Enviro Midterm 1-100

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____ 24. The degradation of commonly held resources is known as a. the tragedy of the commons b. open-access degradation c. sustainable yield d. pollution e. government regulation

a

____ 25. What is the best description of an ecological deficit? a. The total ecological footprint is larger than the biological capacity to replenish renewable resources. b. The total ecological footprint is smaller than the biological capacity to replenish renewable resources. c. All nonrenewable resources have been exhausted and there are no renewable resources available. d. The total ecological footprint is equal to the sustainable yield of renewable resources. e. The total ecological footprint only involves the use of nonrenewable resources.

a

____ 3. A forest with plants, animals, and various other organisms is an example of a(n) _____. a. ecosystem b. species c. ecology d. life-support system e. nutrient

a

____ 30. What is the most likely effect of a pollutant? a. degradation of life-support systems for humans b. more cooperative behavior among wildlife c. greater allocation of resources to human health d. natural recycling of atmospheric air e. renewable natural capital

a

____ 37. What is the set of assumptions and values reflecting how you think the world works and what you think your role in the world should be? a. environmental worldview b. environmental justice c. environmental ethics d. environmental economics e. environmental capital

a

____ 41. growth starts off slowly, but after only a few doublings, grows at an enormous rate. a. Exponential b. Logarithmic c. Parallel d. Linear e. Resource

a

____ 42. How many people can the earth support indefinitely? a. No one knows. b. 5 billion c. 10 billion d. 15 billion e. 20 billion

a

____ 44. What is one of the root causes of environmental problems? a. rapid population growth b. even global distribution of wealth c. increasingly sustainable use of resources d. absorption of environmental costs in goods and services e. decreased use of nonrenewable resources in more-developed countries

a

____ 50. What is the best description of natural income? a. renewable resources provided by the earth's natural capital b. nonrenewable resources created by humans c. income based on government subsidies d. excess resources remaining after our ecological footprint e. new and alternative resources created by humans

a

____ 60. Thousands of genes make up a single _____. a. chromosome b. DNA c. cell nucleus d. trait e. organism

a

____ 64. Electromagnetic energy travels in _____. a. waves b. packets c. nodes d. modules e. chunks

a

____ 66. Matter is anything that _____. a. has mass and takes up space b. has the capacity to do work c. can be changed in form d. can produce change e. moves mass

a

____ 69. Which substance is a compound? a. water b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. hydrogen e. carbon

a

____ 78. Which law states that no energy can be created or destroyed? a. The first law of thermodynamics b. The second law of thermodynamics c. The law of conservation of matter d. The environmental exchange law e. The law of homeostasis

a

____ 8. According to a number of environmental scientists, we already know how to reuse or recycle at least _____ of the nonrenewable resources we use. a. 80% b. 65% c. 50% d. 40% e. 25%

a

____ 96. One property of a system is that it a. functions in a regular and predictable manner b. is highly randomized in its processes c. cannot be accurately modeled d. consists solely of inputs and outputs e. exists only in models

a

____ 97. Feedback causes _____ in a system. a. change b. equilibrium c. chaos d. error e. noise

a

____ 12. What term describes the highest rate at which a renewable resource can be used indefinitely without reducing its available supply? a. conservation b. sustainable yield c. preservation d. perpetual resource e. degradation

b

____ 17. Use of a natural resource based on sustainable yields is most applicable to the idea of _____. a. nonrenewable resources b. renewable resources c. shared resources d. amenable resources e. recycling

b

____ 18. Having tall smokestacks is a form of _____. a. pollution prevention b. pollution cleanup c. natural capital degradation d. ecological restoration e. tragedy of the commons

b

____ 20. Each of the three major cultural revolutions has allowed _____. a. ecological restoration b. expansion of the human population c. greater worldwide sustainability d. pollution prevention e. decreased consumption

b

____ 23. The term _____ refers to the contamination of the environment by a chemical or other agent that is harmful to organisms. a. natural capital b. pollution c. pesticide d. human activity e. point source

b

____ 28. The first major cultural change that occurred in the human population was the _____. a. information-globalization revolution b. agricultural revolution c. industrial-medical revolution d. technological revolution e. sustainability revolution

b

____ 32. Which revolution began about 50 years ago and involved the development of technologies for gaining rapid access to all kinds of information and resources on a global scale? a. The technology revolution b. The information-globalization revolution c. The agricultural revolution d. The industrial-medical revolution e. The sustainability revolution

b

____ 38. What viewpoint embodies the idea that we should be responsible, caring managers of the earth? a. The planetary management worldview b. The stewardship worldview c. The environmental wisdom worldview d. The environmental justice movement e. The renewable worldview

b

____ 39. Which statement represents an environmental wisdom worldview? a. Continuous rapid economic growth improves environmental conditions. b. Our success depends on learning how life sustains itself. c. Maximizing research funding is the key to controlling the environment. d. Human beings are the most important life forms on the earth. e. There is always more.

