EMT-Basic: Practice questions; TRAUMA

You are treating a patient who has a possible spinal injury. The patient states that he cannot move his extremities from his waist down. This is referred to as: A.) hemiplegia B.) quadriplegia C.) paraplegia D.) pelaplegia

C.) Paralysis from the waist down is called paraplegia while paralysis from the neck down is called quadriplegia. Paralysis on in side of the body called hemipledgia.

You are trained to the level of hazardous material first responder. At this level of training, you should never enter: A.) any zone B.) the cold zone or higher C.) the warm zone or higher D.) the hot zone

D.) An EMT-B who is trained at the first responder level may enter the cold and warm zones. The only individuals who should be entering the hot zone must be trained at least to the hazardous material technicians level.

A 7-year-old burns her hand on a stove burner. This is an example of what type of heat transfer? A.) convection B.) radiation C.) conduction D,) evaporation

C.) This is an example of conduction which is direct heat exchange that occurs when two or more different temperature surfaces come into direct contact. the temperature tries to equate nu transferring the heat to the cooler object or the cooler object attempts to reduce the hotter object.

During your transport to the hospital the patient seems to be getting worse. You should: A.) Reassess the patient B.) turn off the oxygen C.) ask the driver to go faster D.) call the hospital and notify them

A.) Anytime the patient's condition changes. you should immediately reassess the patient. After reassessing the patient you may need to alter your treatment accordingly, It may be necessary to notify the hospital of the patient's change in condition, but this should occur after your re-assessment. Speed of the vehicle should never be increases to jeopardize the safety of the crew, the patient, and those around the ambulance.

You arrive on the scene of an incident where a sixteen-year-old male fell approximately 12 feet. This would be considered: A.) a trauma alert. B.) a significant mechanism of injury. C.) not a significant mechanism of injury. D.) a case with a load 'n' go patient.

A patient over the age of eight is considered an adult for most medical care purposes. A fall of greater than 20 feet is considered a signification injury in adults. If this had been an infant or child, it would then have been a significant mechanism of injury since any fall greater than 10 feet would be considered a significant mechanism of injury.

Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of shock in the early stages? A.) tachycardia, anxious, restless, skin pale, cool, and clammy. B.) bradycardia, anxious, restless, skin pale, cool, and clammy. C.) tachycardia, hypotension, increased breathing D.) bradycardia, hypotension, skin pale, cool, and clammy

A.) Early signs of shock include an increased heart rate, increased respirations, and pale, cool, clammy skin. The patient will be restless and anxious due to hypoxia. The patient also may have an altered mental status and pupils will dilate. It is important to note that once the blood pressure drops, you ate in the late stages of shock. Hypotension is a late sign of shock.

When treating an eye injury involving an impaled object, it is important to: A.) cover both eyes and stabilize the object. B.) cover the affected eye and stabilize the object. C.) stabilize the object and do not cover either eye. D.) remove the object and cover both eyes.

A.) Eyes have sympathetic movement, which means if one eye moves , the other eye moves. Therefore, any time you have an eye injury and you do not want the patient to move their eye, such as a patient with an impaled object in the eye, it is important to not only stabilize the impaled object, but also to cover both eyes.

You are applying direct pressure to a 12-year-old female's lower leg which was lacerated by a large piece of glass. The bleeding continues to soak through the bandages even while applying direct pressure . you next step: A.) elevate the extremity B.) apply pressure at the femoral artery C.) apply a tourniquet D.) remove the blood soaked bandages and replace with clean bandages

A.) If blood continues to soak through your pressure dressing, your next step would be to elevate the extremity. If the bleeding still does not stop, apply pressure to her pulse point, which in this case would be the femoral artery.

Which device would you use to immobilize a patient when extricating from a vehicle? A.) K.E.D. B.) long spine board C.) scoop board D.) rapid extraction

A.) A K.E.D. is a Kendrick Extraction Device used to extract a patient from a vehicle. A rapid extraction is a procedure performed when the patient's life is in jeopardy and you need to get the patients out of the vehicle immediately. During a rapid extrication the patient is extricated directly from the vehicle on to the long board as there are risks associated with taking this short cut and should only be down when the patient's life is in jeopardy.

A patient has suffered a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the hypodermis. This is classified as a: A.) full thickness burn B.) partial thickness burn C.) superficial burn D.) dermis burn

A.) A full thickness burn involves all the layers of the skin and the portion under the skin referred to as the hypodermis. This involves the nerves, therefore the patient will not complain of pain around the full thickness burn area.

A mass causality incidents is considered to occur when: A.) you resources are outnumbered by patients B.) there are three or more patients C.) there are six or more patients D.) there are patients than ambulances on the scene

A.) A mass casualty occurs when there are more patients than there are resources. You could say more patients there are resources. You could say more patients than ambulances, however this is not the best answer, Keep in mind you may have two patients ans one ambulance or there may be additional units responding to the incident, but this does not make it a mass causality. In many organizations, an EMS crew may transport two patients in one ambulance, There is no magic number for an MCI. In New York City it takes a greater incident than an incident in rural Wyoming where there may only be one ambulance within 100 miles.

A patient at a fertilizer plant has a white powder over his arms. He is feeling ill and complaining of dizziness. The patient tell you he has been working in the fertilizer shed all day and few of the bags broke open, spilling onto him. You remove the patient from the environment, Your next step would be to: A.) brush all the loose powder off the patient. B.) begin flushing the patient with water. C.) immediately transport the patient to the nearest hospital. D.) wait for the haz mat team to arrive.

A.) A patient who has dry powder on them should have as much of the powder brushed off them as possible. After this has been done, you would then flush the area with large amounts of water. Some chemicals react with water and you want as little contaminant on your patient as possible. Since the patient is not on an environment that will harm you and the patient knows what the substance is, it typically is not necessary to wait on the haz mat team before you begin to decontaminate. Care should be taken to avoid contaminating you or other persons. you always want to decontaminate prior to transporting a patient.

If a patient is ejected from a vehicle they are________more likely to die: A.) 25 times B.) 35 times C.) 50 times D.) 70 times

A.) A patient who is ejected from a vehicle is 25 times fore lily to die. It is noted that 10,000 of the 40,000 fatalities from the motor vehicle accidents are a result of being ejected from a vehicle. It is also noted that 1 our of 13 victims that are ejected from a vehicle have a spinal fracture.

You would expect the patient in the previous question to have what type of appearance? A.) cherry red B.)pale C.) cyanotic D.) ashen/grey

A.) A patient who is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning is said to have a cherry red color appearance.

You are treating a patient that has been involved in a motor vehicle accident. You can lift t]a flap of skin on the patient's head. This type of injury would be referred to as a: A.) avulsion B.) laceration C.) evisceration D.) puncture

A.) A puncture is created by an object that is typically sharp and pointed. A laceration is defined as a jagged cut. AN evisceration is typically referred to as organs protruding. This injury would be referred to as a avulsion, which is a flap of skin.

