Everything Security+

encryption

A process that scrambles, or ciphers, data to make it unreadable. Encryption normally includes a public algorithm and a private key. Compare with asymmetric and symmetric encryption.

network mapping

A process used to discover devices on a network, including how they are connected.

risk assessment

A process used to identify and prioritize risks. It includes quantitative risk assessments and qualitative risk assessments.

pulverizing

A process used to physically destroy items such as optical discs that aren't erased by a degausser.

pointer dereference

A programming practice that uses a pointer to reference a memory area. A failed dereference operation can corrupt memory and sometimes even cause an application to crash.

error handling

A programming process that handles errors gracefully.

input validation

A programming process that verifies data is valid before using it.

ANT

A proprietary wireless protocol used by some mobile devices. It is not an acronym.

salt

A random set of data added to a password when creating the hash. PBKDFZ and bcrypt are two protocols that use salts.

audit trail

A record of events recorded In one or more logs. When security professionals have access to all the logs, they can re-create the events that occurred leading up to a security incident.

qualitative risk assessment

A risk assessment that uses judgment to categorize risks. it is based on impact and likelihood of occurrence.

quantitative risk assessment

A risk assessment that uses specific monetary amounts to identify cost and asset value. It then uses the SLE and ARO to calculate the ALE.

group-based access control

A roie-based access control method that uses groups as roles.

Faraday cage

A room or enclosure that prevents signals from emanating beyond the room or enclosure.

implicit deny

A rule in an ACL that blocks all traffic that hasn't been explicitly allowed. The implicit deny rule is the last rule in an ACL.

affinity

A scheduling method used with load balancers. It uses the client's IP address to ensure the client is redirected to the same server during a session.

round-robin

A scheduling method used with load balancers. it redirects each client request to servers in a predetermined order.

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

A strong symmetric block cipher that encrypts data in 128-bit blocks. AES can use key sizes of 128 bits, 192 bits, or 256 bits.

Blowfish

A strong symmetric block cipher. It encrypts data in 64-bit blocks and supports key sizes between 32 and 448 bits. Compare with Twofish.

framework

A structure used to provide a foundation. Cybersecurity frameworks typically use a structure of basic concepts and provide guidance to professionals on how to implement security.

ROT13

A substitution cipher that uses a key of 13. To encrypt a message, you would rotate each letter 13 spaces. To decrypt a message, you would rotate each letter 13 spaces.

NTLM (New Technology LAN Manager)

A suite of protocols that provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication withinWindows systemVersions include NTLM, NTLMVZ, and NTLMZ Session.

aggregation switch

A switch used to connect multiple switches together into a network. Switches connect to the aggregation switch and it connects to a router.

Twofish

A symmetric key block cipher. It encrypts data in 128-bit blocks and supports 128-. 192" or

RC4

A symmetric stream cipher that can use between 40 and 2.048 bits. Experts consider it cracked and recommend using stronger alternatives.

spear phishing

A targeted form of phishing. Spear phishing attacks attempt to target specific groups of users, such as those within a specific organization, or even a singie user.

captive portal

A technical solution that forces wireless clients using web browsers to complete a process before accessing a network. It is often used to ensure users agree to an acceptable use policy or pay for access.

key stretching

A technique used to increase the strength of stored passwords. it adds additional bits (called salts) and can help thwart brute force and rainbow table attacks.

virtualization

A technology that allows you to host multiple virtual machines on a single physical system. Different types include Type I, Type II, and application cell/container virtualization.

high availability

A term that indicates a system or component remains available close to 100 percent of the time.

data sovereignty

A term that refers to the legal implications of data stored in different countries. It is primarily a concern related to backups stored in alternate locations via the cloud.

Mder of volatility

A term that refers to the order in which you should collect evidence. For example! data in memory is more volatile than data on a disk drive. so it should be collected first.

Protocol analyzer

A tool used to capture network traffic. Both professionals and attackers use protocol analyzers to examine packets. A protocol analyzer can be used to view data sent in clear text.

vulnerability scanner

A tool used to detect vulnera bilities. A scan typically identifies vulnerabilities. misconfigurations, and a lack of security controls. it passively tests security controls

network scanner

A tool used to discover devices on a network, including their IP addresses, their operating system, along with services and protocols running on the devices.

password cracket

A tool used to discover passwords.

MOU/MOA (Memorandum of understanding/agreement)

A type of agreement that defines responsibilities of each party. Compare with ISA.

downgrade attack

A type of attack that forces a system to downgrade its security. The attacker then exploits the lesser security control.

multifactor authentication

A type of authentication that uses methods from more than one factor of authentication.

differential backup

A type of backup that backs up all the data that has changed or is different since the last full backup.

incremental backup

A type of backup that backs up all the data that has changed since the last full or incremental backup.

full backup

A type of backup that backs up all the selected data. A full backup could be considered a normal backup.

symmetric encryption

A type of encryption using a single key to encrypt and decrypt data. Compare with asymmetric encryption.

asymmetric encryption

A type of encryption using two keys to encrypt and decrypt data. It uses a public key and a private key. Compare with symmetric encryption.

ephemeral key

A type of key used in cryptography. Ephemeral keys have very short lifetimes and are re-created for each session.

logic bomb

A type of malware that executes in response to an event. The event might be a Specm date or time, or a user action such as when a user launches a specific program.

rootkit

A type of malware that has system-Ievel access to a computer. Rootkits are often able to hide themselves from users and antivirus software.

ransomware

A type of malware used to extort money from individuals and organizations. Ransomware typically encrypts the user's data and demands a ransom before decrypting the data.

anomaIy

A type of monitoring on intrusion detection and intrusion prevention systems. It detects attacks by comparing operations against a baseline. It is also known as heuristic detection.

heuristic/behavioral

A type of monitoring on intrusion detection and intrusion prevention systems. It detects attacks by comparing traffic against a baseline. It is also known as anomaly detection.

signature-based

A type of monitoring used on intrusion detection and intrusion prevention systems. It detects attacks based on known attack patterns documented as attack signatures.

white box test

A type of penetration test. Testers have full knowledge of the environment prior to starting the test. Compare with black box test and gray box test.

gray box test

A type of penetration test. Testers have some knowledge of the environment prior to starting the test. Compare with black box test and white box test.

black box test

A type of penetration test. Testers have zero knowledge of the environment prior to starting the test. Compare with gray box test and white box test.

crypto-malware

A type of ransomware that encrypts the user's data.

evil twin

A type of rogue AP. An evil twin has the same SSID as a legitimate AP.

configuration compliance scanner

A type of vulnerability scanner that verifies systems are configured correctly. It will often use a file that identifies the proper configuration for systems.

VDINDE

A virtual desktop infrastructure or virtual desktop environment. Users access a server hosting virtual desktops and run the desktop operating system from the server.

geofencing

A virtual fence or geographic boundary. It uses GPS to create the boundary. Apps can then respond when a mobile device is within the virtual fence.

TYPE I hypervisors

A virtualization technology. Type I hypervisors (or bare-metal hypervisors) run directly on the system hardware. They don't need to run within an operating system.

Type II hypervisors

A virtualization technology. Type II hypervisors run as software within a host Operating system. The Microsoft Hyper-V hypervisor runs within a Microsoft operating system to host VMs.

zero-day vulnerability

A vulnerability or bug that is unknown to trusted sources but can be exploited by attackers. Zero-day attacks take advantage of zero-day vulnerabilities.

VM sprawl

A vulnerability that occurs when an organization has many VMs that aren't properly managed. Unmanaged VMs are not kept up to date with current patches Compare with system sprawl.

system sprawl

A vulnerability that occurs when an organization has more systems than it needs. and systems it owns are underutilized. Compare with VM sprawl.

vulnerability

A weakness. it can be a weakness in the hardware, the software, the configuration, or even the users operating the system. Compare with risk and threat.

cross-site request forgery (XSRF)

A web application attack. XSRF attacks trick users into performing actions on web sites, such as making purchases, without their knowledge.

cross-site scripting (XSS)

A web application vulnerability. Attackers embed malicious HTML or JavaScript code into a web site's code, which executes when a user visits the site.

IV (initialization vector) attack

A wireless attack that attempts to discover the IV. Legacy wireless security protocols are susceptible to IV attacks.

Open

A wireless mode that doesn't use security. Compare with Enterprise and PSK modes.

Enterprise

A wireless mode that uses an 802.1x server for security. It forces users to authenticate with a username and password. Compare with Open and PSK modes.

BPA (business partners agreement)

A written agreement that details the relationship between business partners, including their obligations toward the partnership.

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AUP

Acceptable Use Policy

ACL

Access Control List

AP

Access Point

ARP

Address Resolution Protocol

ASLR

Address Space Layout Randomization

AES

Advanced Encryption Standard

APT

Advanced Persistent Threat

Malware that pushes unwanted advertisements

Adware

FAR (false acceptance rate)

Also called the false match rate. A rate that identifies the percentage of times a biometric authentication system incorrectly indicates a match.

acceptable use policy (AUP)

A policy defining proper system usage and the rules of behavior for employees. It often describes the purpose of computer systems and networks, how users can access them, and the responsibilities of users when accessing the systems.

mandatory vacation

A policy that forces employees to take a vacation. The goal is to deter malicious activity, such as fraud and embezzlement, and detect malicious activity when it occurs.

background check

A check into a person's history, typically to determine eligibility for a job.

STARTTLS

A command (not an acronym) used to upgrade an unencrypted connection to an encrypted connection on the same port.

ip

A command-Iine tool used on Linux systems to show and manipulate settings on a network interface card (NIC). Developers created this to replace ifconflg.

ipconfig

A command-Iine tool used on Windows systems to show the configuration settings on a NIC.

Netcat

A command-Iine tool used to connect to remote systems.

netstat

A command-Iine tool used to show network statistics on a system.

tcpdump

A command-line protocol analyzer. Administrators use it to capture packets.

disablement policy

A policy that identifies when administrators should disable user accounts.

Guest account

A pre-created account in Windows systems. It is disabled by default.

GPS tagging

A process of adding geographical data to files such as pictures. It typically includes latitude and longitude coordinates of the location where the picture was taken or the file was created.

secure boot

A process that checks and validates system files during the boot process. A TPM typically uses a secure boot process.

attestation

A process that checks and validates system files during the boot process. TPMs sometimes use remote attestation, sending a report to a remote system for attestation.

ifconfig

A command-line tool used on Linux systems to show and manipulate settings on a network interface card (NIC). Similar to ipconfig used on Windows systems.

arp

A command-line tool used to show and manipulate the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache. *

dig

A command-line tool used to test DNS on Linux systems. Compare with nslookup.

ping

A command-line tool used to test connectivity with remote systems.

tncert

A command-line tool used to trace the route between two systems.

P12-PKCS#12

A common format for PKI certificates. They are CER-based (binary) and often hold certificates with the private key. They are commonly encrypted.

P7B-PKCS#7

A common format for PKI certificates. They are DER-based (A50!) and commonly used to share public keys

single point of failure

A component within a system that can cause the entire system to fail ifthe component fails.

out-of-band

A configuration that allows a device to collect traffic without the traffic passing through it Sometimes called passive. Compare with inline.

inline

A configuration that forces traffic to pass through a device. A NIPS is placed inline, allowing it to prevent malicious traffic from entering a network. Sometimes called in-band. Compare with out-of-band.

ad hoc

A connection mode used by wireless devices without an AP. When wireless devices connect through an AP, they are using infrastructure mode.

snapshot

A copy of a virtual machine (VM) at a moment in time. If you later have problems with the VM, you can revert it to the state it was in when you took the snapshot. Some backup programs also use snapshots to create a copy of data at a moment in time.

least functionality

A core principle of secure systems design. Systems should be deployed with only the applications, services, and protocols needed to meet their purpose.

legal hold

A court order to maintain data for evidence.

smart card

A credit card-sized card that has an embedded microchip and a certificate. It is used for authentication in the something you have factor of authentication.

known plaintext

A cryptographic attack that decrypts encrypted data. in this attack, the attacker knows the plaintext used to create ciphertext.

diffusion

A cryptography concept that ensures that small changes in plaintext result in significant changes in ciphertext.

confusion

A cryptography concept that indicates ciphertext is significantly different than plaintext.

access point (AP)

A device that connects wireless clients to wireless networks. Sometimes called wireless access point (WAP).

certificate

A digital file used for encryption, authentication, digital signatures, and more. Public certificates include a public key used for asymmetric encryption.

tabletop exercise

A discussion-based exercise where participants talk through an event while sitting at a table or in a conference room. It is often used to test business continuity plans.

risk register

A document listing information about risks. It typically includes risk scores along with recommended security controls to reduce the risk scores.

standard operating procedures (SOPs)

A document that provides step-by-step instructions on how to perform common tasks or routine operations.

refactoring

A driver manipulation method. Developers rewrite the code without changing the driver's behavior.

shimming

A driver manipulation method. It uses additional code to modify the behavior of a driver.

rainbow table

A file containing precomputed hashes for character combinations. Rainbow tables are used to discover passwords. PBKDFZ and bcrypt thwart rainbow table attacks.

MAC filtering

A form of network access control to allow or block access based on the MAC address. It is configured on switches for port security or on APs for wireless security.

whaling

A form of spear phishing that attempts to target high-ievei executives. When successful. attackers gain confidential company information that they might not be able to get anywhere else.

purging

A general sanitization term indicating that all sensitive data has been removed from a device.

stored procedures

A group of SQL statements that execute as a whole, similar to a mini-program. Developers use stored procedures to prevent SQL injection attacks.

MDM (Mobile device management)

A group of applications and/or technologies used to manage mobile devices. MDM tools can monitor mobile devices and ensure they are in compliance with security policies.

cyber-incident response team

A group of experts who respond to security incidents. Also known as CIRT.

honeynet

A group of honeypots in a network. Honeynets are often configured in virtual networks.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

A group of technologies used to request, create, manage, store. distribute, and revoke digital certificates.

APT (Advanced persistent threat) [crew]

A group that has both the capability and intent to launch sophisticated and targeted attacks.

TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

A hardware chip on the motherboard included with many |aptops and some mobile devices. It provides full disk encryption. Compare with HSM.

collision

A hash vulnerability that can be used to discover passwords. A hash collision occurs when two different passwords create the same hash.

birthday [theorem]

A password attack named after the birthday paradox in probability theory. The paradox states that for any random group of 23 people, there is a 50 percent chance that 2 of them have the same birthday.

brute force

A password attack that attempts to guess a password. Online brute force attacks guess passwords of online systems. Offline attacks guess passwords contained in a file or database.

pass the hash

A password attack that captures and uses the hash of a password It attempts to log on as the user with the hash and is commonly associated with the Microsoft NTLM protocol.

dictionary [attack]

A password attack that uses a me of words and character combinations. The attack tries every entry within the file when trying to guess a password.

passive reconnaissance

A penetration testing method used to collect infomation. It typically uses open-source intelligence. Compare with active reconnaissance.

active reconnaissance

A penetration testing method used to collect information. It sends data to systems and analyzes responses to gain information on the target. Compare with passive reconnaissance.

screen filter

A physical secu rity device used to reduce visibility of a computer screen. Screen filters help prevent shoulder surfing.

airgap

A physical security control that provides physical isolation. Systems separated by an airgap don't typically have any physical connections to other systems.

mantrap

A physical security mechanism designed to control access to a secure area. A mantrap prevents tailgating.

certificate chaining

A process that combines all certificates within a trust model. It includes all the certificates in the trust chain from the root CA down to the certificate issued to the end user.

job rotation

A process that ensures employees rotate through different jobs to learn the processes and procedures in each job. It can sometimes detect fraudulent activity.

business impact analysis (BIA)

A process that helps an organization identify critical systems and components that are essential to the organization's success.

pulping

A process that is performed after shredding papers. it reduces the shredded paper to a mash or puree.

chain of custody

A process that provides assurances that evidence has been controlled and handled properly after collection. Forensic experts establish a chain of custody when they first collect evidence.

application cell

Also known as application containers. A virtualization technology that runs services or applications within isolated application cells (or containers). Each container shares the kernel of the host.

fat AP

An AP that includes everything needed to connect wireless clients to a wireless network. Fat APs must be configured independently. Sometimes called a stand-alone AP. Compare with thin AP.

controller-based AP

An AP that is managed by a controller. Also called a thin AP. Compare with fatAP.

thin AP

An AP that is managed by a controller. Sometimes called a controller-based AP. Compare With fat AP.

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language)

An XML-based standard used to exchange authentication and authorization information between different parties. SAML provides 550 forwebbased applications.

clickjacking

An attack that tricks users into clicking something other than what they think they're clicking.

man-in-the-middle (MlTM)

An attack using active interception or eavesdropping. It uses a third computer to capture traffic sent between two other systems.

replay attack

An attack where the data is captured and replayed. Attackers typically modify data before replaying it

hacktivist

An attacker who launches attacks as part of an activist movement or to further a cause,

insider

An attacker who launches attacks from within an organization, typically as an employee.

script kiddie

An attacker with little expertise or sophistication. Script kiddies use existing scripts to launch attacks.

obfuscation

An attempt to make something unclear or difficult to understand. Steganography methods use obfuscation to hide data within data.

permission auditing review

An audit that analyzes user privileges. It identifies the privileges (rights and permissions) granted to users. and compares them against what the users need.

token

An authentication device or file. A hardware token is a physical device used in the something you have factor of authentication. A software token is a small tile used by authentication services indicating a user has logged on.

something you do

An authentication factor indicating action, such as gestures on a touch screen.

something you know

An authentication factor indicating knowiedge. SUCh as a password or PIN,

somewhere you are

An authentication factor indicating location, often using geolocation technologies.

something you are

An authentication factor using biometrics, such as a fingerprint scannet.

something you have

An authentication factor using something physical. such as a smart card or token.

CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol)

An authentication mechanism where a server challenges a client. Compare with MS-CHAPv2 and PAP.

context-aware authentication

An authentication method using multiple elements to authenticate a user and a mobile device. It can include identity, geolocation, the device type, and more.

lEEE 802.1x

An authentication protocol used in VPNs and wired and wireless networks. VPNs often implement it as a RADIUS server. Wired networks use it for port-based authentication. Wireless networks use it in Enterprise mode. It can be used with certilicate-based authentication.

asset value

An element of a risk assessment. It identifies the value of an asset and can include any product, system, resource, or process. The value can be a specific monetary value or a subjective value.

split tunneI

An encrypted connection used with VPNs. A split tunnel oniy encrypts traffic going to private iP addresses used in the private network Compare with full tunnel.

full tunnel

An encrypted connection used with VPNs. When a user is connected to a VPN, all traffic from the user is encrypted. Compare with split tunnel.

digital signature

An encrypted hash of a message, encrypted with the sender's private key. It provides authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity.

stream cipher

An encryption method that encrypts data as a stream of bits or bytes. Compare with block cipher.

block cipher

An encryption method that encrypts data in fixed-sized blocks. Compare with stream cipher.

substitution cipher

An encryption method that replaces characters with other characters.

CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol)

An encryption protocol based on AES and used with WPA2 for wireless security. It is more secure than TKIP, which was used with the original release of WPA.

buffer overflow

An error that occurs when an application receives more input, or different input, than it expects. It exposes system memory that is normally inaccessible.

threat assessment

An evaluation of potential threats. Some common types of threat assessments are environmental, manmade, internal, and external.

supply chain assessment

An evaluation of the supply chain needed to produce and sell a product. it includes raw materials and all the processes required to create and distribute a finished product.

transitive trust

An indirect trust relationship created by two or more direct trust relationships.

SoC (System on a chip)

An integrated circuit that includes a computing system within the hardware. Many mobile devices include an SoC.

intranet

An internal network. People use an intranet to communicate and share content with each other.

exit interview

An interview conducted with departing employees just before they leave an organization.

record time offset

An offset used by recorders to identify times on recoding; If you know vdmen the recording started. you can use the offset to identify the actual time at any point in the recording

Shibboleth

An open source federated identity solution.

OMIh

An open source standard used for authorization with Intemet-based single sign-on solutions.

OpenlD Connect

An open source standard used for identification on the Internet. It is typical!!! used with OAuth and it allows clients to verify the identity of end users without managing their credentials.

Crusted operating system

An operating system that is configured to meet a set of securit)' requirements. It ensures that only authorized personnel can access data based on their permissions

AH (authentication header)

An option within IPsec to provide authentication and integrity.

ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)

An option within IPsec to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication.

rogue AP

An unauthorized AP. It can be placed by an attacker or an employee who hasn't obtained permission to do so.

ALE

Annualized Loss Expectancy

ARO

Annualized Rate of Occurrence

AV

Antivirus

threat

Any circumstance or event that has the potential to compromise confidentiality, integrity, or availability. Compare with risk and vulnerability.

data-in-use

Any data currently being used by a computer. Because the computer needs to process the data, it is not encrypted while in use.

data-in-transit

Any data sent over a network. It's common to encrypt sensitive data-in-transit.

data-at-rest

Any data stored on media. It's common to encrypt sensitive data-at-rest.

embedded system

Any device that has a dedicated function and uses a computer system to perform that function. it includes a CPU, an operating system. and one or more applications.

API

Application Programming Interface

ASP

Application Service Provider

AV

Asset Value

RFID attacks

Attacks against radio-frequency identification (RFID) systems. Some common RFID attacks are eavesdropping, replay, and DoS.

ABAC

Attribute-based Access Control

ABAC

Attribute-based access control. An access control model that grants access to resources based on attributes assigned to subjects and objects.

AH

Authentication Header

AAA

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

AAA

Authentication, authorization, and accounting. A group of technologies used in remote access systems. Authentication verifies a user's identification. Authorization determines if a user should have access. Accounting tracks a user's access with logs. Sometimes called AAAs of security.

A detective security device that can find intruders

Cameras

CA

Certificate Authority

CA (certificate authority)

Certificate Authority. An organization that manages, Issues, and signs certificates. A CA is a main element of a PKI.

CRL

Certificate Revocation List

CSR

Certificate Signing Request

CRL

Certificate revocation list. A list of certificates that a CA has revoked. Certificates are commonly revoked if they are compromised, or issued to an employee who has left the organization.

CSR

Certificate signing request. A method of requesting a certificate from a CA. It starts by creating an RSA-based private/public key pair and then including the public key in the CSR.

CHAP

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

CSU

Channel Service Unit

CIO

Chief Information Officer

CSO

Chief Security Officer

CTO

Chief Technology Officer

CYOD

Choose Your Own Device

CYOD

Choose your own device. A mobile device deployment model. Employees can connect their personally owned device to the network as long as the device is on a preapproved list. Compare with BYOD and COPE.

CBC

Cipher Block Chaining

CFB

Cipher Feedback

CCTV

Closed-circuit Television

CASB

Cloud Access Security Broker

CSP

Cloud Service Provider

cloud deployment models

Cloud model types that identify who has access to cloud resources. Public clouds are for any organization. Private clouds are for a single organization. Community clouds are shared among community organizations. A hybrid cloud is a combination of two or more clouds.

compiled code

Code that has been optimized by an application and converted into an executable file. Compare with runtime code.

runtime code

Code that is interpreted when it is executed. Compare with compiled code.

dead code

Code that is never executed or used. It is often caused by logic errors.

