EMT Final Written: Multiple Choice

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A "vibration" that can be palpated at the fistula in the arm of the dialysis patient is called a(n): A. thrill B. aneurism C. hematoma D. embolism

A

A 28 year-old male was cutting limbs from a tree when he lost his footing and fell approximately 20 feet. He is unresponsive and breathing shallowly at 28 times per minute. His radial pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool to the touch. Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) have placed him on a nonrebreather face mask and are holding manual in-line cervical spine stabilization. Based on these assessment findings, which one of the following instructions would you provide to the EMRs? Select one: a. Let's take off the oxygen mask and start positive pressure ventilation to assist his breathing. b. Do not cover him with a blanket because that will cause his blood vessels to dilate and drop his BP. c. Let's go ahead and elevate his legs 8 to 12 inches so more blood gets to his vital organs. d. He has snoring respirations, so let's go ahead and open the airway with the head tilt-chin lift.

A

A difference between a patient with respiratory distress and a patient with respiratory failure includes: A. respiratory failure shows mottled or blotchy skin color B. respiratory failure shows an alert mental status C. respiratory distress shows blue skin D. respiratory distress results in a comatose patient

A

A known diabetic patient is found on the floor next to his bed. His speech is slurred, and he is unable to tell you his name. His wife states that she hasn't been able to get him to eat much for several days. What should your care include? A. Give him oral glucose. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Have him drink a glass of juice. D. Assist him with taking his insulin.

A

A nonshockable rhythm that can be the result of a terminally sick heart or severe blood loss is called: A. pulseless electrical activity B. ventricular tachycardia C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. ventricular fibrillation

A

A panicked and anxious patient informs you that he is allergic to peanuts and think he might have accidentally eaten some. He states that the last time he ate the peanuts he had to have a tube put in his throat and almost died. When assessing the patient, which one of these signs and symptoms would show that he is having an allergic reaction? A. Hives on his chest B. Elevated blood pressure C. Increased respiratory rate D. Cool and clammy skin

A

A patient states that after dinner, she suddenly developed right upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiated to her shoulder. As a knowledgable EMT, you would recognize this characteristic pain pattern as most suggestive of: A. Intestinal obstruction B. Urinary tract infection C .Gall bladder inflammation D. Gastric ulcer

A

A person is considered to be a Toddler between the ages: A. 1 year to 3 years B. 6 months to 5 years C. 18 months to 3 years D. 1 year to 2 years

A

A seizure will normally last about ____ minutes. A. 1 to 3 B. 4 to 6 C. 7 to 10 D. 30

A

For the EMT to consider administering oral glucose, the patient must have an altered mental status, have a: A. history of diabetes, and be awake enough to swallow B. prescribed medication, and have an absent gag reflex C. history of seizures, and be awake D. Medic Alert tag that says "diabetic," and have a head injury

A

If it is necessary to remove a nitroglycerin patch to defibrillate a patient, you should: A. wear gloves B. wear goggles C. ensure that you have a replacement patch D. cleanse the patient's skin with alcohol

A

If sugar is not replenished quickly for the diabetic patient who has developed hypoglycemia, the patient: A. may have permanent brain damage B. may go into pulmonary edema C. will have chest pain D. can live off his internal sugar supply for up to 2 weeks

A

If the diabetic is symptomatic and has a sugar level above ____, he is considered hyperglycemic. A. 120 B. 100 C. 80 D. 60

A

Most members of the general public associate a ___ seizure with epilepsy. A. generalized tonic clonic B. complex partial C. simple partial D. idiopathic

A

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for the patient who has: A. an obvious head injury and altered mental status B. a systolic blood pressure of 110 C. not yet taken the maximum dose D. been complaining of pain for at least 20 minutes

A

Seizures are commonly caused by all of the following except: A. cold exposure B. a high fever C. a brain tumor D. an infection

A

The reason an emergency occurs in most cardiac related medical emergencies is due to: A. reduced blood flow to the myocardium B. cardiac arrest C. loss of consciousness D. breathing difficulty

A

The shockable rhythms include all of the following except: A. asystole and PEA B. ventricular fibrillation C. pulseless ventricular tachycardia D. ventricular tachycardia

A

When a patient has been trapped in a building for several days, all of the following, including dehydration, are concerns of the EMT except: A. chronic renal failure B. shock C. acute renal failure D. stroke

A

When conducting a scene size up, all of the following should be addressed except: A. Donning your own personal protective gear B. Assessing the need for other resources and equipment C. Evaluating the mechanism of injury potential D. The overall safety of the scene as you see it

A

When the body is subjected to exertion or stress, the heart rate will normally: A. increase B. decrease C. become irregular D. stop temporarily

A

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an idiopathic seizure? A. lasts longer than 10 minutes B. occurs spontaneously C. cause is unknown D. often starts in childhood

A

Which of the following is not a general principle of AED use? A. hook up oxygen before beginning defibrillation B. avoid contact with the patient during rhythm analysis C. be sure everyone is "clear" before delivering each shock D. avoid defibrillation in a moving ambulance

A

Which of the following is not performed when caring for a mother with a prolapsed cord? a. clamp and cut the cord b. provide high flow oxygen and rapid transport c. use your fingers to physically hold the infant's head off the cord d. position the mother to keep the weight of the infant off the cord

A

You are by the side of a young female college student who is unresponsive. Friends say she is not a heavy drinker, but tonight she drank an excessive amount of alcohol. She responds to painful stimuli and has snoring respirations. Her respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and her radial pulse is weak. Your immediate action would be to: A. Perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. B. Apply oxygen via NRB. C. Determine if drugs are also involved. D. Administer positive pressure ventilation.

A

You are on scene with a 19 year old male complaining of general malaise and shortness of breath. He is sweaty, breathing very shallow, and has pinpoint pupils that are slow to react. Which of the following is most likely the cause of his signs and symptoms? A. Narcotic overdose B. Benzodiazepine overdose C. Lithium overdose D. Stimulant overdose

A

You are on scene with a 55 year old female complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath while at rest. Following a quick examination, you determine that the patient may be experiencing non-traumatic cardiac tamponade. If so, the patient will likely exhibit all of the following signs except: A. Bradycardia with signs and symptoms of peripheral hypoperfusion B. Distended, often throbbing jugular veins bilaterally C. Hypotension D. Distant or muffled heart tones during auscultation

A

You are responding to a call for a 37 year old male patient who has had a seizure. Convulsive seizures may be seen with: A. epilepsy or hypoglycemia B. hyperventilation or AMI C. anaphylaxis or pulmonary embolism D. hyperglycemia or asthma

A

You are treating a 27 year old female who has a condition that you suspect has been brought about by a decrease in insulin production. This condition is known as: A. diabetes mellitus B. hypotension C. hypoglycemia D. stroke

A

You are treating a diabetic patient who seems to have overdone his exercise routine today. He is a little confused about where he is and the day of the week. The most likely medical condition he has developed is called: A. hypoglycemia B. hyperglycemia C. diabetes mellitus D. acute pulmonary edema

A

You find a 19-year-old man who tells you he "just doesn't feel right." His insulin and a syringe are on a table. The patient says he thinks he took his insulin but can't remember whether he ate. He is also unable to tell you the time or what day it is. What care does he need? A. Give him oral glucose. B. Test him for a gag reflex. C. No care is required. Just encourage him to eat. D. Have the patient give himself an insulin injection.

A

You just treated a 17 year old male who was struck in the chest with a baseball and went into sudden cardiac arrest. you medical director says that you did a good job on the call but this was not the typical cardiac arrest victim. Who is the typical cardiac arrest victim? A. a male in his sixties B. a female in her forties C. a male in his seventies D. there is no pattern to cardiac arrest

A

You rapidly transport a patient who is at full term and presenting with a prolapsed cord. The patient is best placed: A. On her left side. B. In the prone position C. Head up with her feet down. D. In Trendelenburg's position.

A

Your patient is a 35 year old female who is very anxious and jittery. She has taken an overdoes of a drug that stimulates the nervous system to cause extreme excitement. These drugs are called: A. uppers B. downers C. narcotics D. antihypertensives

A

Your patient was accidentally sprayed in the eyes with a liquid insecticide. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this situation? A. Irrigate the eye with clean water or saline for no less than 20 minutes B. Place an airtight dressing over both eyes with sterile gauze C. Place 20 cc of saline in the affected eye D. Administer activated charcoal to the patient

A

A patient complains of severe and sharp pain to the right lower abdomen quadrant. Based on location, what organ or structure is most likely involved? A. appendix B. kidney C. spleen D. liver

A.

An awake but confused patient with experiencing an allergic reaction begins to exhibit stridor respirations. The emt knows that the underlying condition responsible for this presentation is: A. swelling of the upper airway B. constriction of small airways C. loss of gag reflex D. spasm of the lower airway

A.

The functions of our blood include all of the following except: A. removal of oxygen from the cells B. control of bleeding by clotting C. delivery of waste products to the kidneys and the liver D. removal of carbon dioxide from the cells

A.

The most commonly transported organ(s) is (are) the: A. kidney B. liver C. heart D. spleen

A.

The spleen of a patient has ruptured. Because it is a solid organ, the emt recognizes that the primary threat to life is: A. blood loss B. inflammation C. pain D. infection

A.

What is the typical position of comfort that you should consider using for a 62 year old male patient who is complaining of crushing substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. His pulse is fast, BP is high, and pulse oxygen is in the low 90's. A. fowler B. supine C. prone D. lying down with knees bent

A.

When a patient begins to vomit, it is essential that you have a(n) _____ ready to go at the patient's side A. suction unit B. oxygen tank C. blood pressure cuff D. pocket mask

A.

When attempting to distinguish a spinal injury from a stroke, the EMT should remember that: A. stroke typically results in weakness or paralysis to one side of the body B. spinal injuries always result in weakness to one side of the body C. stroke usually causes weakness to all extremities, spinal injuries do not D. stroke does not cause paralysis, while spinal injuries typically do

A.

Which of the following describes typical signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A. temporary, lasting less than 15 min B. severe and permanent C. mild but permanent D. persistent, lasting at least several hours

A.

Within the body, the release of histamine would cause dilation of the: A. blood vessels B. upper airway C. salivary glands D. small airways

A.

You are assessing a 25 year old male who has abdominal pain. When you palpate his abdomen, be sure to palpate the area with the pain: A. last B. first C. second D. third

A.

You are providing BVM ventilations to a patient in anaphylactic shock. There is increasing resistance to ventilation, despite using proper technique. Which of the following is the best way to address the situation? A. Occlude the pop off valve on the BVM and continue ventilations B. Turn the patient on her side and apply manual pressure over the epigastrium C. Stop ventilations and administer an albuterol metered-dose inhaler D. Increase both the ventilatory rate and force of ventilations

A.

You are treating a patient who is a diabetic with an altered mental status. He has a gag reflex, so oral glucose is your treatment. This is given between the patient's cheek and gum using a tongue depressor because: A. this method allows slow swallowing and absorption into the bloodstream B. it will not be aspirated if the patient suddenly becomes unconscious C. this area will cause the patient to regurgitate the stomach's content D. it will assist in dilating the coronary vessels as much as possible.

A.

You have been called to a longterm care facility for a 77 year old female who was found unresponsive in her wheelchair. The nurse reports that the patient complained of a headache earlier in the day and was given 600mg of Motrin. Your assessment shows her to be unresponsive with a patent airway. Her lips are cyanotic and your parter reports the following: pulse 44, respirations 6, BP 228/116. What should you do next? A. start positive pressure ventilations B. attach a pulse oximeter and get a SpO2 reading C. perform a Cincinnati Stroke Test D. check the patient's blood glucose level

A.