You arrive on the scene of patient who has impaled her foot on a typewriter. The patient state she jumped from the top bunk and did not see it on the floor below. She does not want to go to the hospital because she's embarrassed. You should: A.) bot remove the typewriter and transport her to the hospital. B.) remove the typewriter and transport her to the hospital. C.) remove the typewriter and not transport her to the hospital. D.) not remove the typewriter and not trans[port her to the hospital.

A.) An impaled object should never be removed unless it is occluding the airway. The patient needs to be transported toe the hospital and then have the object removed. If the object is attached to a larger object, dissemble the object and take the patient ans the smaller portion of the object to the hospital. If cutting a medial object, you need t take care so as not to produce an amount of heat that will harm the patient as a result of friction. Place you hand on the object between where you are cutting the patient tom monitor the heat being generated.

You are called to assist a SCUBA diver who is having trouble breathing. The patient states that it started approximately 15 minutes after she surfaced. SHe complains of chest pain, dizziness, blurred vision, and nausea and vomiting. This patient is most likely suffering from: A.) pneumothorax. B.) decompression sickness. C.) barotrauma. D.) an air embolisim.

A.) Any of these could be associated with dive incidents, but these signs and symptoms are indicative of an air embolism. Divers who suffer from decompression sickness, or the bends, typically do not develop signs or symptoms of the bends for 12 to 24 hours after their dive. Barotrauma usually occurs as the diver is ascending or descending.

You are the triage officer at the scene of a mass casualty incident. Which of the following patients should be treated first? A.) a 37-year-old male patient who is unresponsive B.) an 18-year-old who is not breathing and has no pulse C.) a 29-year-old male patient with a femur fracture D.) an 8-year-old patient who is conscious but having trouble breathing

A.) In a mass casualty incident, anyone who is pulseless and apneic is classified as dead. Unfortunately, often there are too many patients to care for considering the amount of resources available. A patient with a fracture femur will be stable for the moment. An 8-year-old with trouble breathing may be tagged as a moderate priority, but the unconscious female is a high priority and should be treated first. IF the person's airway can be opened with manual techniques, continue to triage and provide treatment to other patients.

The proper way to ventilate an adult patient is to either administer oxygen through a bag-valve mask or by mouth-to-mouth. You also want to deliver each breath or ventilation over a one-second period. This will: A.) reduce the chance of gastric distention B.) prevent hyperoxygenation C.) prevent hypoxia D.) prevent using too much air or oxygen

A.) One concern when ventilating an adult patient with a BVM or by mouth-to-mouth is to deliver the ventilation over a one-second tine period. This aids in reducing gastric distention by not forcing air or oxygen into the esophagus and inflating the stomach with air. Remeber, what goes into the stomach must come out. Air rises, hence overtime the air you put into the stomach will come back out with whatever gastric contents the patient has in their stomach.

Which of the following is a late sign of shock? A.) hypertension B.) tachycardia C.) cyanosis D.) anxiety

A.) Patients who suffer from shock will begin by exhibiting signs of anxiety and restlessness due to their hypoxic state. Their pulse will increase in an attempt to compensate. the later sign of shock is hypotension. this is considered uncompensateable shock and the patient at this point is "crashing"

Your patient is complaining of not being able to feel anything and cannot move any of his extremities. HE fails your MSP test and you notice that he has diaphragmatic breathing. You suspect this patient has a spinal cord injury. A.) in the cervical spine region. B.) in the thoracic spine region. C.) in the lumbar spine region. D.) in the sacral spine region.

A.) Patients with these complaints typically have a spinal cord injury in the neck region. IF the patient has the same signs and symptoms but can feel, wave, and squeeze his hands, then the injury is typically below the neck. If the patient has normal breathing, can feel, wave, and squeeze their hands, but cannot feel, wiggle or raise their toes and feet,then it typically indicates a lower spinal cord injury.

Which of the following is NOT part of the trauma score? A.) age of the patient B.) respiratory rate C.) systolic blood pressure D.) Glasgow coma score

A.) The age of the patient is not part of the trauma score. The three major components of the trauma score are the respiratory rate, the systolic blood pressure. and the Glasgow coma score. There my be other components depending on which text you read, but these are typically the major components and age is not found in any of the trauma scores.

Your patient has what appears to be a dislocated shoulder. Treatment for this patient should be to: A.) sling and swathe the injured shoulder. B.) immobilize the arm to the side of the patient. C.) reset the shoulder and then immobilize. D.) wrap the upper body in a pillow and immobilize both arms.

A.) The appropriate treatment for a patient with a dislocated shoulder is to sling and swathe. Under no circumstance should an EMT-B attempt to reset a dislocated shoulder.

Your patient was playing softball and wad struck in the abdomen with a line drive. She is complaining of pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. Which of the following organs would you suspect may be injured? A.) the liver B.) the spleen C.) the right kidney D.) the right lung

A.) The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen and is the most likely organ that would be injured by direct blow to this quadrant. The spleen is located in the upper left quadrant. The kidney is located in the retro-peritoneal area and would be considered if she was struck f=in the lower right side or back or possibly in the right flank area. The right lung may be inured, but typically the patient would have had a blow to the chest versus the abdomen. Thus, the liver is the best anser for this question.

The most important element at the scene of a patient that has burns from an electrical source is: A.) scene safety. B.) airway control. C.) cool the burn. D.) check for an exit wound.

A.) The most important aspect at the scene of an electrical injury is scene safety. After scene is secured and the power has been turned off by the power company , the patient's airway is the nest important aspect. Since electrical injuries usually cause an entrance and exit wound, it is important to check for the exit wound. Electricity takes the path of least resistance. Remember scene safety first, before attempting to treat patient.

You are treating a patient who has overdosed on a narcotic. The greatest risk for this patient is: A.) respiratory depression B.) seizures C.) hypertension D.) hyperactivity

A.) The most important thing to note with a narcotic overdose is respiratory depression, which may lead to airway compromise. Narcotic medications depress the mental status of the patients.

The patient you are treating has suffered a blow to the back of the head. The most likely area of the brain affected would be the: A.) occipital region B.) parietal region C.) temporal region D.) frontal region

A.) The occiptal region is located in the back of the skull and is most likely region affected by a blow to the back of the head.

You are assisting a patient who had a flash burn to both of his hands. the patient has charring of he skin and tissue damage through the skin and the underlying tissue. These are signs and symptoms are indicative of: A.) full thickness burn B.) partial thickness burn C.) superficial burns D.) dermis burn

A.) The patient has the signs and symptoms indicative of a full thickness burn.

