Elsevier Urinary, and Reproductive Systems EAQ
The nurse assesses a male client with a preliminary diagnosis of cancer of the urinary bladder. Which clinical manifestation will indicate to the nurse the cancer is in the early stage? A. Dysuria B. Retention C. Hesitancy D. Hematuria
D. Hematuria Hematuria is the most common early sign of cancer of the urinary system, probably because of the urinary system's rich vascular network. Dysuria is not specific for bladder cancer. Retention and hesitancy are not specific for bladder cancer; usually they are associated with an enlarged prostate in the male.
A client is treated with a radium implant for cancer of the cervix. Which information is important for the nurse to teach the client when giving discharge instructions? A. "Limit daily fluid intake." B. "Return for follow-up care." C. "Continue a low-residue diet." D. "Take daily mineral supplements."
B. "Return for follow-up care." Before discharge it is important for the nurse to instruct the client to return for follow-up care at specified intervals. Fluids are not reduced unless cardiac or renal pathology is present. When the implant is in place, a low-residue diet is indicated to prevent pressure from a distended colon; when the radium implant is removed, the client can return to a regular diet. If the diet is adequate, mineral supplements are unnecessary.
During an examination of a client with kidney dysfunction, the nurse finds the presence of glucose in the urine. Which nursing intervention is beneficial for this client? A. Administering oral fluids B. Noting the finding down as normal C. Administering hypoglycemic medication D. Reporting this finding to the primary healthcare provider
D. Reporting this finding to the primary healthcare provider The presence of glucose in the urine is an abnormal finding that requires further assessment. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the primary healthcare provider. The nurse should not administer oral fluids or hypoglycemic medication without instructions from the primary healthcare provider.
Which structure indicated in the figure is the primary reproductive organ of the female? Click this link to find out the following image: https://bit.ly/3E45z9c
A Label A indicates the ovary, the primary reproductive organ of a female. Label B indicates the fallopian tubes, label C indicates the uterus, and label D indicates the symphysis pubis. The fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina are the secondary reproductive organs of the female.
A nurse is reviewing the clinical record of a client with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which test result will the nurse check to confirm the diagnosis? A. Rectal examination B. Serum phosphatase level C. Biopsy of prostatic tissue D. Massage of prostatic fluid
C. Biopsy of prostatic tissue A definitive diagnosis of the cellular changes associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia [1][2] (BPH) is made by biopsy, with subsequent microscopic evaluation. Palpation of the prostate gland through rectal examination is not a definitive diagnosis; this only reveals size and configuration of the prostate. The serum phosphatase level will provide information for prostatic cancer; a definitive diagnosis cannot be made with this test for BPH. A sample of prostatic fluid helps to diagnosis prostatitis.
A client has been admitted with a urinary tract infection. The nurse receives a urine culture and sensitivity report that reveals the client has vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE). After notifying the primary healthcare provider, which action should the nurse take to decrease the risk of transmission to others? A. Insert a Foley catheter. B. Initiate droplet precautions. C. Move the client to a private room. D. Use a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator when entering the room.
C. Move the client to a private room. Clients with VRE should be moved to a private room to decrease transmission to others. VRE has been identified in the urine, not respiratory secretions. Contact isolation should be implemented. A Foley catheter should not be inserted because it will predispose the client to develop an additional infection. A HEPA respirator is not required when entering the room.
A client reports the passage of urine while coughing. What condition does the nurse suspect of the client? A. Enuresis B. Pneumaturia C. Urinary retention D. Stress incontinence
D. Stress incontinence Involuntary urination upon increased pressure is called stress incontinence. The pressure on the urinary bladder increases while sneezing and coughing. Involuntary urination at night is called enuresis. Urination with the presence of gas in it is called pneumaturia. Urinary retention is the inability to urinate despite a full bladder.
The nurse provides discharge instructions to a male client who had an ureterolithotomy. The client has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). For which indicators of a UTI should the nurse instruct the client to be on the alert? A. Urgency or frequency of urination B. An increase of ketones in the urine C. The inability to maintain an erection D. Pain radiating to the external genitalia
A. Urgency or frequency of urination Urgency or frequency of urination occur with a urinary tract infection [1] [2] because of bladder irritability; burning on urination and fever are additional signs of a UTI. Increase of ketones is associated with diabetes mellitus, starvation, or dehydration. The inability to maintain an erection is not related to a UTI. Pain radiating to the external genitalia is a symptom of a urinary calculus, not infection.