Your 55 year old male patient states that his pain seems to radiate from the chest. This sensation, when it is due to a hear problem, commonly radiates to the: A. arms and jaw B. feet and head C. stomach and lower abdomen D. right arm and lower abdomen

A.

Your patient is a 67yo male who has chest pain. After assisting with his nitroglycerin, his chest pain remains a 7 out of 10 and he is still diaphoretic. His vitals are pulse 72bpm, respirations 18, BP 82/60, and SpO2 97% on 2 lpm of oxygen. To the present, the patient has taken two nitroglycerin tablets. You should: A. transfer him to the stretcher and transport B. administer a third nitroglycerin tablet C. administer half a nitroglycerin tablet D. increase oxygen to 4 lpm

A.

A 12 year old is apneic, pulseless, cold, and cyanotic. Appropriate treatment would be: A. Call for the coroner B. Perform CPR and continue to slowly warm the patient until arrival at the hospital. C. Warm the patient then begin CPR when the patient's body temp reaches 95 degrees Fahrenheit D. Perform CPR and keep the patient cool until arrival at the ER to slow the child's metabolism

B

A condition in which a portion of the myocardium dies as a result of oxygen starvation is known as: A. coronary occlusion B. acute myocardial infarction C. myocardial starvation D. acute angina attack

B

A condition that is often the result of the build up of fatty deposits on the inner walls of the arteries is called: A. pulmonary embolism B. coronary artery disease C. obesity D. congestive heart failure

B

A paramedic tells you that a patient with a probable spinal injury still retains his plantar reflexes. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should understand that the patient has reflex activity in what part of the body? A. Hands B. Feet C. Arms D. Fingers

B

A patient suffering from a kidney stone would most likely have which of the following complaints? A. "It hurts so bad!" B. "My urine is bloody!" C. "I am so nauseated!" D. "I can't stop peeing!"

B

After three shocks, the EMT should ____ unless local protocol says otherwise: A. give two more shocks but this time, administer them in a row B. begin to transport the patient with high quality CPR C. terminate the arrest because the patient will not survive D. increase the rate and volume of the ventilations

B

An EMT is correct when he describes an infectious disease as: A. Any of a number of diseases that are deadly once contracted B. A disease that can be spread from one person to another C. Any of a number of diseases that is caused and spread by a virus D. A disease for which no immunization or treatment exists

B

An inadequate airway in a child is defined as: A. less than 15 breaths per minute B. retractions above the clavicles and between and below the ribs C. breathing that is primarily from the nose in infants D. none of these

B

Angina pectoris means, literally: A. a small heart attack B. a pain in the chest C. paralyzed chest muscles D. breathing difficulty

B

As defined by the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, the four levels of EMS practitioners include: A. Ambulance Drivers B. Emergency Department Physicians C. Paramedics D. Emergency Medical Dispatchers

B

Damage to the left ventricle and blood backing up into the lungs usually presents in the form of: A. pedal edema B. pulmonary edema C. fibrinolyitics D. diaphoresis

B

Diabetic patients with and altered level of consciousness are in need of prompt care because: A. Hypertension can lead to unconsciousness. B. Hypoglycemia can lead to unconsciousness. C. Insulin overdose can lead to heat exhaustion. D. Cold skin temperatures can lead to hypothermia.

B

If the response time from the moment a call is received to arrival of the defibrillator is longer than ____ minutes, virtually no one survives a cardiac arrest. A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12

B

In the patient with an altered mental status, the EMT should always consider _____ before proceeding with the secondary assessment and transport. A. hypothermia B. an airway or breathing problem C. that the patient may have had a seizure D. internal blood loss

B

On your arrival at the scene, you notice that a bystander has placed a tongue blade in the corner of a seizure patient's mouth. What should you do? A. begin oxygen therapy with a nonrebreather mask B. carefully remove the object form the patient's mouth C. immobilize the patient on a long spine board D. immediately transport the patient to the hospital

B

People with diabetes routinely test the level of sugar in their blood using an: A. capnograph B. glucometer C. urinal D. oximeter

B

Signs of a potentially inadequate airway include all of the following EXCEPT: A. absent air movement B. air that can be felt at the nose or mouth on expiration C. unusual hoarse or raspy sound quality to the voice D. abnormal noises such as wheezing, crowing, or stridor

B

The 62 year old male patient who presented with a number of the signs and symptoms of a stroke was take to the ED yesterday. When talking with your Medical Director about the call, he tells you that the signs and symptoms were completely resolved within the past 24 hours. this patient was most likely suffering a(n): A. altered mental status (AMS) B. transient ischemic attack (TIA) C. acute myocardial infarction (AMI) D. hypoglycemic incident

B

The EMT needs to recognize respiratory distress and manage it so it does not proceed to respiratory failure. Respiratory failure is: A. the complete cessation of inspiration B. inadequate breathing, which is a precursor to respiratory arrest C. another term for respiratory arrest D. caused by electrocution in young children

B

The hypoglycemia that EMT's see in the field has many causes. Which of the following is not a cause of hypoglycemia? A. the patient may have taken too much insulin by mistake B. the patient ate a box of candy too fast C. the patient has been vomiting D. the patient has been fasting

B

The hypopharynx is also called the: A. nares B. laryngopharynx C. trachea D. glottis

B

The membrane that covers the abdominal organs is called the _____ peritoneum. A. pleural B. visceral C. parietal D. serius

B

The patient has a long history of poorly controlled diabetes and hypertension. What life ending disease is highly likely to occur in this patient? A. GI bleeding B. Renal failure C. Brain hemorrhage D. COPD

B

The primary electrical disturbance resulting in cardiac arrest is: A. asystole B. ventricular fibrillation C. ventricular tachycardia D. pulseless electrical activity

B

The ultimate goal for a multisystem trauma patient is: A. transporting the patient to the Emergency Department. B. surgery. C. fixing correctable problems in the field. D. calling ALS backup.

B

Unfortunately, nearly ____ of the patients who experience a cardiac arrest within 2 hours of the onset of symptoms have no previous history of cardiac problems. A. 10 percent B. 25 percent C. 60 percent D. 80 percent

B

What is the importance of mechanism of injury (MOI) to airway care? A. an injured patient will need more oxygen B. the procedure for opening the patient's airway is different in trauma C. patients without a mechanism of injury will have an open airway D. an injury can make airway care easier to manage than a medical emergency

B

When assessing your 45 year old patient, she says that she feels lightheaded. Lightheadedness, or dizziness, is a symptom that is often due to: A. too much blood being circulated to the brain B. poor perfusion to the brain C. too much fluid intake in too short a period of time D. standing erect for too long a period of time

B

When emergency medical services personnel fail to gain consent to treat a conscious patient before initiating care, what allegations of wrongdoing may result? A. Abandonment B. Battery C. Negligence D. Breach of duty

B

When handling a delivery involving a drug or alcohol-addicted mother, your first concern should be for: a. the mother's airway b. your personal safety c. the infant's airway d. the need for CPR for the infant

B

When might administration of aspirin be contraindicated? A. when there is no water available B. if the patient has a history of GI bleeding C. if the patient may be having a heart attack D. all of these

B

When performing a secondary assessment on a confused patient, which of the following signs would be most suggestive of a seizure? A) pinpoint pupils B) bleeding tongue C) warm skin D) bruises to the arms

B

When the AED is analyzing the patient's heart rhythm, the EMT must: A. continue the CPR compressions B. avoid touching the patient C. hyperventilate the patient D. reassess for a carotid pulse

B

When treating a cardiac arrest patient and there is no ALS unit in the community, the EMT should: A. discontinue resuscitative efforts and pronounce the patient dead B. package quickly, provide high quality CPR and transport to the closest hospital C. call for ACLS from another town and wait for its arrival D. continue to provide CPR at the scene until the patient regains a pulse

B

When we say that a patient is experiencing lower airway obstruction, it is likely that: A. he or she is choking on a foreign object B. his or her bronchial passages or alveoli are congested C. his or her tongue is swollen D. none of these

B

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic sign or symptom of acute abdomen? A. Pain. B. Tenderness. C. Rapid deep breathing. D. Abdominal distention.

B

Which of the following typically represents a problem that occurs when someone calls 911 with a cell phone? A. Determining the Type of Emergency B. Establishing the location of the caller C. Background noise and interference D. Verifying the type of emergency response needed

B

Which one of the following statements made by an EMT shows that he has an accurate understanding of hepatitis C? A. "It is important to get the hepatitis C vaccine to decrease your chance of contracting the disease if exposed B. "Wearing gloves and washing hands are the best means by which to prevent the transmission of hepatitis C to healthcare workers" C. "Since hepatitis C is primarily transmitted in the spring and summer, more precautions are needed during this time" D. "Respiratory droplets are the primary means by which hepatitis C is transmitted, making a mask necessary"

B

Why is nitroglycerin administered to the patient with chest pain? A. it increases blood flow to the brain B. it dilates the blood vessels and decreases the work of the heart C. it constricts the blood vessels and raises the blood pressure D. It is easy to administer in unconscious patients

B

You are interviewing the family members of a patient who just had a seizure. The best known condition that results in seizure is: A. a stroke B. epilepsy C. measles D. eclampsia

B

You are treating a 55 year old male patient who has a history of three past MIs and angina. Due to his difficulty breathing and normally sedentary lifestyle, you suspect he may be experiencing congestive heart failure. CHF is a(n): A. clotting of the coronary artery B. condition in which excessive fluids build up in the lungs and/or other organs C. infection in the heart that makes it difficult to oxygenate the blood D. chronic lung condition that requires a low concentration of oxygen administration

B

You are treating a male patient in his forties who has a chief complaint of abdominal discomfort. He denies any difficulty breathing yet has vital signs consistent with a patient in shock or hypoperfusion. You should: A. transport him in the Semi Fowler position B. administer 10-15 lpm oxygen by non-rebreather mask C. apply a cervical collar and long spine board D. contact medical direction for permission to assist the patient with their nitroglycerin

B

You arrive on scene with your partner to transport a patient that has been throwing up blood that looked like coffee grounds. This sign would lead you to believe that this patient has? A. Esophageal Veracies B. GI bleed C. Pancytopenia D. Hemophagocytic syndrome

B

You have been called to assist a pediatric physician, a pediatric nurse, and a respiratory therapist in the transfer of a two week old baby who is very sick. The baby will be taken from a community hospital and transferred in an isolette to a large metropolitan teaching hospital in a nearby city. The isolette is secured to the stretcher, and the stretcher is loaded into the ambulance. The physician, nurse, and respiratory therapist will provide all patient care. Prior to departing the hospital, it is essential that you: A. Advise the family of the baby's critical condition B. Make sure that the stretcher is secured to the ambulance C. Mix and prepare medications needed for transport D. Disinfect the outside of the isolette.