b

____ 49. Research by social scientists suggests that it takes _____ percent of the population of a community, country, or the world to bring about major social change. a. 1-2 b. 5-10 c. 15-20 d. 25-35 e. 50-60

b

____ 52. What is the definition of a scientific hypothesis? a. A simulation of a system being studied b. A possible explanation for an observation or experimentation c. The data needed to answer a question d. Procedures carried out under controlled conditions to gather information e. A widely accepted theory

b

____ 54. What is a well-tested and widely accepted description of what scientists find happening repeatedly in nature in the same way? a. theory b. scientific law c. hypothesis d. conclusion e. model

b

____ 62. Radioactive decay is best characterized as a type of _____. a. physical change b. nuclear change c. chemical change d. chemical decay e. organic change

b

____ 63. What law states that when matter undergoes a physical or chemical change, no atoms are created or destroyed? a. The second law of thermodynamics b. The law of conservation of matter c. The first law of thermodynamics d. The atomic exchange law e. The law of conservation of energy

b

____ 71. The atomic number is the number of _____. a. atoms in a molecule b. protons in an atom c. neutrons in a molecule d. electrons in an atom e. protons, electrons, and neutrons in an atom

b

____ 75. What describes the measurement of the concentration of hydrogen ions compared to the concentration of hydroxide ions in a solution? a. ionization b. pH c. alkalinity d. covalent bonding e. isotope

b

____ 80. What is an example of low-quality energy? a. electricity b. heat in the ocean c. nuclear fission d. gasoline e. food

b

____ 89. Energy can be formally defined as _____. a. the random motion of molecules b. the ability to do work and transfer heat c. a force that is exerted over some distance d. the movement of molecules e. the loss of matter

b

____ 92. What are two or more processes interacting such that the combined effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects? a. homeostasis b. synergistic interaction c. negative feedback d. entropy e. time delay

b

____ 93. A community knows the effects of chemical X when it is used alone. They also know the same for chemical Z, so they set safe limits for use for both chemicals. When the chemicals are released at safe levels on the same day, there is a massive fish kill. What is the most likely explanation? a. homeostasis b. synergistic interaction c. negative feedback d. positive feedback e. entropy

b

____100. What term describes the lack of system response system during a period of time? a. threshold level b. time delay c. tipping point d. negative feedback e. positive feedback

b

____ 11. The primary difference between renewable resources and nonrenewable resources is _____. a. how easily each can be discovered b. the available amount of each resource c. the length of time it takes for each to be replenished d. how fast each is being consumed e. how quickly each can produce electricity

c

____ 13. Which substance would be considered a renewable resource? a. copper b. oil c. fresh air d. salt e. sand

c

____ 15. All nonrenewable resources can theoretically be _____. a. converted to nonmetallic minerals b. converted to renewable ones c. exhausted or depleted d. recycled or reused e. alive

c

____ 16. Which action is an example of reuse? a. re-melting aluminum cans b. making compost out of kitchen scraps c. using plastic butter tubs to store leftovers d. using waste heat to warm a room e. making paper goods from previously used paper

c

____ 22. The U.N. Millennium Ecosystem Assessment reports that human activities have degraded _____ percent of the earth's natural services, and mostly since 1950. a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 80 e. 95

c

____ 27. An estimated _____ middle-class consumers live in China. a. 10 million b. 150 million c. 300 million d. 500 million e. 1billion

c

____ 33. Which of the following is a point source of pollution? a. wind carrying dirt and pesticides from croplands b. runoff from a stockyard c. a smokestack from a power plant d. fertilizer runoff from lawns e. runoff from cropland

c

____ 35. The real prices of goods and services do not include the a. cost of raw materials b. cost of manufacturing c. environmental costs of resource use d. cost of distribution e. cost of advertising

c

____ 40. What is the primary cause of nature deficit disorder? a. too much poverty b. too much affluence c. increased isolation from nature d. poor sanitation e. increased pollution

c

____ 46. Exponential growth occurs when a population increases at a(n) _____ per unit time. a. fixed number b. variable percentage c. fixed percentage d. slow rate e. unpredictable rate

c

____ 47. Nature deficit disorder is most likely to cause _____. a. obesity b. poverty c. stress d. poor sanitation e. dependence