There are five steps of the grief associated with the death and dying process. The typical progression is: A.) denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance B.) anger, denial, bargaining, depression, and acceptance C.) denial, bargaining, anger, depression, and acceptance D.) depression, denial, anger, bargaining, and acceptance

A.) The stages of death and dying typically go through a process that begins with denial. It is the "not me" defense mechanism that builds a defense Against reality. Next they experience anger-they do not deserve to die now. Then they begin to bargain ": I am okay with dying, but first let me..." Then they become depressed. They think of all the things they haven't done. And last , they except the fact that they are going to die. These are typically the fives stages and the progression that happens. On occasion, they may not get to the next stage or they may skip stages of the process. You may also find that it is not uncommon for the patient's loved ones to experience the five-stage process.

You arrive on the scene of a 20-year-old male lying on the ground. Upon examination you notice blood soaked through his shirt. Where his shirt is removed there is frothy blood at the opening of the wound and a sucking sound is heard. You initial reaction would be to: A.) place your gloved hand over the wound. B.) place your hand over the wound. C.) apply an occlusive dressing. D.) apply a sterile dressing.

A.) This is an indicative of a sucking chest wound and you should immediately place your gloved hand on the wound and seal it. An occlusive dressing can be placed on the wound next. Never place an ungloved hand on a patient who is bleeding or any body substance that could transmit an infectious disease.

During your assessment of a fall victim, you notice a clear fluid leaking from the ear that appears to be cerebral spinal fluid. This would signify that the patient may have a: A.) severe head injury. B.) a ruptured ear drum. C.) dislocated jaw. D.) basilar skull fracture.

A.) This patient may have a balisar skull fracture but you cannot tell that from the limited information you received. The information provided does suggest that the patient has a severe head injury. A further exam would need to be conducted and the patient would need to get to definitive care quickly for a successful outcome.

You would expect the exit wound from a gunshot to be: A.) larger than the entrance B.) smaller than the entrance C.) the same size as the entrance D.) you would not expect to see an exit wound

A.) Typically the exit of a gunshot wound is larger than the entrance. In some instances, you will not see an exit wound if the bullet becomes lodged in the body but you should always look for an exit wound.

Which of the following would you NOT suspect in a patient that has bent the steering wheel in a motor vehicle accident? A.) fractured pelvis B.) myocardial contusion C.) myocardial tamponade D.) flailed chest

A.) Typically you would not suspected a patient to have fracture pelvis from hitting the steering wheel. Any type of chest injury should be suspected when patient hits the steering wheel. It does not mean they have that injury, but the EMT-B should have a high index of suspicion until proven otherwise.

A frantic mother hands you her 9-month-old infant. She says the patient was playing and found a marble. The patient stuck the marble in his mouth and shes cannot get him to breath. You should: A.) deliver 5 back blows followed by 5 chest compressions. B.) deliver 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrust. C.) sweep the mouth to see if you can feel the marble. D.) deliver 5 abdominal thrust.

A.) When treating an infant who is chocking, you should never stick your fingers in their mouth nor do a blind finger sweep. You should only d a finger sweep if you see the object. The proper treatment for a chocking infant is to deliver 5 back blows, 5 chest thrust and then look into the mouth for the object.

You should remove the helmet from a patient in all of the following scenarios EXCEPT: A.) The helmet does not interfere with your ability to assess or reassess airway and breathing. B.) The helmet interferes with your ability to assess or reassess airway and breathing. C.) The helmet interferes with your ability to adequacy manage the airway or breathing D.) The helmet does not fit well and allows excessive movement of the head inside the helmet.

A.) You should also remove the helmet if it interferes with proper spinal immobilization or the patient id in cardiac arrest.

Your patient is complaining of abdominal pain. HER tells you his stools have been dark and tarry. His abdomen is tender upon palpation. You would suspect this patient is suffering from: A.) upper abdominal internal bleeding. B.) lower abdominal internal bleeding. C.) abdominal evisceration. D.) bleeding from the colon.

A.) You would suspect the patient is having internal bleeding in the upper regions of the abdomen. typically bright colored blood in the stool is indicated of lower GI bleed and dark colored blood is indicative of upper GI bleed. An abdominal evisceration is when the patient's organs are protruding as a result of a traumatic event.

When establishing landing zone for a medical helicopter, the maximum area secured should be: A.) 100' X 100' B.) 200' X 200' C.) 50' X 50' D.) 60' X 60'

A.) the minimum are you should secure for a night landing of a medical helicopter is 100' X 100'. During the daylight hours it is 60' X 60'. Keep in mind your local air medical agency may require a larger landing area depending on their policies and the type of helicopter they use.

You are examining a patient who has been working in her backyard. The patient tells you she was cleaning out a drainage area when she felt a sharp pain on the hand. On examination of the patient's hand, you see two bites on one side of the hand that resemble a snake bite. Your treatment for this patient would include: A.) keeping the patient calm, removing and jewelry and applying a constriction band. B.) keeping the patient calm, removing any jewelry, and applying a cold pack to the bite. C.) keeping the patient calm, applying a cold pack to the bite, and applying a constricting band. D.) keeping the patient calm, removing any jewelry, marking an "X" cut on the wound, and sucking the venom out.

A.)There are about 45,000 patients bitten by snakes each year in the United States. The majority of these are not venomous snakes. IF you can identify the snake and/or safely kill the snake, take it to the emergency room for identification. Patients that are bitten by a snake should be keep calm. The affected part of the body should be kept lower than the heart. Using a constricting band between the bite and the patient's heart is recommended. You should not apply ice nor should you try to lance the wound and suck the venom out. The patient needs to be transported to a local hospital where the anti-venom is available. It is always a good idea to contact the hospital prior to transport to ensure that they have the anti-venom.

The patient you are treating has blisters ans intense pain over over his hand. You find out from the patient's mother that the patient touched the burner of the stove. You would recognize this type of burn as a: A.) superficial burn. B.) partial thickness burn. C.) full thickness burn. D.) complete thickness burn.

B.) Superficial burns are red and painful at the site Partial thickness burns have blisters, intense pain, the skin is white to red and is moist and mottled. Full thickness burns are charred, dark brown or white. The skin id half to touch and the patient i]has little to no pain since the nerve endings have beend\ damaged. The patient will have pain around the periphery of the burn.

You arrive on the scene to find an unresponsive female patient who is in her car in the garage. The car is still running and the door is closed. looking through the outside window, your next action would be to: A.) attempt an immediate rescue. B.) open the large garage door and any other outside openings. C.) wait for the car to run out of gas. D.) shut the car offimmediatley and remove patient.

B.) The first priority is your safety. Do not attempt a rescue in an unsafe environment. The first step is to open the garage door and any other opening to the outside to get fresh air in the environment . An attempt ti rescue should xonly be made after the scene becomes safe or there appropriate PPE to make the rescue.

You arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle accident. The vehicle is resting on its side and the patient is still in the vehicle.Your first action would be to: A.) establish an airway B.) crib the vehicle using edge boards C.) have the patient get out of the vehicle D.) Place flares around the vehicle to secure the area

B.) A vehicle that is resting on its side is very unstable. The first thing an EMT-B should do is stabilize the vehicle. This is accomplished by placing wedges and boards to secure the vehicle from rolling over. IF you do not have cribbing on your unit, wait for a unit that does. Never have a patient self extract themselves from a vehicle. It is never a good idea to uses flares at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. IF the vehicle is leaking fuel , it may cause a fire.

You respond to a structure fire. When you arrive on the scene a firefighter brings you a 57-year-old male. He has a partial and full thickness burns to his arms and legs. You note partial thickness burns around his mouth and forehead. Your first priority with this patient is: A.) apply burn dressings B.) open patient's airway C.) maintaining body temperature D.) transport the patient to the burn hospital

B.) All of these are appropriate treatment protocols for this patient but your first priority is to ensure an open airway. This patient has probably incurred some upper respiratory burns making an airway important. The question does not state that the patient is still burning; therefore you can begin the cooling process after establishing an airway. IN most circumstances this would be done simultaneously, however the airway is the first step. You also want to maintain the patient's body temperature. Burn patients will become hypothermic quickly. Finally, the patient needs to be transported to a hospital that can care for their burns.

You arrive on the scene of patient who has amputated his arm at the elbow. Which of the following best describes the way you should transport the extremity? A.) packed on ice. B.) wrapped in sterile dressing and kept cool with ice. C.) placed in a plastic bag with ice. D.) soaked in sterile water and placed in a plastic bag.

B.) An amputated part needs to be handled very carefully. The part should be wrapped in a sterile dressing and kept cool but never placed directly on ice. The care the amputated part receives, coupled with the time the patient arrives at the hospital, are critical comportment of a successful reattachment.

You arrive on the scene to find a patient with lacerations to her arms and legs. During your initial assessment the patient's husband begins wielding a knife at you and tells you to leave her alone or he will stab you. You should: A.) continue treating the patient. B.) retreat to a safe location and wait for law enforcement. C.) have your partner approach the husband and try to reason with him. D.) attempt to get the nife from the patient.

B.) Any time the scene is not safe leave the scene immediately. Granted there will be incidents where the EMT-B will be in risky situations. Every call could potentially go bad. This particular incident has gone bad amd the EMT-B needs t retreat to a safe location and notify law enforcement. Once law enforcement secures the scene, the patient. Never attempt to disarm anyone. Law enforcement officers are specially trained to do this.

You are treating a 35-year-old conscious choking victim. The patient suddenly goes unresponsive. YOur nest step is to: A.) attempt to ventilate the patient B.) perform CPR C.) deliver 5 abdominal thrusts D.) deliver 5 chest thrusts

B.) As a health provider, once the patient becomes unresponsive you should begin CPR.

As you are assessing the patient, you recognize that the patient has an inadequate breathing rate. Your next step should be to: A.) continue assessment. B.) stop your assessment and administer the appropriate amount of oxygen. C.) reassess the patient. D.) take the patients vital signs.

B.) Breathing is part of the ABC's. Immediately upon identifying that the patient has an inadequate breathing rate, you should administer the appropriate amount of oxygen. If your partner is not doing anything critical at this point, you can direct him or her to administer oxygen.

You arrive on scene for a patient who fell from a ladder. You should open the patient's airway by using: A.) head-tilt/chin-lift B.) jaw-thrust maneuver C.) neck-lift/head-tilt D.) head-tilt/jaw-thrust

B.) Care should be taken when opening an airway in a patient with a possible or suspected head or neck injury. The jaw-thrust maneuver is the choice in opening an airway in these patients. This keeps the head in a neutral position and does not put any undone stress on the cervical spine.

Your unit is the first to arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you are approaching the scene you notice the vehicle struck a pole and that there are electrical lines down on the vehicle. The patient appears to be unresponsive. Your first action should be to: A.) remove the electrical lines. B.) call the electrical company and keep everyone, including emergency personnel, away from the car. C.) don rubber boots approach the carefully. D.) remove the victim from the car immediately since she is unresponsive.

B.) The first step at any scene is scene safety. Electrical lines on the vehicle are unsafe. It is your responsibility to secure the scene by not allowing anyone to approach the vehicle until the power company arrives and determines the scene safe. Under no circumstance should you ever play the role of any utility company.

There are levels of posturing that occur in patients with head injuries known as decorticate and decerebrate posturing. Which of the following statements is correct? A.) Decorticate posturing happens in the later stages of a head injury and decerebrate posturing happens in the early stages. B.) Decorticate posturing is when the patient'd arms are drawn to the body and decerebrate posturing is when the arms are positioned away from the body. C.) Decorticate posturing is when the patient's arms are positioned away from the body and decerebrate posturing is when the patient's arms are dawn to the body. D.) Decortive and decerebrate posturing is not indicative of a head injury and none of the above are correct.

B.) Closed head injury patients will progressively decrease their responsiveness. The patient will initially withdraw from painful stimulus. Later the patients will present with decorticate posturing which is when the patients draws their arms to the core of their body and the lower extremities becomes rigid and extended. The late signs of a closed head injury is when the patient exhibits decrebrate posturing which is when the patient's lower and upper extremitites become rigid and extend away from the body. At this point the effects are usually irreversible.

Which of the following are the signs of Crushing's triad? A.) increased pulse, increased blood pressure, change in respiratory rate. B.) decreased pulse, increased blood pressure, change in respiratory rate. C.) increased pulse, decreased blood pressure, change in respiratory rate D.) decreased pulse, deceased blood pressure, change in respiratory rate.

B.) Crushing's triad is indicative of a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Therefore. the signs would be an increase in blood pressure, a decrease in pulse rate and a change in respiratory rate. When ICP increases, the vagus nerve is stimulated and reduces the pulse rate. There are also late signs in patients with a head injury.

A 20-year-old female patient was sexually assaulted. The patient states that she is hemorrhaging profusely from the vagina. You should: A.) do nothing, and transport immediately. B.) apply a sterile sanitary napkin. C.) pack the vagina with sterile dressings. D.) have the patient squeeze her legs together and transport immediately.

B.) Dealing with these types of events is not easy. The EMT-B needs to be ready to be very sensitive to the patient's experience while treating the patient with the appropriate medical are. In this instance you would want to apply a sanitary napkin and apply direct pressure to control the bleeding. You never want to insert or pack anything into the vagina. It is important to have a female EMT-B assist the patient if at all possible.