What is the primary purpose of conducting a cystoscopy in a client with decreased and difficult urination? A. To ascertain the size of the kidneys B. To ascertain the protein content in urine C. To ascertain the presence of urethral wall abnormality D. To ascertain the total amount of catecholamines excreted
C. To ascertain the presence of urethral wall abnormality Cystoscopy is a procedure in which a cystoscope is used to visualize and examine the inner walls of the urinary bladder and ureter. The cystoscope is introduced into the client's ureter to detect the presence of urethral wall abnormalities or occlusions. Radiography or ultrasonography of the kidneys will enable visualization of the kidneys and therefore kidney size can be ascertained. A 24-hour urine test is performed to analyze the levels of various components in the urine and is recommended to ascertain the protein content in urine. The total amount of catecholamines excreted in urine can also be measured through 24-hour urine sample testing.
Which instructions given to a client with renal calculi would be most beneficial? Select all that apply. A. "Drink plenty of water." B. "Have spinach soup every day." C. "Substitute lemon juice for tea." D. "Include high amounts of protein in the diet." E. "Consume foods rich in omega-3-fatty acids."
A & C Renal calculi is the formation of kidney stones. Drinking plenty of water will keep the body hydrated and prevent further formation of stones. Tea contains caffeine, a diuretic, which causes dehydration. Therefore the client must be advised to replace tea with lemon juice. Spinach is rich in oxalates. Consuming spinach soup may aggravate the problem, due to the formation of oxalate crystals. Excessive consumption of proteins may precipitate uric acid stones. Therefore the use of proteins should not be encouraged. Foods rich in omega-3-fatty acids are beneficial in maintaining good health. However, the use of omega-3-fatty acids, specifically in the treatment, mitigation, or prevention of kidney stones, is not justified.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe chronic kidney disease. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply. A. Polyuria B. Paresthesias C. Hypertension D. Metabolic alkalosis E. Widening pulse pressure
B & C Paresthesias [1] [2] occur as a result of excess nitrogenous wastes, altered fluid and electrolytes, and altered regulatory functions. Nonfunctioning kidneys cause fluid retention that may result in hypervolemia and hypertension. Polyuria occurs because of extensive nephron damage and may occur in the early stage of kidney disease but not in the severe stage. Metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis, results from the inability to excrete hydrogen ions and retain bicarbonate. Widening pulse pressure occurs with increased intracranial pressure, not with kidney dysfunction.
A nurse teaches the signs of organ rejection to a client who had a kidney transplant. What should the nurse include in the education? A. Weight loss B. Subnormal temperature C. Elevated blood pressure D. Increased urinary output
C. Elevated blood pressure Hypertension is a clinical manifestation of kidney transplant. Weight gain, not loss, occurs with a rejection of the kidney [1] [2] because of fluid retention. The client will have an elevated temperature exceeding 100° F (37.8 ° C) with kidney rejection. Urine output will be decreased or absent, depending on the degree of kidney rejection.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing urinary incontinence. The client has an involuntary loss of small amounts (25 to 35 mL) of urine from an overdistended bladder. How should this be documented in the client's medical record? A. Urge incontinence B. Stress incontinence C. Overflow incontinence D. Functional incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence Overflow incontinence [1] [2] [3] describes what is happening with this client; overflow incontinence occurs when the pressure in the bladder overcomes sphincter control. Urge incontinence describes a strong need to void that leads to involuntary urination regardless of the amount in the bladder. Stress incontinence occurs when a small amount of urine is expelled because of an increase in intraabdominal pressure that occurs with coughing, lifting, or sneezing. Functional incontinence occurs from other issues rather than the bladder, such as cognitive (dementia) or environmental (no toileting facilities).
