving valproic acid [Depakene] for potential adverse effects associated with this drug. What is the most common problem with this drug? A-Increased risk of infection B-Reddened, swollen gums C-Nausea, vomiting, and indigestion D-Central nervous system depression
B
The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a sulfonamide for treatment of a urinary tract infection. To monitor the patient for the most severe response to sulfonamide therapy, the nurse will assess for what? A-Diarrhea B-Skin rash and lesions C-Hypertension D-Bleeding
A, B, D
The nurse is aware that mother-to-child transmission of HIV occurs primarily during labor and delivery. Which of the following can reduce the risk of transmission? (Select all that apply.) A- ART during gestation to minimize maternal viral load B-IV zidovudine to the mother during labor and delivery C-Two forms of birth control, including barrier and hormonal D-Oral or IV zidovudine to the infant for 6 weeks following delivery E-Planned induction of labor
B
The nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with an acute episode (relapse) of MS. Which agent is the preferred treatment during relapse? A-Interferon beta-1a [Avonex] IM B-Methylprednisolone [Solu-Medrol] IV C-Glatiramer acetate [Copaxone] subQ DNatalizumab [Tysabri] IV infusion
A, B, D
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving phenytoin [Dilantin] for treatment of tonic-clonic seizures. Which symptoms, if present, would indicate an adverse effect of this drug? (Select all that apply.) A-Swollen, tender gums B-Measles-like rash C-Productive cough D-Unusual hair growth E-Nausea and vomiting
B
The nurse is caring for a patient whose seizures are characterized by a 10- to 30-second loss of consciousness and mild, symmetric eye blinking. Which seizure type does this most closely illustrate? A-Tonic-clonic B-Absence C-Atonic D-Myoclonic
B, D
The nurse is caring for a patient with MS who is receiving interferon beta-1a [Rebif] by subcutaneous injection. Which laboratory tests should be performed regularly in this patient to monitor for a potential adverse effect? (Select all that apply.) A-Blood urea nitrogen B-Complete blood count C-Hemoglobin A1c D-Alkaline phosphatase E-Immunoglobulin G levels
C
The nurse is caring for a patient with myasthenia gravis who is beginning a new prescription of neostigmine [Prostigmin], 75 mg PO twice daily. What is the most important initial nursing action? A- Obtain a measurement of the plasma level of neostigmine. B-Teach the patient to wear a Medic Alert bracelet. C- Assess the patient's ability to swallow. D-Check the patient's deep tendon reflexes (DTRs).
A, B, D
The nurse is conducting discharge teaching related to a new prescription for phenytoin [Dilantin]. Which statements are appropriate to include in the teaching for this patient and family? (Select all that apply.) A-"Be sure to call the clinic if you or your family notice increased anxiety or agitation." B-"You may have some mild sedation. Do not drive until you know how this drug will affect you." C-"This drug may cause easy bruising. If you notice this, call the clinic immediately." D-"It is very important to have good oral hygiene and to visit your dentist regularly." E-"You may continue to have wine with your evening meals, but only in moderation."
B
The nurse is preparing to give neostigmine [Prostigmin]. Which best describes the action of this drug? A-It inhibits acetylcholine at all cholinergic synapses. B- It prevents inactivation of acetylcholine. C-It prevents activation of muscarinic receptors. D-It stimulates activation of adrenergic receptors.
B
The nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder about her disorder. Which statement made by the nurse best describes the goals of therapy with antiepilepsy medication? A- "With proper treatment, we can completely eliminate your seizures." B-"Our goal is to reduce your seizures to an extent that helps you live a normal life." C-"Seizure medication does not reduce seizures in most patients." D-"These drugs will help control your seizures until you have surgery."
B
The nurse knows that there is an increased risk of ototoxicity in a patient receiving an aminoglycoside if which level is high? A-Concentration B-Trough C-Peak D-Dose
C
The nurse notices tan lines around the arms of a female patient who is taking levofloxacin [Levaquin]. Which action should the nurse take? A-No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect. B-Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication. C-Advise the patient to avoid sun exposure and wear sun screen when outside. D-Discontinue the medication.
B, D, E
The nurse suspects that a female patient is experiencing phenytoin toxicity if which manifestation is noted? (Select all that apply.) A-The patient complains of excessive facial hair growth. B-The patient is walking with a staggering gait. C-The patient's gums are swollen, tender, and bleed easily. D-The patient complains of double vision. E-The nurse observes rapid back-and-forth movement of the patient's eyes
A, B, C
The pathogenesis of adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) involves which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A-Injury to the alveolar-capillary membrane B-Increased alveolar-capillary permeability C-Decreased lung compliance D-Alveolar wall thickening E-Collapse of the lung
A, B, C
The pathogenesis of pneumonia includes the inhalation of microbial agents and the resulting of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A- Inflammation B-Lung consolidation C-Formation of exudates D-Alveolar wall thickening E- Decreased lung compliance
D
Thirty minutes after receiving an intramuscular (IM) injection of penicillin G [Pfizerpen], a patient reports itching and redness at the injection site. Which action should the nurse take first? A-Elevate the lower legs. B-Place an ice pack on the site. C-Make sure the patient stays calm. D-Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
B
What does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] therapy? A-Cyanosis and gray discoloration of the skin. B-Frequent loose, watery stools with mucus and blood. C-Reduction in all blood cells produced in the bone marrow. D-Elevated bilirubin, with dark urine and jaundice.