B

You should consider using nitroglycerin when the 65 year old female patient: A. is hypertensive and has a headache B. has her own nitroglycerin and has crushing chest pain C. loses consciousness after feeling dizzy D. has chest pain for over 5 minutes and is hypotensive

B

Your 70 year old female patient has a cardiovascular disorder that stems from weakened sections in the arterial walls. These weak spots begin to dilate to form a condition that is known as a(n): A. thrombosis B. aneurysm C. inflammation D. infarction

B

Your patient has a history of diabetes and takes medication by injection daily. Diabetics often present the EMT with all of the following signs and symptoms except: A. cold, clammy skin B. decreased heart rate C. anxiety D. combativeness

B

Your patient is going to need oral glucose. Before and after administering the medication, you should make sure to: A. check for distal pulses in both arms B. document the mental status of the patient C. increase the oxygen flow rate by 5 liters per minute D. have the patient drink a glass of water

B

A component of the blood that is designed to aggregate as a response to a bleeding injury is called the: A. red blood cells B. platelets C. white blood cells D. hemoglobin

B.

A patient complaining of shortness of breath has called 911. Her history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). When assessing the patient, which of the following causes you to immediately prepare the patient for transport? A. heart rate of 84 bpm B. pulsating mass in the abdomen C. Wheezing noted in the bases of both lungs D. SpO2 at 94% despite supplemental O2

B.

As a general rule, a postictal patient should be placed on the stretcher and transported in what position? A. Supine B. Lateral recumbent C. Prone D. Semi Fowler's

B.

The 45 year old male patient you are assessing tells you that he has a history of chronic anemia. He is pale and complains of fatigue. This condition could be due to: A. recurrent heavy menstrual periods B. a slow GI bleed C. a disease that affects the white blood cells D. all of these

B.

The EMT shows she is correctly administering aspirin to a patient with chest pain when she provides: A. 325mg of baby aspirin and instructs the patient to chew it B. 325mg of baby aspirin and instructs the patient to let it dissolve under her tongue C. 160mg baby aspirin and instructs the patient to swallow it with a glass of water D. 325mg of enteric coated aspirin and instructs the patient to swallow it.

B.

The emt would recognize that the pain associated with a kidney stone is caused by: A. formation of a stone in the kidney B. passage of the stone through the ureter C. inability to empty the bladder of urine D. infection of the bladder and ureter

B.

The liquid in which the blood cells and platelets are suspended is called: A. interstitial fluid B. plasma C. lymph D. coumadin

B.

When assessing a patient in a prehospital setting, which of the following does the EMT recognize as a indication for aspirin: A. complaint of a headache after taking nitroglycerin B. chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack C. an aspirin taken daily for a cardiovascular disease D. blood pressure above 100 systolically

B.

When assessing your 53 year old male patient, you determining he is having difficulty saying what he is thinking even though he clearly understands you. This condition found in stroke patients is called: A. receptive aphasia B. expressive aphasia C. miscommunication D. confusion

B.

You are called to a residence to assess a child. The panicked parents state that their 3yo son was playing with his brother when he suddenly "blacked out" and would not respond to them for several seconds. When asked, they deny convulsing like movements as well as a history of medical problems. Based on this description, you would be suspicious of what type of seizure? A. Febrile B. Absence C. Grand mal D. Simple partial

B.

You are treating a patient who states that he is having another gall bladder attack. He says that he should not have eaten that fried food and that he has ping in his right shoulder blade. Why might the pain in his right shoulder blade be a symptom of gall bladder problems? A. the gallbladder is located under the right shoulder blade in most adult patients B. nerve pathways form the gallbladder return to the spinal cord by way of shared pathways with the shoulder C. the muscle that holds the gallbladder in position is attached to the right scapula D. it is not common for this to happen at all

B.

You are treating an elderly patient who has just had two back to-back seizures without regaining consciousness. This is a serious condition called ____ and the treatment will include ____. A. repeating seizure; ventilation B. status epilepticus; ALS meds C. status asthmaticus: the recovery position D. convulsions; oxygen administration

B.

You have responded to the local high school physical education center where a 17 year old male is complaining of lower abdominal pain. On palpation, he has a lump he is concerned about. Because this came on suddenly during exercising, what do you suspect it could be? A. a tension pneumothorax B. a hernia C. a spontaneous embolism D. an AAA

B.

Your 35 year old female patient is experiencing a severe and sudden epigastric pain that seems to radiate to the shoulder. She says that it gets worse when she eats. Of the choices below, which is the most likely cause? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Cholecystitis C. A hernia D. Renal colic

B.

Your patient is a teenager who's parent states, "she had not accepted her disease and is managing it poorly." Poorly managed diabetes can cause: A. hypoxia, or low oxygen B. altered mental status C. dilation of the coronary arteries D. absorption of poisons

B.

A 73 year old female was in her backyard gardening when she collapsed to the ground. Her husband told 911 that "she is breathing very fast and will not talk to me." You arrive to find the woman lying on her side in the grass. She is breathing at 7 breaths per minute and her pulse is irregular and very thready. Her lungs also present with crackles upon auscultation As you are taking a blood pressure (88/66) the husband tells you that the woman has been having jaw pain and some weakness for approximately 3 days. What is the most likely cause of this woman's condition and how would you treat her? a. Hypoperfusion, High flow O2, and transport in Fowler's position b. Cardiac arrest, Treat for shock, and rapid transport c. Cardiogenic shock, Assist ventilations, and transport d. Septic shock, Transport in a position of comfort with high flow O2 via NRB

C

A man tells you that he can't awaken his wife, who you find lying on the couch. He explains that she takes pills for diabetes. You find the patient to be unresponsive to painful stimulus. Your first action should be to: A. Give oral glucose. B. Start chest compressions. C. Open and maintain her airway. D. Assess sensory and motor function in her toes.

C

A nonshockable rhythm that is commonly called flatline is named: A. pulseless electrical activity B. ventricular tachycardia C. asystole D. ventricular fibrillation

C

A patient has a tumor that has compressed and obstructed her left ureter. Which of the following is true? A. The kidneys are impaired in their ability to make urine. B. The bladder cannot be completely emptied. C. The patient is more prone to urinary tract infections. D. The urine will back up into the left kidney.

C

A patient is complaining of chest pain. In order for the EMT to administer nitroglycerin, all the following conditions must be met except: A. medical direction should authorize its administration B. the patient's physician should have prescribed the medication C. the patient's blood pressure is lower than 100 systolic D. the patient's blood pressure is greater than 100 systolic

C

After the first shock, the patient seems to move and you assess a strong carotid pulse. The patient is also breathing adequately. You should then _____ and transport. A. give highconcentration oxygen via bag-valve mask B. provide artificial ventilations with high-concentration oxygen C. give high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask D. administer two more shocks

C

All of the following potential acute coronary syndrome patients are candidates for immediate transport except a patient with: A. no history of cardiac problems B. a history of cardiac problems, who does not have nitroglycerin C. prescribed nitroglycerin D. a systolic blood pressure of less than 90

C

Another EMT informs you that a patient has been stabbed once with a knife in the left mid-axillary region. Where is the injury located? A. Left chest B. Right armpit area C. Left Lateral Chest D. Left side of the abdomen

C

Another crew has called for your assistance in extricating an obese male with a nosebleed from a third floor bedroom. As you enter the room, which one of the following shows proper management of the patient's condition? A. The patient is supine, head turned to the side, blood draining from the nose and mouth, cold pack to bridge of nose B. The patient is lying on his side, a loose dressing has been applied below his nose, and a cold pack is on the bridge of his nose C. The patient is sitting upright, leaning forward, with nostrils pinched shut D. The patient is sitting upright, head tilted back, sterile gauze packed in each nostril

C

Because patients benefit from rapid transport to a trauma center, it is important to limit time spent on scene to: A.30 minutes. B. 1 hour. C. 10 minutes. D. 15 minutes.

C

Before contracting medical direction for authorization to assist a shortness of breath patient with his or her meter-dose inhaler, protocols state that the EMT must first attempt to provide relief by administering oxygen. You recognize that the administration of oxygen is best described as a (n): A. Standing Order B. On-line Medical Direction C. Direct Permission D. Quality Improvement

C

During pregnancy, a woman has _____ circulating blood. A. less B. thicker C. more D. thinner

C

If a 55 year old patient who has a cardiac pacemaker need to be defibrillated, the EMT should: A. perform the procedure as he or she would for other cardiac patients B. remove the pacemaker before defibrillation C. place the pad several inches away from the pacemaker battery D. double the power setting on the AED

C

If the patient's blood pressure falls below 100 systolic after the EMT has administered nitroglycerin, the EMT should: A. administer another dose of nitroglycerin B. reassess the patient's vital signs C. treat for shock and transport promptly D. do all of these

C

In which of the following situations should the patient be transported to an appropriate medical facility first? A. Female, age 13, fell off bicycle, possible fractured wrist, minor cuts and bruises B. Female, age 53, history of heart disease, pain is relieved after taking nitroglycerin C. Male, age 28, allergic reaction to bee sting, rapid pulse, difficulty breathing D. Female, age 24, 40 weeks pregnant, crowning, no complications

C

In which situation must the EMT contact medical direction prior to administering epinephrine for someone who is having an allergic reaction? A. Her heart rate is 144 bpm. B. She is hypertensive and bradycardic. C. The patient is not prescribed an EPI pen. D. She has an allergy to chocolate or eggs.

C

One indication that a child is experiencing inadequate breathing is that she: A. has a headache B. complains of nausea C. has nasal flaring when breathing D. is dizzy when standing

C

Oral glucose works in the body by: A. Decreasing blood glucose levels. B. Decreasing insulin production. C. Increasing blood glucose levels. D. Increasing insulin production.

C

Severe external bleeding should be controlled during what phase of patient assessment? A. Rapid secondary assessment B. Reassessment C. Primary assessment D. Scene size-up

C

The EMT's 32-year-old patient was in a motor-vehicle collision. Which assessment finding should the EMT recognize as potentially life threatening? A) Dislocation of two fingers on the left hand B) Open fracture to the right forearm C) Deformity of the left femur D) Crepitus palpated to the right humerus

C

The large leaflike structure that protects the opening to the trachea is called the: A. oropharynx B. xiphoid process C. epiglottis D. cricoid cartilage

C

The maximum number of doses of nitroglycerin routinely given by the EMT with medical control permission, or taken by the patient at the advice of his physician, is: A. one B. two C. three D. four

C

The organs outside the peritoneum that are found between the abdomen and the back are in the ____ space: A. posterior pelvic B. subxiphoid C. retroperitoneal D. dorsal back

C

The pediatric airway differs from adult airways in that: A. The child's tongue takes up proportionally more space in the mouth B. The trachea is highly rigid and less flexible to movement C. All respiratory structures are proportionally smaller and more easily obstructed D. The epiglottis is smaller and located behind the esophagus

C

The process by which an external medical system independent of the kidneys is used to remove toxins and excess fluid from the body is called: A. excretion B. dehydration C. dialysis D. all of these

C

The purposes of suctioning may include removal of: A. teeth and large pieces of solid material B. excess oxygen from the patient C. blood, vomitus, and other secretions D. all of these

C

The reading on the glucose meter is responded in: A. grams of sugar per liter of blood B. centimeters of blood per decimeter of sugar C. milligrams of glucose per deciliter of blood D. none of these

C

The relationship of glucose to insulin is often described as: A. oppositional B. synergistic C. a lock and key mechanism D. antagonistic

C

What are the classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia? A. Warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; deep rapid respirations B. Warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; rapid respirations C. Cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; deep, rapid respirations D. Cool, clammy skin; abnormal behavior; tachycardia; rapid respirations

C

What is the most important consideration when assessing and managing the breathing of a child? A. The chest wall is more rigid and harder to ventilate B. Children use a lot less oxygen than an adult uses C. The trachea is softer and more flexible D. All of these are equally important

C

When assessing your 42 year old female patient, you determine that she can speak clearly but cannot understand what you are saying. This is called: A. expressive aphasia B. hyperactivity C. receptive aphasia D. petit mal seizure

C

When it is time to transport the diabetic patient who does not responding to painful stimuli, which position is most appropriate? A. supine B. prone C. recovery D. fowler's

C

Which artery is most accurate for checking the pulse of a 2 year old child? A. Carotid artery B. Radial artery C. Brachial artery D. Femoral artery

C

Which of the following fluids would be best for irrigating a laceration in order to remove gross debris? A. Hypotonic solutions B. Colloid solutions C. Isotonic solutions D. Hypertonic solutions

C

Which of the following is the best description of the role of medical direction in the treatment of a 55 year old male who you suspect is having an acute coronary syndrome? A. authorizing the EMT to administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask B. prescribing nitroglycerin that the EMT can then assist the patient in taking C. authorizing the EMT to assist the patient in taking his prescribed nitroglycerin D. contacting the patient's physician to ensure that the patient's nitroglycerin prescription is not out of date

C

Which of the following regarding circulation in infants is true? A. Cap refill provides accurate information regarding circulatory status B. When assessing peripheral pulses, the correct location is the carotid artery C. Assessment of blood pressure is vital to monitoring the progress of these patients D. An early sign of circulatory compromise in these patients is a slow heart rate (less than 100).