At the scene of a mass casualty incident , the _______is in charge of where the patient goes: A.) EMT-B treating the patients B.) transportation sector C.) incident commander D.) driver of the ambulance

B.) During a mass casualty incident, an incident command system needs to be established which includes a transportation sector. The responsibility of this sector is to ensure that patients are transported to the appropriate hospitals. The transportation sector coordinates this with the incident commander, the triage sector, and the hospitals, but is responsible for where the patient is transported to and then recording this information.

The appropriate care for a patient with Epistaxis is to: A.) have the patient lay down and remain calm. B.) pinch the nostrils and have then patient lean forward. C.) pinch the nostrils and have the patent lean back. D.) have the patient lay in a supine position with his head lower than his body.

B.) Epistaxis is a nose bleed. In these cases you should have the patient pinch their nose and lean forward. You want to keep the person in a sitting position and keep the patient calm. You don't want the patient to lean back and have the blood collect in the oropharynx. This may cause the patient to chock on the blood, plus you do not want the patient to swallow blood which may make them nauseated and begin to vomit.

Which of the following is NOT considered a significant mechanism of injury for n adult? A.) roll-over of vehicle B.) falls greater than 10 feet C.) penetrations of the head chest or abdomen D.) ejection from vehicle

B.) Falls greater than 10 feet are considered a significant mechanism of injury in a child or infant, but not an adult. A fall greater then 20 feet is considered a significant mechanism of injury in an adult.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when treating a fall victim? A.) distance of the ladder B.) height of the ladder C.) surface upon which the patient landed D.) body part that impacted first

B.) How tall the ladder is does not make a significance difference in your assessment. The distance the patient fell is important to note because you would suspect different injuries from a patient who fell from the four foot area of a twelve foot ladder than if he had fallen from the top. The surface the patient landed on is always an important aspect to assess. If the patient fell in a sandy area, he would have different injuries than if he fell onto a concrete surface. The body part that impacted first would give you clues in your assessment of suspected injuries. If the patient landed on their buttocks, you would suspect lower back injuries versus if he fell on the back of his head, you would suspect head and neck injuries.

There are hollow and solid organs in the abdomen, The gall bladder is considered a hollow organ. A ruptured hollow organ such as the gallbladder is most commonly associated with: A.) severe bleeding. B.) inflammation and infection. C.) gall stones. D.) appendicitis.

B.) Infection and inflammation is most commonly associated with hollow organs. Severe bleeding is most commonly associated with solid organs.

You should never approach a helicopter from the: A.) front B.) rear C.) left D.) right

B.) Never approach a helicopter from the rear. The tail rotate is difficult to see. Even if the helicopter is a rear-loading helicopter, approach from the side then go to the rear to load the patient. Always make sure the pilot gives the okay to approach the helicopter.

A patient was stung by a stingray at the local beach. The patient is complaining of severe pain in the ankle where she was stung. The appropriate treatment of this patient is: A.) keeping the patient calm, removing the stinger, and applying a constricting band. B.) keeping the patient calm , removing the stinger, and applying heat. C.) keeping the patient calm, removing the stinger, and applying an ice pack. D.) keeping the patient calm, removing the stinger, and keeping the patient calm, removing the embedded stinger, and applying an ice pack.

B.) Patients that are stung by marine life are treated differently than most other stings and bites. If the stinger can be removed easily and is not embedded in the patient's skin. It shooed not be removed. Any jewelry should be removed in case of swelling. any marine life stings or bites should have heat applied to the wound. Remember that warm not cold is appropriate care for these patients.

What three things do you want to remember when dealing with a radioactive incident: A.) time, depth, and shielding B.) time, distance, and shielding C.) time, distance, and space D.) type, distance, and shielding

B.) The most important factors when dealing with radioactive materials are classified into three categories: alpha, beta, and gamma. Gamma is the most intense rasdioactive material. The length of time you are exsposed to gamma radiation cannot be long compared to time exposed to alpha rays. Exposure to alpha rays occurs almost daily from teh sun's rays. Distance and protection of shielding from radioactive materials are also important factors. alpha rays will not penetrate through paper while lead is needed to protect against gamma rays.

You just completed splinting a patient's fractured arm. Prior to applying the splint the patient had a distal pulse in the extremity. After splinting, you cannot find a radial pulse. You suspect that: A.) the fracture has cut off the circulation. B.) your splint is too tight. C.) this is a normal reaction after splinting. D.) the patient's condition is worsening.

B.) The patient's condition is worsening, but is probably a direct result of you applying the splint to tightly. Loosen the splint and reassess for distal pulses. In most cases this will resolve the issue and the distal pulses will return. It is always important to check distal pulses prior to and after splinting. It is also a good idea to check motor and sensation along with capillary refill when you check for pulses.

A witness tells you that the patient was responsive immediately after being struck in the head with a baseball, bit is now unconscious. The right pupil is fixed and dilated. The bystander tells you the patient was struck on the right side of the head The patient is most likely suffering from: A.) intracranial bleeding B.) subdural hematoma C.) basiler skull fracture D.) epidural hematoma

B.) These are classic signs of a subdural hematoma. Patients who have subdural hematomas present with deterioration in level of conciousness, dilation of one pupil, abnormal respirations, rising blood pressure, and slowing pulse. Epidural hematoma patents lose consciousness, regain consciousness and then go unresponsive. they also typically complain of a severe headache and commonly seize.

The patient is bleeding severely from the lower leg. You have applied direct pressure and elevated the leg. Your next step is to apply pressure at the pressure point. The pressure point for this injury would be: A.) the popiteal artery. B.) the femoral artery. C.) the tibual artery. D.) the dorasalis pedis artery.

B.) When applying pressure to a pressure point, you want to locate the artery pressure point proximal to the wound. IN this case the femoral artery pressure point would be the most appropriate. The tibial artery is not considered a pressure point and is located below the injury as is the dorsalis pedis. The popiteal artery is also not a pressure point. Therefore the only option would be the femoral artery pressure point.

Typically, which of the following is NOT one of the first things an EMT-B should do when arriving on the scene of an incident? A.) assess the scene for hazards B.) assess the patient's ABCs C.) note the number of patients D.) note the mechanism of injury

B.) When you arrive on the scene of any incident you want to assess the scene for hazards and make sure the scene is safe before you approach the patient. Second, you want to note how many patients there are so you can determine the number of resources you need. Finally, you want to note the mechanism of injury, which will aid in the assessment of the patient. Assessing the patient's ABCs is important, but these three items need to be determined prior to even touching the patient.

You are assessing a 24-year-old male who was involved in a bar room brawl. Witnesses say the patient was struck with a bar stool. The patient is unresponsive. You note battle signs on your assessment. This is a sign of: A.) intracranial bleeding. B.) basilar skull fracture. C.) epidural hematoma. D.) subdural hematima.