CAC

Common Access Card

256-bit keys

Compare with Blowfish.

CAPTCHA

Completely Automated Public Turing

CERT

Computer Emergency Response Team

CIRT

Computer Incident Response Team

CSIRT

Computer Security Incident Response Team

DES

Digital Encryption Standard

DFIR

Digital Forensics and Investigation Response

DSA

Digital Signature Algorithm

DSL

Digital Subscriber Line

DSA

Digital signature algorithm. An encrypted hash of a message used for authentication, now repudiation, and integrity. The sender's private key encrypts the hash of the message.

DRP

Disaster Recovery Plan

DAC

Discretionary Access Control

DAC

Discretionary access control. An access control model where all objects have owners and owners can modify permissions for the objects (files and folders). Microsoft NTFS uses the DAC model.

DER

Distinguished Encoding Rules

DER

Distinguished Encoding Rules. A base format for PKI certificates. They are BASE" ASCII encoded tiles Compare with CER.

DDoS

Distributed Denial of Service

DDoS

Distributed denial-of-service. An attack on a system launched from multiple sources intended to make a computer's resources or services unavailable to users. 0005 attacks typically include sustained, abnormally high network traffic. Compare with 005.

DNS

Domain Name Service (Server)

DNSSEC

Domain Name System Security Extensions. A suite of extensions to DNS used to protect the integrity of DNS records and prevmt some DNS attacks.

DNS

Domain Name System. A service used to resolve msi names to IP addresses. DNS zones include records sue has ArecoMsforva-taddressesandAAAArecordsforthéaddresses .

Maliciously taking over somebody else's domain

Domain hijacking

Code analysis that follows the code as it is executed

Dynamic Code Analysis

DHCP

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

DLL

Dynamic Link Library

HA

High Availability

"Fake" server meant to draw attackers in

Honeypot

HIDS

Host-based Intrusion Detection System

XOR

Exclusive Or

EF

Exposure Factor

EAP

Extensible Authentication Protocol

EAP-TLS

Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security. An extension of EAP sometimes used with 802.1II. 11155 is one of the most secure EAP standards and is widely implemented. it requires certificates on the 802.1): sewer and on the clients.

HIPS

Host-based Intrusion Prevention System

HlDS

Host-based intrusion detection system. Software installed on a system to detect attacks. it protects local resources on the host. A host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an extension of a HIDS. It is software installed on a system to detect and block attacks.

HTML

Hypertext Markup Language

HTTP

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

HTTPS

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. A protocol used to encrypt HTTP trafhc. HTTPS encrypts traffic with TLS using TCP port 443.

HTTPS

Hypertext Transfer Protocol over SSL/TLS

EAP

Extensible Authentication Protocol. An authentication framework that provides general guidance for authentication methods. Variations include PEAP, EAP-TLS, EAP-'ITLS, and EAP-FAST.

XML

Extensible Markup Language

FAR

FALSE Acceptance Rate

FRR

FALSE Rejection Rate

FRR

False rejection rate. Also called the false nonmatch rate. A rate that identifies the percentage of times a biometric authentication system incorrectly rejects a valid match.

FACL

File System Access Control List

FTP

File Transfer Protocol

FTPS

File Transfer Protocol Secure. An extension of FTP that uses TLS to encrypt FTP traffic. Some implementations of FTPS use TCP ports 989 and 990.

Type of proxy that inspects outbound data

Forward Proxy

FDE

Full Disk Encryption

GCM

Galois Counter Mode

GCM

Galois/Counter Mode. A mode of operation used for encryption. It combines the Counter (CTM) mode with hashing techniques for data authenticity and confidentiality.

GRE

Generic Routing Encapsulation

GPS

Global Positioning System

GPS

Global Positioning System. A satellite-based navigation system that identifies the location of a device or vehicle. Mobile devices often incorporate GPS capabilities.

GPG

Gnu Privacy Guard

GPU

Graphic Processing Unit

GPO

Group Policy Object

GPO

Group Policy Object. A technology used within Microsoft Windows to manage users and computers. It is implemented on a domain controller within a domain.

HOTP

HMAC-based One-Time Password

HOTP

HMAC-based One-Time Password. An open standard used for creating one-time passwords. It combines a secret key and a counter, and then uses HMAC to create a hash of the result.

A plug-in card that handles hardware encryption

HSM

HDD

Hard Disk Drive

HSM

Hardware Security Module

load balancer

Hardware or software that balances the load between two or more servers. Scheduling methods include source address IP affinity and round-robin.

HSM

Hardware security module. A removable or external device that can generate, store, and manage RSA keys used in asymmetric encryption. Compare with TPM.

HMAC

Hash-based Message Authentication Code. A hashing algorithm used to verify integrity and authenticity of a message with the use of a shared secret. It is typically combined with another hashing algorithm such as SHA.

HMAC

Hashed Message Authentication Code

A way to prove that data has gone unchanged over time

Hashing

ust

HdedsmdsdeedimbgymbapandmeUSDeparmnmof Wadiiddsmkmkdwogylabaataymmmmm ptbicahonsrelamdmseatitythatatefmeiyavaiabletoanyone.

HVAC

Heating, Ventilation and Air Conditioning

HVAC

Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning. A physical security control that increases availability by regulating airflow within data centers and server rooms.

Name of a layer 3 address

IP address

ITCP

IT Contingency Plan

ID

Identification

IdP

Identity Provider

IoT

Internet of Things

IDS

Intrusion Detection System

AAA server that utilizes tickets for authentication

Kerberos

KDC

Key Distribution Center

KDC

Key Distribution Center. Also known as a TGT server. Part of the Kerberos protocol used for network authentication. The KDC issues timestamped tickets that expire.

KEK

Key Encryption Key

Key that is meant to be exchanged

Key that is meant to be exchanged

L2TP

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

LDAPS

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure. A protocol used to encrypt LDAP traffic with TLS.

LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol. A protocol used to communicate with directories such as Microsoft Active Directory. It identifies objects with query strings using codes such as CN=Users and DC=GetCertifiedGetAhead.

LEAP

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol

ACLs (access control lists)

Lists of rules used by routers and stateless firewalls. These devices use the ACL to control traffic based on networks, subnets, IP addresses, ports, and some protocols.

LAN

Local Area Network

MDS

Message Digest 5. A hashing function used to provide integrity. MDS creates 128-bit hashes, which are also referred to as MDS checksums. Experts consider MDS cracked.

MOTD

Message of the Day

risk response techniques

Methods used to manage risks. Common risk response techniques are accept, transfer, avoid, and mitigate.

MAN

Metropolitan Area Network

MSCHAP

Microsoft Challenge Handshake

MS-CHAPvz

Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2. Microsoft implementation of CHAP. MS-CHAPv2 provides mutual authentication. Compare with CHAP and PAP.

MDM

Mobile Device Management

custom firmware

Mobile device firmware other than the firmware provided with the device. People sometimes use custom firmware to root Android devices.

MaaS

Monitoring as a Service

taps

Monitoring ports on a network device. |DSs use taps to capture traffic.

MFA

Multi-Factor Authentication

MFD

Multi-function Device

MFDs

Multi-function devices. Any device that performs multiple functions. As an example. many printers are MFDs because they can print, scan, and copy documents. Many also include faxing capabilities.

MPLS

Multi-protocol Label Switching

MMS

Multimedia Message Service

MMS

Multimedia Messaging Service. A method used to send text messages. It is an extension of SMS and supports sending multimedia content.

MIME

Multipurpose Internet Mail Exchange

Anything that controls access to a network

NAC

Short distance wireless communication protocol that is used in purchases

NFC

Device that can only detect network attacks

NIDS

Device that can detect and prevent network attacks

NIPS

NIST

National Institute of Standards & Technology

NFC

Near Field Communication

You

Nerd

NAC

Network Access Control

NAT

Network Address Translation

NAT

Network Address Translation. A service that translates public IP addresses to private IP addresses and private IP addresses to public IP addresses.

NTP

Network Time Protocol

NAC

Network access control. A system that inspects clients to ensure they are healthy. Agents inspect clients and agents can be permanent or dissolvable (also known as agentless).

NIDS

Network-based Intrusion Detection System

NIPS

Network-based Intrusion Prevention System

NIDS

Network-based intrusion detection system. A device that detects attacks and raises alerts. A NIDS is installed on network devices, such as routers or Firewalls, and monitors network traffic.

NIPS

Network-based intrusion prevention system. A device that detects and stops attacks in progress. A NIPS is placed inline (also called in-band) with traffic so that it can actively monitor data

NTFS

New Technology File System

NTLM

New Technology LAN Manager

NGAC

Next Generation Access Control

NDA

Non-disclosure Agreement

NDA

Non-disclosure agreement. An agreement that is designed to prohibit personnel from sharing proprietary data. It can be used with employees within the organization and with other organizations.

OID

Object Identifier

pivot

One of the steps in penetration testing. After escalating privileges, the tester uses additionai tools to gain additional information on the exploited computer or on the network.

integrity

One of the three main goals of information security known as the CIA security triad, Integrity provides assurance that data or system configurations have not been modified. Audit legs and hashing are two methods used to ensure Integrity. Compare with availability and confidentiality.

availability

One of the three main goals of information security known as the CIA security triad. Availability ensures that systems and data are up and operational when needed. Compare with confidentiality and integrity.

confidentiality

One of the three main goals of information security known as the CIA security triad. Confidentiality ensures that unauthorized entities cannot access data. Encryption and access controls help protect against the loss of confidentiality. Compare with availability and integrity.

PFS

Perfect Forward Secrecy

PED

Personal Electronic Device

PFX

Personal Exchange Format

PHI

Personal Health Information

PHl

Personal Health Information. P" that includes health information.

PIV

Personal Identity Verification

PFx

Personal Information Exchange. A common format for PKI certificates. It is the predecesso: to P12 certificates.

PII

Personally Identifiable Information

Pti

Personally identifiable Information. Information about individuals that can be used to trace a person's identity, such as a full name, birth date, biometric data, and more.

Most secure way to separate a server from a network

Physical Isolation/ Air gapping

POTS

Plain Old Telephone Service

PaaS

Platform as a Service

PaaS

Platform as a Service. A cloud computing model that provides cloud customers with a preconfigured computing platform they can use as needed. Compare with 1005 and SaaS.

PAM

Pluggable Authentication Modules

PPP

Point-to-Point Protocol

PPTP

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

location-based policies

Policies that prevent users from logging on from certain locations, or require that they log on only from specific locations.

PAT

Port Address Translation

POP

Post Office Protocol

POP3

Post Office Protocol version 3. A protocol used to transfer email from mail servers to clients.

PSK

Pre-shared Key

PSK

Pre-shared key. A wireless mode that uses a pre-shared key (similar to a password or passphrase) for security. Compare with Enterprise and Open modes.

PGP

Pretty Good Privacy

PEM

Privacy Enhanced Mail. A common format for PKI certificates. It can use either CER (ASCII) 0t DER (binary) formats and can be used for almost any type of certificates.

PEM

Privacy-enhanced Electronic Mail

PBX

Private Branch Exchange

Key that is meant to be kept secret.

Private Key

PEAP

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol

PEAP

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol. An extension of EAP sometimes used with 802.1 x. PEAP requires a certificate on the 802.1x server.

Authentication

Protocol

PAC

Proxy Auto Configuration

PKI

Public Key Infrastructure

RIPEMD

RACE Integrity Primitives

RlPEMD

RACE Integrity Primitives Evaluation Message Digest. A hash function used for integrity. it creates fixed-length hashes of 128, 160, 256. or 320 bits.

Open standard form of AAA server

RADIUS

RFID

Radio Frequency Identifier

RAD

Rapid Application Development

RSTP

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol. An improvement of ST? to prevent switching loop problems.

RTOS

ReaI-time operating system. An operating system that reacts to input within a specific time. Many embedded systems include an RTOS.

RTOS

Real-time Operating System

RTP

Real-time Transport Protocol

RA

Recovery Agent

RPO

Recovery Point Objective

RTO

Recovery Time Objective

RPO

Recovery point objective. A term that refers to the amount of data you can afford to lose by identifying a point in time where data loss is acceptable. it is often identified in a BIA.

RTO

Recovery time objective. The maximum amount of time it should take to restore a system after an outage. It is derived from the maximum allowable outage time identified in the BIA.

RAID

Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks

RAlD

Redundant array of inexpensive disk: Multiple disks added together to increase or provide protection against faults. Common types include RAtD-t. RAID-S. RAID-6, and RAID-m

RA

Registration Authority

RAS

Remote Access Server

RAT

Remote Access Trojan

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service. An authentication service that provides central authentication for remote access clients. Alternatives are TACACS+ and Diameter.

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Server

RDP

Remote Desktop Protocol

RAT

Remote access Trojan. Malware that allows an attacker to take control of a system from a remote tocation.

RTBH

Remotely Triggered Black Hole

REST

Representational State Transfer

ROI

Return on Investment

Type of proxy that inspects inbound data

Reverse Proxy

RMF

Risk Management Framework

Cryptography Basics *What is the process of deriving an encrypted value from a mathematical process called?* a. Hashing b. Asymmetric c. Symmetric d. Social engineering

a. *Hashing* Hashing algorithms are used to derive an encrypted value from a message or word.

SATCOM

Satellite communications. A communication system that allows devices to connect to a satellite for communications. Many cars include satellite communication capabilities.

worm

SeIf-replicating malware that travels through a network. Worms do not need user interaction to execute.

SCP

Secure Copy

SFTP

Secure File Transfer Protocol. An extension of Secure Shell (SSH) used to encrypt FTP traffic SFT P transmits data using TCP port 22.

SHA

Secure Hash Algorithm. A hashing function used to provide integrity.Versions indude SHA-I, SHA-Z, and SHA-3.

SHA

Secure Hashing Algorithm

SHTTP

Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol

SRTP

Secure Real-Time Protocol

SRTP

Secure Real-time Transport Protocol. A protocol used to encrypt and provide authentication for Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) traffic. RTP is used for audio/video streaming.

SSH

Secure Shell

SSH

Secure Shell. A protocol used to encrypt network traffic. SSH encrypts a wide variety of tramc such as SFTP. SSH uses TCP port 22.

SSL

Secure Sockets Layer

SSL

Secure Sockets Layer. The predecessor to TLS. SSL is used to encrypt data-in-transit with the use of certificates.

S/MIME

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

S/MlME

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions. A popular standard used to secure email. SI MIME provides confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.

FTPS

Secured File Transfer Protocol

SFTP

Secured File Transfer Protocol

SAML

Security Assertions Markup Language

SCAP

Security Content Automation Protocol

SIEM

Security Information and Event Management

technical controIs

Security controls implemented through technology.

administrative controls

Security controls implemented via administrative or management methods.

compensating controIs

Security controls that are alternative controls used when a primary security control is not feasible.

detective controls

Security controls that attempt to detect security incidents after they have occurred.

deterrent controIs

Security controls that attempt to discourage individuals from causing a security Incident.

preventive controls

Security controls that attempt to prevent a security incident from occurring.

corrective controls

Security controls that attempt to reverse the impact of a security incident.

SIEM

Security information and event management. A security system that attempts to look at security events throughout the organization.

SED

Seif-encrypting drive. A drive that includes the hardware and software necessary to encrypt a hard drive. Users typically enter credentiais to decrypt and use the drive.

SED

Self-encrypting Drive

SPF

Sender Policy Framework

Physical device that can detect a change in an environment

Sensor

SDN

Software Defined Network

SDK

Software Development Kit

SDLC

Software Development Life Cycle

SDLM

Software Development Life Cycle Methodology

SaaS

Software as a Service

SaaS

Software as a Service. A cloud computing model that provides appiications overthe intemet Webmail is an example of a cloud-based technology. Compare with IaaS and P005.

SDN

Software defined network. A method of using software and virtualization technologies to replace hardware routers. SDNs separate the data and control planes.

spyware

Software installed on users' systems without their awareness or consent its purpose is often to monitor the user's computer and the user's activity.

keylogger

Software or hardware used to capture a user's keystrokes. Keystrokes are stored in a file and can be manually retrieved or automatically sent to an attacker.

bots

Software robots that function automatically. A botnet is a group of computers that are joined together. Attackers often use malware to join computers to a botnet, and then use the botnet to launch attacks.

home automation

Smart devices used within the home that have IP addresses. These are typically accessible via the Internet and are part of the Internet of things (loT).

antivirus

Software that protects systems from malware. Although it is called antivirus software, it protects against most malware, including viruses, Trojans, worms, and more.

SSD

Solid State Drive

SPIM

Spam over Internet Messaging

STP

Spanning Tree Protocol. A protocol enabled on most switches that protects against switching loops. A switching loop can be caused if two ports of a switch are connected.

Social engineering attack that steals company data

Spear Phishing

Malware that steals information

Spyware

ARO (annualized rate of occurrence)

The number of times a loss is expected to occur in a year. It is used to measure risk with ALE and SLE in a quantitative risk assessment.

extranet

The part of an internal network shared with outside entities. Extranets are often used to provide access to authorized business partners, customers, vendors, or others.

incident response process

The phases of incident response, including preparation. identification. containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.

continuity of operations planning

The planning process that identifies an alternate location for operations after a critical outage. It can include a hot site, cold site, or warm site.

crossover error rate

The point where the false acceptance rate (FAR) crosses over with the false rejection rate (FRR). A lower CER indicates a more accurate biometric system.

steganography

The practice of hiding data within data. For example, it's possible to embed text mes within an image, hiding them from casual users. It is one way to obscure data to hide it.

risk management

The practice of identifying, monitoring, and limiting risks to a manageable level. It includes risk response techniques, qualitative risk assessments, and quantitative risk assessments.

vendor diversity

The practice of implementing security controls from different vendors to increase security. Compare with control diversity.

shoulder surfing

The practice of looking over someone's shoulder to obtain infatmation, such as on a computer screen. A screen filter placed over a monitor helps reduce the success of shoulder surfing.

dumpster diving

The practice of searching through trash looking to gain information from discarded documents. Shredding or burning papers helps prevent the success of dumpster diving.

phishing

The practice of sending email to users with the purpose of tricking them into revealing personal information or clicking on a link.

social engineering

The practice of using social tactics to gain informatbn. Social engineers attempt to gain information from peOple, or get people to do things they wouidn't natmaiiy do.

likelihood of occurrence

The probability that something will occur. It is used with impact in a qualitative risk assessment. Compare with impact.

incident response plan (lRP)

The procedures documented in an incident response policy.

redundancy

The process of adding duplication to critical system components and networks to provide fault tolerance.

stapling

The process of appending a digitally signed OCSP response to a certificate. It reduces the overall OCSP traffic sent to a CA.

code signing

The process of assigning a certificate to code. The certificate includes a digital signature and validates the code.

wiping

The process of completely removing all remnants of data on a disk. A bit-levei overwrite writes patterns of is and Os multiple times to ensure data on a disk is unreadable.

sideloading

The process of copying an application package to a mobile device. It is useful for developers when testing apps, but can be risky if users sideload unauthorized apps to their device.

sanitize

The process of destroying or removing all sensitive data from systems and devices. Data sanitization methods include burning, shredding, pulping, pulverizing, degaussing, purging, and wiping.

labeling

The process of ensuring data is tagged clearly so that users know its classification. Labels can be physical labels, such as on backup tapes, or digital labels embedded in files.

privilege escalation

The process of gaining elevated rights and permissions. Malware typically uses a variety of techniques to gain elevated privileges.

authorization

The process of granting access to resources for users who prove their identity (such as with a username and password) based on their proven identity.

rooting

The process of modifying an Android device, giving the user root-ievei, or administrator, access. Compare with jailbreaking.

jailbreaking

The process of modifying an Apple mobile device to remove software restrictions. It allows a user to install software from any third-party source. Compare with rooting.

risk mitigation

The process of reducing risk by implementing controls. Security controis reduce risk by reducing vulnerabilities associated with a risk, or by reducing the impact of a threat.

degaussing

The process of removing data from magnetic media using a very powerful demonic magnet. Degaussing is sometimes used to remove data from backup tapes or to destroy hard disks.

Incident response

The process of responding to a security incident. Organizations often create an incident response plan that outlines the procedures to be used when responding to an incident.

remote wipe

The process of sending a signal to a remote device to erase all data. It is useful when a mobile device is lost or stolen.

tethering

The process of sharing an Internet connection from one mobile device to another.

accounting

The process of tracking the activity of users and recording this activity in logs. One method of accounting is audit logs that create an audit trail.

carrier unlocking

The process of unlocking a mobile phone from a specific cellular provider.

identification

The process that occurs when a user claims an identity, such as with a username.

authentication

The process that occurs when a user proves an identity, such as with a password.

patch management

The process used to keep systems up to date with current patches. It typically includes evaluating and testing patches before deploying them.

change management

The process used to prevent unauthorized changes. Unauthorized changes often result in unintended outages.

onboarding

The ptocess of granting individuals access to an organization's computing resources after being hired. It typically includes giving the employee a user account with approptiate permissions.

typo squatting

The purchase of a domain name that is close to a legitimate domain name. Attackers often try to trick users who inadvertently use the wrong domain name. Also called URL hijacking.

URL hijacking

The purchase of a domain name that is close to a legitimate domain name. Attackers often try to trick users who inadvertently use the wrong domain name. Also called typo squatting.

TSIG

Transaction Signature

TCP/IP

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

TLS

Transport Layer Security

TLS

Transport Layer Security. The replacement for SSL. TLS is used to encrypt data-in-transit. Like SSL, it uses certificates issued by CA5.

3DES

Triple Digital Encryption Standard

3DES

Triple Digital Encryption Standard. A symmetric algorithm used to encrypt data and provide confidentiality. It is a block cipher that encrypts data in 64-bit blocks.

A device used to handle large amounts of VPN connections

VPN Concentrator

VLSM

Variable Length Subnet Masking

VTC

Video Teleconferencing

VDE

Virtual Desktop Environment

VDI

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

VLAN

Virtual Local Area Network

VM

Virtual Machine

VPN

Virtual Private Network

VLAN

Virtual local area network. A method of segmenting traffic. A VLAN logically groups several different computers together without regard to their physical location.

VPN

Vlrtual private network. A method that provides access to a private network over a public network such as the Internet. VPN concentrators are dedicated devices used to provide VPN access to large groups of users.

VoIP

Voice over IP

WAF

Web Application Firewall

Social engineering attack that steals data from a CEO

Whaling

Operating System and Application Security *The flexibility of relational databases in use today is a result of which of the following?* a. SQL b. Hard-coded queries c. Forward projection d. Mixed model access

a. *SQL* SQL is a powerful database access language used by most relational database systems.

*Networks are usually segmented by using _______________ to divide the network into a hierarchy.* a. hubs b. routers c. switches d. proxies

c. *switches* Networks are usually segmented by using switches to divide the network into a hierarchy.

*The term risk _______________ refers to the act of shifting risk to a third party.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. transference d. avoidance

c. *transference* Risk transference is the act of transferring the risk to a third party.