C

Which of the following risk factors can be modified to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease? A. age B. heredity C. hypertension D. none of these

C

Which of the following statements concerning trauma is true? A. A "spider web" or "starring" pattern of cracks on the windshield means the patient impacted the windshield with his head B. Falls are the leading cause of trauma deaths C. Multi-system trauma has a higher mortality rate than single-system injuries D. Mechanism of injury is the best predictor of patient outcome

C

Which of the following would most likely indicate an alteration in the patient's blood sugar level? A. right lower abdominal pain B. nausea and vomiting C. change in mental status D. rigid abdomen or palpation

C

Which one of the following is the single best technique that the EMT can use to prevent the spread of infection? A. Disinfecting Equipment B. Wearing Gloves C. Washing Hands D. Getting Immunizations

C

Which portion of the heart is in failure when the heart can no longer effectively pump blood into the lungs? A. Left Atrium B. Left Ventricle C. Right Ventricle D. Pulmonary Vein

C

Which statement about children with diabetes is most correct? A. children are more likely than adults to eat correctly B. children are less likely than adults to exhaust blood sugar levels C. children are more at risk than adults for developing hypoglycemia D. children have a greater risk for medical emergencies than do adults

C

You are assessing a patient who just had a seizure. The most common cause of seizures in adults is: A. taking a double dose of antiseizure medication B. taking a small does of antiseizure medication C. not taking prescribed antiseizure medication D. use of illicit street drugs

C

You are by the side of a patient you suspect to be suffering from severe acute respiratory disease (SARS). Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent transmission of the disease from the patient to you? A. Use eye protection or a face shield B. Use an alcohol based hand sanitizer frequently during transport C. Place a surgical mask on the patient D. Sterilize all equipment used in the care of the patient

C

You are called to assist a full term pregnant female who is believed to be experiencing imminent birth with crowning present. Which of the following best describes crowning? A. When the amniotic sac spontaneously separates from the uterine wall and fluid rushes from the vagina B. The umbilical cord presents at the vaginal opening as the baby begins to deliver C. The top of the baby's head is visible in the vaginal opening D. The placenta is formed in an abnormal location

C

You are treating a 59 year old male patient whose wife called EMS because he had difficulty breathing and was acting anxious and confused. He is diaphoretic and cyanotic, and his vitals are rapid respirations, tachycardia, and hypertension. He has swollen ankles and is coughing up pink sputum. What do you suspect is wrong with the patient? A. he is having an asthma attack B. he is having an acute myocardial infarction C. he has CHF as well as right heart failure D. he is in the end stages of his emphysema

C

You are treating a 62 year old male patient who has a chief complaint of chest pain. You are considering administering aspirin to the patient. Of the following considerations, which would not be pertinent to administering this medicine? A. the patient has allergies B. there is a history of asthma C. the patient has taken Viagra D. the patient is on anti-clotting meds

C

You are treating a 62 year old male patient who is complaining of crushing substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. His pulse is fast, BP is high, and pulse oxygen is in the low 90's. The EMT management of the patient with a suspected acute coronary syndrome should include all of the following except: A. placing the patient in the position of comfort B. administering high concentration oxygen by non-rebreather mask C. administering high-flow oxygen by a nasal cannula D. assisting the patient with nitroglycerin administration if medical direction authorizes

C

You are treating a diabetic patient who has low blood sugar., as documented by a glucometer. When reassessing the patient after you administered oral glucose, you note the patient's condition has not improved. What action should you take? A. call the patient's personal physician B. give glucose in orange juice C. consult medical control about whether to administer more glucose D. administer oxygen by nasal cannula

C

You are treating a patient who is unconscious for an unknown reason. The clues that a patient is a diabetic include all of the following except: A. a medical identification bracelet B. the presence of insulin in the refrigerator C. low fat food in the freezer D. information provided by family members

C

You are treating a patient who passed out while waiting in a long line to get into a concert. When a patients faints, the medical term to describe this is usually a(n) ____ and the treatment would involve ____. A. hypoglycemic incident; oxygen administration B. stroke; Fowler position C. syncopal episode; oxygen administration D. hyperglycemic incident; Trendelenburg position

C

You are working an elderly cardiac arrest patient, when a family member hands you a DNR. At this point, what should you do? A. Ignore the document because you already initiated CPR and cannot stop. B. Comply with the document and stop all resuscitation efforts C. Continue working the patient until medical command gives you permission to stop D. Ask the family to allow you to continue because you have already started resuscitation efforts.

C

You arrive on scene to find a 10 year old male with non traumatic epistaxis. He is visibly upset and crying. What should you do to control the bleeding? A. Tip the head backward, holding pressure in the bridge of the nose B. Stick gauze up each nostril until the bleeding stops C. Squeeze the nostrils together below the bridge of the nose for approximately 10-15 minutes. D. Tip the head forward and apply ice

C

You have administered aspirin to the patient with chest pain per your protocols. The patient has his own prescribed nitro and a stable BP, so you decide to assist him in administering one of his nitro pills. After administering the nitroglycerin, it is important for you to: A. immediately administer the next dose B. discontinue the oxygen therapy C. reassess the vital signs D. lay the patient down

C

You have delivered an infant who is not breathing. After suctioning and physical stimulation, there are no respirations. You should: A. Administer free-flow oxygen. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Provide ventilations at a rate of 40 to 60/min. D. Start chest compressions at a rate of 60/min.

C

Your 56 year old male patient tells you that he has kidney problems and must go to the clinic three times a week. The reason he goes there is probably to: A. do blood tests B. take blood transfusions C. receive hemodialysis D. undergo peritoneal dialysis

C

Your 62 year old patient has a history of cardiac problems and takes nitro. The drug nitroglycerin is used to ___ vessels. A. dilate the peripheral B. constrict the peripheral C. dilate the coronary D. constrict the coronary

C

Your patient has a history of diabetes. You were called to her home because her family noticed her mental status was altered. The most common medical emergency for the diabetic patient is called: A. diabetes mellitus B. hypotension C. hypoglycemia D. stroke

C

A 26yo with hemophilia fell in his garage, cutting his arm on a nail protruding from a door frame. EMRs are on scene holding a blood soaked towel on his right forearm. He is alert and oriented with a pale complexion. They report the following: pulse 98, respirations 18, BP 142/66, SpO2 99% on room air. Your initial priority in caring for this patient is: A. immediate transport to the hospital B. providing supplemental O2 C. stopping the bleeding D. replacing the towel with a sterile dressing

C.

A cardiac arrest that occurs within 2 hours of the onset of cardiac symptoms is referred to as: A. prehospital death B. prehospital arrest C. sudden death D. ventricular tachycardia

C.

A component of the blood that is critical to the body's response to infection is called: A. red blood cells B. platelets C. white blood cells D. hemoglobin

C.

Aspirin is administered by the EMT in the field to: A. treat headaches B. dilate the coronary arteries C. help prevent clot formation D. eliminate the pain from a serious injury

C.

Assessment reveals a drooling 48yo male to have gurgling speech and left arm paralysis. The emts immediate priority is to: A. determine risk factors for stroke B. determine the time of onset C. suction the airway D. protect the left arm

C.

Chest pain from the heart is typically described by the patient as a "crushing pain." It is also often described as any of the following except: A. dull B. squeezing C. tearing D. heavy

C.

During respiration, the movement of air into and out of the lungs requires that: A. oxygen exits on the exhalation phase B. carbon dioxide enters on the inhalation phase C. air flow be unobstructed and move freely D. the mouth be open at all times that the patient is breathing

C.

In addition to chest pain or discomfort, the patient with cardiac compromise will also complain of: A. diarrhea B. shivering C. dyspnea D. headache

C.

Patients with heart problems may complain of any of the following except: A. pain in the center of the chest B. mild chest discomfort C. sudden onset of sharp abdominal pain D. difficulty breathing

C.

The medical specialty concerned with the blood disorders is called: A. nephrology B. neurology C. hematology D. histology

C.

The three primary components of the cardiovascular system are best described as: A. heart, blood vessels, and brainstem B. arteries, veins, and capillaries C. heart, blood vessels, and blood D. heart, lungs and blood vessels

C.

When palpating the anterior portion of the patient's abdomen, you note tenderness to the left upper quadrant. As a knowledgable emt, you would recognize that which organ might be involved? A. gall bladder B. liver C. spleen D. kidney

C.

You are assessing a 23 year old female who has colicky pain. This pain is often ____ pain from a ____ organ in the abdomen. A. tearing; hollow B. referred; solid C. visceral; hollow D. parietal; solid

C.

You are evaluating a 59 year old female patient who you suspect may be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of an acute coronary syndrome. Her signs and symptoms may include any of the following except: A. difficulty breathing and abnormal pulse rate B. sudden onset of sweating with nausea or vomiting C. sharp lower abdominal pain and a fever D. pain in the chest of upper abdomen

C.

You are treating a 29 year-old female who has major airway problems. She has thick secretions and blood in her upper airway that needs to be suctioned with a Yankauer. Which of the following is NOT true of the Yankauer suction tip? A. It has a rigid tip B. It allows for excellent control over the distal end of the device C. It is used most successfully with responsive patients D. It has a larger bore than flexible catheters

C.

You are treating a patient who is actively seizing. He is rapidly becoming cyanotic. After convulsions end, what action should you take? A. wait for the patient's color to return to normal B. place a nonrebreather mask with oxygen on the patient C. provide artificial ventilations with supplemental oxygen D. monitor the pulse closely for 2 minutes

C.

You have just arrived by the side of a male patient who is in cardiac arrest. EMRs have been on the scene for 6 minutes performing CPR. ALS has been contacted and is 1 minute out. Which one of the following should you do immediately? A. place the patient on the stretcher so ALS can provide care en route B. check the heart rate, BP and SpO2 C. apply and use the automated external defibrillator D. continue CPR and wait for ALS care

C.

Your 55 year old male patient called the ambulance because he has been feeling weak and dizzy most of the day. He states that she has no chest pain or difficulty breathing, but he is nauseated and has had very dark colored diarrhea all day. What do you suspect is his most likely problem? A. an acute myocardial infarction B. an abdominal aneurism C. a bleeding ulcer D. food poisoning

C.