B.) Without further diagnostic exam you cannot rule out any of these possibilities. However, battle signs are indicative of a basilar skull fracture. Battle signs may appear thirty minutes to twelve hours after the initial injury. Raccoon eyes are usually indicate of intracranial bleeding.

A 22-year-old female was found floating in a pool. When you arrive, the patient is being held in the face-up position. The patient is unconscious, but is breathing and has a pulse. You should consider which of the following conditions during your treatment of this patient? A.) possible aspiration of water B.) possible neck injury C.) hyperthermia D.) none of the above

B.) any patient that is found in a pool or other body water should be suspected of having a cervical spine and/or head injury until proven otherwise. It is not common for patients to swallow water whether they drown, at least in large quantities. Since the patient is breathing, she has an airway. It is also not common for patients to have hyperthermia; most patients will have hypothermia as a result of a near-drowning , but not hyperthermia. The only time this may be possible is if the patient had a near drowning event in a hot tub or similar circumstance. Near-drowning patients may also suffer from shock, soft tissue injury, spinal injuries, or internal or external bleeding. These patients should be treated as a trauma patient with a thorough assessment conducted.

The most important information to know when responding to a call is: A.) the location of the patient and his phone number. B.) the nature of the call and the location. C.) the location of the call and the number of patients. D.) the number of patients and the nature of the call.

B.) the nature of the call and the location are the most important initial factors you need, First, you need to know where the call is located, so you can begin to respond to the call. Second, it is important to know the nature of the call so you can begin to plan your strategy for handling the cal when you arrive on the scene. It is good to know the number of patients at the scene, but it is not the most critical at this point because in most incidents you will be able to get that information through the nature of the call.

You arrive to find a 48-year-old male complaining that his chest feels heavy. The patient is awake and talking to you. During your assessment, you note that his skin is pale, cool, and clammy. Your first step is to: A.) apply your AED B.) administer supplemental oxygen C.) obtain a past medical history D.) assist the patient in taking his neighbor's nitroglycerin

B.) your first step is to administer supplemental oxygen. When treating chest pain it is important to get oxygen to the patient as soon as possible to help alleviate damage to the heart muscle.

You are assessing a 25-year-old male patient. During you assessment of the chest, you notice the patient has four ribs broken in two places. This type of injury is called a: A.) a fractured chest. B.) paradoxical movement C.) flailed segment D.) chest deformity

C.) This is a classic indicator of a flailed segment, which is where there are three or more ribs broken in two places. Paradoxical motion, another indicator of flailed segment, is when the flailed segment sinks in when the patient inhales.

Which of the following injuries is a true orthopedic emergency? A.) fractured femur B.) dislocated shoulder C.) dislocated knee D.) dislocated hip

C.) A dislocated knee is considered a true orthopedic emergency.

A patient had hydrochloric acid splashed in her eyes. You find the patient at the eye wash station. Her supervisor tells you she had been flushing her eyes for five minutes. You should: A.) have the patient stop flushing and examine the eyes. B.) have the patient stop flushing her eyes and bandage both eyes. C.) have the patient continue flushing her eyes for at least another 15 minutes. D.) immediately transport the patient to the hospital.

C.) Any patient that has a chemical on their skin or in their eyes should flush the affected are foe at lest 20 minutes. This patient has been flushing her eyes for 5 minutes; therefore she should continue to flush her eyes for an additional 15 minutes. En route to the hospital, you should still continue to flush eyes ton help relieve the pain and remove any reaming chemicals.

Your patient is bleeding from the left arm. the blood is spurting and bright red. The patient has most likely lacerated her: A.) vein. B.) capillaries. C.) artery. D.) mesentery.

C.) Arterial blood is typically bright red in color since it is oxygenated. Bleeding from an artery will typically spurt. Bleeding from an a vein is typically dark red because is is unoxygenated flows freely. Capillaries have dark red blood and it oozes. Blood exchanges oxygen at the capillary level.

You are called to a high school football game. A 14-year-old male is lying on the ground complaining of neck and back pain. He was wearing a helmet does not fit tightly. The appropriate care for this patients is to: A.) remove the helmet and leave the other protective gear. B.) leave the protective gear on and immobilize. C.) remove the helmet and shoulder pads. D.) leave the helmet on but remove the rest of the protective gear and immobilize.

C.) High school football players do not always have the best equipment. In this situation the helmet does not fit tightly and may cause more harm than good. It is appropriate to remove the helmet and shoulder pads of this patient. Any time you remove a helmet, you must remove the shoulder pads. Likewise most instances require you to remove motorcycle helmets. They typically create a problem immobilizing patients on a backboard, plus it is difficult to manage the airway with full face shield helmets.

A 27-year-old patient is involved in a motor vehicle accident. You attempt to ventilate the patient, bur realize you cannot i=open the patient's jaw due to trauma. Your technique of ventilating the patient would be: A.) mouth-to-mouth technique B.)mouth-to-mouth and nose technique C.) mouth-to-nose technique D.) a Combitube

C.) Mouth-to-nose technique is the ideal method for this patient. Anytime you have a patient that has severe soft tissue or bone injury around the mouth, or you cannot open the mouth, the mouth-to-nose technique is the preferred choice of ventilation.

You are treating a patient who has a possible spinal injury after falling approximately 12 feet. The patient is warm and dry. The patient's vital signs are pulse, 80, respirations, 20, and BP 118/76. When you reassess the patient's vital signs 5 minutes later, the pulse and respiratiojns are the dame, but the BP has dropped to 80/44. You would suspect this patient is suffering from: A.) cardiogenic shock. B.) vasogenic shock. C.) nuerogenic shock. D.) hypovolemic shock.

C.) Patients who have a spinal injury may suddenly drop their blood pressure although their vital signs, skin color, and temperature remain the same. This is a result of arteries losing the nerve impulse from the brain and spinal cord as a result of the injury. This is a typically indicative when the patient has injured the upper portion i their spinal cord. This is called relative hypovolema. The patient's pump, the heart, is intact and functioning properly. The patient's blood volume has not increased, however, their pipes, the blood vessels, have increased or dilated in size. You have the same amount or volume of blood , but now a larger pipe or vessel for the same amount of blood to go through., therefore decreasing the pressure against thew arterial walls and dropping the blood pressure.

You are called to the scene of a patient who is in his fifties and being treated for an illness that has been ongoing for the past three weeks. The patient is febrile, diaphoretic, and pale. His blood pressure is 88/40, pulse is 120. You would suspect this patient is suffering from: A.) neurogenic shock B.) psychogenic shock C.) septic shock D.0 anaphylatic shock

C.) Patients who have been sick for periods of time are susceptible to septic shock as a result of infection in the body that causes a vasodilation of the blood vessels. these patients need general supportive care, transport to the hospital for more definitive care and typically need an antibiotic to fight off the infection , before they begin to recover.