c

____ 5. Solar energy is known as a(n) _____. a. renewable resource b. recyclable resource c. inexhaustible resource d. reusable resource e. nonrenewable resource

c

____ 58. What is the distinct piece of DNA containing instructions for making proteins? a. chromosome b. nucleotide c. amino acid d. cell membrane e. hydrocarbon

c

____ 70. Protons, neutrons, and electrons are all _____. a. forms of energy b. equal in mass c. subatomic particles d. negative ions e. charged particles

c

____ 76. Fossil fuels are best characterized as a type of a. atomic particle b. renewable energy c. nonrenewable energy d. electromagnetic energy e. thermal energy

c

____ 83. The matter and energy laws tell us that we can recycle _____. a. both matter and energy b. neither matter nor energy c. matter but not energy d. energy but not matter e. nothing and everything

c

____ 84. The energy "lost" by a system is _____. a. converted into an equal amount of matter b. equal to the energy the system creates c. converted to lower-quality energy d. returned to the system eventually e. converted to higher-quality energy

c

____ 87. Heat is best characterized as a kind of _____ energy. a. light b. potential c. kinetic d. nuclear e. low

c

____ 94. Human events that affect the environment are generally characterized by a. predictability as a result of population size b. many experiences leading to accurate generalizations c. long delays between events and responses d. obvious and immediate feedback e. negative feedback

c

____ 98. Which of the following illustrates a negative feedback loop? a. melting polar ice b. exponential population growth c. a thermostat maintaining a certain temperature in your house d. the greenhouse effect e. vegetation removed from a stream valley

c

____ 99. What is the point of a fundamental shift in the behavior of a system? a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. tipping point d. time delay e. synergistic point

c

____ 10. More-developed countries _____. a. have a lower average income b. use mostly renewable resources c. rely entirely on nonrenewable resources d. comprise 17% of the world's population e. provide fewer recycling services

d

____ 14. Which substance would be considered a nonrenewable resource? a. groundwater b. trees in a forest c. fertile soil d. oil e. crops

d

____ 19. Which of the following illustrates natural capital degradation? a. use of wind power b. saving endangered species c. cleaning up pollution d. aquifer depletion e. water runoff

d

____ 2. Which discipline is most associated with environmental science? a. botany b. political science c. sociology d. ecology e. psychology

d

____ 34. At our current average rate of use per person, how many planet Earths would we need to provide an endless supply of renewable resources? a. 0.5 b. 0.9 c. 1 d. 1.5 e. 2

d

____ 36. Subsidies and tax breaks to companies are a. helpful to the environment b. not helpful to the economy c. not actually helpful to these companies d. not helpful to the environment e. helpful to individuals

d

____ 45. What situation is most likely to occur as a result of poverty? a. increased media attention on children's health b. access to clean drinking water c. increased consumption in average d. spread of disease from poor sanitation e. heart disease and diabetes from obesity

d

____ 53. When an overwhelming body of observations and measurements supports a scientific hypothesis or group of related hypotheses, it becomes a(n) _____. a. hypothesis b. scientific law c. scientific variable d. scientific theory e. conclusion

d

____ 55. What is the correct order of applying the scientific process to a problem? a. hypothesis—question—observation—experimentation—conclusion—analysis b. hypothesis—conclusion—question—observation—experimentation—analysis c. observation—hypothesis—conclusion—experimentation—analysis—question d. observation—question—hypothesis—experimentation—analysis—conclusion e. hypothesis—experimentation—observation—analysis—question—conclusion

d

____ 59. What is the fundamental structural and functional unit of life? a. atom b. macromolecule c. DNA d. cell e. organism

d

____ 6. What is one of the three social science principles of sustainability? a. A dependence on solar energy b. A focus on chemical cycling c. The degradation of natural capital d. A responsibility to future generations e. The ability to retain biodiversity

d

____ 61. Which statement is an example of a chemical change? a. Confetti is cut from pieces of paper. b. Water evaporates from a lake. c. Ice cubes are formed in the freezer. d. A plant converts carbon dioxide into carbohydrates. e. A tree is cut down in the forest.