Your 56 year old male patient is exhibiting altered behavior tanging from irritability to altered mental status. This behavior can be due to any of the following except: A. lack of oxygen B. head trauma C. hypoactivity D. hypoglycemia

C.

Your patient tells you he has a genetic disease but was not specific. He goes on to say that he had to have his spleen removed a few years ago. He called the ambulance today because he has severe pain in his arms, legs, and abdomen. What is a likely cause of this condition? A. a stroke B. a pulmonary embolism C. a sickle cell crisis D. a blood clot in the aorta

C.

A 31-year-old groundskeeper has been stung by wasps three times in his right arm and left ankle. After performing the primary and secondary assessments, what should you do next? A. Place a constricting band above the sting sites. B. Apply ice packs to the sting site for pain relief. C. Attempt removal of any embedded stingers. D. Wash the sting sites with sterile water and soap.

D

A complication that may be found in a 35 year old male who has sickle cell anemia is: A. destruction of the spleen B. acute chest syndrome C. priapism D. all of these

D

A confused and anxious patient fell 20 feet from a ladder. Which one of the following signs would suggest that the patient is in shock? A. Constricted pupils. B. Deformity to the left arm. C. Contusion to his head. D. Heart rate of 110.

D

A patient is very confused and disoriented. Before deciding the patient has a behavioral problem, the EMT should consider all of the following except: A. a potential head injury B. a brain tumor C. hypoxia D. glucose allergy

D

A ruptured ectopic pregnancy: A. Occurs in the last trimester. B. Usually presents with mild mid-menstrual-cycle back pain. C. Is retroperitoneal and therefore does not cause acute abdomen. D. Is a life-threatening emergency.

D

A winter storm over the last few days has closed the schools and affected travel on the roads. You are called to the home of a 62 year old male patient who states that he missed his dialysis twice this week because of the storm. What are the symptoms that he may exhibit? A. shortness of breath B. fluid in the lungs C. swollen ankles, hands, and face D. all of these

D

An intoxicated appearance and uncharacteristic behavior are typical of: A. shock B. dehydration C. cardiac arrest D. diabetic emergency

D

Complications of diabetes include: A. kidney failure B. heart disease C. blindness D. any of these

D

Cyanosis can be checked by observing the patient's: A. tongue B. earlobes C. nail beds D. tongue, nail beds, and earlobes

D

During the process of ventilation: A. the intercostal muscles expand, causing the air to be forced out of the chest B. carbon dioxide enters the body during each expiration C. oxygen enters the body during each expiration D. the diaphragm and chest muscles contract and relax to change the pressure in the chest

D

Factors that put a person at risk for developing acute coronary syndromes include: A. age B. cigarette smoking C. obesity D. all of these

D

How would you transport a seizure patient who may have a spinal chord injury? A. lateral recumbent position with c-collar in place B. semi-sitting position with a c-collar in place C. supine on the stretcher with straps loosely applied D. immobilized on a spine board with a c-collar in place

D

If a complication is found in a 35 year old male who has sickle cell anemia and needs emergency treatment, the EMT should provide: A. high flow supplemental oxygen B. monitoring for a high fever C. treatment for shock D. all of these would be appropriate

D

If the diabetic is symptomatic and has a sugar level below ____, he is considered hypoglycemic. A. 140 B. 120 C. 100 D. 60

D

Meningitis is: A. An infection of the zygote B. Always contagious and proper PPE should be utilized C. A degenerative disease of the feet D. An inflammation of a membrane most often caused by viruses or bacteria

D

Of the cardiac arrest patients listed below, which one can be defibrillated immediately? A. soaking wet patient lying in the rain B. trauma patient with severe blood loss C. patient on a metal deck being cradled by another person D. patient with an implanted defibrillator -

D

Of the following choices, the first golden principle of out of hospital trauma care is: A. calling for ALS backup. B. transport to a trauma center. C. understanding kinematics. D. ensuring rescuer safety.

D

On arrival to a parking lot tailgate, you observe a crowd around a young man who is seizing. As you get equipment from the ambulance and make your way to the patient, his friends tell you that the patient has been up all night "partying" by drinking alcohol and snorting cocaine. At the patient's side, you note that he is no longer seizing, but he is unresponsive and has snoring respirations. His respirations are labored at 16 per minute and his radial pulse is strong. His skin is cool and diaphoretic. Friends also inform you that he is a diabetic and about an hour ago they heard him say that he thought his blood sugar was going low. Which of the following interventions would be included in your care? A. Insert an oral airway, provide positive pressure ventilation, and administer oral glucose. B. Open the airway, check the blood glucose level, and administer oral glucose. C. Open the airway, provide oxygen, and administer oral glucose D. Open the airway, provide, oxygen, and give rapid transport to the hospital

D

Physical causes of altered behavior include all of the following except: A. inadequate blood flow to the brain B. mind altering substances C. excessive heat or cold D. differing lifestyles

D

The AED should routinely be used on: A. trauma victims B. patients under 55 pounds C. all patients under 8 years of age D. adults, infants, and children in cardiac arrest

D

The label on your patient's prescribed metered-dose inhaler reads as follows: "Administer three puffs as needed for shortness of breath." Your protocol states that you can only assist with two puffs. The patient is extremely short of breath. You should: a. Not administer the medication b. Administer two puffs c. Administer three puffs d. Contact medical direction

D

The patient you are assessing who has been complaining of chest pain asks you what causes most cardiovascular emergencies. You explain that these conditions are caused, directly or indirectly, by all of the following except: A. changes in the inner walls of arteries B. problems with the heart's electrical function C. problems with the heart's mechanical function D. complications resulting from cardiovascular surgery

D

The single most important factor in determining survival from cardiac arrest is: A. nitroglycerin administration B. training middle aged and older people in CPR C. early high-quality CPR D. early defibrillation

D

The very first step to aid a patient who is not breathing is to: A. clear the mouth B. administer oxygen C. apply positive ventilation D. open the airway

D

To manage a patient in cardiac arrest, the EMT should provide high quality CPR as well as do all of the following except: A. use a bag-valve-mask device with oxygen B. use an automated external defibrillator C. request advanced life support backup (when available) D. administer epinephrine via IV

D

What is meant by anatomical dead space? A. The maximum amount of room for dying cells in the body B. The compartment where tissue swells like edema C. Hollow chambers like the sinus D. The area in the lungs outside the alveoli

D

When a baby's head has delivered, you should immediately: A. Apply vaginal pads to the perineal area to reduce the blood loss. B. Massage the mother's uterus by kneading it to speed up delivery of the baby's body. C. Insert a sterile gloved hand into the vagina to relieve pressure around the baby's neck. D. Check the location of the umbilical cord and suction the mouth and nose.

D

When a patient inhales, air enters the throat, which is divided into the: A. nasopharynx B. oropharynx C. laryngopharynx D. both B and C

D

When obtaining the medical history of a seizure patient, interview the bystanders to find out all of the following except: A. how long the seizure lasted B. what the patient did after the seizure C. what the patient was doing prior to the seizure D. what the family's reaction was to the seizure

D

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs? A. Inhalation B. Release C. Inspiration D. Exhalation

D

When you question an elderly woman with a respiratory complaint, she speaks in short, two or three- word sentences. Is this significant? A. No, she is probably always like that B. Yes, she must have a complete airway obstruction C. No, elderly people always talk slowly D. Yes, she is probably very short of breath

D

Which of the following best describes the goal of a trauma system? A. Providing all trauma patients with a complete battery of diagnostic tests and access to specialists B. Providing the highest level of care possible within a 10-minute transport time for all patients C. Transporting as many patients as possible by air medical transportation D. Getting the right patient to the right facility in the right amount of time

D

Which of the following steps in not necessary for the EMT to take when using a fully automated defibrillator? A. assess the patient B. turn on the power C. put the pads on the patient's chest D. press the button to deliver the shock

D

Which one of the following anatomical statements is true? A. The head is proximal to the elbow B. The shoulder is distal to the hand C. The hip is distal to the knee D. The knee is proximal to the ankle

D

Which set of vital signs suggest early hypothermia might be present? a. Pulse 66; respirations 14/min and irregular; BP 114/78; hot and dry skin; reactive pupils b. Pulse 58 and faint; respirations 10/min and shallow; BP 94/62; cyanotic; sluggish pupils c. Pulse 76; respirations 18/min and strong; BP 122/82; warm and dry skin; reactive pupils d. Pulse 96; respirations 28/min, rapid and shallow; BP 116/72; flushed cool skin, reactive pupils

D

You are by the side of a 38-year-old male complaining of general weakness. Assessment findings include abdominal pain, fever, and yellowing of the eyes. Given these signs and symptoms, you should be suspicious of: A. Hepatitis B. Tuberculosis C. AIDS D. West Nile Virus

D

You are on scene assessing a 22 year old female for facial injuries. She tells you that her husband beat her up and this isn't the first time. While you are treating the patient, the husband returns and demands that you leave without his wife. What is your next course of action? A. Tell the husband that he has to leave while you are treating the patient B. Confront the husband and ask him why he beats his wife C. Ask the wife if she wants you to stay and treat her injuries D. Notify dispatch that you need police assistance immediately in a way that does not alert the husband of your actions or intent

D

You are treating a 58 year old female who states that she is not feeling well after returning home from her dialysis treatment. Each of the following is a complication of dialysis except: A. development of an aortic aneurism B. bleeding form the sire of the AV fistula C. clotting and loss of function of the A-V fistula D. a bacterial infection of the blood

D

You are treating a 58 year old male patient who you suspect maybe having a stroke. The signs and symptoms this patient presents with might include: A. vomiting B. seizures C. loss of bladder control D. all of these

D

You arrive on scene to find a 73 year old male in cardiac arrest. His wife informs you that he collapsed 2 minutes prior to your arrival and that his physician had signed a "do not resuscitate" (DNR) order for the patient but she cannot find the written order. What should you do in such scenario? a. Call the patients doctor to confirm the order prior to initiating care b. Leave immediately after documenting the wife's statement and return in service c. Obey the DNR and leave immediately, respecting the patients wishes d. Provide all necessary care to save the patients life until the document is provided

D

You arrive on scene to find an 18 year old female who has been vomiting for three days. She states she feels dizzy and her mouth feels dry. Her family confirms that other members of the family have had gastrointestinal flu in the past couple weeks. What is your primary concern for this patient? A. Drug use B. A possible bowel blockage C. Pneumonia D. The possibility for dehydration

D

You have been called for 27 year old who has been stung by a jellyfish while swimming. What symptoms would you expect to see if an envenomation occurred? A. Cramps B. Skin necrosis C. Vomiting D. All of the above

D

Your 5 year old patient is unconscious, but breathing adequately. Fearing he would not be able to protect his own airway, you decide to insert an oropharyngeal airway. When inserting an OPA into a child, which of the following is true: A. It should be rotated in 180 degrees, like in adults. B. When measured, the OPA one size bigger should be used C. When measured, the OPA one size smaller should be used D. It should be inserted in the anatomical position, with the bevel down throughout the procedure.