The nurse reviews the kidney function blood studies of four clients. Which client may have kidney impairment? Check the following image in this link: https://bit.ly/3uz5kzX A. Client 1 B. Client 2 C. Client 3 D. Client 4
D. Client 4 A serum creatinine test is a great tool for determining kidney function. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) tests measure the effectiveness of urea nitrogen. The normal range of serum creatinine lies between 0.6 and 1.2 mg/dL (53.04-106.08 mmol/L). The normal range of BUN lies between 10 and 20 mg/dL (3.57-7.14 mmol/L). Client 4's levels indicate kidney impairment. The serum creatinine and BUN are within normal limits for clients 1, 2, and 3.
A client scheduled for a transurethral prostatectomy expresses concern about the effect the surgery will have on sexual ability. Which information should the nurse share with the client? A. May experience retrograde ejaculations B. May have a diminished sex drive C. Will have prolonged erections D. Will be impotent
A. May experience retrograde ejaculations Ejection of semen into the bladder instead of the urethra is common after a transurethral prostatectomy. The surgery should not interfere with the libido and will not cause prolonged erections. Impotence is not typical with this approach; it may occur with the retroperitoneal approach.
The nurse is reviewing a client's current medication therapy and suspects hematuria. Which medication is responsible for the client's condition? A. Warfarin B. Cimetidine C. Phenazopyridine D. Nitrofurantoin
A. Warfarin Warfarin is an anticoagulant. Anticoagulants may cause hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. Cimetidine is an antihistamine. Antihistamines affect the normal contraction and relaxation of the urinary bladder. Phenazopyridine and nitrofurantoin cause urine discoloration.
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which information about this condition is important for the nurse to consider when caring for this client? A. It is a congenital abnormality. B. A malignancy usually results. C. It predisposes to hydronephrosis. D. Prostate-specific antigen decreases.
C. It predisposes to hydronephrosis. Inability to empty the bladder as a result of pressure exerted by the enlarging prostate on the urethra causes a backup of urine into the ureters and finally the kidneys (hydronephrosis). BPH develops over the client's life span; it is not congenital. It is uncommon for BPH to become malignant. Prostate-specific antigen will increase.
Which electrolyte deficiency triggers the secretion of renin? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Chloride D. Potassium
A. Sodium Low sodium ion concentration causes decreased blood volume, thereby resulting in decreased perfusion. Decreased blood volume triggers the release of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells. Deficiencies of calcium, chloride, and potassium do not stimulate the secretion of renin.
The nurse is teaching self-management techniques to a client newly diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which statement of the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I should monitor my bowel movements." B. "I should weigh myself once a week." C. "I should record my blood pressure daily." D. "I should notify my healthcare provider if I have fever."
B. "I should weigh myself once a week." Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by a sudden weight gain due to enlarged kidneys. Therefore the client should weigh himself or herself every day at the same time of day and with the same amount of clothing on. Bowel movements should be monitored to prevent constipation. The client should regularly record his or her blood pressure to prevent hypertension. The client should notify the healthcare provider if he or she has fever.
Which drug prescribed to a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) turns urine reddish-orange in color? A. Amoxicillin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Phenazopyridine
D. Phenazopyridine Phenazopyridine is a topical anesthetic that is used to treat pain or burning sensation associated with urination. It also imparts a characteristic orange or red color to urine. Amoxicillin is a penicillin form that could cause pseudomembranous colitis as a complication; it is not associated with reddish-orange colored urine. Ciprofloxacin is a quinolone antibiotic used for treating UTIs and can cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias and sunburns. It is not, however, responsible for reddish-orange colored urine. Nitrofurantoin is an antimicrobial medication prescribed for UTIs. This drug may affect the kidneys but is not associated with reddish-orange colored urine.
The nurse is assessing a client with mumps and orchitis. Which organ will be affected? A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate Gland C. Epididymis D. Testes
D. Testes Mumps is a viral infection that may cause orchitis in males. Painful inflammation and swelling of the testes.
A lithotripsy to break up renal calculi is unsuccessful, and a nephrolithotomy is performed. Which postoperative clinical indicator should the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider? A. Passage of pink-tinged urine B. Pink drainage on the dressing C. Intake of 1750 mL in 24 hours D. Urine output of 20 to 30 mL/hr
D. Urine output of 20 to 30 mL/hr Output should be at least 30 mL/hr or more; a decreased output may indicate obstruction or impaired kidney function. Blood, tinting the urine pink, is expected. Drainage on the dressing may be pink; bright red drainage should be reported. The intake of 1750 mL in 24 hours is adequate; however, a higher intake usually is preferred (e.g., 2000 to 3000 mL).