Protecting Networks *Which IDS system uses algorithms to analyze the traffic passing through the network?* a. Arithmetical b. Algebraic c. Statistical d. Heuristic

d. *Heuristic* A heuristic system uses algorithms to analyze the traffic passing through the network.

lPsec

lntemet Protocol secu rity. A suite of protocols used to encrypt data-in-transit that can operate in both TunneI mode and Transport mode. It uses Tunnel mode for VPN traffic and Transport mode in private networks.

IoT

lntemet of things. The network of physical devices connected to the Internet. It typicaliy refers to smart devices with an IP address, such as wearable technology and home automation systems.

lMAP4

lnternet Message Access Protocol version 4. A protocol used to store and manage email on servers. IMAP4 uses TCP port 143. Secure IMAP4 uses TLS to encrypt IMAP4 traffic.

SIP

5060/ 5061

DNS - Zone Transfers

53 TCP

DNS - Queries

53 UDP

Port number of LDAPS

636

DHCP

67, 68

TFTP

69 UDP

HTTP

80 TCP

FTPS

990

IMAPS

993

Port number of Secure IMAP

993

POP3S (Encrypted)

995

Port number of Secure POP

995

jamming

A DoS attack against wireless networks. It transmits noise on the same frequency used by a wireless network.

chroot

A Linux command used to change the root directory. It is often used for sandboxing.

permanent agent

A NAC agent that is installed on a client. It checks the client for health. Compare with dissolvable agent.

dissolvable agent

A NAC agent that runs on a client, but deletes itself later. It checks the client for health. Compare with permanent agent.

root certificate

A PKI certificate identifying a root CA.

CER (Canonical Encoding Rules)

A base format for PKI certificates They are binary encoded files. Compare with DER.

voice recognition

A biometric method that identifies who is speaking using speech recognition methods to identify different acoustic features.

facial recognition

A biometric method that identihes people based on facial features.

wildcard certificate

A certificate that can be used for multiple domains with the same root domain. It starts with an asterisk.

perfect forward secrecy

A characteristic of encryption keys ensuring that keys are random. Perfect forward secrecy methods do not use deterministic algorithms.

web application firewall

(WAFi-A firewall specifically designed to protect a web application. such as a web server. A WAF inspects the contents of traffic to a web server and can detect malicious content, such as code used in a cross-scripting attack, and block it

FTP

20, 21 TCP

Port number of SFTP

22

Port number of SSH

22

SCP

22 TCP

SSH

22 TCP

Secure FTP

22 TCP

Telnet

23 TCP

SMTP (outgoing mail)

25 TCP

RDP

3389 TCP

Port number of SSL/TLS

443

SSTP

443

HTTPS

443 TCP

HTTPS (SSL/TLS)

443 TCP

SMB

445

SMTPS

465, 587

TACACS/TACACS+

49 TCP

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which agreement outlines performance requirements for a vendor?* a. MTBF b. MTTR c. SLA d. BCP

c. *SLA* A service-level agreement (SLA) specifies performance requirements for a vendor. This agreement may use MTBF and MTTR as performance measures in the SLA.

*Which of the following allows the deployment of a publicly accessible web server without compromising the security of the private network?* a. Intranet b. DMZ c. Extranet d. Switch

*DMZ* A DMZ provides a network segment where publicly accessible servers can be deployed without compromising the security of the private network.

*A network-based IDS is not suitable for detecting or protecting against which of the following?* a. Email spoofing b. Denial-of-service attacks c. Attacks against the network d. Attacks against an environment that produces significant traffic

*Email spoofing* Network-based IDSs aren't suitable for protecting against email spoofing.

race condition

--A programming flaw that occurs when two sets of code attempt to access the same resource. The first one to access the resource wins, which can result in inconsistent results.

seParation of duties

--A security principle that prevents any single person or entity from controlling all the functions of a critical or sensitive process. It's designed to prevent fraud, theft, and errors.

MTTR

--Mean time to recover. A metric that identifies the average time it takes to restore a failed system. Organizations that have maintenance contracts often specify the MTTR as a part of the contract. .

EAP-TTLS

-Extensible Authentication Hotocol-Tunneled Transport Layer Security. An extension of EA? sometimes used with 802.1x. it auows systems to use some older authentication methods such as PAP within a 11.5 tunnel. It requires a certificate on the 802.1): server but not on the clients.

ruIe-BAC

-Rule-based access control. An access control model that uses rules to define access. Rulebased access control is based on a set of approved instructions, such as an access control list, or rules that trigger in response to an event, such as modifying ACLs after detecting an attack.

TACACS+

-Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus. An authentication service that provides central authentication for remote access clients. It can be used as an alternative to RADIUS.

risk

-The possibility or likelihood of a threat exploiting a vulnerability resulting in a loss. Comp"? with threatand vulnerability.

POP3

110 TCP

POP3 (Unencrypted)

110 TCP

NTP

123 UDP

IMAP

143 TCP

Port number of SNMP

161

SNMP

161 UDP

L2TP (Thru UDP)

1701

PPTP

1723

RADIUS

1812, 1813 UDP

bcrypt

A key stretching algorithm. It is used to protect passwords. Bcrypt salts passwords with additional bits before encrypting them with Blowfish. This thwarts rainbow table attacks.

hardware root of trust

A known secure starting point. TPMs have a private key burned into the hardware that provides a hardware root of trust.

XML (Extensible Markup Language)

A language used by many databases for inputting or exporting data. XML uses formatting rules to describe the data.

application whitelist

A list of applications that a system allows. Users are only able to install or run applications on the list.

application blacklist

A list of applications that a system blocks. Users are unable to install or run any applications on the list.

XOR

A logical operation used in some encryption schemes. XOR operations compare two inputs. If the two inputs are the same, it outputs True. If the two inputs are different, it outputs False.

hoax

A message, often circulated th rough email, that tells of impending doom from a virus or other security threat that simply doesn't exist.

hot and cold aisles

A method commonly used in data centers to keep equipment cool. Cool air flows from the front of the cabinets to the back, making the front aisle cooler and the back aisie warmer.

spam filter

A method of blocking unwanted email. By blocking email, it often blocks maiware.

shredding

A method of destroying data or sanitizing media. Cross-cut paper shreddets cut papers into fme particles. File shredders remove all remnants of a file by overwriting the contents multiple times.

open-source intelligence

A method of gathering data using public sources, such as social media sites and news outlets.

loop prevention

A method of preventing switching loop or bridge loop problems. Both 51? and RSTP prevent switching loops.

penetration testing

A method of testing targeted systems to determine if vulnerabilities can be exploited. Penetration tests are intrusive. Compare with vulnerability scanner.

flood guard

A method of thwarting flood attacks. On switches, a flood guard thwarts MAC flood attacks. On routers, a flood guard prevents SYN flood attacks.

version controI

A method of tracking changes to software as it is updated.

FDE (full disk encryption)

A method to encrypt an entire disk. Compare with SED.

antispoofing

A method used on some routers to protect against spoofing attacks. A common implementation is to implement specific ru|es to block certain traffic.

banner grabbing

A method used to gain information about a remote system. It identifies the operating system and other details on the remote system.

containerization

A method used to isolate applications in mobile devices. It isolates and protects the application, including any data used by the application.

storage segmentation

A method used to isolate data on mobile devices. It allows personal data to be stored in one location and encrypted corporate data to be stored elsewhere.

use case

A methodology used in system analysis and software engineering to identify and clarify requirements to achieve a goal. For example, a use case of supporting confidentiality can help an organization identify the steps required to protect the confidentiality of data.

CBC (cipher block chaining)

A mode of operation used for encryption that effectively converts a block cipher into a stream cipher. It uses an IV for the first block and each subsequent block is combined with the previous block.

port mirror

A monitoring port on a switch. All traffic going through the switch is also sent to the port mirror.

Kerberos

A network authentication mechanism used with Windows Active Directory domains and some Unix environments known as realms. It uses a KDC to issue tickets.

router

A network device that connects multiple network segments together into a single network They route traffic based on the destination IP address and do not pass broadcast traffic. Routers use ACLs.

switch

A network device used to connect devices. Layer 2 switches send traffic to ports based on their MAC addresses. Layer 3 switches send traffic to ports based on their IP addresses and support VLANs.

bridge

A network device used to connect multiple networks together. It can be used instead of a router in some situations.

wireless scanners

A network scanner that scans wireless frequency bands. Scanners can help discover rogue APs and crack passwords used by wireless APs.

hash

A number created by executing a hashing algorithm against data, such as a file or message. Hashing is commonly used for integrity. Common hashing algorithms are MDS, SHA-i, and HMAC

data execution prevention (DEP)

A security feature that prevents code from executing in memory regions marked as nonexecutable. It helps block malware.

false negative

A security incident that isn't detected or reported. As an example, a NIDS false negative occurs if an attack is active on the network but the NIDS does not raise an alert.

pinning

A security mechanism used by some web sites to prevent web site impersonation. Web sites provide clients with a list of public key hashes. Clients store the list and use it to validate the web site.

clean desk policy

A security policy requiring employees to keep their areas organized and free of papers. The goal is to reduce threats of security incidents by protecting sensitive data.

data retention policy

A security policy specifying how long data should be kept (retained).

least privilege

A security principle that specifies that individuals and processes are granted only the rights and permissions needed to perform assigned tasks or functions. but no more.

Proxy/proxies

A server (or servers) used to forward requests for services such as HTT P air HTTPS: A forward proxy server forwards requests from internal clients to externai servers. A reverse proxy accepts requests from the Internet and forwards them to an internal web server. A transparent proxy does not modify requests, but nontransparent proxies include URL hiters. An application proxy is used for a specific application, but most proxy servers are used for multiple protocois.

honeypot

A server designed to attract an attacker. It typically has weakened security encouraging attackers to investigate it.

mail gatewayi

A server that examines and processes all incoming and outgoing email. It typically includes a spam filter and DLP capabilities. Some gateways also provide encryption services.

crypto moduIe

A set of hardware, software, and/or firmware that implements cryptographic functions. Compare with crypto service provider.

EMP (Electromagnetic Pulse)

A short burst of energy that can potentially damage electronic equipment. It can result from electrostatic discharge (ESD), lightning, and military weapons.

tailgating

A social engineering attack where one person follows behind another person withoUt using credentials. Mantraps help prevent tailgating.

agile

A software development life cycle model that focuses on interaction between customers, developers, and testers. Compare with waterfall.

waterfaII

A software development life cycle model using a top-down approach. It uses multiple stages with each stage starting after the previous stage is complete. Compare with agile.

secure DevOps

A software development process using an agile-aligned methodology. it considers security through the lifetime of the project.

crypto service provider

A software library of cryptographic standards and algorithms. These libraries are typically distributed within crypto modules.

firewalI

A software or a network device used to filter traffic. Firewalls can be application-based (running on a host), or a network-based device. Stateful firewalls filter traffic using rules within an ACL. Stateless firewalls filter traffic based on its state within a session.

cloud access security broker (CASB)

A software tool or service that enforces cloud-based security requirements. It is placed between the organization's resources and the cloud, monitors all network traffic, and can enforce security policies.

PIV (Personal Identity Verification) card

A specialized type of smart card used by US. federal agencies. It includes photo identification and provides confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.

CAC (Common Access Card)

A specialized type of smart card used by the US. Department of Defense. It includes photo identification and provides confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.

Wi-Fi Direct

A standard that allows devices to connect without a wireless access point.

Strongest Symmetric Encryption Algorithm

AES

time-of-day restrictions

An account restriction that prevents users from logging on at certain times.

service account

An account used by a setvke or application.

privileged account

An account with elevated privileges, such as an administrator account.

security incident

An adverse event or series of events that can negatively affect the confidentiality. integrity, or availability of an organization's information technology (IT) systems and data.

false positive

An alert on an event that isn't a security incident. As an example, a NIDS false positive occurs if the NIDS raises an alert but activity on the network is normal.

recovery site

An alternate location for business functions after a major disaster.

cold site

An alternate location for operations. A cold site will have power and connectivity needed for activation, but little else. Compare with hot site and warm site.

warm site

An alternate location for operations. A compromise between an expensive hot site and a cold site. Compare with cold site and hot site.

hot site

An alternate location for operations. A hot site typically includes everything needed to be operational within 60 minutes. Compare with cold site and warm site.

backdoor

An alternate method of accessing a system. Malware often adds a backdoor into a system after it infects it.

third-party app store

An app store other than the primary source for mobile device apps. it refers to an app store other than the App Store or Google Play for Apple and Android devices, respectively.

integer overflow

An application attack that attempts to use or create a numeric value that is too big for an application to handle. Input handling and error handling thwart the attack.

memory leak

An application flaw that consumes memory without releasing it.

privacy threshold assessment

An assessment used to help identify if a system is processing Pu. Compare with privacy impact assessment.

privacy impact assessment

An assessment used to identify and reduce risks related to potential loss of PH. Compa re with privacy threshold assessment.

Diffie-Hellman

An asymmetric algorithm used to privately share symmetric keys. DH Ephemeral (DHE) uses ephemeral keys, which are re-created for each session. Elliptic Curve DHE (ECDHE) uses elliptic cuwe cryptography to generate encryption keys.

bluesnarfing

An attack against Bluetooth devices. Attackers gain unauthorized access to Bluetooth devices and can access all the data on the device.

bluejacking

An attack against Bluetooth devices. It is the practice of sending unsolicited messages to nearby Bluetooth devices.

WPS attack

An attack against an AP. A WPS attack discovers the eight-digit WPS PIN and uses it to discover the AP passphrase.

NFC attack

An attack against mobile devices that use near field communication (NFC). NFC is a group of standards that allow mobile devices to communicate with nearby mobile devices.

watering hole attack

An attack method that infects web sites that a group is likely to trust and visit.

VM escape

An attack that allows an attacker to access the host system from within a virtual machine. The primary protection is to keep hosts and guests up to date with current patches.

session hijacking

An attack that attempts to impersonate a user by capturing and using a session ID. Session IDs are stored in cookies.

Domain Hijacking

An attack that changes the registration of a domain name without permission from the owner.

IP spoofing

An attack that changes the source IP address. iris scanners-Biometric systems that scan the iris of an eye for authentication.

MAC spoofing

An attack that changes the source MAC address.

amplification attack

An attack that increases the amount of bandwidth sent to a victim.

man-in-the-browser

An attack that infects vulnerable web browsers. It can allow the attacker to capture browser session data, including keystrokes.

DLL injection

An attack that injects a Dynamic Link Library (DLL) into memory and runs It. Attackets write the DLL inserting malicious code.

injection attack

An attack that injects code or commands. Common injection attacks are DLL injection, command injection, and SQL injection attacks.

ARP poisoning

An attack that misleads systems about the actual MAC address of a system.

DNS poisoning

An attack that modifies or corrupts DNS results. DNSSEC helps prevent DNS poisoning.

disassociation attack

An attack that removes wireless clients from a wireless network.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which audits help ensure that procedures and communications methods are working properly in the event of a problem or issue?* a. Communication b. Escalation c. Selection d. Preference

B. *Escalation* Escalation audits help ensure that procedures and communications methods are working properly in the event of a problem or issue.

The MAC address of a WAP

BSSID

MDM where employees supply and use their own devices

BYOB

BIOS

Basic Input/Output System

BIOS

Basic Input/Output System. A computer's firmware used to manipulate different settings such as the date and time, boot drive, and access password. UEFI is the designated replacement for BIOS.

fingerprint scanners

Biometric systems that scan fingerprints for authentication.

retina scanners

Biometric systems that scan the retina of an eye for authentication.

Infected computer controlled by an attacker

Bot/ Zombie/ Drone

BPDU

Bridge Protocol Data Unit

BYOD

Bring Your Own Device

BYOD

Bring your own device. A mobile device deployment model. Employees can connect their personally owned device to the network. Compare with COPE and CYOD.

BAC

Business Availability Center

BCP

Business Continuity Planning

BIA

Business Impact Analysis

BPA

Business Partners Agreement

SSL decryptors

Devices used to create separate SSL (or TLS) sessions They allow other security devices to examine encrypted traffic sent to and from the Internet.

DHE

Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral

CMS

Content Management System

CP

Contingency Planning

COOP

Continuity of Operations Plan

CAN

Controller Area Network

COPE

Corporate Owned, Personally Enabled

COPE

Corporate-owned, personally enabled. A mobile device deployment model. The organization purchases and issues devices to employees. Compare with BYOD and CYOD.

CAR

Corrective Action Report

CTR

Counter

CTM

Counter mode. A mode of operation used for encryption that combines an IV with a counter. The combined result is used to encrypt blocks.

CTM

Counter-Mode

CCMP

Counter-Mode/CBC-Mac Protocol

CER

Cross-over Error Rate

CSRF

Cross-site Request Forgery

XSRF

Cross-site Request Forgery

XSS

Cross-site Scripting

CRC

Cyclical Redundancy Check

ISP

Internet Service Provider

Protocol that protects a DNS server

DNSSEC

DES

Data Encryption Standard. A legacy symmetric encryption standard used to provide confidentiality. It has been compromised and AES or 3DES should be used instead.

DEP

Data Execution Prevention

DLP

Data Loss Prevention

DSU

Data Service Unit

DLP

Data loss prevention. A group of technologies used to prevent data loss. They can block the use of USB devices, monitor outgoing email to detect and block unauthorized data transfers, and monitor data stored in the cloud.

confidential data

Data meant to be kept secret among a certain group of people. As an example, salary data is meant to be kept secret and not shared with everyone within a company.

public data

Data that is available to anyone. It might be in brochures, in press releases, or on web sites. ~

proprietary data

Data that is related to ownership. Common examples are information related to patents or trade secrets.

DHE

Data-Handling Electronics

DBA

Database Administrator

DMZ

Demilitarized Zone

DMZ

Demilitarized zone. A buffer zone between the Internet and an internal network. Internet clients can access the services hosted on servers in the DMZ, but the DMZ provides a layer of protection for the imemalnetwodt.

DoS

DeniaI-of-service. An attack from a single source that attempts to disrupt the services provided by the attacked system. Compare with 0005.

DoS

Denial of Service

DNAT

Destination Network Address Transaction

SSL/TLS accelerators

Devices used to handle TLS trafhc. Servers can off-ioad TLS traffic to improve performa nce.

EAP-FAST

EAP-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST). A Cisco-designed replacement for Lightweight EAP (LEAP). EAP-FAST supports certificates, but they are optional.

EMP

Electro Magnetic Pulse

EMI

Electromagnetic Interference

Em

Electromagnetic interference. Interference caused by motors, power tines, and fluorescent Ughts. EM! shielding prevents outside interference sources from corrupting data and prevents data m emanating outside the cabte.

ECB

Electronic Code Book

ESN

Electronic Serial Number

ECC

Elliptic Curve Cryptography

ECDHE

Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral

ECDSA

Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm

ESP

Encapsulated Security Payload

EFS

Encrypted File System

EULA

End User License Agreement

EOL

End of Life

ERP

Enterprise Resource Planning

IR

Incident Response

IRP

Incident Response Plan

ICS

Industrial Control Systems

lCS

Industrial control system. A system that controls large systems such as power plants or water treatment facilities. A SCADA system controls the ICS.

ISSO

Information Systems Security Officer

IR

Infrared

IaaS

Infrastructure as a Service

IV

Initialization Vector

IM

Instant Messaging

IEEE

Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers

ISA

Interconnection Security Agreement

ISA

Interconnection security agreement. An agreement that specifies technical and security requirements for connections between two or more entities. Compare with MOU/MOA.

IDF

Intermediate Distribution Frame

IDEA

International Data Encryption Algorithm

ICMP

Internet Control Message Protocol

IIS

Internet Information System

IKE

Internet Key Exchange

IMAP4

Internet Message Access Protocol v4

IP

Internet Protocol

IPSec

Internet Protocol Security

IRC

Internet Relay Chat

Name of a layer 2 address

MAC address

MDF

Main Distribution Frame

Trojan

Maiware also known as a Trojan horse. A Trojan often looks useful, but is malicious.

virus

Malicious code that attaches itself to a host application. The host application must be executed to run, and the malicious code executes when the host application is executed.

malware

Malicious software. It includes a wide range of software that has malicious intent, such as viruses, worms, ransomware, rootkits, logic bombs, and more.

MITM

Man-in-the-Middle

MSP

Managed Service Provider

MAC

Mandatory Access Control

MAC

Mandatory access control. An access control model that uses sensitivity labels assigned to objects (files and folders) and subjects (users). MAC restricts access based on a need to know.

MBR

Master Boot Record

MTU

Maximum Transmission Unit

MTBF

Mean Time Between Failures

MTTF

Mean Time to Failure

MTTR

Mean Time to Recover or Mean Time to Repair

MTBF

Mean time between failures. A metric that provides a measure of a system's reliability and is' usually represented in hours. The MTBF identifies the average time between failures. '

MAC

Media Access Control

MAC

Media access control. A 48-bit address used to identify network interface cards. It is also called a hardware address or a physical address.

MOA

Memorandum of Agreement

MOU

Memorandum of Understanding

MAC

Message Authentication Code

Evaluation

Message Digest

MD5

Message Digest 5

OCSP

Online Certificate Status Protocol

OCSP

Online Certificate Status Protocol An alternative to using a CRL It allows entities to query a CA with the serial number of a certificate. The CA answers with good, revoked, or unknown.

OAUTH

Open Authorization

OVAL

Open Vulnerability Assessment Language

OS

Operating System

OTA

Over The Air

firmware OTA updates

Over-the-air updates for mobile device firmware that keep them up to date. These are typically downloaded to the device from the internet and applied to update the device.

Personal information a company should secure

PII

P12

PKCS #12

PCAP

Packet Capture

POODLE

Padding Oracle on Downgrade Legacy Encryption

PTZ

Pan-Tilt-Zoom

public key

Part of a matched key pair used in asymmetric encryption. The public key is publicly available. Compare with private key.

private key

Part of a matched key pair used in asymmetric encryption.The private key always stays private. Compa re with public key.

PAP

Password Authentication Protocol

PAP

Password Authentication Protocol. An older authentication protocol where passwords or Ple are sent across the network in cleartext Compare with CHAP and MS-CHAPVZ.

PBKDFz

Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2. A key stretching technique that adds additional bits to a password as a salt. It helps prevent brute force and rainbow table attacks.

PBKDF2

Password-based Key Derivation Function 2

P2P

Peer to Peer

RC4

Rivest Cipher version 4

RSA

Rivest, Shamir, & Adleman

RSA

Rivest, Shamir, and Adleman. An asymmetric algorithm used to encrypt data and digitaiiy sign transmissions. it is named after its creators, Rivest, Shamir, and Adleman.

RBAC

Role-based Access Control

roIe-BAC

Role-based access control. An access control model that uses roles based on jobs and functions to define access. It is often implemented with groups (providing group-based privileges).

Device that forwards based on layer 3 address

Router or Multilayer Switch

RBAC

Rule-based Access Control

Type of phone network that connects to a satellite

SATCOM

Hard drive that can encrypt itself and store encryption keys

SED

The advertised name of a wireless network

SSID

A process of making a hash more secure

Salting

SMB

Server Message Block

SLA

Service Level Agreement

SSID

Service Set Identifier

SLA

Service level agreement. An agreement between a company and a vendor that stipulates performance expectations, such as minimum uptime and maximum downtime levels.

SSlD

Service set identifier. The name of a wireless network SSIDs can be set to broadcast so users can easily see it. Disabling SSID broadcast hides it from casual users.