D

Your patient is a child approximately 4 years old and is in respiratory distress, which may be leading to respiratory failure. Inadequate breathing in a child this age is defined as: A. less than 12 breaths per minute B. more than 36 breaths per minute C. cyanosis of the lips and earlobes D. any of these

D

Your patient is a suspected stroke patient. A common sign you would expect to find in this patient is: A. tingling in both legs B. diminished urine flow C. low blood pressure D. headache

D

Your service has a new AED. During the in service on the new device, the instructor informs you that it is a semi-automated AED and uses a biphasic wave form, as opposed to the monophasic form used by the previous AED. As a knowledgeable EMT, you should recognize that: a. the EMT will not need to press a shock button to shock the patient. b. less energy but more shocks will be needed to treat cardiac arrest. c. the new AED will defibrillate with higher amounts of electrical energy. d. the new AED will defibrillate with lower amounts of electrical energy.

D

_____ accounts for about half of all trauma in pregnancy. A. Domestic violence B. Burns C. Falls D. Motor vehicle crashes

D

If you suspect a conscious 49 year old female has had a stroke, you should transport in the ____ position and pay close attention to her ____. A. recovery; heart rate B. supine; breathing rate C. prone; skin color D. semi sitting; airway

D.

Pain from an organ is often described as intermittent and: A. dull B. achy C. diffuse D. any of these

D.

Pain originating from an organ in the abdomen is called: A. somatic B. parietal C. referred D. visceral

D.

Prior to assisting a patient with his epi injector, the emt must assure that: A. the medication is yellow in color B. the patient is improving C. the patients heart rate and BP are stable D. on or offline medical direction exists

D.

Regarding arteries, the EMT should recognize that all arteries: A. have lower pressure than veins B. are located in the torso of the body C. carry oxygen rich blood D. carry blood away from the heart

D.

The EMT understands diastolic blood pressure when he describes it as: A. the pressure in the arterial system when the heart contracts B. the pressure in the venous system when the heart is at rest C. the pressure needed to move blood through the cardiovascular system D. the pressure in the arteries after cardiac contraction

D.

When assessing a patient with an an anaphylactic reaction, which of the following findings would you expect? A. rapid and strong carotid pulse B. normal to slightly increased BP C. slow and bounding radial pulse D. weak radial pulse

D.

You are assessing a 25 year old male who has no primary survey problems but is writhing in pain. He just cannot seem to find a comfortable position form his pain in the lower back and flank. What would you suspect is his most likely problem? A. Peritonitis B. A hernia C. AAA D. Renal colic

D.

Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the patient's family is most important to the EMT in relation to possible stroke? A. "he forgot to take his blood thinner last night" B. "he took some ibuprofen last night for a fever and cough" C. "we think that he drank too much last night" D. "we noticed him acted oddly around 7pm"

D.

Your patient was the driver of a car that stopped suddenly when she hit a pole. She was not wearing her seatbelt and has a bruise on her neck. When you question her, she speaks very softly and seems to have a raspy voice. Is this significant or just a sign of nervousness about the collision? A. No, many patients get quiet after a motor vehicle crash B. Yes, if she were nervous, she would be more excited C. No, but the bruise could mean that she has significant bleeding D. Yes, low volume and raspy tone could be due to airway swelling from neck or laryngeal trauma

D.

A 51-year-old male was burned in the face after a steam valve was accidentally opened. His face is red and swollen, and he is screaming in pain. He also states that he is having a hard time seeing. Which one of the following is the EMT's priority priority concern in caring for this patient? A. Airway compromise B. Loss of vision C. Facial disfigurement D. Pain management

a

A confused and anxious patient fell 20 feet from a ladder. Which one of the following signs would suggest that the patient is in shock? a. Heart rate of 140 b. Deformity to the left arm c. Contusion to his head d. Constricted pupils

a

A driver was ejected from his vehicle in a rollover type collision. Assessment findings include unresponsiveness and bruising to the abdominal and pelvic areas along with an open femur fracture. The patient has an open airway and is breathing at 32 times per minute. The skin is cool and clammy and the radial pulses are weak. Manual in-line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which one of the following is the EMT's initial intervention? a. Assist respirations. b. Obtain a blood pressure. c. Apply a cervical collar. d. Examine the fracture site.

a

A patient in shock with abdominal pain indicates he noticed lots of blood in the toilet after having a bowel movement this morning. The EMT should suspect what type of shock? a. Hemorrhagic hypovolemic b. Septic hypovolemic c. Hypoxic hypovolemic d. Nonhemorrhagic hypovolemic

a

A seven year-old boy choked on a grape at school. By the time the obstruction was removed, assessment revealed him to be in cardiac arrest. When you arrive, teachers are performing CPR. The school nurse informs you that CPR has been in progress for six minutes. You have an AED, but do not have a pediatric conversion device that reduces the energy of defibrillation from that of an adult to that of a child. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Place the electrodes on the boy's chest and follow the AED's prompts. b. Instruct the teachers to continue CPR for another minute before applying the AED. c. Continue CPR and transfer the boy to the stretcher for immediate transport. d. Perform five abdominal thrusts and then one minute of CPR before using the AED.

a

Activated charcoal is supplied in what form? a. Suspension b. Tablet c. Aerosolized powder d. Syrup

a

After restraining a patient on the stretcher, what action is it essential that the EMT perform first? a) check the extremities for pulsed and motor ability b) check the tightness of the chest strap c) obtain a set of vital signs, excluding temperature d) inform the patient of what will occur during transport

a

An alert and oriented 18yo female has threatened to hurt herself, but is refusing transport to the hospital. She is calm and states that she knows her rights and taking her would constitute false imprisonment. Her family is present and wants her to go the hospital for help. Given the situation and the patient's threat, what is your best course of action? a) contact law enforcement for assistance b) have the patient sign a refusal that is witnessed by the family c) transport the patient on her father's consent d) physically restrain the patient for transport

a

An infant delivered before _________ weeks is considered premature. a. 36 b. 37 c. 38 d. 39

a

The Apgar score should be calculated at ___________ minutes after birth. a. 1 and 5 b. 3 and 7 c. 2 and 10 d. 4 and 8

a

The EMT should recognize which one of the following as the most probable case of cardiogenic shock? a. Myocardial infarction b. Systemic infection c. Gastrointestinal bleed d. Severe vomiting and diarrhea

a

The major categories of shock include: a. hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive. b. hypoglycemic, obstructive, distributive, and hypovolemic. c. hemorrhagic, distributive, hypoxic, and obstructive. d. burn, hypovolemic, distributive, and hypoxic.

a

The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is fully dilated and ends when: a. the infant is born b. the water breaks c. the placenta is delivered d. the uterus stops contracting

a

Which of the following is not a stage of labor? a. rupture of amniotic fluid b. expulsion of the baby c. delivery of the placenta d. dilation of the cervix

a

Which one of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock? a. Blood clots in the lungs b. Loss of blood in the urine c. Infection throughout the body d. Poor transfer of oxygen at the capillary level

a

Which one of the following is one of the basic five rights of medication administration? a) Right dose b) Right allergies c) Right EMT d) Right physician

a

Which one of the following medications should the EMT administer orally? A) Aspirin B ) Alubterol C) Nitroglycerin D) Epinephrine

a

Which one of the following statements about the heart rhythm of ventricular fibrillation is true? a. When a patient's heart is in ventricular fibrillation, it is unable to pump blood throughout the body. b. The AED is designed to identify ventricular fibrillation and give a 'No Shock Advised' message when it is present. c. Ventricular fibrillation occurs when the heart rate is so slow and weak that a pulse cannot be felt. d. The most effective treatment for converting ventricular fibrillation to a healthy heart rhythm is CPR.

a

While using the AED to treat a patient in cardiac arrest, your partner informs you that he can feel a carotid pulse. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Assess the patient's breathing. b. Obtain a blood pressure. c. Reanalyze the patient's heart rhythm. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

a

Why is defibrillation in the first few minutes of cardiac arrest so critical? a. If cardiac arrest is not treated within the first few minutes, ventricular fibrillation will convert to asystole, a non shockable heart rhythm. b. In the first few minutes of cardiac arrest the heart is still warm, but begins to cool rapidly making it less receptive to a defibrillatory shock. c. In the first few minutes of cardiac arrest, the blood pressure is still normal, but will drop quickly, making successful defibrillation less likely. d. Research has shown that a heart in cardiac arrest will continue to pump blood for a few minutes before cardiac output drops to zero.

a

You are conducting the reassessment of a patient who sustained blunt trauma to the chest in a motor vehicle collision. Which one of the following assessment findings best indicates that the patient is deteriorating and in the decompensatory phase of shock? a. Blood pressure 92/50 mmHg b. Blood oozing from an abdominal laceration c. Heart rate 100 beats per minute d. Restless and confused mental status

a

You cannot successfully deliver a _________ presentation in the field. a. limb b. breech c. vertex d. cephalic

a

You have applied the AED's electrodes to an obese male patient in cardiac arrest. When you press the analyze button, the AED gives you a check electrode message. In looking at the patient, which one of the following would most likely be responsible for this message? a. Extremely hairy chest b. Obese chest and abdomen c. History of asthma d. AED placed to the patient's left side

a

You have arrived at a residence for a 66 year-old female who is in cardiac arrest. In the living room, you find a family member performing CPR on the patient. They quickly report that they found the patient in cardiac arrest and have been doing CPR for five minutes. Which one of the following statements should you make at this time? a. "Let's stop CPR so I can check the airway, breathing, and circulation." b. "Let's continue CPR for another two minutes, and then I will put the AED on." c. "Let's continue CPR while I talk with the family to see if they want us to continue." d. "Let's stop CPR so I can put the electrodes of the AED on her chest."

a

You have been assigned to a football game to provide standby coverage. While taking a break, you decide to walk to a nearby concession stand for a soft drink. On the way, you come across a group of people standing around a male patient who collapsed and is on the ground. Your assessment reveals him to be unresponsive, not breathing, and pulseless. A bystander states that the patient collapsed less than a minute earlier. An AED is located less than a minute from your location. The nearest EMT is five minutes from your location. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Run to retrieve the nearby AED. b. Perform two minutes of CPR. c. Call for assistance and start CPR. d. Take manual inline spinal stabilization

a

You have been called to a public pool for an unresponsive patient. On arrival you find lifeguards performing CPR with a pocket mask and oxygen on a 67 year-old male. They report that the patient was in the water and was seen clutching his chest seconds before going unresponsive. He was immediately pulled from the water and CPR was initiated. They estimate that CPR has been performed for five minutes. Assessment shows the man to be unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Which one of the following is your first response? a. Let's take a towel and dry off his chest. b. We need to quickly dry him from head to toe before applying the AED. c. Stop CPR and let's apply the AED. d. Let's start ventilation with a bag-valve mask and oxygen.

a

You suspect that a patient involved in a MVA is in shock. Which one of the following signs and symptoms of shock will be observed last? A) Decreased blood pressure B) Pale and diaphoretic skin C) Increased respirations D) Tachycardia

a

___________ is heralded by the onset of convulsions, or seizures, resulting from severe hypertension in the pregnant woman. a. eclampsia b. placenta previa c. placenta abruptio d. supine hypotensive syndrome

a

A 35 year old woman, 32 weeks' gestation, reports increased swelling in her hands and feet the last week and now complains of a sudden, intense headache. Her vital signs are as follows: pulse of 92/min; respirations of 24/min; and blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. You are concerned she has: A. Hypertensive syndrome. B. Pre-eclampsia. C. Eclampsia. D. Vitamin B12 deficiency

b

A 52 year-old male has collapsed on his front porch and his family dialed 911. When you arrive, the daughter informs you that the patient has been down for approximately eight minutes. Assessment reveals him to be in cardiac arrest. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Perform five cycles of CPR at a ratio of 15 compressions to 2 ventilations. b. Perform two minutes of CPR before analyzing the heart rhythm. c. Apply electrodes to the patient and follow the AED's prompts. d. Contact medical direction for permission to use the AED given the downtime.