After interacting with a client, a nurse finds that a 23-year-old client has never undergone a Papanicolaou (Pap) test. What should the nurse suggest to the client? A. Schedule a Pap test immediately B. Schedule a Pap test during menses C. Schedule a Pap test every five years D. Schedule a Pap test and human papillomavirus test
A. Schedule a Pap test immediately The Papanicolaou test (Pap test) is a cytologic study performed annually after the age of 21 years. The nurse should advise a 23-year-old client to undergo a Pap test immediately to rule out precancerous and cancerous cells within the client's cervix. Undergoing a Pap test during menses may interfere with laboratory analysis and results. A human papillomavirus test is performed every 5 years. Pap tests and human papillomavirus tests are recommended in clients between the ages of 30 and 65 years.
A client who has been on hemodialysis for several weeks asks the nurse what substances are being removed by the dialysis. Which substance removal should the nurse share with the client? A. Blood B. Sodium C. Glucose D. Bacteria
B. Sodium Sodium is an electrolyte that passes through the semipermeable membrane during hemodialysis. Red blood cells do not pass through the semipermeable membrane during hemodialysis. Glucose does not pass through the semipermeable membrane during hemodialysis. Bacteria do not pass through the semipermeable membrane during hemodialysis.
The urinalysis report of a client reveals cloudy urine. What does a nurse infer from the client's report? A. The client has a urinary infection. B. The client has a biliary obstruction. C. The client has diabetic ketoacidosis. D. The client has been on a starvation diet.
A. The client has a urinary infection. The urine becomes cloudy when an infection is present due to the presence of leukocytes. Therefore the nurse concludes that the client has a urinary infection. In cases of biliary obstruction, the urine contains bilirubin. The presence of ketones in the urine indicates diabetic ketoacidosis or prolonged starvation.
A client is scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate. What should the nurse tell the client to expect after surgery? A. "Urinary control may be permanently lost to some degree." B. "An indwelling urinary catheter is required for at least a day." C. "Your ability to perform sexually will be impaired permanently." D. "Burning on urination will last while the cystostomy tube is in place."
B. "An indwelling urinary catheter is required for at least a day." An indwelling urethral catheter is used, because surgical trauma can cause edema and urinary retention, leading to additional complications, such as bleeding. Urinary control is not lost in most cases; loss of control usually is temporary if it does occur. Sexually ability usually is not affected; sexual ability is maintained if the client was able to perform before surgery. A cystostomy tube is not used if a client has a transurethral resection; however, it is used if a suprapubic resection is done.
A client reports to a health clinic because a sexual partner recently was diagnosed as having gonorrhea. The health history reveals that the client has engaged in receptive anal intercourse. What should the nurse assess for in this client? A. Melena B. Anal itching C. Constipation D. Ribbon-shaped stools
B. Anal itching Anal itching and irritation can occur from having anal intercourse with a person infected with gonorrhea. Frank rectal bleeding, not upper gastrointestinal bleeding (melena), occurs. Painful defecation, not constipation, occurs. The shape of formed stool does not change; however, defection can be painful.
The nurse is providing postoperative care 8 hours after a client had a total cystectomy and the formation of an ileal conduit. Which assessment finding should be reported immediately? A. Edematous stoma B. Dusky-colored stoma C. Absence of bowel sounds D. Pink-tinged urinary drainage
B. Dusky-colored stoma A dusky-colored stoma may denote a compromised blood supply to the stoma and impending necrosis. An edematous stoma and absence of bowel sounds are expected in the early postoperative period after this surgery. Pink-tinged urine may be present in the immediate postoperative period.