B
What is the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)? A-The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to suppress bacterial growth completely B-The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to reduce the number of bacterial colonies by 99.9% C- The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to produce effects D-The lowest dose of an antibiotic needed to eradicate bacteria
C
When providing patient teaching for oral sulfonamide therapy, the nurse should instruct the patient to take the sulfonamide in what way? A-At mealtime, when food is available B-With soy or nonmilk products C-Between meals with a full cup of water D-On awakening before breakfast
A
Which administration instruction should the nurse give a patient scheduled to start receiving the HIV fusion inhibitor enfuvirtide [Fuzeon]? A- "Rotate injection sites in the arm, thigh, and abdomen." B-"Take only when you consume low-fat meals." C-"Dosing is optimal 30 minutes before meals." D-"Injection-site reactions are usually uncommon.
A
Which approach should a nurse take when administering an oral dose of levofloxacin [Levaquin]? A-Give the medication with or without food. B-Administer the drug with an oral dose of a magnesium-based antacid. C-Premedicate the patient with diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. D- Administer the drug with milk products.
B, E
Which are examples of the improper use of antibiotic therapy? (Select all that apply.) A-Using surgical drainage as an adjunct to antibiotic therapy B-Treating a viral infection C-Basing treatment on sensitivity reports D-Treating fever in an immunodeficient patient E-Using dosing that results in a superinfection
D
Which best describes the rationale for using neostigmine [Prostigmin] in the treatment of myasthenia gravis? A-It promotes neuromuscular blockade in the periphery. B- It promotes emptying of the bladder and sphincter relaxation. C- It reduces intraocular pressure and protects the optic nerve. D-It increases the force of skeletal muscle contraction.
B
Which cardiovascular finding does the nurse identify as a possible adverse effect of erythromycin [Ery-Tab] therapy? A-Heart rate of 52 beats/min B-Prolonged QT interval C-Jugular vein distention D-Grade III diastolic murmur
C
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a patient in convulsive status epilepticus to halt seizure activity? A-Phenytoin [Dilantin] 200 mg IV over 4 minutes B-Phenobarbital 30 mg IM C-Lorazepam [Ativan] 0.1 mg/kg IV at a rate of 2 mg/min D-Valproic acid [Depacon] 250 mg in 100 mL of normal saline infused IV over 60 minutes
C
Which restrictive disease is associated with the formation of an antigen-antibody complex, causing fibrosis of the lung? A-Sarcoidosis B-Pneumoconiosis C-Hypersensitivity pneumonitis D-Diffuse interstitial lung disease
C
Which statement is true regarding HIV testing? A-The first test is electrophoresis. B-Western blot test is the initial test. C-The new rapid finger stick test can provide results in 20 minutes. D-All patients in whom positive test results are obtained must have ELISA performed.
C
Which statement is true regarding HIV? A- Most women with AIDS were infected from IV drug use. B-Heterosexuals constitute the largest population with AIDS. C-Homosexual men constitute the largest population with AIDS. D-Intravenous drug users constitute the largest population with AIDS.
B
Which statement is true regarding autoregulation in the brain? A- Blood flow is maintained at mean arterial pressures from 0 to 50 mm Hg. B-Cerebral vessels respond to pH, carbon dioxide, and oxygen levels. C-Hypotension leads to severe vascular damage. D-Hypotension leads to brain edema.
B
Which statement made by a female patient newly diagnosed with complex partial seizures and starting treatment with valproic acid indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse? A-"The medication should not make me feel sleepy." B-"I should take the medication on an empty stomach." C-"I'll need to discuss a reliable form of birth control with my gynecologist." D-"I'll call my physician immediately if I develop a yellow tint to my skin or my urine appears tea-colored."
B
Which statement made by a patient indicates a need for further discharge instruction about baclofen [Lioresal]? A-"If I develop any difficulty urinating, I will call my physician." B- "I'm glad I can still have a glass or two of wine at dinner." C-"I'll contact my healthcare provider when I feel I no longer need the medication." D-"I'll need to check with my healthcare provider before taking my allergy medications."
C
Which statement made by a patient indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse about reducing injection site reactions from interferon beta? A-"I need to rotate my injection sites, so I'll need to keep a record of them." B-"I will apply hydrocortisone ointment to the injection site if it is itchy." C-"Applying a warm compress before giving the injection will reduce the risk of pain at the site." D-"I can take over-the-counter Benadryl if the injection site itches and is red."
A, B, C, E
Which statement regarding either HIV-1 or HIV-2 is true? (Select all that apply.) A-HIV-1 is the causative organism for most AIDS diagnosed in the United States. B-Both HIV-1 and HIV2 are similar in structure and function. C- HIV-2 produces a milder form of the disease than HIV-1. D-The latency period of HIV-1 is shorter than HIV-2. E- Both HIV-1 and HIV-2 are found worldwide.
B, C, D, E
Which statement(s) are true regarding postexposure prophylaxis? (Select all that apply.) A- All exposed individuals require a protease inhibitor drug regimen. B-Prophylaxis for a significant exposure should be started immediately. C-Postexposure medication treatment last at least 4 weeks, or even longer. D-Two or more medications may be included in the medication regimen. E- Exposure, sexual or otherwise, requires similar medication protocols
A, C, D, E
Which statement(s) are true regarding replication of the HIV virus? (Select all that apply.) A- Accuracy of transcription is poor with multiple mutations. B-HIV viruses that enter the cells must be converted to double-stranded DNA. C-The conversion of the DNA is made by the reverse transcriptase from the viral DNA. D-The DNA is a template copied by the DNA polymerase to make a second DNA strand. E- The process of HIV replication is responsible for the ineffectiveness of many antiviral drugs
C, D, E
Which statements about ototoxicity and aminoglycosides does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A-The risk of ototoxicity is related primarily to excessive peak levels. B-The first sign of impending cochlear damage is headache. C- The first sign of impending vestibular damage is headache. D-Ototoxicity is largely irreversible. E-Use of aminoglycosides for less than 10 days is recommended to avoid ototoxicity.