Which of the following is NOT considered relative hypovolemic shock? A.) neurogenic shock B.) psychogenic shock C.) hemorrhagic shock D.) anaphylatic shock

C.) Relative hypovolemic shock occurs when the blood vessels dilate. There is no loss of blood but the pressure against the vessels decreases because the vessels dilate. Neurogenic shock, psychogenic and anaphylactic shock are all examples of relative hypovolemia. In many instances, such as neurogenic shock, relative hypovolemic shock will happen readily and without warning.

Arriving on the scene to find an unresponsive patient, the patient begins to vomit. You turn on your suction unit and prepare to suction. You should apply suction: A.) as you insert the catheter. B.) by alternating every 5 seconds between inserting and withdrawing the catheter. C.) while withdrawing the catheter and for no more than 15 seconds D.) while inserting and withdrawing the catheter.

C.) Suction should only be applied when you withdraw the catheter. Suctioning should only last for 15 seconds. Patients become hypoxic during the suctioning process and need to be ventilated or supplied with oxygen for a 2-minute period before suctioning.

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of applying and inflating the MAST garment? A.)objects impaled in a site that would be covered with the garment B.) the last three months of pregnancy C.) pelvic and femur fracture D.) pulmonary edema

C.) The MAST pants are not used to the extent they once were but are still used to stabilize femur and pelvic fractures. The only true contraindication of the MAST is pulmonary edema. However you should not apply and inflate over an impaled object and you should avoid us in the last three months of pregnancy.

You are dispatched to a local farm. You arrive on the scene to discover that a patient is inside a silo. the patient does not respond to verbal commands from outside the silo. You should: A.) immediately rescue the patient. B.) enter the silo, with your partner waiting outside. C.) wear SCBA and enter. D.) empty the contents of the silo.

C.) The main concern with a silo is the gas that it produces. IF one person is already unresponsive in a confined space such as a silo, anyone else who enters will typically be overcome by the same gases. Remember , scene safety and wearing protective equipment is important. It is also important to only use equipment you have been properly trained to use.

Which of the following is NOT true of the treatment of an impaled object? A.) remove if blocking the airway B.) stabilize in place C.) remove to accommodate transport of patient D.) control bleeding

C.) The treatment of a patient with an impaled object includes: securing the object in place, exposing the wound area, controlling the bleeding, and using a bulky dressing to help stabilize the object. The only tine it is permissible to remove ab impaled object is if it is impeding the breathing of the patient.

The two major goals of treating a large open neck injury are: A.) bleeding. B.) air embolism prevention. C.) A and B D.) neither A nor B.

C.) The two main concerns when treating large pen neck wounds are controlling bleeding and the prevention of an air embolism. TO treat these patients, place a gloved hand over the wound to control bleeding. Apply an occlusive dressing and cover the dressing with a regular dressing, applying only enough pressure to control the bleeding. Once the bleeding is controlled, apply a pressure dressing and treat for other injuries, including possible c-spine injuries.

Your patient dislocated her left shoulder when she fell. The proper procedure for immobilizing a dislocated shoulder is to: A.) splint the left arm to the left side of her body. B.) attempt to rest the dislocation C.) apply a sling and swathe to immobilize the left arm and shoulder D.) apply a rigid split to the front and back of the shoulder to immobilize.

C.) Then proper way to immobilize a shoulder dislocation s to sling and swathe the affected arm and shoulder. DO not attempt to rest a shoulder dislocation. There are a number of complications associated with attempting to reset a dislocation. If there is not a distal pulse in the extremity affected by the dislocation, gentle traction can be applied. You should also not delay transported for these patients.

Your patient is lying in the doorway of her home, which is one fire. You are the first on scene. You should: A.) wait for the fire department B.) treat the patient where you find her C.) immediately move the patient D.) perform an initial assessment to determine what to do next

C.) There are a few times when you will need to move the patient immediately; this is called an emergency move. As long as you reach the patient and move them to safety, you should go ahead and perform the rescue. Since the patient is in the doorway and the fire can be seen, an emergency move is appropriate in this scenario. If you arrive on the scene and the patient is still in the house, it is better to wait for fire personnel to arrive on the scene to perform the rescue. Never stay and treat a patient with impending danger, move to a safer spot.

You arrive at the scene of a mass casualty incident involving 12 patients. Which of the following patients would you classify as the highest priority? A.) a 37-year-old male with multiple bone fractures B.) an 18-year-old female in cardiac arrest C.) a 58-year-old male with uncontrolled bleeding and shortness of breath D.) an 8-year-old female with burns to both of her feet

C.) Triaging is a difficult event for an EMT-B at the scene of a MCI. AN EMT-B will sometimes make the hardest decisions of their life, because they have to decide who to treat and who not to resuscitate. In most instances the EMT-B will only deal with one patient and will make every effort to save that person's life. At the scene of an MCI, you cannot do that and need to make tough choices. The 18-year-old is in cardiac arrest and would be classified as a low propriety. The patient with multiple bone fractures and the child with burns would be classified as moderate propriety. The patient short of breath with uncontrolled bleeding would be the highest propriety in this scenario and should be treated first.

You treat the patient in the previous question by: A.) pushing the abdominal contents back in and covering with dry sterile dressing. B.) pushing the abdominal contents back in and covering with a moist sterile dressing. C.) not pushing the abdominal contents back in and covering with moist sterile dressing. D.) not pushing the abdominal contents back in and not covering with any dressing.

C.) You should not push the abdominal contents back in which my cause further damage. It is important to prevent further contamination and injury and also important that contents not be allowed to dry out; therefore a dry sterile dressing soaked with sterile water is recommended. This patient will need immediate surgical intervention.

You arrive on the scene to discover an unconscious patient. Upon completing your initial assessment, you find the patient to be pulseless and apneic. your next step would be to: A.) begin CPR B.) give two ventilations. C.) apply the AED D.) check the pulse for another 60 seconds.

C.) the first step in an unconscious, pulseless, apneic patient is to apply the AED. It is important to deliver a counter-shock with the AED if the patient is in v-fib or pulseless v-tach

In patients with closed head injuries, a respiratory pattern called Cheyne-Stokes breathing occurs.This pattern is best described as: A.) rapid breathing than shallow breathing B.) slow and shallow breathing with periods of apnea and then to deep breathing C.) slow and shallow breathing then deep ventilation than back to slow and shallow breathing following by a period of apnea D.) rapid breathing with period of apnea

C>) Cheyne-Stokes breathing is when the respiratory pattern of a patient goes from slow and shallow breathing to a deep ventilation and back again to slow and shallow breathing followed by a period of apnea.