SIP

Session Initiation Protocol

SIPS

Session Initiation Protocol Secure

STP

Shielded Twisted Pair

SMS

Short Message Service

SMS

Short Message Service. A basic text messaging service. Compare with MMS.

bollards

Short vertical posts that act as a barricade. Bollards block vehicles but not people.

SNMPv3

Simpie Network Management Protocol version 3. A protocol used to monitor and manage network devices such as routers and switches.

SCEP

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

SMTP

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

SMTPS

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol Secure

SNMP

Simple Network Management Protocol

SOAP

Simple Object Access Protocol

SLE

Single Loss Expectancy

SPoF

Single Point of Failure

SSO

Single Sign-on

SLE

Single loss expectancy. The monetary value of any single loss. It is used to measure risk with ALE and ARO in a quantitative risk assessment. The calculation is SLE x ARO = ALE.

SSO

Single sign-on. An authentication method where users can access multiple resources on a network using a single account. 550 can provide central authentication.

SCSI

Small Computer System Interface

Proximity cards

Small credit card-sized cards that activate when they are in dose proximity '0 a card reader. They are often used by authorized personnel to open doors.

wearable technology

Smart devices that a person can wear or have implanted.

SAN

Storage Area Network

SEH

Structured Exception Handler

SQL

Structured Query Language

SAN

Subject Alternative Name

SIM

Subscriber Identity Module

SCADA

Supervisory control and data acquisition. A system used to control an MS such as a power plant or water treatment facility. Ideally, a SCADA is within an isolated network

SCADA

System Control and Data Acquisition

Control

System Plus

SSP

System Security Plan

SoC

System on Chip

CISCO proprietary AAA server

TACACS+

Port number of HTTPS

TCP 443

Port number of DNS Zone Transfer

TCP 53

Port number of HTTP

TCP 80

A built in chip on a motherboard that handles hardware encryption

TPM

TKIP

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

TKlP

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol. A legacy wireless security protocol. CCMP is the recommended replacement.

TACACS+

Terminal Access Controller Access

plaintext

Text displayed in a readable format. Encryption converts plaintext to ciphertext.

fault tolerance

The capability of a system to suffer a fault, but continue to operate. Said another way, the system can tolerate the fault as if it never occurred.

kernel

The central part of the operating system. In container virtualization, guests share the kernel. key escrow-The process of placing a copy of a private key in a safe environment.

ALE (annualized loss expectancy)

The expected loss for a year. It is used to measure risk with ARO (annual rate of occurrence) and SLE (single loss expectancy) in a quantitative risk assessment. The calculation is SLE x ARO = ALE.

geolocation

The location of a device identified by GPS. It can help locate a lost or stolen mobile device.

impact

The magnitude of harm related to a risk. It is the negative result of an event. such as the loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability of a system or data. Compare with likelihood of occurrence.

resource exhaustion

The malicious result of many DoS and 0005 attacks. The attack overloads a computer's resources (such as the processor and memory), resulting in service interruption.

ciphertext

The result of encrypting plaintext. Ciphertext is not in an easily readable format until it ls decrypted.

push notification services

The services that send messages to mobile devices.

data exfiltration

The unauthorized transfer of data outside an organization.

sandboxing

The use of an isolated area on a system, typically for testing. Virtuai machines are often used to test patches in an isolated sandbox. Application developers sometimes use thechroot command to change the root directory creating a sandbox.

control diversity

The use of different security control types, such as technical controls, administrative controls, and physical controls. Compare with vendor diversity.

defense in depth

The use of multiple layers of security to protect resources. Control diversity and vendor diversity ate two methods organizations implement to provide defense in depth.

TGT

Ticket Granting Ticket

'l'O'l'P

Time-based One-Time Password. An open source standard similar to HOTP. It uses a timestamp instead of a counter. One-time passwords created with TOTP expire after 30 seconds.

TOTP

Time-based One-time Password

exploitation frameworks

Tools used to store information about security vulnerabilities. They are often used by penetration testers (and attackers) to detect and exploit software.

TCO

Total Cost of Ownership

TPM

Trusted Platform Module

federation

Two or more members of a federated identity management system. Used for single sign-on.

Port number of DNS Query

UDP 53

UEFI

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface

UEFI

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface. A method used to boot some systems and intended to replace Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) firmware.

UTM

Unified Threat Management

UTM

Unified threat management. A group of security controls combined in a single solution. UTM appliances can inspect data streams for malicious content and block it.

URI

Uniform Resource Identifier

UPS

Uninterruptable Power Supply

URL

Universal Resource Locator

USB

Universal Serial Bus

USB OTG

Universal Serial Bus On-The-Go. A cable used to connect mobile devices to other devices. It is one of many methods that you can use to connect a mobile device to external media.

UAV

Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

UAVs

Unmanned aerial vehicles. Flying vehicles piloted by remote control or onboard computers.

UTP

Unshielded Twisted Pair

spam

Unwanted or unsolicited email. Attackers often launch attacks using spam.

UAT

User Acceptance Testing

UDP

User Datagram Protocol

WPAZ

Wi-Fi Protected Access II. A wireless security protocol. It supports CCMP for encryption, which is based on AES. It can use Open mode, a pre-shared key, or Enterprise mode.

WPA

Wi-Fi Protected Access. A |egacy wireless security protocol. It has been superseded by WPA2.

WPS

Wi-Fi Protected Setup. A method that allows users to easily configure a wireless network, often by using only a PIN. WPS brute force attacks can discover the PIN.

WPA

WiFi Protected Access

WPA2

WiFi Protected Access 2

WPS

WiFi Protected Setup

WEP

Wired Equivalent Privacy

WAP

Wireless Access Point

WIDS

Wireless Intrusion Detection System

WIPS

Wireless Intrusion Prevention System

WTLS

Wireless TLS

Type of malware that can self-replicate

Worm

WORM

Write Once Read Many

*If an asset is valued at 100,000, the threat exposure factor of a risk affecting that asset is 25%, and the annualized rate of occurrence is 20%, what is the ALE?* a. $5,000 b. $20,000 c. $25,000 d. $45,000

a. *$5,000* The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the SLE (value times exposure factor) and the ARO or $20% of 100,000 × 25% = $5,000. Answer B is incorrect because $20,000 represents the asset value times ARO. Answer C is incorrect because the value times the exposure factor represents the single loss expectancy (SLE) rather than the annual loss expectancy (ALE). Answer D is simply an incorrectly calculated value.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *If you calculate SLE to be $25,000 and that there will be one occurrence every four years (ARO), then what is the ALE?* a. $6,250 b. $12,500 c. $25,000 d. $100,000

a. *$6,250* If you calculate SLE to be $25,000 and that there will be one occurrence every four years (ARO), then the ALE is $6,250 ($25,000 × .25).

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Refer to the scenario in question 2. Which of the following is the ARO for this scenario?* a. 0.0167 b. 1 c. 5 d. 16.7 e. 60

a. *0.0167* ARO (annualized rate of occurrence) is the frequency (in number of years) the event can be expected to happen. In this case, ARO is 1/60 or 0.0167.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which redundancy strategy has one spare part for every component in use?* a. 1+1 b. JWDO c. JIT d. Rollovers

a. *1+1* The redundancy strategy 1+1 has one spare part for every component in use.

*An Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address is _______________ in length.* a. 128 bits b. 64 bytes c. 32 bytes d. 32 bits

a. *128 bits* IPv6 expands the length of source and destination IP addresses from IPv4's 32 bits to 128 bits.

Wireless Networking Security *What is the size of the wrapper TKIP places around the WEP encryption with a key that is based on such things as the MAC address of your machine and the serial number of the packet?* a. 128-bit b. 64-bit c. 56-bit d. 12-bit

a. *128-bit* TKIP places a 128-bit wrapper around the WEP encryption with a key that is based on such things as the MAC address of your machine and the serial number of the packet.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which ports are, by default, reserved for use by FTP? (Choose all that apply.)* a. 20 and 21 TCP b. 20 and 21 UDP c. 22 and 23 TCP d. 22 and 23 UDP

a. *20 and 21 TCP* FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21. FTP does not use UDP ports.

*Which port does the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) use?* a. 25 b. 53 c. 110 d. 143

a. *25* The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which ISO standard states: "Privileges should be allocated to individuals on a need-to-use basis and on an event-by-event basis, i.e. the minimum requirement for their functional role when needed"?* a. 27002 b. 27102 c. 20102 d. 20112

a. *27002* The ISO standard 27002 (which updates 17799) states: "Privileges should be allocated to individuals on a need-to-use basis and on an event-by-event basis, i.e. the minimum requirement for their functional role when needed."

Infrastructure and Connectivity *How many bits are used for addressing with IPv4 and IPv6, respectively?* a. 32, 128 b. 16, 64 c. 8, 32 d. 4, 16

a. *32, 128* IPv4 uses 32 bits for the host address, while IPv6 uses 128 bits for this.

Protecting Networks *It is suspected that some recent network compromises are originating from the use of RDP. Which of the following TCP port traffic should be monitored?* a. 3389 b. 139 c. 138 d. 443

a. *3389* TCP port 3389 is used by RDP. Answer B is incorrect because UDP uses port 139 for network sharing. Answer C is incorrect because port 138 is used to allow NetBIOS traffic for name resolution. Answer D is incorrect because port 443 is used for HTTPS.

*LDAP operates over what TCP ports?* a. 636 and 389 b. 110 and 25 c. 443 and 80 d. 20 and 21

a. *636 and 389* LDAP operates over TCP ports 636 and 389. POP3 and SMTP operate over TCP ports 110 and 25, respectively. TLS operates over TCP ports 443 and 80 (SSL operates only over TCP port 443; HTTP operates over TCP port 80). FTP operates over TCP ports 20 and 21.

Wireless Networking Security *Which protocol operates on 2.4GHz and has a bandwidth of 1 Mbps or 2 Mbps?* a. 802.11 b. 802.11a c. 802.11b d. 802.11g

a. *802.11* 802.11 operates on 2.4GHZ. This standard allows for bandwidths of 1 Mbps or 2 Mbps.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following 802.11 standards provides for bandwidths of up to 300 Mbps?* a. 802.11n b. 802.11i c. 802.11g d. 802.11b

a. *802.11n* The 802.11n standard provides for bandwidths of up to 300Mbps.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Internal users are reporting repeated attempts to infect their systems as reported to them by pop-up messages from their virus-scanning software. According to the pop-up messages, the virus seems to be the same in every case. What is the most likely culprit?* a. A server is acting as a carrier for a virus. b. You have a worm virus. c. Your antivirus software has malfunctioned. d. A DoS attack is under way.

a. *A server is acting as a carrier for a virus.* Some viruses won't damage a system in an attempt to spread into all the other systems in a network. These viruses use that system as the carrier of the virus.

Access Control and Identity Management *A newly hired junior administrator will assume your position temporarily while you attend a conference. You're trying to explain the basics of security to her in as short a period of time as possible. Which of the following best describes an ACL?* a. ACLs provide individual access control to resources. b. ACLs aren't used in modern systems. c. The ACL process is dynamic in nature. d. ACLs are used to authenticate users.

a. *ACLs provide individual access control to resources.* Access control lists allow individual and highly controllable access to resources in a network. An ACL can also be used to exclude a particular system, IP address, or user.

Cryptography Implementation *In a bridge trust model, each intermediate CA trusts only those CAs that are:* a. Above and below it b. Above it c. Below it d. On the same level

a. *Above and below it* In a bridge trust model, each intermediate CA trusts those CAs that are above and below it.

*When a user signs a(n) _____, it's a form of consent to the monitoring and auditing processes used by the organization.* a. Acceptable use policy b. Privacy policy c. Separation of duties policy d. Code of ethics policy

a. *Acceptable use policy* When a user signs an acceptable use policy, it's a form of consent to the monitoring and auditing processes used by the organization. A privacy policy usually explains that there is no privacy on company systems. A separation of duties policy indicates that administrative functions are divided among several people. The code of ethics policy describes decision-making processes to use when faced with ethical dilemmas.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which rule of evidence within the United States involves Fourth Amendment protections?* a. Admissible b. Complete c. Reliable d. Believable

a. *Admissible* Admissibility involves collecting data in a manner that ensures its viability in court, including legal requirements such as the Fourth Amendment protections against unlawful search and seizure. Answers B and C are incorrect because data must be collected completely and protected against modification to ensure reliability, but these are not concerns of the Fourth Amendment. Answer D is incorrect because believability focuses on evidence being understandable, documented, and not subject to modification during transition.

*Which of the following are steps that can be taken to harden FTP services?* a. Anonymous access to shared files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited. b. Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers. c. Technologies that allow dynamic updates must also include access control and authentication. d. Unauthorized zone transfers should also be restricted.

a. *Anonymous access to shared files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited.* Anonymous access to shared files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited for proper FTP server security. Answer B is incorrect because it is a hardening practice for DHCP services. Answers C and D are incorrect because they are associated with hardening DNS service.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which type of authorization provides no mechanism for unique logon identification?* a. Anonymous b. Kerberos c. TACACS d. TACACS+

a. *Anonymous* During anonymous access, such as requests to a public FTP server, unique identify of the requester is not determined and so cannot be used for personalized logon identification. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because authorization services such as Kerberos, TACACS, and its replacement TACACS+ all verify access requests against a list of authorized credentials and so can log individual visits and identify access request logons.

*Which of the following applications should be used to properly protect a host from malware? (Select two correct answers.)* a. Antispam software b. Antivirus software c. Content-filtering software d. Web-tracking software

a. *Antispam software* b. *Antivirus software* All host devices must have some type of malware protection. A necessary software program for protecting the user environment is antivirus software. Antivirus software is used to scan for malicious code in email and downloaded files. Antispam, antispyware software can add another layer of defense to the infrastructure. Answer C is incorrect because content filtering is done at the server level to keep host machines from accessing certain content. Answer D is incorrect because web tracking software merely tracks the sites a person visited.

*Which of the following is the preferred type of encryption used in SaaS platforms?* a. Application level b. Database level c. Media level d. HSM level

a. *Application level* In a software-as-a-service (SaaS) environment, application-level encryption is preferred because the data is encrypted by the application before being stored in the database or file system. The advantage is that it protects the data from the user all the way to storage. Answer B is incorrect because in cloud implementations data should be encrypted at the application layer rather than within a database due to the complexity involved, and media encryption is managed at the storage layer. Answer C is incorrect because encryption of a complete virtual machine on infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) could be considered media encryption. Answer D is incorrect because a hardware security module (HSM) solution is mainly found in private datacenters that manage and offload cryptography with dedicated hardware appliances.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You're explaining the basics of security to upper management in an attempt to obtain an increase in the networking budget. One of the members of the management team mentions that they've heard of a threat from a virus that attempts to mask itself by hiding code from antivirus software. What type of virus is he referring to?* a. Armored virus b. Polymorphic virus c. Worm d. Stealth virus

a. *Armored virus* An armored virus is designed to hide the signature of the virus behind code that confuses the antivirus software or blocks it from detecting the virus.

*Diffie-Hellman is what type of cryptographic system?* a. Asymmetric b. Symmetric c. Hashing d. Certificate authority

a. *Asymmetric* Diffie-Hellman is an asymmetric cryptographic system. The Data Encryption Standard (DES) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) are examples of symmetric cryptography. Message Digest 5 (MD5) and Secure Hash Algorithm version 1 (SHA-1) are examples of hashing. Certificate authorities issue certificates based on an implemented Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) solution.

Operating System and Application Security *What tool is used in Windows to encrypt an entire volume?* a. BitLocker b. SysLock c. Drive Defender d. NLock

a. *BitLocker* BitLocker provides drive encryption and is available with Windows 7 and Windows Vista.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which process inspects procedures and verifies that they're working?* a. Audit b. Business continuity plan c. Security review d. Group privilege management

a. *Audit* An audit is used to inspect and test procedures within an organization to verify that those procedures are working and up-to-date. The result of an audit is a report to management.

*Kerberos is used to perform what security service?* a. Authentication protection b. File encryption c. Secure communications d. Protected data transfer

a. *Authentication protection* Kerberos is a third-party authentication service; thus it provides authentication protection. Kerberos can't be used to encrypt files, secure non-authentication communications, or protect data transfer.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *What checks to make sure that things are operating status quo and that change detection is used to alert when modifications are made?* a. Baseline reporting b. Code review c. Attack surfacing d. Risk analysis

a. *Baseline reporting* Baseline reporting checks to make sure that things are operating status quo and that change detection is used to alert when modifications are made.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following terms refers to the process of establishing a standard for security?* a. Baselining b. Security evaluation c. Hardening d. Methods research

a. *Baselining* Baselining is the process of establishing a standard for security.

Educating and Protecting the User *You've recently been hired by ACME to do a security audit. The managers of this company feel that their current security measures are inadequate. Which information access control model prevents users from writing information down to a lower level of security and prevents users from reading above their level of security?* a. Bell-LaPadula model b. Biba model c. Clark-Wilson model d. Noninterference model

a. *Bell-LaPadula model* The Bell-LaPadula model is intended to protect confidentiality of information. This is accomplished by prohibiting users from reading above their security level and preventing them from writing below their security level.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which technology uses a physical characteristic to establish identity?* a. Biometrics b. Surveillance c. Smart card d. CHAP authenticator

a. *Biometrics* Biometrics is a technology that uses personal characteristics, such as a retinal pattern or fingerprint, to establish identity.

*You are conducting a penetration test on an application for a client. The client provides you with no details about the source code and development process. What type of test will you likely be conducting?* a. Black box b. White box c. Vulnerability d. Answers A and C

a. *Black box* Black box testing does not provide any information about the environment. Answer B is incorrect as white box testing is more transparent and would provide details around the particular application. A vulnerability test and penetration test are separate items, thus answer C is incorrect. Answer D is also incorrect.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *In which type of testing do you begin with the premise that the attacker has no knowledge of the network?* a. Black box b. White box c. Gray box d. Green box

a. *Black box* With black box testing, you begin with the premise that the attacker has no knowledge of the network.

*A situation in which a program or process attempts to store more data in a temporary data storage area than it was intended to hold is known as which of the following?* a. Buffer overflow b. Denial of service c. Distributed denial of service d. Storage overrun

a. *Buffer overflow* A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process attempts to store more data in a buffer than the buffer was intended to hold. The overflow of data can flow over into other buffers, overwriting or deleting data. A denial of service is a type of attack in which too much traffic is sent to a host, preventing it from responding to legitimate traffic. A distributed denial of service is similar, but it is initiated through multiple hosts; therefore, answers B and C are incorrect. Although answer D sounds correct, it is not.

*Never inserting untrusted data except in allowed locations can be used to mitigate which of the following attacks? (Select two answers.)* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

a. *Buffer overflow* d. *Input validation error* A buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions, and input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code. Answer B is incorrect because Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while they are currently authenticated. Answer C is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Most CAs require what to define certificate issue processes, record keeping, and subscribers' legal acceptance of terms?* a. CPS b. DAC c. SRC d. GPM

a. *CPS* Most CAs require a Certificate Practice Statement (CPS), which defines certificate issue processes, record keeping, and subscribers' legal acceptance of the terms of the CPS.

*Which of the following is widely used as a controlled access measure in businesses that offer free Wi-Fi hotspots to Internet users such as hotels and restaurants?* a. Captive portal b. Site survey c. VPN (over open wireless) d. Omnidirectional antenna

a. *Captive portal* Captive portals are widely used in businesses that offer free Wi-Fi hotspots to Internet users such as hotels and restaurants. Answer B is incorrect because a site survey is conducted before implementing any WLAN solution to optimize network layout within each unique location. Answer C is incorrect because VPNs over open wireless are commonly used to securely connect employees to corporate networks when they are not in the office by using an Internet connection. Answer D is incorrect. Omnidirectional antennas provide a 360° radial pattern to provide the widest possible signal coverage for a wireless network.

Cryptography Implementation *Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a first attempt to provide all the aspects of security to messages and transactions that have been previously discussed. It contains four components including:* a. Certificate Authority (CA), Registration Authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates b. Certificate Authority (CA), RSA, Document Authority (DA), and digital certificates c. Document Authority (DA), Certificate Authority (CA), and RSA d. Registration Authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates

a. *Certificate Authority (CA), Registration Authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates* Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) contains four components: certificate authority (CA), registration authority (RA), RSA, and digital certificates.

Cryptography Basics *What document describes how a CA issues certificates and what they are used for?* a. Certificate policies b. Certificate practices c. Revocation authority d. CRL

a. *Certificate policies* The certificate policies document defines what certificates can be used for.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which policy dictates how an organization manages certificates and certificate acceptance?* a. Certificate policy b. Certificate access list c. CA accreditation d. CRL rule

a. *Certificate policy* A certificate policy dictates how an organization uses, manages, and validates certificates.

*When a certificate authority revokes a certificate, notice of the revocation is distributed via what?* a. Certificate revocation list b. Certificate policy c. Digital signature d. Certificate practice statement

a. *Certificate revocation list* Certificate revocation lists are used to identify revoked certificates; however, the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), which provides certificate status in real time, has been created as an alternative to CRLs. Answers B and D are both incorrect because these terms relate to the policies and practices of certificates and the issuing authorities. Answer C is incorrect because a digital signature is an electronic signature used for identity authentication.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is an example of perimeter security?* a. Chain link fence b. Video camera c. Elevator d. Locked computer room

a. *Chain link fence* Perimeter security involves creating a perimeter or outer boundary for a physical space. Video surveillance systems wouldn't be considered a part of perimeter security, but they can be used to enhance physical security monitoring.

*Evidence is inadmissible in court if which of the following is violated or mismanaged?* a. Chain of custody b. Service-level agreement c. Privacy policy d. Change management

a. *Chain of custody* If the chain of custody is violated or mismanaged, evidence is inadmissible in court. Service-level agreements (SLAs), privacy policies, and change management aren't associated with evidence gathering or forensics.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Your company is about to invest heavily in an application written by a new startup. Because it is such a sizable investment, you express your concerns about the longevity of the new company and the risk this organization is taking. You propose that the new company agree to store its source code for use by customers in the event that it ceases business. What is this model called?* a. Code escrow b. SLA c. BCP d. CA

a. *Code escrow* Code escrow allows customers to access the source code of installed systems under specific conditions, such as the bankruptcy of a vendor.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the three principles of security is supported by an iris biometric system?* a. Confidentiality b. Integrity c. Availability d. Vulnerability

a. *Confidentiality* Confidentiality involves protecting against unauthorized access, which biometric authentication systems support. Integrity is concerned with preventing unauthorized modification, making answer B incorrect. Answer C is not correct because availability is concerned with ensuring that access to services and data is protected against disruption. Answer D is incorrect because a vulnerability is a failure in one or more of the C-I-A principles.

*Which of the following should be implemented if the organization wants to monitor unauthorized transfers of confidential information?* a. Content inspection b. Proxy server c. Protocol analyzer d. Packet-filtering firewall

a. *Content inspection* Content inspection appliances use access control filtering software on a dedicated filtering appliance. The device monitors every packet of traffic that passes over a network. Answer B is incorrect. When a proxy server receives a request for an Internet service, it passes through filtering requirements and checks its local cache of previously downloaded web pages. Because web pages are stored locally, response times for web pages are faster and traffic to the Internet is substantially reduced. Answer C is incorrect. Protocol analyzers help you troubleshoot network issues by gathering packet-level information across the network. These applications capture packets and decode the information into readable data for analysis. Answer D is incorrect; a packet-filtering firewall filters packets based on IP addresses, ports, or protocols and is a simple, good first line of defense.