b

A No Shock Advised message is provided by the AED. The EMT understands that this could mean: a. the electrodes may be loose. b. the patient has regained a pulse. c. the patient is in ventricular fibrillation. d. CPR is no longer needed.

b

After analyzing a cardiac arrest patient's heart rhythm, the AED provides a Deliver Shock message. After clearing the patient, the EMT's next step should be to: a. press the shock button, and then check for the return of a pulse. b. press the shock button, and then perform CPR for two minutes. c. check for a pulse, and then press the shock button if a pulse is not present. d. press the shock button, and then allow the AED to analyze the heart rhythm.

b

After delivery, if the infant does not begin breathing after _______ seconds, you should begin resuscitation efforts. a. 5-10 b. 10-15 c. 15-20 d. 20-25

b

Early in your assessment of the 56 year old male who presents with chest pain, you take his radial pulse. This is a very important vital sign because, if the heart is beating too fast or too slow, the patient with cardiac compromise may also: A. have stomach pain B. lose consciousness C. have a seizure or convulsion D. have right sided weakness

b

Ovulation occurs approximately _________ before menstruation. a. 1 week b. 2 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 4 weeks

b

The "P" in Apgar stands for: a. perfusion b. pulse c. pupils d. position

b

The difference between preeclampsia and eclampsia is the onset of: a. seeing spots b. seizures c. swelling in the hands and feet d. headaches

b

The first stage of labor begins with the onset of contractions and ends when: a. the infant is born b. the cervix is fully dilated c. the water breaks d. the placenta is delivered

b

When performing the primary assessment, what sign or symptom best indicated that the patient is in hypovolemic shock? a) crackles heard in both lungs b) skin that is cool and diaphoretic c) constricted pupils d) radial pulse of 72 bpm

b

Which of the following is not considered a possible effect to the fetus when the mother is a known substance abuser? a. low birth weight b. spina bifida c. prematurity d. severe respiratory depression

b

Which of the following refers to greenish or foul smelling amniotic fluid? a. nuchal rigidity b. meconium staining c. placenta previa d. bloody show

b

Which of the following statements is false? a. gestational diabetes will clear up in most women after delivery b. the leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy c. as pregnancy progresses, the uterus enlarges and rises out of the pelvis d. some cultures may not permit male EMTs to examine a female patient

b

Which one of the following actions performed by the EMT indicates appropriate care with the AED when treating a patient in cardiac arrest? a. He purposely does not shock a patient in cardiac arrest who has an implantable defibrillator. b. He places then quickly removes a set of electrodes in an attempt to remove hair from a patient's chest. c. He applies one electrode over top of the power source for a pacemaker located on the patient's chest. d. He places the AED pads two inches away from a transdermal medication patch on the patient's chest.

b

Which one of the following statements best indicates an understanding of the prehospital role in caring for the patient in shock? a. Because shock is a life threatening condition, it is important that the EMT identify the exact cause so the proper care can be given. b. Since shock is best treated in the hospital, the EMT should provide care to maintain perfusion to the vital organs and transport. c. The job of the EMT is to recognize that a person is in shock and get him or her to the hospital so treatment can be started. d. If shock is in the compensatory or early stage, it is not yet life-threatening and the EMT can take his time in assessing and treating the patient.

b

Which space in the body will you find the pancreas? A. Subriatal space B. Retroperitoneal space C. Pericardial space D. Peritoneal space

b

You are transporting a 57 year-old male who went into cardiac arrest at home. After two shocks and CPR, he regained a pulse, but remains unresponsive and in respiratory arrest. During transport, your reassessment reveals the absence of a carotid pulse. Which one of the following should you do first? a. Provide five cycles of CPR prior to using the AED. b. Turn the AED on and analyze the heart rhythm. c. Stop the ambulance and turn off the motor. d. Start CPR and continue emergency transport.

b

You arrive on scene to find a 45 year old male who is having difficulty breathing. He is cool, pale and sweaty. He tells you in quick gasps that he has COPD. His O2 sat is 86%. You should place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 lpm to prevent triggering his hypoxic drive. a. True b. False

b

You have been called to transport a patient in septic shock from the emergency department of a local hospital to the critical care unit of another. Two nurses will be accompanying you. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize that this state of shock has been caused by: a. failing heart. b. infection. c. blood loss. d. lung dysfunction.

b

You may help control bleeding by massaging the _________ after delivery of the placenta. a. perineum b. fundus c. lower back d. inner thighs

b

You should consider the possibility of a(n) ___________ in women who have missed a menstrual cycle and complain of a sudden stabbing and usually unilateral pain in the lower abdomen. a. PID b. ectopic pregnancy c. miscarriage d. placenta abruptio

b

__________ is a condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix. a. eclampsia b. placenta previa c. placenta abruptio d. prolapsed cord

b

A 3 year old girl is in severe respiratory distress. Her skin is cool and mottled. She is breathing spontaneously at 6-7 times a minute, but is unresponsive to verbal or physical stimuli. Her heart rate is 138 bpm. What should be your first action? a. Provide high flow oxygen using a non-rebreather at 10 lpm. b. Administer a blind finger sweep to attempt to remove the obstruction. c. Assist her ventilations with a BVM and supplemental oxygen at 15 lpm. d. Begin chest compressions to assist her inadequate spontaneous respirations.

c

A 47 year-old male is complaining of substernal chest pain. The EMT is considering assisting with the patient's prescribed nitroglycerin. Which one of the following patient statements is most relevant to the EMT at this time? a. I accidentally took five baby aspirins when the chest pain first started. b. I took a nitroglycerin yesterday for the pain and it didn't do anything. c. My urologist just started treating me for problems I am having with sex. d. I forgot to take my high blood pressure medication this morning.

c

A 47 year-old patient has been in cardiac arrest for six minutes. Prior to checking the heart rhythm with the AED, the EMT and his partner must: a. perform CPR at a ratio of 30 ventilations to two compressions. b. administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation for one minute. c. provide five cycles of chest compressions and ventilations. d. perform a primary and secondary assessment.

c

A 66 year-old female patient has been struck by a car. Your assessment reveals gurgling respirations, rapid breathing, and cool, diaphoretic skin. You also observe bruising to the chest and abdomen. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Evaluate for shock. b. Administer high-concentration oxygen. c. Suction the airway. d. Determine the blood pressure.

c

A patient has been involved in a very serious motor vehicle collision and is in shock. Your assessment findings indicate that he sustained blunt trauma to the abdominal and pelvic areas. What type of shock would this patient be suffering? a. Obstructive b. Cardiogenic c. Hypovolemic d. Distributive

c

A patient has just gone into cardiac arrest. His heart is most likely in what rhythm? a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Pulseless electrical activity c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Asystole

c

A patient presents with a sudden onset of shortness of breath three days following a delivery. What is likely the underlying cause of this condition? a. pulmonary hypertension b. pulmonary inflammation c. pulmonary embolism d. pulmonary fibrosis

c

A patient with a severe gastrointestinal bleed is in shock. Which one of the following should best correct the patient's underlying problem? Select one: a. High flow oxygen b. Intravenous fluids c. Blood replacement d. Replace lost electrolytes

c

After receiving a No Shock Advised message from the AED, it is determined that the patient has a weak pulse and slow and shallow respirations. Which one of the following should you do immediately? a. Provide two minutes of CPR. b. Transfer to the stretcher for transport. c. Start positive pressure ventilation. d. Obtain a blood pressure.

c

Fertilization usually occurs when the egg is inside the: a. ovary b. uterus c. fallopian tube d. endometrium

c

Once the infant is delivered, feel for a brachial pulse or the pulsations in the umbilical cord. If the pulse rate is below ________ beats/min, begin assisted ventilations. a. 60 b. 80 c. 100 d. 120

c

Premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus is known as: a. eclampsia b. placenta previa c. abruptio placenta d. prolapsed cord

c

The EMT realizes that the best means of preventing failure of the AED is to: a. check the AED and its supplies at the beginning of each shift. b. obtain a second set of batteries when the original set is no longer functional. c. check the electrodes monthly and replace when expired. d. always make sure that the AED is kept clean and free of damage.

c

The EMT shows he understands the use of an EPI pen for a treating a patient with an anaphylactic reaction when he makes which one of the following statements? A. "The EPI pen should never be used if the patient has developed the allergic reaction after eating chocolate" B. "It is critical that the EMT identify the cause of the allergic reaction prior to administering epinephrine through the auto-injector" C. "Epinephrine administered through an auto-injector can be used for all severe allergic reactions, regardless of the cause" D. "The epinephrine auto-injector is used only when a patient is stung by a bee or suffers an insect bite"

c

The fontanels are areas of the skill that have not fused together. These fontanels provide a window to the brain when assessing children with a suspected head trauma. The anterior fontanel closes at what age? 1-2 months of age 12-18 months of age 2-3 years of age 13-18 years of age

c

The third stage of labor begins with the birth of the infant and ends with the: a. release of milk from the breasts b. cessation of uterine contractions c. delivery of the placenta d. cutting of the umbilical cord

c

When a 61 year old male patient tells you that he has a tearing sensation in the back and denies any recent injury, the EMT should suspect: A. an acute appendicitis B. kidney stone C. abdominal aortic aneurysm D. a flare up of pancreatitis

c

Which list includes only the "Five Rights" of medication administration? A. Patient, medication, indication, dose, and time. B. Medication, dose, time, route, and documentation. C. Patient, medication, dose, route, and time. D. Medication, dose, generic name, route, and documentation

c

Which of the following is not a sign of the beginning of labor? a. bloody show b. contractions of the uterus c. crowning d. rupture of the amniotic sac

c

Which of the following is not true regarding delivery with a nuchal cord? a. gently slip the cord over the infant's head or shoulder b. clamp the cord and cut it before delivering the infant c. clamp the cord, then suction the airway before cutting the cord d. Clamp the cord and cut it, then gently unwind it from around the neck if wrapped around more than once

c

Which of the following statements regarding multiple gestations is false? a. you should consider the possibility of twins when the first infant is small and the mother's abdomen remains fairly large after the birth b. you should record the time of birth on each twin separately c. there is only one placenta with the birth of twins d. the second baby will usually be born within 45 minutes of the first

c

Which of the following statements regarding pregnancy is true? a. a patient in the third trimester is at a decreased risk for aspiration b. as the pregnancy continues, the patient will experience slower and deeper breathing c. by the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is at or above the belly button d. maternal blood volume increases up to 10% by the end of pregnancy

c

Which one of the following medical emergencies would most likely result in the use of epinephrine by the EMT? A) Slow heart B) Cardiac Arrest C) Best sting D) Asthmatic episode

c

You are assessing an elderly patient with a decreased level of consciousness. Your assessment reveals the patient to have a patent airway, labored respirations, and weak, rapid pulses. The skin is pale, cool, and cyanotic in the extremities. You also observe diaphoresis and a delayed capillary refill. Vital signs for this patient are: HR 136 bpm, BP 66/40 mmHg, and respirations 40 and shallow. Auscultation of the lungs reveals profound rales located throughout each lung. His temperature is 99∘F.There is obvious JVD and pedal edema. Additionally, family states that the patient has an extensive cardiac and diabetic history. Based on this information you should suspect what kind of shock? a. Hypotensive b. Distributive c. Cardiogenic d. Hypovolemic

c

You are at a community crisis center with a male patient who is depressed. What is the most important question you must ask first in the care of this patient? a) "have your medications been changed?" b) "what behavioral disorders have you been diagnosed with?" c) "do you feel suicidal or homicidal?" d) "have you been taking your medications?"