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is hospitalized. Which assessment findings will alert the nurse to kidney insufficiency? A. Facial flushing B. Edema and pruritus C. Dribbling after voiding and dysuria D. Diminished force and caliber of stream
B. Edema and pruritus The accumulation of metabolic wastes in the blood (uremia) can cause pruritus; edema results from fluid overload caused by impaired urine production. Pallor, not flushing, occurs with chronic kidney disease as a result of anemia. Dribbling after voiding is a urinary pattern that is not caused by chronic kidney disease; this may occur with prostate problems. Diminished force and caliber of stream occur with an enlarged prostate, not kidney disease.
A client is admitted to the hospital with severe renal colic caused by a ureteral calculus. Later that evening the client's urinary output is much less than the intake. When it is confirmed that the bladder is not distended, what should the nurse suspect developed? A. Oliguria B. Hydroureter C. Renal shutdown D. Urethral obstruction
B. Hydroureter Calculi may obstruct the flow of urine to the bladder, allowing the urine to distend the ureter, causing hydroureter. There is insufficient information to come to the conclusion of oliguria, even though output is less than intake; oliguria is present when the output is less than 400 mL in a 24-hour period. Calculi do not cause renal shutdown directly; they may obstruct the urinary tract and cause damage indirectly as a result of pressure from urine buildup. If the urethra is obstructed, the bladder will be distended.
A nurse is caring for a client who just had surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. To limit a common complication associated with this surgery, which action should the nurse take? A. Apply an abdominal binder. B. Place a support under the scrotum. C. Teach the client to cough several times an hour. D. Encourage the client to eat a high-carbohydrate diet.
B. Place a support under the scrotum. After inguinal hernia repair, the scrotum commonly becomes edematous and painful; drainage is facilitated by elevating the scrotum on rolled linen or using a scrotal support and/or ice application. An abdominal binder will not support the operative site; the incision is too low. Coughing increases intraabdominal pressure and should be avoided because it strains the operative site. Obesity is a factor in the development of hernias; high-carbohydrate diets should be discouraged.
A client with cancer of the bladder is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic tests to determine the extent of the disease. While the nurse is caring for the client, the client asks, "If they remove my bladder, how will I be able to urinate?" Which is the best response by the nurse? A. "You can still function normally without a bladder." B. "I am sure this is very upsetting to you, but it will be over soon." C. "I know you're upset, but there are alternatives to removing your bladder." D. "The tests will help to determine whether your bladder has to be removed."
C. "I know you're upset, but there are alternatives to removing your bladder." The response "I know you're upset, but there are alternatives to removing your bladder" offers the best combination of factual information and emotional support. The response "You can still function normally without a bladder" disregards the client's feelings; it is inaccurate information, because if the bladder is removed, bladder function will not be normal. Although the response "I am sure this is very upsetting to you, but it will be over soon" identifies the client's feelings, further communication is cut off by the second part of the response. The response "The tests will help to determine whether your bladder has to be removed" is factual but does not answer the question or offer emotional support; it may increase anxiety.
The registered nurse is preparing to assess a client's renal system. Which statement by the nurse indicates effective technique? A. "I must first palpate the client if a tumor is suspected." B. "I must first listen for normal pulse at the client's wrist region." C. "I must first auscultate the client and then proceed to percussion and palpation." D. "I must first examine tender abdominal areas and then proceed to nontender areas."
C. "I must first auscultate the client and then proceed to percussion and palpation." Palpation and percussion can cause an increase in normal bowel sounds and hide abdominal vascular sounds. Therefore it is wise to perform auscultation prior to percussion and palpation during clinical assessment of the renal system. Palpation should be avoided if a client is suspected of having a tumor because it could harm the client. It is more important as part of clinical assessment of the renal system to listen for bruit by auscultating over the renal artery. Bruit indicates renal artery stenosis. The nontender areas should be examined prior to tender areas to avoid confusion regarding radiating pain from the tender area being percussed.
A nurse is caring for a client who had surgery for the formation of a continent urostomy. The nurse engages the client in early postoperative ambulation to prevent what complication? A. Wound infection B. Urinary retention C. Abdominal distention D. Incisional evisceration
C. Abdominal distention Bed rest weakens the perineal and abdominal muscles used in defecating; ambulation promotes peristalsis and improves muscle tone, thereby facilitating expulsion of flatus and promoting defecation. Early ambulation will not prevent a wound infection. There will be no urinary retention because the surgery involved removal of the bladder and the creation of a permanent urinary diversion. Early ambulation will not prevent incisional evisceration.