Access Control and Identity Management *In a decentralized key management system, the user is responsible for which one of the following functions?* a. Creation of the private and public key b. Creation of the digital certificate c. Creation of the CRL d. Revocation of the digital certificate

a. *Creation of the private and public key* In a decentralized key system, the end user generates his or her own key pair. The other functions, such as creation of the certificate, CRL, and the revocation of the certificate, are still handled by the certificate authority; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *The present method of requiring access to be strictly defined on every object is proving too cumbersome for your environment. The edict has come down from upper management that access requirements should be reduced slightly. Which access model allows users some flexibility for information-sharing purposes?* a. DAC b. MAC c. RBAC d. MLAC

a. *DAC* DAC allows some flexibility in information-sharing capabilities within the network.

Operating System and Application Security *Which systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, networks) to make sure key content is not deleted or removed?* a. DLP b. PKM c. XML d. GSP

a. *DLP* DLP systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, networks) to make sure key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data.

*In which of the following types of architecture is the user responsible for the creation of the private and public key?* a. Decentralized key management b. Centralized key management c. Revocation key management d. Multilevel key management

a. *Decentralized key management* In a decentralized key-management scheme, the user creates both the private and public key and then submits the public key to the CA to allow it to apply its digital signature after it has authenticated the user. Answer B is incorrect because centralized key management allows the organization to have complete control over the creation, distribution, modification, and revocation of the electronic credentials that it issues. Answers C and D are incorrect because they are nonexistent terms.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which type of attack denies authorized users access to network resources?* a. DoS b. Worm c. Logic bomb d. Social engineering

a. *DoS* A DoS attack is intended to prevent access to network resources by overwhelming or flooding a service or network.

*A physical security plan should include which of the following? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Description of the physical assets being protected b. The threats from which you are protecting against and their likelihood c. Location of a hard disk's physical blocks d. Description of the physical areas where assets are located

a. *Description of the physical assets being protected* b. *The threats from which you are protecting against and their likelihood* d. *Description of the physical areas where assets are located* A physical security plan should be a written plan that addresses your current physical security needs and future direction. With the exception of answer C, all the answers are correct and should be addressed in a physical security plan. A hard disk's physical blocks pertain to the file system.

Access Control and Identity Management *LDAP is an example of which of the following?* a. Directory access protocol b. IDS c. Tiered model application development environment d. File server

a. *Directory access protocol* Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory access protocol used to publish information about users. This is the computer equivalent of a phone book.

Operating System and Application Security *LDAP is an example of which of the following?* a. Directory access protocol b. IDS c. Tiered model application development environment d. File server

a. *Directory access protocol* Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory access protocol used to publish information about users. This is the computer equivalent of a phone book.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which plan or policy helps an organization determine how to relocate to an emergency site?* a. Disaster-recovery plan b. Backup site plan c. Privilege management policy d. Privacy plan

a. *Disaster-recovery plan* The disaster-recovery plan deals with site relocation in the event of an emergency, natural disaster, or service outage.

*Which one of the following best describes the type of attack designed to bring a network to a halt by flooding the systems with useless traffic?* a. DoS b. Ping of death c. Teardrop d. Social engineering

a. *DoS* A DoS attack is designed to bring down a network by flooding the system with an overabundance of useless traffic. Although answers B and C are both types of DoS attacks, they are incorrect because DoS more accurately describes "a type of attack." Answer D is incorrect because social engineering describes the nontechnical means of obtaining information.

*You manage a network on which there are mixed vendor devices and are required to implement a strong authentication solution for wireless communications. Which of the following would best meet your requirements? (Select two correct answers.)* a. EAP b. WEP c. LEAP d. PEAP

a. *EAP* d. *PEAP* The IEEE and IETF specify 802.1X and EAP as the standard for secure wireless networking, and Protected EAP (PEAP) is standards based. PEAP was jointly developed by Microsoft, RSA Security, and Cisco Systems. It is an IETF open standard. PEAP provides mutual authentication and uses a certificate for server authentication by the client, and users have the convenience of entering password-based credentials. Answer B is incorrect because WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point. Answer C is incorrect because LEAP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.

Cryptography Basics *As the head of IT for MTS, you're explaining some security concerns to a junior administrator who has just been hired. You're trying to emphasize the need to know what is important and what isn't. Which of the following is not a consideration in key storage?* a. Environmental controls b. Physical security c. Hardened servers d. Administrative controls

a. *Environmental controls* Proper key storage requires that the keys be physically stored in a secure environment. This may include using locked cabinets, hardened servers, and effective physical and administrative controls.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You're a consultant brought in to advise MTS on its backup procedures. One of the first problems you notice is that the company doesn't utilize a good tape-rotation scheme. Which backup method uses a rotating schedule of backup media to ensure long-term information storage?* a. Grandfather, Father, Son method b. Full Archival method c. Backup Server method d. Differential Backup method

a. *Grandfather, Father, Son method* The Grandfather, Father, Son backup method is designed to provide a rotating schedule of backup processes. It allows for a minimum usage of backup media, and it still allows for long-term archiving.

*Which statement concerning virtualized environments is correct?* a. Existing security tools, such as antivirus, antispam, and IDS, are designed for single physical servers and do not always adapt well to multiple virtual machines. b. All hypervisors have the necessary security controls to keep out determined attackers. c. In a network with virtual machines, external devices such as firewalls and IDS reside between servers and can help prevent one from infecting another. d. A guest operating system that has remained dormant for a period of time can contain the latest patches and other security updates.

a. *Existing security tools, such as antivirus, antispam, and IDS, are designed for single physical servers and do not always adapt well to multiple virtual machines.* Existing security tools, such as antivirus, antispam, and IDS, were designed for single physical servers and do not always adapt well to multiple virtual machines.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *With high availability, the goal is to have key services available 99.999 percent of the time. What is this availability also known as?* a. Five nines b. Three nines c. Perfecta d. Trifecta

a. *Five nines* With high availability, the goal is to have key services available 99.999 percent of the time (also known as five nines availability).

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is the best description of tailgating?* a. Following someone through a door they just unlocked b. Figuring out how to unlock a secured area c. Sitting close to someone in a meeting d. Stealing information from someone's desk

a. *Following someone through a door they just unlocked* Tailgating is best defined as following someone through a door they just unlocked.

*Which of the following is the most useful when you're dealing with machines that are being taken on the road by traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents?* a. Full disk encryption b. File-level encryption c. Media-level encryption d. Application-level encryption

a. *Full disk encryption* Full disk encryption is most useful when you're dealing with machines that are being taken on the road by traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer B is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself. Answer C is incorrect because media encryption is used for USB flash drives, iPods, and other portable storage devices. Answer D is incorrect because application-level encryption does not protect the data stored on the machines.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *The organization is concerned about vulnerabilities in commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) software. Which of the following might be the only means of reviewing the security quality of the program?* a. Fuzzing b. Cross-Site Scripting c. Input validation d. Cross-site request forgery

a. *Fuzzing* In some closed application instances, fuzzing might be the only means of reviewing the security quality of the program. Answer B is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer C is incorrect because input validation tests whether an application properly handles input from a source outside the application destined for internal processing. Answer D, Cross-site request forgery (XSRF), is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while she is currently authenticated.

*Which of the following methods can be used to locate a device in the event it is lost or stolen?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

a. *GPS tracking* If a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer B is incorrect because voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer C is incorrect because remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted if the device is lost or stolen. Answer D is incorrect because a screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Due to growth beyond current capacity, a new server room is being built. As a manager, you want to make certain that all the necessary safety elements exist in the room when it's finished. Which fire-suppression system works best when used in an enclosed area by displacing the air around a fire?* a. Gas based b. Water based c. Fixed system d. Overhead sprinklers

a. *Gas based* Gas-based systems work by displacing the air around a fire. This eliminates one of the three necessary components of a fire: oxygen.

Protecting Networks *What is a system that is intended or designed to be broken into by an attacker called?* a. Honeypot b. Honeybucket c. Decoy d. Spoofing system

a. *Honeypot* A honeypot is a system that is intended to be sacrificed in the name of knowledge. Honeypot systems allow investigators to evaluate and analyze the attack strategies used. Law enforcement agencies use honeypots to gather evidence for prosecution.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following serves the purpose of trying to lure a malicious attacker into a system?* a. Honeypot b. Pot of gold c. DMZ d. Bear trap

a. *Honeypot* A honeypot is used to serve as a decoy and lure a malicious attacker. Answers B and D are incorrect answers and are not legitimate terms for testing purposes. Answer C is incorrect because a demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area between the Internet and the internal network.

*Which of the following are types of updates applied to systems? (Select all correct answers.) * a. Hotfix b. Service packs c. Patches d. Coldfix

a. *Hotfix* b. *Service packs* c. *Patches* Each of these describes types of updates that can be applied to a system. Answer D is incorrect.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which protocol is primarily used for network maintenance and destination information?* a. ICMP b. SMTP c. IGMP d. Router

a. *ICMP* ICMP is used for destination and error reporting functions in TCP/IP. ICMP is routable and is used by programs such as Ping and Traceroute.

Protecting Networks *Security has become the utmost priority at your organization. You're no longer content to act reactively to incidents when they occur—you want to start acting more proactively. Which system performs active network monitoring and analysis and can take proactive steps to protect a network?* a. IDS b. Sniffer c. Router d. Switch

a. *IDS* An IDS is used to protect and report network abnormalities to a network administrator or system. It works with audit files and rule-based processing to determine how to act in the event of an unusual situation on the network.

*Which term describes the concept of using a data based IP network to add digital voice clients and new voice applications onto the IP network?* a. IP telephony b. Virtualization c. Loop protection d. Captive portals

a. *IP telephony* Using Internet Protocol (IP), various services such as voice, video, and data can be combined (multiplexed) and transported under a universal format. IP telephony is using a data based IP network to add digital voice clients and new voice applications onto the IP network.

Access Control and Identity Management *You've been given notice that you'll soon be transferred to another site. Before you leave, you're to audit the network and document everything in use and the reason why it's in use. The next administrator will use this documentation to keep the network running. Which of the following protocols isn't a tunneling protocol but is probably used at your site by tunneling protocols for network security?* a. IPSec b. PPTP c. L2TP d. L2F

a. *IPSec* IPSec provides network security for tunneling protocols. IPSec can be used with many different protocols besides TCP/IP, and it has two modes of security.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You've been given notice that you'll soon be transferred to another site. Before you leave, you're to audit the network and document everything in use and the reason why it's in use. The next administrator will use this documentation to keep the network running. Which of the following protocols isn't a tunneling protocol but is probably used at your site by tunneling protocols for network security?* a. IPSec b. PPTP c. L2TP d. L2F

a. *IPSec* IPSec provides network security for tunneling protocols. IPSec can be used with many different protocols besides TCP/IP, and it has two modes of security.

Access Control and Identity Management *What is invoked when a person claims they are the user but cannot be authenticated—such as when they lose their password?* a. Identity proofing b. Social engineering c. Directory traversal d. Cross-site requesting

a. *Identity proofing* Identity proofing is invoked when a person claims they are the user but cannot be authenticated, such as when they lose their password.

Cryptography Implementation *A Certificate Practice Statement (CPS) is a detailed statement the CA uses to issue certificates and ______ of the CA.* a. Implement policies b. Control processes c. Regulate actions d. Complete processes

a. *Implement policies* A Certificate Practice Statement (CPS) is a detailed statement the CA uses to issue certificates and implement policies of the CA.

*Which is the best access control constraint to protect against accidental unauthorized access?* a. Implicit denial b. Least privilege c. Separation of duties d. Account expiration

a. *Implicit denial* The default assignment of an implicit denial, overridden by explicit grants of access aids in protecting resources against accidental access during normal network operations. Answer B is incorrect because least privilege is a principle of assigning only those rights necessary to perform assigned tasks. Answer C is incorrect because separation of duties is focused on ensuring that action and validation practices are performed separately. Answer D is incorrect because account expiration protocols ensure that individual accounts do not remain active past their designated lifespan, but they do nothing to protect against accidental resource availability for currently enabled accounts.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Your organization is exploring data-loss prevention (DLP) solutions. The proposed solution is a software network solution that would be installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. This solution is targeting which of the following data states?* a. In-transit b. At-rest c. In-use d. In-arrival

a. *In-transit* Protection of data in-transit is considered to be a network solution and either a hardware or software solution is installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. Answer B is incorrect because protection of data at-rest is considered to be a storage solution and is generally a software solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. Answer C is incorrect because protection of data in-use is considered to be an endpoint solution and the application is run on end-user workstations or servers in the organization. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such data state.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which Windows workstation feature is accused of—sometimes inadvertently—making network bridging possible and introducing security concerns?* a. Internet Connection Sharing b. Windows Firewall c. Network Address Translation d. Dynamic Naming Service

a. *Internet Connection Sharing* ICS—Internet Connection Sharing—is accused of (sometimes inadvertently) making network bridging possible and introducing security concerns.

Educating and Protecting the User *For which U.S. organization was the Bell-LaPadula model designed?* a. Military b. Census Bureau c. Office of Management and Budget d. Executive Office of the President

a. *Military* The Bell-LaPadula model was originally designed for use by the military.

*Communications between different IP devices on a network is handled by one of the core protocols of TCP/IP, namely, _______________.* a. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) b. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) c. Telnet d. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

a. *Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)* Different IP devices on a network often need to share between them specific information. However, IP does not have the capability for devices to exchange these low-level control messages. The communications between devices is handled by one of the core protocols of TCP/IP, namely, Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

*_______________ is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities.* a. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) d. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS)

a. *Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)* iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) is an IP-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities. Because it works over a standard IP network, iSCSI can transmit data over LANs, wide area networks (WANs), and the Internet.

Cryptography Implementation *Key destruction is the process of destroying keys that have become:* a. Invalid b. Expired c. Ruined d. Outdated

a. *Invalid* Key destruction is the process of destroying keys that have become invalid.

Educating and Protecting the User *at.allow is an access control that allows only specific users to use the service. What is at.deny?* a. It does not allow users named in the file to access the system. b. It ensures that no one will ever be able to use that part of your system. c. It opens up the server only to intranet users. d. It blocks access to Internet users.

a. *It does not allow users named in the file to access the system.* The at.deny file does not allow users named in the file to access the system.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *In a hot and cold aisle system, what is the typical method of handling cold air?* a. It is pumped in from below raised floor tiles. b. It is pumped in from above through the ceiling tiles. c. Only hot air is extracted and cold air is the natural result. d. Cold air exists in each aisle.

a. *It is pumped in from below raised floor tiles.* With hot and cold aisles, cold air is pumped in from below raised floor tiles.

*Which port does the Microsoft Terminal Server use?* a. 53 b. 143 c. 443 d. 3389

d. *3389* The Microsoft Terminal Server uses port 3389.

*Which of the following is true of Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)? (Select the two best answers.)* a. It uses a web of trust. b. It uses a hierarchical structure. c. It uses public key encryption. d. It uses private key encryption.

a. *It uses a web of trust.* c. *It uses public key encryption.* PGP uses a web of trust rather than the hierarchical structure. It also uses public key encryption. Based on this, answers B and D are incorrect.

*_______________ limits the amount of time that individuals have to manipulate security configurations.* a. Job rotation b. Mandatory vacation c. Separation of duties d. Least privilege

a. *Job rotation* Job rotation limits the amount of time that individuals are in a position to manipulate security configurations.

Cryptography Basics *After returning from a conference in Jamaica, your manager informs you that he has learned that law enforcement has the right, under subpoena, to conduct investigations using keys. He wants you to implement measures to make such an event run smoothly should it ever happen. What is the process of storing keys for use by law enforcement called?* a. Key escrow b. Key archival c. Key renewal d. Certificate rollover

a. *Key escrow* Key escrow is the process of storing keys or certificates for use by law enforcement. Law enforcement has the right, under subpoena, to conduct investigations using these keys.

*Which of the following is a denial-of-service attack that uses network packets that have been spoofed so that the source and destination address are that of the victim?* a. Land b. Teardrop c. Smurf d. Fraggle

a. *Land* A land DoS attack uses network packets that have been spoofed so that the source and destination address are that of the victim. A teardrop attack uses fragmented IP packets. Smurf and fraggle attacks use spoofed ICMP and UDP packets, respectively, against an amplification network.

*_______________ is a proprietary EAP method developed by Cisco Systems and is based on the Microsoft implementation of Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).* a. Lightweight EAP (LEAP) b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Protected EAP (PEAP) d. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

a. *Lightweight EAP (LEAP)* Lightweight EAP (LEAP) is a proprietary EAP method developed by Cisco Systems and is based on the Microsoft implementation of CHAP. It requires mutual authentication used for WLAN encryption using Cisco client software (there is no native support for LEAP in Microsoft Windows operating systems).

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *What is the name given to the activity that consists of collecting information that will be later used for monitoring and review purposes?* a. Logging b. Auditing c. Inspecting d. Vetting

a. *Logging* Logging is the process of collecting data to be used for monitoring and auditing purposes. Auditing is the process of verification that normally involves going through log files; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Typically, the log files are frequently inspected, and inspection is not the process of collecting the data; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Vetting is the process of thorough examination or evaluation; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Your system has just stopped responding to keyboard commands. You noticed that this occurred when a spreadsheet was open and you dialed in to the Internet. Which kind of attack has probably occurred?* a. Logic bomb b. Worm c. Virus d. ACK attack

a. *Logic bomb* A logic bomb notifies an attacker when a certain set of circumstances has occurred. This may in turn trigger an attack on your system.

*Which of the following is not an example of multifactor authentication?* a. Logon and password b. Smart card and PIN c. RFID chip and thumbprint d. Gait and iris recognition e. Location and CAC

a. *Logon and password* Both logon and password represent a form of "what you know" authentication. Answers B, C, D, and E are all incorrect because they represent paired multifactor forms of authentication. A smart card and PIN represent what you have and know, and an RFID chip and thumbprint link what you have with what you are. Gait is a measure of what you do, and iris details are an example of what you are. Somewhere you are is a location, which could be based on GPS coordinates or IP address, and a common access card (CAC) is something you have.

*After a new switch was implemented, some sporadic connectivity issues on the network have occurred. The issues are suspected to be device related. Which of the following would the organization implement as a method for additional checks in order to prevent issues?* a. Loop protection b. Flood guard c. Implicit deny d. Port security

a. *Loop protection* The loop protection feature makes additional checks in Layer 2 switched networks. Answer B is incorrect because a flood guard is a firewall feature to control network activity associated with denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Answer C is incorrect because implicit deny is an access control practice wherein resource availability is restricted to only those logons explicitly granted access. Answer D is incorrect because port security is a Layer 2 traffic control feature on Cisco Catalyst switches. It enables individual switch ports to be configured to allow only a specified number of source MAC addresses coming in through the port.

Access Control and Identity Management *Upper management has suddenly become concerned about security. As the senior network administrator, you are asked to suggest changes that should be implemented. Which of the following access methods should you recommend if the method is to be one that is primarily based on preestablished access and can't be changed by users?* a. MAC b. DAC c. RBAC d. Kerberos

a. *MAC* Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is oriented toward preestablished access. This access is typically established by network administrators and can't be changed by users.

*Which form of access control relies on labels for access control management?* a. MAC b. DAC c. Role-based (RBAC) d. Rule-based (RBAC)

a. *MAC* Mandatory access control (MAC) systems require assignment of labels such as Public, Secret, and Sensitive to provide resource access. Answer B is incorrect because discretionary access control (DAC) systems allow data owners to extend access rights to other logons based on explicit assignments or inherited group membership. Answers C and D are incorrect because both RBAC access control forms rely on conditional assignment of access rules either inherited (role based) or by environmental factors such as time of day or secured terminal location (rule based).

Protecting Networks *A junior administrator bursts into your office with a report in his hand. He claims that he has found documentation proving that an intruder has been entering the network on a regular basis. Which of the following implementations of IDS detects intrusions based on previously established rules that are in place on your network?* a. MD-IDS b. AD-IDS c. HIDS d. NIDS

a. *MD-IDS* By comparing attack signatures and audit trails, a misuse-detection IDS determines whether an attack is occurring.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *An administrator at a sister company calls to report a new threat that is making the rounds. According to him, the latest danger is an attack that attempts to intervene in a communications session by inserting a computer between the two systems that are communicating. Which of the following types of attacks does this constitute?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *Man-in-the-middle attack* A man-in-the-middle attack attempts to fool both ends of a communications session into believing the system in the middle is the other end.

Protecting Networks *The IDS console is known as what?* a. Manager b. Window c. Dashboard d. Screen

a. *Manager* The IDS console is known as the manager.

*Which one of the following is a holding area between two entry points that gives security personnel time to view a person before allowing him into the internal building?* a. Mantrap b. Biometric c. Honeypot d. Honeynet

a. *Mantrap* A mantrap is a physical security control that is a holding area between two entry points that gives security personnel time to view a person before allowing him into the internal building. Biometrics typically incorporate something about the person, such as retina scan or fingerprint, to allow access, and so Answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are also incorrect as these describe controls not related to physical security.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is a high-security installation that requires visual identification, as well as authentication, to gain access?* a. Mantrap b. Fencing c. Proximity reader d. Hot aisle

a. *Mantrap* High-security installations use a type of intermediate access control mechanism called a mantrap. Mantraps require visual identification, as well as authentication, to gain access. A mantrap makes it difficult for a facility to be accessed in number because it allows only one or two people into the facility at a time.

*NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) is a transport protocol used by _______________ systems to allow applications on separate computers to communicate over a LAN.* a. Microsoft Windows b. Linux c. Apple d. Unix

a. *Microsoft Windows* NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) is a transport protocol used by Microsoft Windows systems to allow applications on separate computers to communicate over a LAN.

*Which one of the following controls are physical security measures? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Motion detector b. Antivirus software c. CCTV d. Fence

a. *Motion detector* c. *CCTV* d. *Fence* Motion detectors, CCTV, and fencing are all controls used for physical security. Antivirus is not a physical security control, but a control used to protect computer systems from malware, and therefore Answer B is incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *After a careful risk analysis, the value of your company's data has been increased. Accordingly, you're expected to implement authentication solutions that reflect the increased value of the data. Which of the following authentication methods uses more than one authentication process for a logon?* a. Multifactor b. Biometrics c. Smart card d. Kerberos

a. *Multifactor* A multifactor authentication method uses two or more processes for logon. A two-factor method might use smart cards and biometrics for logon.

*TCP/IP uses its own four-layer architecture that includes _______________ layers.* a. Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application b. Network Interface, Network, Transport, and Application c. Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Authentication d. Network Interface, Network, Transport, and Authentication

a. *Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application* TCP/IP uses its own four-layer architecture that includes Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application layers.