c

You are transporting a patient in cardiac arrest. The AED is being used and a shock has been advised. Prior to administering the shock, what should you do? a. Stop the ambulance and have all rescuers exit prior to shocking with the AED. b. Withhold all shocks because metal will conduct the shock into the ambulance. c. Ensure that no rescuer is touching the stretcher. d. Move the patient from the metal stretcher to a nonmetal surface.

c

You believe that a patient who has been shot in the lower abdomen is bleeding internally and is in the early stage of shock. Which one of the following indicates appropriate prehospital care of this patient? a. Oxygen therapy and warm packs to the abdomen b. Shock position and administration of water by mouth c. Oxygen therapy and rapid transport to the hospital d. Semi Fowler's position and direct pressure over the injury site

c

You have arrived on the scene of a 44 year-old male in cardiac arrest. According to family, the patient has a cardiac history and was complaining of chest pain most of the morning. They state that it has been about 10 minutes since he collapsed. To maximize the patient's opportunity for a successful outcome, which one of the following is the most important intervention that the EMT can make immediately? a. Advanced drugs by paramedics b. Defibrillation with the AED c. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation d. Oxygen through a nonrebreather mask

c

You have been dispatched to a residence for a male patient with a cardiac history who is complaining of chest pain. On scene you find a 52 year-old male patient sitting in a chair. He is alert and oriented and states that his chest pain feels like the last time he had a heart attack. He also states that in the hospital his heart stopped and they had to shock him twice before it restarted. He is breathing adequately and has a strong radial pulse. Which one of the following would be appropriate in the care of this patient? a. Provide positive pressure ventilation with high-flow oxygen. b. Open the airway using the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. c. Obtain the heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. d. Apply the AED to the patient but do not turn it on

c

You have been dispatched to the side of a highway where a woman is reported to be delivering a baby. As you approach the vehicle, you see her lying down in the back seat. As you perform a visual exam, you note crowning. This means that: a. the baby is making a crowing type of sound b. the baby cannot be visualized c. you can visualize the baby's head d. the father is excited and needs care

c

You have been dispatched to the side of a highway where a woman is reported to be delivering a baby. As you approach the vehicle, you see her lying down in the back seat. Once the infant's head has been delivered: a. suction the infant's nose, and then mouth b. apply oxygen over the mother's vagina c. suction the infant's mouth, then the nose d. apply a nasal cannula at 3 L/min to the infant

c

You have just applied the AED to a female patient in cardiac arrest and the machine is ready to analyze the heart rhythm. Which one of the following instructions is appropriate at this time? a. Continue CPR until we see if a shock is advised. b. Stop chest compressions but continue ventilation. c. Stop CPR and clear the patient. d. Stop CPR but continue to check for a pulse.

c

A 51 year-old male who suffered cardiac arrest has regained a pulse after one shock from the AED. The dispatcher informs you that the paramedic unit you have requested for assistance is coming from the eastern end of the county and has a 20-minute ETA. The hospital is 15 minutes west of your location. Which one of the following would be most appropriate? a. Wait on scene for the paramedic unit to arrive. b. Load the patient and meet the paramedic unit at a halfway point. c. Load the patient in the ambulance and wait on scene for the paramedic unit. d. Cancel the paramedic unit and transport to the hospital.

d

A patient in early shock informs the EMT that that he has had severe diarrhea and vomiting over the past four days. Given this history, the EMT should recognize the pathophysiology of the shock as: a. loss of red blood cells. b. leakage of the capillaries. c. decreased formed elements in the blood. d. loss of plasma volume.

d

All of the following are correct regarding postterm pregnancy except: a. infants can be larger, sometimes weighing 10lbs or more b. there is an increased risk of meconium aspirations c. postterm is considered past 2 weeks gestation d. ultrasounds are not accurate at determining due dates

d

An EMT has just received a Shock Advised message from the AED. Just before delivering the shock, the EMT must: a. press the analyze button once more. b. hold the patient's head to avoid injury when shocking. c. remove the oral airway to prevent possible choking. d. ensure that all rescuers are clear of the patient.

d

An Emergency Medical Responder informs you that he was assisting EMS with a cardiac arrest last week. He also states that the patient had been in cardiac arrest for eight minutes and questions why CPR was performed first, even though the AED was right there. You should reply: a. The chest compressions administered before defibrillation relax the muscles of the chest wall, allowing more electricity to enter the body. b. When the heart is in cardiac arrest for a few minutes, the blood in the heart becomes toxic and must be pumped out before defibrillating. c. Research has shown that chest compressions frequently convert the heart rhythm from asystole to ventricular fibrillation. d. Compressions administered prior to defibrillation help ensure that the heart is perfused with blood, increasing the chance of successful defibrillation.

d

An unrestrained 37 year-old female is in cardiac arrest after striking a tree head-on at a high rate of speed. Assessment reveals her to have suffered massive blunt trauma to the chest and abdomen. The patient is quickly extricated from the vehicle and placed on a long board for immobilization. It is estimated that the patient has been in cardiac arrest for approximately 10 minutes, during which CPR was not performed. At this time, the EMT would: a. perform CPR and contact medical command for permission to use the AED. b. apply electrodes to the patient's chest and follow the AED's instructions. c. withhold CPR and perform a focused trauma assessment. d. apply the AED and administer CPR for two minutes prior to using the AED.

d

At an in service on shock, the presenter asks if anyone can tell him something about irreversible shock. Which statement made by an EMT is correct? a. If the pupils are dilated, the patient is in irreversible shock. b. To survive, the patient in irreversible shock needs a large amount of IV fluids. c. In irreversible shock, the carotid pulse is weak, but the radial pulse is strong. d. Even with treatment, if shock has reached the irreversible stage, death will result.

d

It is critical that the EMT never apply the AED to a person who is not in cardiac arrest because an accidental shock could: a. produce full thickness burns and lead to a deadly infection. b. cause the patient extreme pain. c. cause the patient to lose his eyesight. d. cause the beating heart to go into cardiac arrest.

d

Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the fetus when the mother is supine is called: a. pregnancy induced hypertension b. placenta previa c. placenta abruptio d. supine hypotensive syndrome

d

Pain felt at a location other than its origin its: A. Transferred pain. B. Transposed pain. C. Remote pain. D. Referred pain

d

The EMT knows that the cause underlying distributive shock is: a. poor fluid intake. b. damaged heart with poor contractility. c. loss of blood volume. d. dilation of the blood vessels.

d

The EMT should request advanced life support (ALS) backup for a patient in cardiac arrest because: a. ALS care is superior to basic life support care, even with the AED. b. paramedics must be present in order for the EMT to use the AED. c. cardiac arrest patients must be transported by ALS personnel. d. ALS treatment decreases the possibility of the patient going back into cardiac arrest once successful defibrillation has occurred.

d

To clear a complete airway obstruction to a foreign body in an unresponsive, the correct technique would be: A. Continuous abdominal thrusts until the airway is cleared B. A repeat series of back blows and abdominal thrusts until the airway is clear C. A repeat of back blows, chest thrusts, and airway evaluation until the obstruction is cleared D. A repeat series of back blows chest thrusts, and blind fingers until the airway is cleared.

d

What is the device designed to deliver a specific amount of medication into the lungs via aerosolized form? a. a capsule b. an aerosolized nebulizer c. a nebulizer d. a metered dose inhaler

d

When a person is in shock, what is occurring in the body? a) the cells are getting glucose and other nutrients, but not oxygen b) the blood has an adequate amount of oxygen, but not enough nutrients for cell survival c) the amount of oxygen to the cells is adequate, but CO2 is not being eliminated d) the cells are not getting enough oxygen and waste products are accumulating

d

When assisting ventilations in a newborn with a bagmask device, the rate is ________ breaths/min. a. 20-30 b. 30-50 c. 35-45 d. 40-60

d

When performing CPR on a newborn, a compression to ventilation ratio of 3:1 should be used; this will yield a total of ________ "actions" per minute. a. 90 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120

d

Which of the following is not a reason for delivery of the fetus at the scene? a. delivery can be expected within a few minutes b. there is a natural disaster c. there is severe inclement weather d. the amniotic sac has ruptured

d

Which of the following is not performed immediately following delivery of the infant? a. wrap the infant in a towel and place it on one side with head lowered b. be sure the head is covered and keep the neck in a neutral position c. use a sterile gauze pad to wipe the infant's mouth, then suction again d. obtain an Apgar score

d

Which of the following is one of the basic five rights of medication administration? a. Right allergies b. Right physician c. Right EMT d. Right dose

d

You are assessing and treating a young girl who superficially cut her wrists in a self-stated suicide attempt. Bleeding was not significant and has clotted. While transporting the patient, which one of the following statements is most appropriate? a) "this has really upset your parents. how does that make you feel?" b) "these cuts are not significant. you didn't really want to do this, did you?" c) "can you tell me why you tried something like this?" d) "I am going to clean these cuts with some water and then wrap them?"

d

You are reading a prehospital care report and notice that the patient was defibrillated as soon as the EMTs arrived on scene, even though no CPR was done prior. Which one of the following should you assume? a. The patient had a very weak pulse. b. Asystole was the initial heart rhythm. c. The patient was under eight years of age. d. Down time was less than four minutes.

d

You are transporting an unresponsive 31 year-old female patient who suffered cardiac arrest. On scene Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) shocked her once with the AED and she regained a pulse. She remains unresponsive and is breathing shallowly. Ventilations are being provided with a bag-valve mask. An EMR has agreed to ride to the hospital with you to provide assistance in caring for the patient. Which one of the following instructions given to the EMR is most appropriate? a. "Please check her breathing and pulse every five minutes." b. "Place her on a nonrebreather with 15 liters per minute of oxygen." c. "Place her in the recovery position so her airway is clear if she vomits." d. "Leave the AED on her, even though she is breathing and has a pulse."

d

You have been dispatched to the side of a highway where a woman is reported to be delivering a baby. As you approach the vehicle, you see her lying down in the back seat. Concerning the delivery of the placenta, which of the following are emergency situations? a. more than 30 minutes have elapsed and the placenta has not delivered b. there is more than 500mL of bleeding before delivery of the placenta c. there is significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta d. all of the above

d

You have been dispatched to the side of a highway where a woman is reported to be delivering a baby. As you approach the vehicle, you see her lying down in the back seat. If the baby is crowning and the amniotic sac has not yet ruptured, you should: a. leave it in place and wait for ALS b. puncture the sac only after ordered to do so by medical control c. puncture the sac, allow the fluid to drain, and leave the sac in place d. puncture the sac away from the head and then push the sac away from the infant's face

d

You have been dispatched to the side of a highway where a woman is reported to be delivering a baby. As you approach the vehicle, you see her lying down in the back seat. Which of the following signs tell you that the birth is imminent? a. her water has not broken b. her contractions are 36 minutes apart c. she is a primigravida d. the infant is crowning

d

__________ is a situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the infant. a. eclampsia b. placenta previa c. abruptio placenta d. prolapsed cord

d


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