You are treating a patient with a factual femur. the most appropriate splint to use for this patient would be: A.) a ladder splint B.) the other leg C.) two board splint D.) a traction splint

D.) A traction splint is a used for femur fractures. Ladder splints are used for angulated fractures. Board splints are good to use for extremity fractures, however, on the leg they should be used primarily for splinting lower leg injuries or hip dislocations and fractures. You can always use the other leg when you have to other splinting options available, but in this scenario a traction splint is the best choice.

A 35-year-old was cutting wood. THE saw slipped and cut three of his fingers off. Treat the patient by: A.) packing the amputated part in ice. B.) placing the amputated part in cold sterile water. C.) wrapping the amputated part in a dry sterile dressing on ice. D.) wrapping the amputated part in a dry sterile dressing and keeping the part cool.

D.) Amputated body parts should be wra[[ed in dry sterile dressings and placed in a plastic bag. The parts should be kept cool, but should never be placed directly on ice. The amputated parts should be transported with the patient to the hospital. If the parts are not found prior to transport, someone one the scene should continue to look for the parts, but transported should not be delayed. The amputated parts should be transported ton the hospital once they are found.

When working st the scene of a hazardous materials incident you are required to wear a fully encapsulated suit. This level of protection would be classified as: A.) Level D B.) Level C C.) Level B D.) Level A

D.) A fully encapsulated suit is the highest level of protection at the scene of a hazardous material incident. This suit is classified as a Level A suit. Level D protection is considered your work uniform. Level C is protective gear that firefighters wear, and Level B is chemical suit. All levels of protection have respiratory protection except for Level D.

Which if the following injuries would be classified as belonging to a critical burn patient? A.) any full thickness burn. B.) any burn to the arms or legs. C.) any partial thickness urn covering 15% or more body surface ares D.) full or partial thickness burn of the hands or feet.

D.) Any burns that involve the respiratory tract; full or partial thickness burns involving the face, hands, feet, genitalia, or respiratory tract; and full-thickness burns covering 10% of the body surface area or more; any partial thickness burn covering 20% or more of the body surface area; burn injuries complicated y suspected fracture to an extremity' [aitents 55 years of age or older that have a moderate classified burn; and any burn that encircles a body part s classified as a critical burn.

You are working a motor vehicle accident. You have three patients. Two of these patients do not want any medical treatment nor do they want transport. The third patient is injured and needs to be immobilized and transported to the hospital. How should you handle the two patient NOT wanting medical care or treatment? A.) have law enforcement tale care of the two individuals. B.) transport the patient to the hospital; there is nothing else needed for the two individuals since they are not injured and do not want care. C.) request a second unit to respond and handle these individuals. D.) have your partner secure a signed refusal for each patient.

D.) Even though neither of these individuals is hurt nor requires transport to the hospital, it does not preclude you from getting a treatment and transport release form signed. All patient refusals meed to be an informed decision and in writing. Depending on your patient's condition, you may need to call a second unit to get the refusals. However, nothing in this scenario suggests the patient is injured so badly that you could not get the refusals signed while the other EMT-B continues to assess and provide care fro the injured patient.

Your patient has a large opening to the neck as a result of a traumatic injury. A complication of leaving this injury open and administering proper treatment is: A.) skin necrosis B.) penumothorax C.) neurogenic shock D.) pulmonary embolism

D.) If a large neck wound is left open and untreated, the patient may develop a pulmonary embolism which occurs by air being sucked into the vessels. A large wound to the neck should be covered and sealed similar to the treatment for sucking chest wound.

You are treating a chocking victim when he loses consciousness. You assist the patient to the floor. Your neck step should be to: A.) attempt to ventilate the patient B.) perform five abdominal thrust C.) establish responsiveness D.) begin CPR

D.) Once the patient becomes unresponsive, you need to activate the emergency response system and begin CPR. Since you are the emergency response system, you would immediately begin CPR.

When assessing a trauma patient, you should conduct a SAMPLE history: A.) immediately. B.) a SAMPLE history is not necessary in a trauma patient. C.) as part of the focused or ongoing survey. D.) following the rapid trauma assessment.

D.) The SAMPLE history should be taken after the rapid trauma assessment. if two or more EMT-B's are working together, it may be acceptable to take the SAMPLE history as part of the rapid assessment. It is important to take a SAMPLE history in every patient. This will reveal past medical history that may be pertinent the treatment you administer.

You are called to the scene of a possible drowning at a local pool. When you arrive on the scene, a bystander is holding the patient at the surface of the water. The patient is unconscious. Your next step is to: A.) begin rescue breathing B.) remove the patient from the pool C.) start CPR D.) apply cervical and spinal immobilization

D.) The best answer for this patient is to apply cervical and spinal immobilization. You do not want to begin rescue breathing since you have not assessed for breathing. The patients is unresponsive but that does not mean they are not breathing. You do not want to remove the patient from the pool until you insure cervical and spinal immobilization. This patient may have struck their head and therefore you need take this precaution.

You are called to the scene of a possible stabbing. The patient has laceration to his abdomen and his abdominal organs are protruding. This is called a/an: A.) abdominal protrusion B.) ruptured abdomen C.) abdominal content displacement D.) abdominal evisceration

D.) This type of injury is called an abdominal evisceration

You arrive on scene to discover a 65-year-old female lying on the floor of her living room. Your first step in the care of this patient is to: A.) begin chest compressions B.) apply AED C.) maintain an open airway D.) assess level of consciousness

D.) the first step when arriving at the patient's side is to establish the patient's level of responsiveness.

Which of the following patient moving devices would be most appropriate to lift a patient with a dislocated hip from the floor in a narrow hallway: A.) backboard B.) bed sheet C.) stair chair D.) scoop stretcher

D.) the most appropriate device to lift a patient from the floor that has a dislocated hip and is laying in a narrow hallway is the scoop stretcher. The scoop stretcher can be split in half and slid under each side of the patient and them reconnected. IT allows for minimal movement of the patient and may aggravate the patient's injury.

A witness tells you that a patient became unresponsive immediately after being struck by a baseball, but then regained consciousness. The witness also tells you that the patient was complaining of a severe headache during the time she was conscious. The patient is now unresponsive. The right pupils fixed and dilated. The bystander tells you the patient was struck on the right side of the head. The patient is most likely suffering from: A.) intracranial bleeding. B.) a basilar skull fracture. C.) a subdural hematoma. D.) an epidural hematoma.

D.)These are classic signs of an epidural hematoma. You need to prepare for seziures. Patients who have an epidural hematoma commonly seize. Patients who have a subdural hematomas, present with a deterioration in level of conciousness, dislocation of one pupil. abnormal respirations, rising blood pressure , and slow pulse.