*Which term describes a technique that allows private IP addresses to be used on the public Internet?* a. Network address translation (NAT) b. Port address translation (PAT) c. Network access control (NAC) d. Loop protection

a. *Network address translation (NAT)* Network address translation (NAT) is a technique that allows private IP addresses to be used on the public Internet.

Operating System and Application Security *Users are complaining about name resolution problems suddenly occurring that were never an issue before. You suspect that an intruder has compromised the integrity of the DNS server on your network. What is one of the primary ways in which an attacker uses DNS?* a. Network footprinting b. Network sniffing c. Database server lookup d. Registration counterfeiting

a. *Network footprinting* DNS records in a DNS server provide insights into the nature and structure of a network. DNS records should be kept to a minimum in public DNS servers. Network footprinting involves the attacker collecting data about the network to devise methods of intrusion.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *At which layer of the OSI model does the Internet Protocol Security protocol function?* a. Network layer b. Presentation layer c. Session layer d. Application layer

a. *Network layer* IPsec validation and encryption function at the network layer of the OSI model. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because IPsec functions at a lower level of the OSI model.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following can be used to monitor a network for unauthorized activity? (Choose two.)* a. Network sniffer b. NIDS c. HIDS d. VPN

a. *Network sniffer* b. *NIDS* Network sniffers and NIDSs are used to monitor network traffic. Network sniffers are manually oriented, whereas an NIDS can be automated.

Network Security *Which type of switch network monitoring is best suited for high-speed networks that have a large volume of traffic?* a. Network tapping b. Port mirroring c. Load balancing d. Packet filtering

a. *Network tapping* A network tap is generally best for high-speed networks that have a large volume of traffic, while port mirroring is better for networks with light traffic.

*The sender of data is provided with proof of delivery, and neither the sender nor receiver can deny either having sent or received the data. What is this called?* a. Nonrepudiation b. Repetition c. Nonrepetition d. Repudiation

a. *Nonrepudiation* Nonrepudiation means that neither party can deny either having sent or received the data in question. Both answers B and C are incorrect. And repudiation is defined as the act of refusal; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

*Which of the following are used to verify the status of a certificate? (Select two correct answers.)* a. OCSP b. CRL c. OSPF d. ACL

a. *OCSP* b. *CRL* The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) and the certificate revocation list (CRL) are used to verify the status of digital certificates. OSPF is a routing protocol; therefore, answer C is incorrect. An ACL is used to define access control; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

*What is a significant difference between vulnerability scanners and penetration testing?* a. One tests both the infrastructure and personnel. b. One only tests internal weaknesses. c. One only tests for configuration errors. d. One is used to find problems before hackers do.

a. *One tests both the infrastructure and personnel.* The primary difference between vulnerability assessment and penetration testing is that penetration testing tests both the infrastructure and the personnel. Vulnerability assessment is performed by a security administrator using an automated tool that is designed solely to test the configuration of target systems

Access Control and Identity Management *Which one of the following defines APIs for devices such as smart cards that contain cryptographic information?* a. PKCS #11 b. PKCS #13 c. PKCS #4 d. PKCS #2

a. *PKCS #11* PKCS #11, the Cryptographic Token Interface Standards, defines an API named Cryptoki for devices holding cryptographic information. Answer B is incorrect because PKCS #13 is the Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) standard. Both answers C and D are incorrect because PKCS #4 and PKCS #2 no longer exist and have been integrated into PKCS #1, RSA Cryptography Standard.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which protocol is unsuitable for WAN VPN connections?* a. PPP b. PPTP c. L2TP d. IPSec

a. *PPP* PPP provides no security, and all activities are unsecure. PPP is primarily intended for dial-up connections and should never be used for VPN connections.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which protocol is unsuitable for WAN VPN connections?* a. PPP b. PPTP c. L2TP d. IPSec

a. *PPP* PPP provides no security, and all activities are unsecure. PPP is primarily intended for remote connections and should never be used for VPN connections.

Wireless Networking Security *If the interconnection between the WAP server and the Internet isn't encrypted, packets between the devices may be intercepted. What is this vulnerability known as?* a. Packet sniffing b. Minding the gap c. Middle man d. Broken promise

a. *Packet sniffing* If the interconnection between the WAP server and the Internet isn't encrypted, packets between the devices may be intercepted and this is known as packet sniffing.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Your system log files report an ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account. This attempt has been unsuccessful to this point. What type of attack are you most likely experiencing?* a. Password-guessing attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm attack d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *Password-guessing attack* A password-guessing attack occurs when a user account is repeatedly attacked using a variety of different passwords.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which component of physical security addresses outer-level access control?* a. Perimeter security b. Mantraps c. Security zones d. Locked doors

a. *Perimeter security* The first layer of access control is perimeter security. Perimeter security is intended to delay or deter entrance into a facility.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following copies the traffic from all ports to a single port and disallows bidirectional traffic on that port?* a. Port spanning b. Socket blending c. Straddling d. Amalgamation

a. *Port spanning* Port spanning (also known as port mirroring) copies the traffic from all ports to a single port and disallows bidirectional traffic on that port.

Protecting Networks *Sockets are a combination of the IP address and which of the following?* a. Port b. MAC address c. NIC setting d. NetBIOS ID

a. *Port* Sockets are a combination of the IP address and the port.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Upper management has decreed that a firewall must be put in place immediately, before your site suffers an attack similar to one that struck a sister company. Responding to this order, your boss instructs you to implement a packet filter by the end of the week. A packet filter performs which function?* a. Prevents unauthorized packets from entering the network b. Allows all packets to leave the network c. Allows all packets to enter the network d. Eliminates collisions in the network

a. *Prevents unauthorized packets from entering the network* Packet filters prevent unauthorized packets from entering or leaving a network. Packet filters are a type of firewall that blocks specified port traffic.

*When a subject or end user requests a certificate, they must provide which of the following items? (Choose all that apply.)* a. Proof of identity b. A hardware storage device c. A public key d. A private key

a. *Proof of identity* c. *A public key* Proof of identity and the subject's public key must be provided to the CA when the subject requests a certificate. The private key should never be revealed to anyone, not even the CA. A hardware storage device is used after a key or certificate has been issued, not as part of the requesting process.

*A rootkit has been discovered on your mission-critical database server. What is the best step to take to return this system to production?* a. Reconstitute it. b. Run an antivirus tool. c. Install an HIDS. d. Apply vendor patches.

a. *Reconstitute it.* The only real option to return a system to a secure state after a rootkit is reconstitution.

*_______________ is designed to simplify the deployment of 802.1x by using Microsoft Windows logins and passwords.* a. Protected EAP (PEAP) b. Lightweight EAP (LEAP) c. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) d. PSK2-mixed mode

a. *Protected EAP (PEAP)* Protected EAP (PEAP) is designed to simplify the deployment of 802.1x by using Microsoft Windows logins and passwords. PEAP is considered a more flexible PEAP scheme because it creates an encrypted channel between the client and the authentication server, and the channel then protects the subsequent user authentication exchange.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *There have been some sporadic connectivity issues on the network. Which of the following is the best choice to investigate these issues?* a. Protocol analyzer b. Circuit-level gateway logs c. Spam filter appliance d. Web application firewall logs

a. *Protocol analyzer* Protocol analyzers help you troubleshoot network issues by gathering packet-level information across the network. These applications capture packets and can conduct protocol decoding, putting the information into readable data for analysis. Answer B is incorrect because a circuit-level gateway filters based on source and destination addresses. Answer C is incorrect because all-in-one spam filter appliances allow for checksum technology, which tracks the number of times a particular message has appeared, and message authenticity checking, which uses multiple algorithms to verify authenticity of a message. Answer D is incorrect because a web application firewall is software or a hardware appliance used to protect the organization's web server from attack.

*Certificates have what single purpose?* a. Proving identity b. Proving quality c. Providing encryption security d. Exchanging encryption keys

a. *Proving identity* Certificates have the single purpose of proving identity. They don't prove quality or provide encryption security, and they aren't used to exchange encryption keys.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You've been brought in as a temporary for FRS, Inc. The head of IT assigns you the task of evaluating all servers and their disks and making a list of any data not stored redundantly. Which disk technology isn't fault tolerant?* a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 3 d. RAID 5

a. *RAID 0* RAID 0 is a method of spreading data from a single disk over a number of disk drives. It's used primarily for performance purposes.

*Which of the following algorithms is now known as the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?* a. Rijndael b. 3DES c. RC6 d. Twofish e. CAST

a. *Rijndael* Rijndael was the winner of the new AES standard. Although RC6 and Twofish competed for selection, they were not chosen. 3DES and CAST did not participate; therefore, answers B, C, D, and E are incorrect.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies necessitates an identified risk that those involved understand the potential cost/damage and agree to accept?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

a. *Risk acceptance* Risk acceptance necessitates an identified risk that those involved understand the potential cost/damage and agree to accept.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following protocols supports DES, 3DES, RC2, and RSA2 encryption along with CHAP authentication, but was not widely adopted?* a. S-HTTP b. S/MIME c. HTTP d. PPTP

a. *S-HTTP* An alternative to HTTPS is the Secure Hypertext Transport Protocol (S-HTTP), which was developed to support connectivity for banking transactions and other secure web communications. S-HTTP was not adopted by the early web browser developers (for example, Netscape and Microsoft) and so remains less common than the HTTPS standard. Additionally, S-HTTP encrypts individual messages so it cannot be used for VPN security. Answer B is incorrect. S/MIME is used to encrypt electronic mail transmissions over public networks. Answer C is incorrect because HTTP is used for unsecured web-based communications. Answer D is incorrect because Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a network protocol that enables the secure transfer of data from a remote client to a private enterprise server by creating a virtual private network (VPN) across TCP/IP-based data networks.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following is most likely to use network segmentation as an alternate security method?* a. SCADA systems b. Mainframes c. Android d. Gaming consoles

a. *SCADA systems* Network segmentation is one of the most effective controls an organization can implement in order to mitigate the effect of a network intrusion. Due to the sensitive nature of supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, they would most likely use network segmentation. Answer B is incorrect because mainframes would most likely use security layers. Answer C is incorrect because Android would most likely use security layers. Answer D is incorrect. Most gaming consoles use firmware version control as an alternative security method.

*In order to ensure that whole-drive encryption provides the best security possible, which of the following should not be performed?* a. Screen lock the system overnight. b. Require a boot password to unlock the drive. c. Lock the system in a safe when it is not in use. d. Power down the system after use.

a. *Screen lock the system overnight.* An attack can steal the encryption key from memory, so systems with whole-drive encryption that are only screen-locked are vulnerable. Requiring a boot password, locking the system, and powering down ensure the protection of whole drive encryption.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following methods is the most effective way to physically secure laptops that are used in an environment such as an office?* a. Security cables b. Server cages c. Locked cabinet d. Hardware dongle

a. *Security cables* Security cables with combination locks can provide such security and are easy to use. They are used mostly to secure laptops and leave the equipment exposed. Answer B is incorrect because PC Safe tower and server cages are designed to bolt to the floor and are meant to be in an environment that is static. Answer C is incorrect because a locked cabinet is an alternative for equipment that is not used or does not have to be physically accessed on a regular, daily basis. Vendors provide solutions such as a security cabinet locker that secures CPU towers. The housing is made of durable, heavy-duty steel for strength. Answer D is incorrect because a hardware dongle is used for license enforcement.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *MTS is in the process of increasing all security for all resources. No longer will the legacy method of assigning rights to users as they're needed be accepted. From now on, all rights must be obtained for the network or system through group membership. Which of the following groups is used to manage access in a network?* a. Security group b. Single sign-on group c. Resource sharing group d. AD group

a. *Security group* A security group is used to manage user access to a network or system.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policies are designed to reduce the risk of fraud and prevent other losses in an organization?* a. Separation of duties b. Acceptable use c. Least privilege d. Physical access control

a. *Separation of duties* The separation of duties policies are designed to reduce the risk of fraud and prevent other losses in an organization.

Operating System and Application Security *The administrator at MTS was recently fired, and it has come to light that he didn't install updates and fixes as they were released. As the newly hired administrator, your first priority is to bring all networked clients and servers up-to-date. What is a bundle of one or more system fixes in a single product called?* a. Service pack b. Hotfix c. Patch d. System install

a. *Service pack* A service pack is one or more repairs to system problems bundled into a single process or function.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *The process of reducing or eliminating susceptibility to outside interference is called what?* a. Shielding b. EMI c. TEMPEST d. Desensitization

a. *Shielding* Shielding keeps external electronic signals from disrupting operations.

*Which protocol is used to manage network equipment and is supported by most network equipment manufacturers?* a. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) d. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

a. *Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)* The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a popular protocol used to manage network equipment and is supported by most network equipment manufacturers.

Protecting Networks *Which device monitors network traffic in a passive manner?* a. Sniffer b. IDS c. Firewall d. Web browser

a. *Sniffer* Sniffers monitor network traffic and display traffic in real time. Sniffers, also called network monitors, were originally designed for network maintenance and troubleshooting.

Educating and Protecting the User *As part of your training program, you're trying to educate users on the importance of security. You explain to them that not every attack depends on implementing advanced technological methods. Some attacks, you explain, take advantage of human shortcomings to gain access that should otherwise be denied. What term do you use to describe attacks of this type?* a. Social engineering b. IDS system c. Perimeter security d. Biometrics

a. *Social engineering* Social engineering uses the inherent trust in the human species, as opposed to technology, to gain access to your environment.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You're the administrator for a large bottling company. At the end of each month, you routinely view all logs and look for discrepancies. This month, your email system error log reports a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log on. It's apparent that the email server is being targeted. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?* a. Software exploitation attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *Software exploitation attack* A software exploitation attack attempts to exploit weaknesses in software. A common attack attempts to communicate with an established port to gain unauthorized access. Most email servers use port 25 for email connections using SMTP.

*An authentication system relies on an RFID chip embedded in a plastic key together with the pattern of blood vessels in the back of an authorized user's hand. What types of authentication are being employed in this system?* a. Something you have and something you are b. Something you do and something you know c. Something you know and something you are d. Somewhere you are and something you have

a. *Something you have and something you are* The RFID-enabled key is a form of "something you have," and the blood vessel biometric signature is a form of "something you are." Answers B and C are incorrect because there are no "something you know" requirements, such as the input of a personal identification number (PIN) or password. Answer D is incorrect because the "somewhere you are," also known as geolocation, authentication factor is not mentioned in the question.

*Which of the following is an example of a Type 2 authentication factor?* a. Something you have, such as a smart card, an ATM card, a token device, or a memory card b. Something you are, such as fingerprints, voice print, retina pattern, iris pattern, face shape, palm topology, or hand geometry c. Something you do, such as type a passphrase, sign your name, or speak a sentence d. Something you know, such as a password, personal identification number (PIN), lock combination, passphrase, mother's maiden name, or favorite color

a. *Something you have, such as a smart card, an ATM card, a token device, or a memory card* A Type 2 authentication factor is something you have. This could be a smart card, an ATM card, a token device, or a memory card.

Network Security *Which type of firewall packet filtering looks at the incoming packet and permits or denies it based on the conditions that have been set by the administrator?* a. Stateless packet filtering b. Stateful packet filtering c. Switched packet filtering d. Secure packet filtering

a. *Stateless packet filtering* Packets can be filtered by a firewall in one of two ways. Stateless packet filtering looks at the incoming packet and permits or denies it based on the conditions that have been set by the administrator. Stateful packet filtering keeps a record of the state of a connection between an internal computer and an external device and then makes decisions based on the connection as well as the conditions.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open?* a. Succession planning b. Progression planning c. Emergency planning d. Eventuality planning

a. *Succession planning* Succession planning outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following are multiport devices that improve network efficiency?* a. Switches b. Modems c. Gateways d. Concentrators

a. *Switches* Switches are multiport devices that improve network efficiency. A switch typically has a small amount of information about systems in a network.

*Which of the following is a non-proprietary protocol that provides authentication and authorization as well as accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests?* a. TACACS+ b. SAML c. Secure LDAP d. XTACACS

a. *TACACS+* TACACS+, released as an open standard, is a protocol that provides authentication and authorization as well as accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests. TACACS+ is similar to RADIUS but uses TCP instead of RADIUS's UDP transport. Answer B is incorrect because SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) framework for creating and exchanging security information between online partners. Answer C is incorrect because secure LDAP is a way to make LDAP traffic confidential and secure by using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) / Transport Layer Security (TLS) technology. Answer D is incorrect because XTACACS is a proprietary version of the original TACACS protocol that was developed by Cisco.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A server on your network will no longer accept connections using TCP. The server indicates that it has exceeded its session limit. Which type of attack is probably occurring?* a. TCP ACK attack b. Smurf attack c. Virus attack d. TCP/IP hijacking

a. *TCP ACK attack* A TCP ACK attack creates multiple incomplete sessions. Eventually, the TCP protocol hits a limit and refuses additional connections.

*A man-in-the-middle attack takes advantage of which of the following?* a. TCP handshake b. UDP handshake c. Juggernaut d. All of the above

a. *TCP handshake* TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, which uses a three-way handshake to establish and close a connection. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. A man-in-the-middle attack takes advantage of this handshake by inserting itself in the middle. UDP is a connectionless protocol and does not use a handshake to establish a connection. Juggernaut describes a program that helps make man-in-the-middle attacks easier.

Wireless Networking Security *Which encryption technology is associated with WPA?* a. TKIP b. CCMP c. WEP d. LDAP

a. *TKIP* The encryption technology associated with WPA is TKIP.

Cryptography Basics *Mercury Technical Solutions has been using SSL in a business-to-business environment for a number of years. Despite the fact that there have been no compromises in security, the new IT manager wants to use stronger security than SSL can offer. Which of the following protocols is similar to SSL but offers the ability to use additional security protocols?* a. TLS b. SSH c. RSH d. X.509

a. *TLS* TLS is a security protocol that uses SSL, and it allows the use of other security protocols.

*Which type of risk control involves enforcing technology to control risk, such as antivirus software, firewalls, and encryption?* a. Technical b. System c. Management d. Operational

a. *Technical* Technical risk control types involve enforcing technology to control risk, such as antivirus software, firewalls, and encryption.

*Which term describes both an older TCP/IP protocol for text-based communication and a terminal emulation program?* a. Telnet b. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) c. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) d. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

a. *Telnet* Telnet is an older TCP/IP protocol for text-based communication. In addition, Telnet is also an application. This application is a terminal emulation program that runs on a local computer that connects to a server on the network. Commands can be entered using the Telnet application to the remote server as if the user was at the server itself.

*The heart and soul of WPA is a newer encryption technology called _______________.* a. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Triple DES d. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)

a. *Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)* The heart and soul of WPA is a newer encryption technology called Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). TKIP functions as a "wrapper" around WEP by adding an additional layer of security but still preserving WEP's basic functionality.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *A policy of mandatory vacations should be implemented in order to assist in:* a. The prevention of fraud b. Identifying employees no longer needed c. Reducing insurance expenses d. Enforcing privilege management

a. *The prevention of fraud* A policy of mandatory vacations should be implemented in order to assist in the prevention of fraud.

Access Control and Identity Management *Your company provides medical data to doctors from a worldwide database. Because of the sensitive nature of the data you work with, it's imperative that authentication be established on each session and be valid only for that session. Which of the following authentication methods provides credentials that are valid only during a single session?* a. Tokens b. Certificate c. Smart card d. Kerberos

a. *Tokens* Tokens are created when a user or system successfully authenticates. The token is destroyed when the session is over.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is the highest classification level in the government?* a. Top Secret b. Secret c. Classified d. Confidential

a. *Top Secret* Top Secret is the highest classification level in the government.

*What is the most common protocol used today for both local area networks (LANs) and the Internet?* a. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) b. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) c. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) d. Domain Name System (DNS)

a. *Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)* Computer networks also have protocols, or rules for communication. These protocols are essential for proper communication to take place between network devices. The most common protocol used today for both local area networks (LANs) and the Internet is Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A mobile user calls you from the road and informs you that his laptop is exhibiting erratic behavior. He reports that there were no problems until he downloaded a tic-tac-toe program from a site that he had never visited before. Which of the following terms describes a program that enters a system disguised in another program?* a. Trojan horse virus b. Polymorphic virus c. Worm d. Armored virus

a. *Trojan horse virus* A Trojan horse enters with a legitimate program to accomplish its nefarious deeds.

*What two key elements must be carefully balanced in an effective security policy?* a. Trust and control b. Due process and due care c. Due process and due diligence d. Privilege and threat

a. *Trust and control* An effective security policy must carefully balance two key elements: trust and control.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which technology allows a connection to be made between two networks using a secure protocol?* a. Tunneling b. VLAN c. Internet d. Extranet

a. *Tunneling* Tunneling allows a network to make a secure connection to another network through the Internet or other network. Tunnels are usually secure and present themselves as extensions of both networks.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following is similar to Blowfish but works on 128-bit blocks?* a. Twofish b. IDEA c. CCITT d. AES

a. *Twofish* Twofish was created by the same creator of Blowfish. It performs a similar function on 128-bit blocks instead of 64-bit blocks.

Network Security *What term refers to a technology that enables authorized users to use an unsecured public network, such as the Internet, as if it were a secure private network?* a. Virtual private network (VPN) b. Gateway c. Intrusion detection system (IDS) d. Port mirroring

a. *Virtual private network (VPN)* A virtual private network (VPN) is a technology that enables authorized users to use an unsecured public network, such as the Internet, as if it were a secure private network.

Access Control and Identity Management *You're the administrator for Mercury Technical. Due to several expansions, the network has grown exponentially in size within the past two years. Which of the following is a popular method for breaking a network into smaller private networks that can coexist on the same wiring and yet be unaware of each other?* a. VLAN b. NAT c. MAC d. Security zone

a. *VLAN* Virtual local area networks (VLANs) break a large network into smaller networks. These networks can coexist on the same wiring and be unaware of each other. A router or other routing-type device would be needed to connect these VLANs.

*You are setting up an FTP server that needs to be accessed by both the employees and external contractors. What type of architecture should you implement?* a. VLAN b. DMZ c. NAT d. VPN

a. *VLAN* b. *DMZ* c. *NAT* All except answers D and E are advantages of honeypots and honeynets. Currently, the legal implications of using such systems are not that well defined, and the use of these systems typically requires more administrative resources.

*Which of the following is a cloud-based security solution mainly found in private data centers?* a. VPC b. HSM c. TPM d. PKI

a. *VPC* The HSM and cloud machines can both live on the same virtual private network through the use of a virtual private cloud (VPC) environment. This type of solution is mainly found in private datacenters that manage and offload cryptography with dedicated hardware appliances. Answer B is incorrect because traditionally HSMs have been used in the banking sector to secure numerous large, bulk transactions. Answer C is incorrect because TPM refers to a secure crypto-processor used to authenticate hardware devices such as a PC or laptop. Answer D is incorrect because public key infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates.

*Which one of the following is not considered a physical security component?* a. VPN tunnel b. Mantrap c. Fence d. CCTV

a. *VPN tunnel* A VPN tunnel is an example of data security, not physical security. Mantrap, fence, and CCTV are all components of physical security; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

*In redundancy and fault tolerance, the term _______________ describes the average amount of time that it will take a device to recover from a failure that is not a terminal failure.* a. mean time to recovery b. failure In Time c. mean time between failures d. mean time to failure

a. *mean time to recovery* Mean time to recovery (MTTR) is the average amount of time that it will take a device to recover from a failure that is not a terminal failure.