The nurse is providing care to a client being treated for bacterial cystitis. What is the goal before discharge for this client? A. Understand the need to drink 4 L of water per day, an essential measure to prevent dehydration B. Be able to identify dietary restrictions and plan menus C. Achieve relief of symptoms and maintain kidney function D. Recognize signs of bleeding, a complication associated with this type of procedure
C. Achieve relief of symptoms and maintain kidney function Relief of symptoms and continued urine output are measurable responses to therapy and are the desired outcomes. Four liters of water per day is too much fluid; 2 to 3 liters a day is recommended to flush the bladder and urethra. Dietary restrictions are not necessary with cystitis. Bleeding is not a complication associated with this procedure.
After a transurethral vaporization of the prostate, the client returns to the unit with an indwelling urinary catheter and a continuous bladder irrigation. The client puts the call light on to report the need to urinate. What should the nurse do first? A. Obtain the client's vital signs. B. Review the client's intake and output. C. Assess that the tubing attached to the collection bag is patent. D. Explain that the balloon inflated in the bladder causes this feeling.
C. Assess that the tubing attached to the collection bag is patent. The drainage tubing may be obstructed. Retained fluid raises bladder pressure, causing discomfort similar to the urge to void. The client's vital signs are not related to the complaint. Although the nurse may review the client's intake and output, it is not the priority. Whether urine is draining from the tubing at this point in time is significant. Although it is true that the balloon inflated in the bladder causes this feeling, the patency of the gravity system should be ascertained before determining the cause of the complaint.
A client is admitted to the hospital in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. The nurse estimates that the urine output for the last 12 hours is about 200 mL. The nurse reviews the plan of care and notes a prescription for 900 mL of water to be given orally over the next 24 hours. What does the nurse conclude about the amount of fluid prescribed? A. It equals the expected urinary output for the next 24 hours. B. It will prevent the development of pneumonia and a high fever. C. It will compensate for both insensible and expected output over the next 24 hours. D. It will reduce hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
C. It will compensate for both insensible and expected output over the next 24 hours. Insensible losses are 500 to 1000 mL in 24 hours, with an average of about 600 mL; the measured output is about 400 mL in 24 hours based on the available history (about 200 mL in 12 hours). Based on the history, the expected urinary output should be about 400 mL in the next 24 hours, far less than 900 mL. More than 900 mL daily is necessary to help prevent pneumonia and its associated fever. Hyperkalemia in acute kidney injury is caused by inadequate glomerular filtration and is not related to fluid intake.
The nurse assists an elderly client in squirting warm water over the perineum. Which outcome indicates effective nursing care? A. The client will not have nocturia. B. The client will not have a bladder infection. C. The client will not have a tendency to retain urine. D. The client will not have urinary stress incontinence.
C. The client will not have a tendency to retain urine. The renal system undergoes age-related changes in elderly clients. A tendency to retain urine is a physiologic change that can result in urine stasis. Assisting the client in squirting warm water over the perineum will help to initiate voiding in the client. Thus when the client does not have a tendency to retain urine, this finding is an effective outcome. Discouraging excessive fluid intake for two to four hours before the client goes to bed reduces nocturia. Providing thorough perineal care after each voiding will help to prevent bladder infections. Responding quickly to the client's indication of the need to void will help to reduce urinary stress incontinence.
A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a cervical biopsy. The nurse finds that the client has a body temperature of 100° F, increased abdominal pain, and increased drainage that is foul-smelling. Which action is priority? A. Administer analgesics to the client B. Place the client in the lithotomy position C. Ask the client to douche the perineal area D. Report the client's condition to the primary healthcare provider
D. Report the client's condition to the primary healthcare provider A client who underwent a cervical biopsy may have a body temperature of 100° F, increased abdominal pain, and foul-smelling drainage due to infection. The nurse should report these findings regarding the client's condition to the primary healthcare provider to prevent sepsis. Analgesics may reduce the pain in the client, but not the other symptoms. Placing the client in the lithotomy position will not provide adequate comfort. The client should not douche the genital area for about two weeks after a cervical biopsy.