d

____ 65. Nuclear _____ occurs when two nuclei are forced together. a. decay b. fission c. dissipation d. fusion e. equilibrium

d

____ 67. What is the most basic building block of matter? a. molecules b. compounds c. ions d. atoms e. minerals

d

____ 68. Fundamental types of matter that have unique sets of properties and cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means are called _____. a. mixtures b. compounds c. isotopes d. elements e. atoms

d

____ 72. The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of the _____. a. neutrons and isotopes b. neutrons and electrons c. neutrons and protons d. protons and electrons e. ions and isotopes

d

____ 73. Isotopes are forms of an element that differ from one another by having different _____. a. atomic numbers b. numbers of electrons c. numbers of protons d. mass numbers e. electrical charges

d

____ 74. An ion has a net positive or negative _____. a. proton b. isotope c. charge d. acid e. electron

d

____ 79. Energy efficiency refers to _____. a. how much energy we use b. how much energy is wasted c. how much heat is produced d. getting more work out of the energy we use e. getting more energy out of our work

d

____ 82. What does the first law of thermodynamics tell us? a. Doing work always creates heat. b. Altering matter is the best source of energy. c. Energy cannot be recycled. d. Energy is neither created nor destroyed. e. Energy cannot be converted.

d

____ 85. Scientists classify energy as either _____. a. chemical or physical b. kinetic or mechanical c. potential or mechanical d. potential or kinetic e. chemical or kinetic

d

____ 86. Which of the following represents kinetic energy? a. water in a reservoir behind a dam b. a rock held in your hand c. chemical energy stored in food d. water in a stream e. light from the sun

d

____ 88. Scientists estimate that about _____ of the energy used in the United States is unavoidably wasted. a. 5% b. 18% c. 55% d. 84% e. 96%

d

____ 9. What are the priorities for more sustainable use of renewable resources, in order? a. refuse, renew, reduce, and recycle b. recycle, renew, reuse, and reduce c. resource, recycle, renew, and reduce d. refuse, reduce, reuse, and recycle e. refuse, reduce, recycle, and renew

d

____ 90. Which of the following best illustrates potential energy? a. the wind blowing b. water in a stream c. steam d. a car at the top of a hill e. electricity

d

____ 91. Time delays in feedback systems allow changes in the environment to build slowly until the changes reach a(n) _____. a. synergy point b. input stage c. throughput d. tipping point e. bioaccumulation point

d

____ 95. What is considered to be the most essential component of a system? a. throughputs b. DNA c. energy d. matter e. light

d

____ 1. Sustainability refers to _____. a. the way in which the natural world works b. how we interact with the environment c. human methods of coping with environmental problems d. refusing, reducing, reusing, and recycling e. the capacity of the earth's natural systems to survive, flourish, and adapt

e

____ 21. An average ecological footprint of an individual in a given country or area is known as _____. a. per capita gross GNP b. ecological footprint c. per capita GDP d. sustainable yield e. per capita ecological footprint

e

____ 26. In the IPAT equation, the 'P' stands for a. poverty b. pollution c. per capita ecological footprint d. percent e. population size

e

____ 29. Volcanic gases in the atmosphere are considered a type of _____. a. cultural change b. natural capital degradation c. nonrenewable resource d. renewable resource e. pollution

e

____ 31. What is a nonpoint source of pollution? a. drainpipe b. car exhaust pipe c. power plant d. volcano e. pesticides in the air

e

____ 4. Using normally renewable resources faster than nature can renew them is called _____. a. nutrient cycling b. nutrient deficit c. sustainability d. trade-offs e. degrading natural capital

e

____ 43. According to the World Bank, about how many people worldwide live in extreme poverty? a. 1 million b. 9 million c. 40 million d. 90 million e. 900 million

e

____ 48. Affluence typically results in _____. a. population growth b. less education c. increased poverty d. environmental restoration e. environmental degradation

e

____ 51. In 1963, Bormann and Likens compared the output of two river valleys, one forested and the other clear cut. What were their findings? a. The deforested valley had higher water flow and a decrease in nutrient loss. b. The forested valley had higher water flow and a decrease in nutrient loss. c. The forested valley had lower water flow and increase in nutrient loss. d. The deforested valley had lower water flow and increase in nutrient loss. e. The deforested valley had higher water flow and increase in nutrient loss.

e

____ 56. Which of the following is an example of an organic compound? a. H2O b. NaCl c. H2SO4 d. N2O e. CH4

e

____ 57. Complex carbohydrates are a type of _____. a. lipid b. chemical formula c. monomer d. protein e. organic polymer

e

____ 7. Topsoil is an important component of _____. a. biodiversity b. ecosystems c. natural resources d. win-win solutions e. nutrient cycling

e

____ 77. High-quality energy can best be characterized as _____. a. fossilized b. pure c. electromagnetic d. kinetic e. concentrated

e

____ 81. What percentage of the energy used to produce food for living organisms, and to heat the earth, comes from the sun? a. 10 b. 29 c. 49 d. 79 e. 99

e


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