*Which of the following provide a "sandboxed" system that can be used to investigate malware?* a. Virtualization b. Network storage c. Host software baselining d. Application baselining

a. *Virtualization* A virtualized "sandboxed" guest system can help in computer-security research, which enables the study of the effects of some viruses or worms without the possibility of compromising the host system. Answer B is incorrect because network storage has nothing to do with desktop management. Answer C is incorrect because host software baselining can be done for a variety of reasons including malware monitoring and creating system images. Answer D is incorrect because application baselining is used to monitor changes in application behavior.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Nessus is a tool that performs which security function?* a. Vulnerability scanning b. Penetration testing c. Ethical hacking d. Loop protection

a. *Vulnerability scanning* Nessus is one of the better-known vulnerability scanners.

Wireless Networking Security *An IV attack is usually associated with which of the following wireless protocols?* a. WEP b. WAP c. WPA d. WPA2

a. *WEP* An IV attack is usually associated with the WEP wireless protocol.

*There are two modes for Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA): _______________.* a. WPA Personal and WPA Enterprise b. WPA Private and WPA Public c. WPA Open and WPA Closed d. WPA Shortwave and WPA Longwave

a. *WPA Personal and WPA Enterprise* There are two modes of WPA. WPA Personal was designed for individuals or small office/home office (SOHO) settings, which typically have 10 or fewer employees. A more robust WPA Enterprise was intended for larger enterprises, schools, and government agencies. WPA addresses both encryption and authentication.

*Which of the following provides government-grade security by implementing the AES encryption algorithm and 802.1X-based authentication?* a. WPA2 b. WEP c. WPA d. WAP

a. *WPA2* WPA2 is based on the IEEE 802.11i standard and provides government-grade security by implementing the AES encryption algorithm and 802.1X-based authentication. Answer B is incorrect because the WEP standard was proven to be unsecure and has been replaced by the newer WPA standards. Answer C is incorrect because the early WPA standard has been superseded by the WPA2 standard, implementing the full 802.11i-2004 amendment. Answer D is incorrect because a WAP refers to a wireless access point, which is the wireless network hardware that functions in the place of a wired switch.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following manages the session information and connection between wireless devices?* a. WSP b. WPD c. WPT d. WMD

a. *WSP* WSP (Wireless Session Protocol) manages the session information and connection between wireless devices.

Cryptography Implementation *The mesh trust model is also known as what?* a. Web structure b. Car model c. Web redemption d. Corrupt system

a. *Web structure* The mesh trust model is also known as a web structure.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following is not a principal concern for first responders to a hacking incident within a corporation operating in the United States?* a. Whether EMI shielding is intact b. Whether data is gathered properly c. Whether data is protected from modification d. Whether collected data is complete

a. *Whether EMI shielding is intact* EMI shielding is important to protecting data and services against unauthorized interception as well as interference but is not a principal concern for first responders following an incident. First responders must ensure that data is collected correctly and protect it from modification using proper controls ensuring a clear chain of evidence, making answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because a first responder might be the only agent able to ensure that all data is collected before being lost due to volatility of storage.

Cryptography Implementation *The most popular certificate used is version 3 of:* a. X.509 b. B.102 c. C.409 d. Z.602

a. *X.509* The most popular certificate used is version 3 of X.509.

Cryptography Basics *Which set of specifications is designed to allow XML-based programs access to PKI services?* a. XKMS b. XMLS c. PKXMS d. PKIXMLS

a. *XKMS* XML Key Management Specification (XKMS) is designed to allow XML-based programs access to PKI services.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You're the administrator for MTS. You're creating a team that will report to you, and you're attempting to divide the responsibilities for security among individual members. Similarly, which of the following access methods breaks a large area into smaller areas that can be monitored individually?* a. Zone b. Partition c. Perimeter d. Floor

a. *Zone* A security zone is a smaller part of a larger area. Security zones can be monitored individually if needed. Answers B, C, and D are examples of security zones.

*A(n) _______________ access point (AP) uses a standard web browser to provide information, and gives the wireless user the opportunity to agree to a policy or present valid login credentials, providing a higher degree of security.* a. captive portal b. open portal c. closed portal d. Internet portal

a. *captive portal* A captive portal AP uses a standard web browser to provide information, and gives the wireless user the opportunity to agree to a policy or present valid login credentials, providing a higher degree of security.

*A _______________ cloud is a cloud that is open only to specific organizations that have common concerns.* a. community b. public c. hybrid d. private

a. *community* A community cloud is a cloud that is open only to specific organizations that have common concerns.

*Risk _______________ involves understanding something about the attacker and then informing him of the harm that may come his way if he attacks an asset.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. transference d. avoidance

a. *deterrence* Risk deterrence involves understanding something about the attacker and then informing him of the harm that may come his way if he attacks an asset.

*A _______________ is a feature that controls a device's tolerance for unanswered service requests and helps to prevent a denial of service (DoS) attack.* a. flood guard b. virtual local area network (VLAN) c. network intrusion detection system (NIDS) d. virtual private network (VPN) concentrator

a. *flood guard* One defense against DoS and DDoS SYN flood attacks is to use a flood guard. A flood guard is a feature that controls a device's tolerance for unanswered service requests and helps to prevent a DoS attack.

*In _______________ virtualization, an entire operating system environment is simulated.* a. host b. network c. application d. cloud

a. *host* One type of virtualization in which an entire operating system environment is simulated is known as host virtualization. Instead of using a physical computer, a virtual machine, which is a simulated software-based emulation of a computer, is created. The host system (the operating system installed on the computer's hardware) runs a hypervisor that manages the virtual machine operating systems and supports one or more guest systems (a foreign virtual operating system).

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *You want to implement MAC filtering on a small network but do not know the MAC address of a Linux-based workstation. Which command-line tool can you run on the workstation to find the MAC address?* a. ifconfig b. ifconfig /show c. ipconfig d. ipconfig /all

a. *ifconfig* The command ifconfig will show the MAC address on the Linux or Unix-based workstation.

*An advantage of _______________ is that it helps to expose any potential avenues for fraud by having multiple individuals with different perspectives learn about the job and uncover vulnerabilities that someone else may have overlooked.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacation c. separation of duties d. least privilege

a. *job rotation* An advantage of job rotation is that it helps to expose any potential avenues for fraud by having multiple individuals with different perspectives learn about the job and uncover vulnerabilities that someone else may have overlooked.

Network Security *Using _______________, filters can assess if a webpage contains any malicious elements or exhibits any malicious behavior, and then flag questionable pages with a warning message.* a. malware inspection and filtering b. content inspection c. uniform resource locator (URL) filtering d. detailed reporting

a. *malware inspection and filtering* With malware inspection and filtering, filters can assess if a webpage contains any malicious elements or exhibits any malicious behavior, and then flag questionable pages with a warning message.

*Ports can be secured through disabling unused interfaces, using _______________, and through IEEE 802.1x.* a. media access control (MAC) limiting and filtering b. virtual private network (VPN) tunneling c. packet sniffers d. virtual local area networks (VLANs)

a. *media access control (MAC) limiting and filtering* Ports can be secured through disabling unused interfaces, using MAC limiting and filtering, and through IEEE 802.1x.

*The goal of _______________ is to prevent computers with suboptimal security from potentially infecting other computers through the network.* a. network access control (NAC) b. virtualization c. captive portals d. port security

a. *network access control (NAC)* The goal of NAC is to prevent computers with suboptimal security from potentially infecting other computers through the network.

*A weakness of FTPS is that although the control port commands are encrypted, the data port (_______________) may or may not be encrypted.* a. port 20 b. port 21 c. port 25 d. port 80

a. *port 20* A weakness of FTPS is that although the control port commands are encrypted, the data port (port 20) may or may not be encrypted.

*By using _______________, instead of giving each outgoing packet a different IP address, each packet is given the same IP address but a different TCP port number.* a. port address translation (PAT) b. network access control (NAC) c. network address translation (NAT) d. port mirroring

a. *port address translation (PAT)* A variation of NAT is port address translation (PAT). Instead of giving each outgoing packet a different IP address, each packet is given the same IP address but a different TCP port number. This allows a single public IP address to be used by several users.

Network Security *A(n) _______________ captures packets to decode and analyzes their contents.* a. protocol analyzer b. load balancer c. Internet content filter d. spam filter

a. *protocol analyzer* A protocol analyzer captures packets to decode and analyzes their contents.

Network Security *A(n) _______________ is a computer or an application program that intercepts user requests from the internal secure network and then processes that request on behalf of the user.* a. proxy server b. load balancer c. network tap d. Internet content filter

a. *proxy server* A proxy server is a computer or an application program that intercepts user requests from the internal secure network and then processes that request on behalf of the user.

*Within a firewall rule, the _______________ describes the TCP/IP port number being used to send packets of data through.* a. source port b. destination port c. source address d. destination address

a. *source port* The source port is the TCP/IP port number being used to send packets of data through. Options for setting the source port often include a specific port number, a range of numbers, or Any (port).

*One way to provide network separation is to physically separate users by connecting them to different _______________.* a. switches and routers b. hubs c. mirrored ports d. operating systems

a. *switches and routers* One way to provide network separation is to physically separate users by connecting them to different switches and routers. This prevents bridging and even prevents a reconfigured device from allowing that connection to occur.

*Transferring files can be performed using the File Transfer Protocol (FTP), which is a(n) _______________ TCP/IP protocol.* a. unsecure b. secure c. open d. closed

a. *unsecure* Transferring files can be performed using the File Transfer Protocol (FTP), which is an unsecure TCP/IP protocol. FTP is used to connect to an FTP server, much in the same way that HTTP links to a web server.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Consider the following scenario: The asset value of your company's primary servers is $2 million and they are housed in a single office building in Anderson, Indiana. You have field offices scattered throughout the United States, so the servers in the main office account for approximately half the business. Tornados in this part of the country are not uncommon, and it is estimated one will level the building every 60 years.* *Which of the following is the SLE for this scenario?* a. $2 million b. $1 million c. $500,000 d. $33,333.33 e. $16,666.67

b. *$1 million* SLE (single loss expectancy) is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF). In this case, asset value is $2 million and exposure factor is 1/2.

*An asset is valued at $12,000, the threat exposure factor of a risk affecting that asset is 25%, and the annualized rate of occurrence is 50%. What is the SLE?* a. $1,500 b. $3,000 c. $4,000 d. $6,000

b. *$3,000* The single loss expectancy (SLE) is the product of the value ($12,000) and the threat exposure (.25), or $3,000. Answer A is incorrect because $1,500 represents the annualized loss expectancy (ALE), which is the product of the SLE and the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). Answers C and D are incorrect calculated values.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *What is the maximum number of drive failures a RAID 5 array can survive from and still be able to function?* a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. More than 2

b. *1* A RAID 5 array can survive the failure of any one drive and still be able to function. It can't survive the failure of multiple drives.

*Which port does NetBIOS use?* a. 80 b. 139 c. 143 d. 443

b. *139* NetBIOS uses port 139.

*Which port does the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) use?* a. 25 b. 143 c. 443 d. 3389

b. *143* The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143.

*If an organization takes a full backup every Sunday morning and a daily differential backup each morning, what is the fewest number of backups that must be restored following a disaster on Friday?* a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 6

b. *2* With a differential backup scheme, only the last full and last differential backup need to be restored, making answer C incorrect as well. Daily full backups would require only the last full backup, making answer A incorrect in this configuration. Answer D would be correct in an incremental rather than a differential backup setting, where the last full and all intervening incremental backups must be restored for recovery.

*You want to be sure that the FTP ports that are required for a contract worker's functionality have been properly secured. Which of the following ports would you check?* a. 25/110/143 b. 20/21 c.137/138/139 d. 53

b. *20/21* Ports 20 and 21 are used for FTP. Answer A is incorrect because these ports are used for email. Answer C is incorrect because these NetBIOS ports are required for certain Windows network functions such as file sharing. Answer D is incorrect because this port is used for DNS.

*Which port does the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) use for commands?* a. 20 b. 21 c. 22 d. 25

b. *21* The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses port 21 for commands.

*Which port does the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol use?* a. 21 b. 22 c. 139 d. 443

b. *22* The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol uses port 22.

Wireless Networking Security *What is the size of the initialization vector (IV) that WEP uses for encryption?* a. 6-bit b. 24-bit c. 56-bit d. 128-bit

b. *24-bit* The initialization vector (IV) that WEP uses for encryption is 24-bit.

*What is the proper humidity level or range for IT environments?* a. Below 40 percent b. 40 percent to 60 percent c. Above 60 percent d. 20 percent to 80 percent

b. *40 percent to 60 percent* The proper humidity level or range for IT environments is 40% RH to 60% RH.

*Which port does the Domain Name System (DNS) protocol use?* a. 25 b. 53 c. 80 d. 443

b. *53* The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol uses port 53.

Network Security *What feature distinguishes a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) from a network intrusion detection system (NIDS)?* a. A NIPS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis. b. A NIPS is located "in line" on the firewall itself. c. A NIPS is designed to integrate with existing antivirus, antispyware, and firewalls that are installed on the local host computer. d. A NIPS can use a protocol stack verification technique.

b. *A NIPS is located "in line" on the firewall itself.* One of the major differences between a NIDS and a NIPS is its location. A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis. A NIPS, on the other hand, would be located "in line" on the firewall itself. This can allow the NIPS to more quickly take action to block an attack.

Educating and Protecting the User *You have recently had security breaches in the network. You suspect they might be coming from a telecommuter's home network. Which of the following devices would you use to require a secure method for employees to access corporate resources while working from home?* a. A router b. A VPN concentrator c. A firewall d. A network-based IDS

b. *A VPN concentrator* A VPN concentrator is used to allow multiple users to access network resources using secure features that are built in to the device and are deployed where the requirement is for a single device to handle a very large number of VPN tunnels. Answer A is incorrect because a router forwards information to its destination on the network or the Internet. A firewall protects computers and networks from undesired access by the outside world; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because network-based intrusion-detection systems monitor the packet flow and try to locate packets that are not allowed for one reason or another and might have gotten through the firewall.

*Which of the following statements best describes nonrepudiation?* a. A set of mathematical rules used in encryption b. A means of proving that a transaction occurred c. A method of hiding data in another message d. A drive technology used for redundancy and performance improvement

b. *A means of proving that a transaction occurred* Nonrepudiation means that neither a sender nor a receiver can deny sending or receiving a message or data. Answer A is incorrect because it describes an algorithm. Answer C is incorrect because it describes steganography. Answer D is incorrect because it describes RAID.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You're working late one night, and you notice that the hard disk on your new computer is very active even though you aren't doing anything on the computer and it isn't connected to the Internet. What is the most likely suspect?* a. A disk failure is imminent. b. A virus is spreading in your system. c. Your system is under a DoS attack. d. TCP/IP hijacking is being attempted.

b. *A virus is spreading in your system.* A symptom of many viruses is unusual activity on the system disk. This is caused by the virus spreading to other files on your system.

*Which of the following best describes why a requesting device might believe that incoming ARP replies are from the correct devices?* a. ARP requires validation. b. ARP does not require validation. c. ARP is connection oriented. d. ARP is connectionless.

b. *ARP does not require validation.* ARP is a protocol used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses. It does not require validation, thus answer A is incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because connection oriented and connectionless are used to describe communications between two endpoints in which a message is sent with or without prior arrangement.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policies describes how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware?* a. Separation of duties b. Acceptable use c. Least privilege d. Physical access control

b. *Acceptable use* The acceptable use policies describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *After a number of minor incidents at your company, physical security has suddenly increased in priority. No unauthorized personnel should be allowed access to the servers or workstations. The process of preventing access to computer systems in a building is called what?* a. Perimeter security b. Access control c. Security zones d. IDS systems

b. *Access control* Access control is the primary process of preventing access to physical systems.

*Which password standard provides the best opportunity to detect and react to a high-speed, brute-force password attack?* a. Password length b. Account lockout c. Password expiration d. Logon banner

b. *Account lockout* By locking an account after a limited number of failed attempts, administrative action is necessary to unlock the account and can raise awareness of repeated unauthorized access attempts while reducing the overall number of tests that can be attempted. Answers A and C are incorrect because both password length and password expiration can aid in complicating slow brute-force testing of sequential passwords if performed only a few times per day to avoid notice, but they provide only limited protection against high-bandwidth, brute-force attempts to guess passwords. Password complexity (including mixed-case letters, numbers, and symbols) provides more protection than length alone because the number of variations possible for each character rapidly expands the number of total tests that must be completed. Answer D is incorrect because logon banners detail legal repercussions following unauthorized access but provide no barrier against a brute-force attack.

Protecting Networks *In intrusion detection system parlance, which account is responsible for setting the security policy for an organization?* a. Supervisor b. Administrator c. Root d. Director

b. *Administrator* The administrator is the person/account responsible for setting the security policy for an organization.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A collection of compromised computers running software installed by a Trojan horse or a worm is referred to as which of the following?* a. Zombie b. Botnet c. Herder d. Virus

b. *Botnet* Answers A and C are incorrect but are related to a botnet in that a zombie is one of many computer systems that make up a botnet, whereas a bot herder is the controller of the botnet. Answer D is incorrect. A virus is a program that infects a computer without the knowledge of the user.

*Which of the following are advantages of honeypots and honeynets? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Attackers are diverted to systems that they cannot damage. b. Administrators are allotted time to decide how to respond to an attack. c. Attackers' actions can more easily be monitored and resulting steps taken to improve system security. d. Well-defined legal implications. e. Provides a structure that requires fewer security administrators.

b. *Administrators are allotted time to decide how to respond to an attack.* On-boarding is a term describing the process of registering an asset and provisioning the asset so it can be used to access the corporate network. Answer A is incorrect because mobile application management (MAM) focuses on application management. Answer C is incorrect. Mobile device management (MDM) allows the enrollment of enterprise devices for management functions such as provisioning devices, tracking inventory, configuration changes, updates, managing applications, and enforcing policies. Answer D is incorrect because device access controls are used to control network access not manage devices.

*What is an asset?* a. An item costing more than $10,000 b. Anything used in a work task c. A threat to the security of an organization d. An intangible resource

b. *Anything used in a work task* An asset is anything used in a work task.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Your organization is exploring data-loss prevention (DLP) solutions. The proposed solution is a software storage solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. This solution is targeting which of the following data states?* a. In-transit b. At-rest c. In-use d. In-service

b. *At-rest* Protection of data at-rest is considered to be a storage solution and is generally a software solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. Answer A is incorrect because protection of data in-transit is considered to be a network solution and either a hardware or software solution is installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. Answer C is incorrect because protection of data in-use is considered to be an endpoint solution and the application is run on end-user workstations or servers in the organization. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such data state.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following is the area of an application that is available to users—those who are authenticated and more importantly those who are not?* a. Exposed liability b. Attack surface c. Security weakness d. Susceptible claim

b. *Attack surface* The attack surface of an application is the area of an application that is available to users—those who are authenticated and more importantly those who are not.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which process involves verifying keys as being authentic?* a. Authorization b. Authentication c. Access control d. Verification

b. *Authentication* Authentication involves the presentation and verification of credentials of keys as being authentic. Answer A is incorrect because authorization involves checking authenticated credentials against a list of authorized security principles. Once checked, resource access is allowed or limited based on access control constraints, making Answer C incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because verification of credentials occurs during authentication (as being authentic) and authorization (as being authorized to request resource access) and is not a recognized access control process.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Your manager has purchased a program intended to be used to find problems during code review. The program will read the code and look for any possible bugs or holes. What type of assessment is this known as?* a. Mechanized b. Automated c. Programmed d. Manual

b. *Automated* Simply reading the code is known as manual assessment, while using tools to scan the code is known as automated assessment.

*Which risk management response is being implemented when a company decides to close a little-used legacy web application identified as vulnerable to SQL Injection?* a. Acceptance b. Avoidance c. Mitigation d. Transference

b. *Avoidance* Risk avoidance involves simply terminating the operation that produces the risk, such as when shutting down a vulnerable site. Answer A is incorrect because accepting a risk is to do nothing in response except document the risk-management decision and obtain senior management signoff. Answer C is not correct because mitigation applies a solution that results in a reduced level of risk or exposure. Answer D is incorrect because the liability or cost associated with a risk is transferred through insurance policies and other such legal means.

*Bluejacking and bluesnarfing make use of which wireless technology?* a. Wi-Fi b. Bluetooth c. Blu-Fi d. All of the above

b. *Bluetooth* Both bluejacking and bluesnarfing refer to types of attacks over short-range Bluetooth technology. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

*Which of the following makes it difficult for an eavesdropper to spot patterns and contains a message integrity method to ensure that messages have not been tampered with?* a. ICMP b. CCMP c. WEP d. LEAP

b. *CCMP* CCMP makes it difficult for an eavesdropper to spot patterns, and the CBC-MAC message integrity method ensures that messages have not been tampered with. Answer A is incorrect because ICMP is a network troubleshooting protocol. Answer C is incorrect because WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks. Answer D is incorrect because LEAP uses unencrypted challenges and responses and is vulnerable to dictionary attacks.

*What mechanism of wireless security is based on AES?* a. TKIP b. CCMP c. LEAP d. WEP

b. *CCMP* Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) is based on the AES encryption scheme.

*From a private corporate perspective, which of the following is most secure?* a. Decentralized key management b. Centralized key management c. Individual key management d. Distributed key management

b. *Centralized key management* Centralized key management is more secure, or at least more desirable, from a private corporate perspective. From a public or individual perspective, decentralized key management is more secure. Individual and distributed key management are nonstandard terms that could be used to refer to decentralized key management.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is responsible for issuing certificates?* a. Registration authority (RA) b. Certificate authority (CA) c. Document authority (DA) d. Local registration authority (LRA)

b. *Certificate authority (CA)* The certificate authority (CA) is responsible for issuing certificates.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is not true regarding expiration dates of certificates?* a. Certificates may be issued for a week. b. Certificates are issued only at yearly intervals. c. Certificates may be issued for 20 years. d. Certificates must always have an expiration date.

b. *Certificates are issued only at yearly intervals.* Digital certificates contain a field indicating the date to which the certificate is valid. This date is mandatory, and the validity period can vary from a short period of time up to a number of years; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

*Which of the following provides a clear record of the path evidence takes from acquisition to disposal?* a. Video capture b. Chain of custody c. Hashes d. Witness statements

b. *Chain of custody* The chain of custody provides a clear record of the path evidence takes from acquisition to disposal. Answer A is incorrect because videotaping the actual entrance of a forensics team into the area helps refute claims that evidence was planted at the scene. Answer C is incorrect because hashes allow validation that the forensic analysis itself has not produced unexpected modifications of evidentiary data. Answer D is incorrect because witnesses provide statements about what they saw, when, where, and how.

Educating and Protecting the User *Users should be educated in the correct way to close pop-up ads in the workplace. That method is to:* a. Click the word Close b. Click the "X" in the top right c. Press Ctrl+Alt+Del d. Call IT

b. *Click the "X" in the top right* Pop-up ads should be closed by clicking the "X" in the top right.

*Which term refers to a pay-per-use computing model in which customers pay only for the online computing resources they need?* a. Host computing b. Cloud computing c. Patch computing d. Server computing

b. *Cloud computing* Cloud computing, which is a pay-per-use computing model in which customers pay only for the online computing resources they need, has emerged as a revolutionary concept that can dramatically impact all areas of IT, including network design, applications, procedures, and even personnel.

*Which of the following best describes a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)?* a. Examines the information exchanged between machines b. Collects and analyzes data that originates on the local machine c. Controls the information coming in and out of the host machine d. Attempts to prevent network attacks in real time

b. *Collects and analyzes data that originates on the local machine* A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) collects and analyzes data that originates on the local machine. Answer A is incorrect; a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) tries to locate packets not allowed on the network that the firewall missed and looks at the information exchanged between machines. Answer C is incorrect because firewalls control the information that gets in and out of the host machine. Answer D is incorrect; intrusion prevention differs from intrusion detection in that it actually prevents attacks in real time instead of only detecting the occurrence.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *The process of establishing boundaries for information sharing is called:* a. Disassociation b. Compartmentalization c. Isolation d. Segregation

b. *Compartmentalization* The process of establishing boundaries for information sharing is called compartmentalization.

*Firewalls provide security through what mechanism?* a. Watching for intrusions b. Controlling traffic entering and leaving a network c. Requiring strong passwords d.

b. *Controlling traffic entering and leaving a network* Firewalls provide protection by controlling traffic entering and leaving a network.

*_______________ switches reside at the top of the hierarchy and carry traffic between switches, while _______________ switches are connected directly to the devices on the network.* a. Workgroup; core b. Core; workgroup c. Public; private d. Private; public

b. *Core; workgroup* Core switches reside at the top of the hierarchy and carry traffic between switches, while workgroup switches are connected directly to the devices on the network.

Cryptography Implementation *The process of requiring interoperability is called:* a. Cross examination b. Cross certification c. Cross scoping d. Cross marking

b. *Cross certification* The process of requiring interoperability is called cross certification.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *As the security administrator for your organization, you must be aware of all types of attacks that can occur and plan for them. Which type of attack uses more than one computer to attack the victim?* a. DoS b. DDoS c. Worm d. UDP attack

b. *DDoS* A DDoS attack uses multiple computer systems to attack a server or host in the network.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *The only difference between mirroring and which of the following is the addition of one more controller card?* a. Additioning b. Duplexing c. Failing over d. Sanctifying

b. *Duplexing* The only difference between mirroring and duplexing is one more controller card.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following types of attacks can be done by either convincing the users to click on an HTML page the attacker has constructed or insert arbitrary HTML in a target website that the users visit?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

b. *Cross-site request forgery (XSRF)* The key element to understanding XSRF is that attackers are betting that users have a validated login cookie for the website already stored in their browsers. All they need to do is get the browsers to make a request to the website on their behalf. This can be done by either convincing the users to click on an HTML page the attacker has constructed or inserting arbitrary HTML in a target website that the users visit. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer C is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Adding a token for every POST or GET request that is initiated from the browser to the server can be used to mitigate which of the following attacks?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

b. *Cross-site request forgery (XSRF)* To mitigate cross-site request forgery (XSRF) attacks, the most common solution is to add a token for every POST or GET request that is initiated from the browser to the server. Answer A is incorrect because buffer overflows are associated with input validation. Answer C is incorrect because setting the HTTPOnly flag on the session cookie is used to mitigate XSS attacks. Answer D is incorrect because input validation tests whether an application properly handles input from a source outside the application destined for internal processing.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which form of access control enables data owners to extend access rights to other logons?* a. MAC b. DAC c. Role-based (RBAC) d. Rule-based (RBAC)

b. *DAC* Discretionary access control (DAC) systems enable data owners to extend access rights to other logons. Mandatory access control (MAC) systems require assignment of labels to extend access, making answer A incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because both RBAC access control forms rely on conditional assignment of access rules either inherited (role-based) or by environmental factors such as time of day or secured terminal location (rule-based).

*Which of the following is included in a BYOD policy?* a. Key management b. Data ownership c. Credential management d. Transitive trusts

b. *Data ownership* When formulating a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy, the organization should clearly state who owns the data stored on the device, specifically addressing what data belongs to the organization. Answer A is incorrect because key management is intended to provide a single point of management for keys, enable users to manage the lifecycle of keys and to store them securely, and make key distribution easier. Answer C is incorrect because the use of credentials is to validate the identities of users, applications, and devices. Answer D is incorrect because transitive trusts enable decentralized authentication through trusted agents.

*Which of the following is the formal process of assessing risk involved in discarding particular information?* a. Sanitization b. Declassification c. Degaussing d. Overwriting

b. *Declassification* Declassification is a formal process of assessing the risk involved in discarding particular information. Answer A is incorrect because sanitization is the process of removing the contents from the media as fully as possible, making it extremely difficult to restore. Answer C is incorrect because degaussing uses an electrical device to reduce the magnetic flux density of the storage media to zero. Answer D is incorrect because overwriting is applicable to magnetic storage devices and writes over all data on the media, destroying what was originally recorded.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *If RF levels become too high, it can cause the receivers in wireless units to become deaf. This process is called:* a. Clipping b. Desensitizing c. Distorting d. Crackling

b. *Desensitizing* If RF levels become too high, it can cause the receivers in wireless units to become deaf and is known as desensitizing. This occurs because of the volume of RF energy present.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following 802.11 standards is often referenced as WPA2?* a. 802.11a b. 802.11b c. 802.11i d. 802.11n

c. *802.11i* The WPA2 standard is also known as 802.11i.

*Which of the following is the most effective method that can be used to prevent data from being accessed in the event the device is lost or stolen?* a. GPS tracking b. Device encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

b. *Device encryption* Just like the data on hard drives, the data on mobiles can be encrypted. Answer A is incorrect because in the event a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer C is incorrect. A remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen. Answer D is incorrect because a screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following algorithms is not an example of a symmetric encryption algorithm?* a. Rijndael b. Diffie-Hellman c. RC6 d. AES

b. *Diffie-Hellman* Diffie-Hellman uses public and private keys, so it is considered an asymmetric encryption algorithm. Because Rijndael and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) are now one in the same, they both can be called symmetric encryption algorithms; therefore, answers A and D are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because RC6 is symmetric, too.

Operating System and Application Security *If an attacker is able to gain access to restricted directories (such as the root directory) through HTTP, it is known as:* a. Cross-site forgery b. Directory traversal c. Root hardening d. Trusted platform corruption

b. *Directory traversal* If an attacker is able to gain access to restricted directories (such as the root directory) through HTTP, it is known as directory traversal.

*What aspect of disaster recovery planning details training requirements for managers, administrators, and users?* a. Impact and risk assessment b. Disaster recovery plan c. Disaster recovery policies d. Service level agreements

b. *Disaster recovery plan* The disaster recovery plan documents how organizations will recover from a disaster. It includes risk evaluations, restoration procedures application, and training required. Answer A is incorrect because the impact and risk assessment details on recovery scope, priority, and order of restoration. Answer C is incorrect because the disaster recovery policies detail responsibilities and procedures to follow during disaster recovery events. Service level agreements are contracts with suppliers and vendors that detail minimum levels of support, making answer D incorrect.

*Which of the following is most directly associated with providing or supporting perfect forward secrecy?* a. PBKDF2 b. ECDHE c. HMAC d. OCSP

b. *ECDHE* Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral or Elliptic Curve Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman (ECDHE) implements perfect forward secrecy through the use of elliptic curve cryptography (ECC). PBKDF2 is an example of a key-stretching technology not directly supporting perfect forward secrecy. HMAC is a hashing function. OCSP is used to check for certificate revocation.

*TEMPEST deals with which of the following forms of environmental control?* a. HVAC b. EMI shielding c. Humidity d. Cold-aisle

b. *EMI shielding* TEMPEST protections involve the hardening of equipment against EMI broadcast and sensitivity. Answers A and C are incorrect because HVAC controls include temperature and humidity management techniques to manage evolved heat in the data center and to minimize static charge buildup. Answer D is incorrect because hot-aisle/cold-aisle schemes provide thermal management for data centers by grouping air intakes on cold aisles and air exhausts on designated hot aisles, making HVAC more effective.

*What are the two major security areas of WLANs addressed by WPA2?* a. Access and integrity b. Encryption and authentication c. Encryption and access d. Authentication and access

b. *Encryption and authentication* WPA2 addresses the two major security areas of WLANs, namely, encryption and authentication.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following are not methods for minimizing a threat to a web server? (Choose the two best answers.)* a. Disable all nonweb services b. Ensure Telnet is running c. Disable nonessential services d. Enable logging

b. *Ensure Telnet is running* d. *Enable logging* Having Telnet enabled presents security issues and is not a primary method for minimizing threat. Logging is important for secure operations and is invaluable when recovering from a security incident. However, it is not a primary method for reducing threat. Answer A is incorrect because disabling all nonweb services might provide a secure solution for minimizing threats. Answer C is incorrect because each network service carries its own risks; therefore, it is important to disable all nonessential services.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following is the process in which a law enforcement officer or a government agent encourages or induces a person to commit a crime when the potential criminal expresses a desire not to go ahead?* a. Enticement b. Entrapment c. Deceit d. Sting

b. *Entrapment* Entrapment is the process in which a law enforcement officer or a government agent encourages or induces a person to commit a crime when the potential criminal expresses a desire not to go ahead.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policy statements may include an escalation contact, in the event that the person dealing with a situation needs to know whom to contact?* a. Scope b. Exception c. Overview d. Accountability

b. *Exception* The exception policy statement may include an escalation contact, in the event that the person dealing with a situation needs to know whom to contact.

*Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of FTP Secure (FTPS)?* a. FTPS is an entire protocol itself. b. FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS). c. FTPS uses a single TCP port. d. FTPS encrypts and compresses all data and commands.

b. *FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS).* There are several differences between SFTP and FTPS. First, FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS), whereas SFTP is an entire protocol itself and is not pieced together with multiple parts. Second, SFTP uses only a single TCP port instead of two ports like FTPS. Finally, SFTP encrypts and compresses all data and commands (FTPS may not encrypt data).

*Which element of business continuity planning (BCP) is most concerned with hot-site/cold-site planning?* a. Network connectivity b. Facilities c. Clustering d. Fault tolerance

b. *Facilities* Facilities continuity planning is focused around alternative site management, hardware, and service contracts. Network connectivity BCP involves establishing alternative network access paths and dedicated recovery administrative connections, making answer A incorrect. High-availability clustered servers ensure that automatic failover occurs in the event that the primary service nodes are unable to perform normal service functions, making answer C incorrect. Fault tolerance, particularly in the area of storage devices, supports individual server operational continuity in the face of hardware device failure, making answer D incorrect. In SAN storage systems, redundant storage network connections similarly ensure continuous resource access for devices in the storage-area network.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following refers to the ability to manage individual resources in the CA network?* a. Regulation b. Granularity c. Management d. Restricting

b. *Granularity* Granularity refers to the ability to manage individual resources in the CA network.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *What are the two states that an application can fail in?* a. Dependable b. Failsafe c. Failopen d. Assured

b. *Failsafe* c. *Failopen* There are two states that an application can fail in. In a failsafe mode, the crash leaves the system secure. In a failopen state, the crash leaves the system exposed (not secure).

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following is a protection feature built into many firewalls that allow the administrator to tweak the tolerance for unanswered login attacks?* a. MAC filter b. Flood guard c. MAC limiter d. Security posture

b. *Flood guard* A flood guard is a protection feature built into many firewalls that allow the administrator to tweak the tolerance for unanswered login attacks. By reducing this tolerance, it is possible to reduce the likelihood of a successful DoS attack.

*What technique or method can be employed by hackers and researchers to discover unknown flaws or errors in software?* a. Dictionary attacks b. Fuzzing c. War dialing d. Cross-site request forgery

b. *Fuzzing* Fuzzing is a software-testing technique that generates input for targeted programs. The goal of fuzzing is to discover input sets that cause errors, failures, and crashes, or to discover other unknown defects in the targeted program.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is the technique of providing unexpected values as input to an application to try to make it crash?* a. DLP b. Fuzzing c. TPM d. HSM

b. *Fuzzing* Fuzzing is the technique of providing unexpected values as input to an application to try to make it crash. Those values can be random, invalid, or just unexpected.

Educating and Protecting the User *The Cyberspace Security Enhancement Act gives law enforcement the right to:* a. Fine ISPs who host rogue sites b. Gain access to encryption keys c. Restrict information from public view d. Stop issuance of .gov domains

b. *Gain access to encryption keys* The Cyberspace Security Enhancement Act gives law enforcement the right to gain access to encryption keys.

Wireless Networking Security *Which type of encryption does CCMP use?* a. EAP b. DES c. AES d. IV

c. *AES* CCMP uses 128-bit AES encryption.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which act mandates national standards and procedures for the storage, use, and transmission of personal medical information?* a. CFAA b. HIPAA c. GLBA d. FERPA

b. *HIPAA* HIPAA mandates national standards and procedures for the storage, use, and transmission of personal medical information.

*Which of the following is commonly used in the banking sector to secure numerous large bulk transactions?* a. Full disk encryption b. HSM c. TPM d. File-level encryption

b. *HSM* Traditionally, hardware security modules (HSMs) have been used in the banking sector to secure numerous large bulk transactions. Answer A is incorrect because full disk encryption is most useful when you're dealing with a machine that is being taken on the road by people such as traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer C is incorrect because trusted platform module (TPM) refers to a secure crypto-processor used to authenticate hardware devices such as PC or laptop. Answer D is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself.

Operating System and Application Security *You've been chosen to lead a team of administrators in an attempt to increase security. You're currently creating an outline of all the aspects of security that will need to be examined and acted upon. Which of the following terms describes the process of improving security in an NOS?* a. Common Criteria b. Hardening c. Encryption d. Networking

b. *Hardening* Hardening is the process of improving the security of an operating system or application. One of the primary methods of hardening an OS is to eliminate unneeded protocols.

*The process of making an operating system more secure by closing known vulnerabilities and addressing security issues is known as which of the following?* a. Handshaking b. Hardening c. Hotfixing d. All of the above

b. *Hardening* Hardening refers to the process of securing an operating system. Handshaking relates the agreement process before communication takes place; therefore, answer A is incorrect. A hotfix is just a security patch that gets applied to an operating system; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Hardening is the only correct answer; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following is the type of algorithm used by MD5?* a. Block cipher algorithm b. Hashing algorithm c. Asymmetric encryption algorithm d. Cryptographic algorithm

b. *Hashing algorithm* Although the message digest (MD) series of algorithms is classified globally as a symmetric key encryption algorithm, the correct answer is hashing algorithm, which is the method that the algorithm uses to encrypt data. Answer A in incorrect because a block cipher divides the message into blocks of bits. Answer C is incorrect because MD5 is a symmetric key algorithm, not an asymmetric encryption algorithm (examples of this include RC6, Twofish, and Rijndael). Answer D is incorrect because cryptographic algorithm is a bogus term.

Network Security *Which statement concerning heuristic monitoring is correct?* a. Heuristic monitoring operates by being adaptive and proactive. b. Heuristic monitoring is founded on experience-based techniques. c. Heuristic monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies. d. Heuristic monitoring looks for well-known patterns.

b. *Heuristic monitoring is founded on experience-based techniques.* Heuristic monitoring is founded on experience-based techniques. It attempts to answer the question, "Will this do something harmful if it is allowed to execute?"

*A CA with multiple subordinate CAs would use which of the following PKI trust models?* a. Cross-certified b. Hierarchical c. Bridge d. Linked

b. *Hierarchical* A DMZ is a small network between the internal network and the Internet that provides a layer of security and privacy. Answer A is incorrect. The purpose of a VLAN is to unite network nodes logically into the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical attachment to the network. Answer C is incorrect because NAT acts as a liaison between an internal network and the Internet. Answer D is incorrect because a VPN is a network connection that allows you access via a secure tunnel created through an Internet connection.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *IPv6, in addition to having more bits allocated for each host address, also has mandatory requirements built in for which security protocol?* a. TFTP b. IPSec c. SFTP d. L2TP

b. *IPSec* The implementation of IPSec is mandatory with IPv6. While it is widely implemented with IPv4, it is not a requirement.

*Which of the following describes a network of systems designed to lure an attacker away from another critical system?* a. Bastion host b. Honeynet c. Vulnerability system d. Intrusion-detection system

b. *Honeynet* Honeynets are collections of honeypot systems interconnected to create networks that appear to be functional and that can be used to study an attacker's behavior within the network. A bastion host is the first line of security that a company allows to be addressed directly from the Internet; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it is a made-up term. Answer D is incorrect because an IDS is used for intrusion detection.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following won't reduce EMI?* a. Physical shielding b. Humidity control c. Physical location d. Overhauling worn motors

b. *Humidity control* Electrical devices, such as motors, that generate magnetic fields cause EMI. Humidity control won't address EMI.

*Which protocol is the standard protocol for Internet usage?* a. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) b. Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP) c. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) d. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

b. *Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP)* Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP), which is the standard protocol for Internet usage.

Network Security *Load balancing that is used for distributing HTTP requests received is sometimes called _______________.* a. content filtering b. IP spraying c. content inspection d. port mirroring

b. *IP spraying* Load balancing that is used for distributing HTTP requests received is sometimes called IP spraying.

*Which statement accurately describes IP telephony?* a. IP telephony requires an increase in infrastructure requirements. b. IP telephony convergence provides the functionality of managing and supporting a single network for all applications. c. New IP telephony applications can take a long time to develop. d. The cost of convergence technologies is high in comparison to startup costs for new traditional telephone equipment.

b. *IP telephony convergence provides the functionality of managing and supporting a single network for all applications.* Instead of managing separate voice and data networks, convergence provides the functionality of managing and supporting a single network for all applications.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *What is the first step in performing a basic forensic analysis?* a. Ensure that the evidence is acceptable in a court of law b. Identify the evidence c. Extract, process, and interpret the evidence d. Determine how to preserve the evidence

b. *Identify the evidence* It is necessary to first identify the evidence that is available to be collected. Answer A is incorrect because protecting data's value as evidence must come after the type and form of evidence is known. Extraction, preservation, processing, and interpretation of evidence also follow the identification of data types and storage that must be collected, making answers C and D incorrect.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You're trying to rearrange your backup procedures to reduce the amount of time they take each evening. You want the backups to finish as quickly as possible during the week. Which backup system backs up only the files that have changed since the last backup?* a. Full backup b. Incremental backup c. Differential backup d. Backup server

b. *Incremental backup* An incremental backup backs up files that have changed since the last full or partial backup.

*Which of the fields included within a digital certificate identifies the directory name of the entity signing the certificate?* a. Signature algorithm identifier b. Issuer c. Subject name d. Subject public key information

b. *Issuer* The Issuer field identifies the name of the entity signing the certificate, which is usually a certificate authority. The Signature Algorithm Identifier identifies the cryptographic algorithm used by the CA to sign the certificate; therefore, answer A is incorrect. The Subject Name is the name of the end entity identified in the public key associated with the certificate; therefore, answer C is incorrect. The Subject Public Key Information field includes the public key of the entity named in the certificate, including a cryptographic algorithm identifier; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

*Which of the following is not true in regards to NoSQL?* a. Can support SQL expressions b. It is a relational database c. Supports hierarchies or multilevel nesting/referencing d. Does not support ACID

b. *It is a relational database* NoSQL is not a relational database structure. NoSQL can support SQL expressions, supports hierarchies or multilevel nesting/referencing, and does not support ACID.

*Which type of authorization provides a mechanism for validation of both sender and receiver?* a. Anonymous b. Kerberos c. TACACS d. RADIUS

b. *Kerberos* Kerberos authentication enables validation of both endpoints and can help protect against interception attacks such as the "man-in-the-middle." Anonymous connections do not even allow verification of the access requestor, making answer A incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because neither TACACS or RADIUS services provide mutual endpoint validation.

Access Control and Identity Management *You've been assigned to mentor a junior administrator and bring him up to speed quickly. The topic you're currently explaining is authentication. Which method uses a KDC to accomplish authentication for users, programs, or systems?* a. CHAP b. Kerberos c. Biometrics d. Smart cards

b. *Kerberos* Kerberos uses a key distribution center (KDC) to authenticate a principal. The KDC provides a credential that can be used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and applications.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is one of the biggest challenges associated with database encryption?* a. Multitenancy b. Key management c. Weak authentication components d. Platform support

b. *Key management* One of the biggest challenges associated with database encryption is key management. Answer A is incorrect because multitenancy is a security issue related to cloud computing implementations. Answer C is incorrect because lack of management software and weak authentication components are associated with hardware hard drive encryption. Answer D is incorrect because cost and platform support are concerns with smartphone encryption products.

Cryptography Basics *You've been brought in as a security consultant for a small bicycle manufacturing firm. Immediately you notice that it's using a centralized key-generating process, and you make a note to dissuade them from that without delay. What problem is created by using a centralized key-generating process?* a. Network security b. Key transmission c. Certificate revocation d. Private key security

b. *Key transmission* Key transmission is the largest problem from among the choices given. Transmitting private keys is a major concern. Private keys are typically transported using out-of-band methods to ensure security.

Cryptography Basics *Which organization can be used to identify an individual for certificate issue in a PKI environment?* a. RA b. LRA c. PKE d. SHA

b. *LRA* A local registration authority (LRA) can establish an applicant's identity and verify that the applicant for a certificate is valid. The LRA sends verification to the CA that issues the certificate.

*Which risk reduction policy does not aid in identifying internal fraud?* a. Mandatory vacations b. Least privilege c. Separation of duties d. Job rotation

b. *Least privilege* Although least privilege can aid in protecting against internal fraud, it does not particularly aid in identifying it if occurring. Mandatory vacations, job rotation, and separation of duties such as monetary processing and validation all provide cross-checks that can aid in the identification of ongoing fraudulent operations, making answers A, C, and D incorrect.

*Lynn needs access to the Accounting order-entry application but keeps getting an error that indicates inadequate access permissions. Bob assigns Lynn's account to the Administrator's group to overcome the error until he can work on the problem. Which access control constraint was violated by this action?* a. Implicit denial b. Least privilege c. Separation of duties d. Account expiration

b. *Least privilege* Least privilege is a principle of assigning only those rights necessary to perform assigned tasks. By making Lynn a member of the Administrators group, Bob not only bypassed the application's access control protocols but may also have granted Lynn access to additional application features or administrative-only tools that often lack the same safeguards as user-level APIs. Answer A is incorrect because the default assignment of an implicit denial is overridden by explicit grants of access aids in protecting resources against accidental access and is not directly violated by this action because Lynn's account now has full administrator rights assigned. Answer C is incorrect because separation of duties is focused on ensuring that action and validation practices are performed separately. Answer D is incorrect because account expiration protocols ensure that individual accounts do not remain active past their designated lifespan, but Lynn's account is current and enabled so is unaffected.

Cryptography Implementation *In a bridge trust model, a ______ to ______ relationship exists between the root CAs.* a. Parent, child b. Peer, peer c. Father, daughter d. Sister, parent

b. *Peer, peer* In a bridge trust model, a peer-to-peer relationship exists between the root CAs.

*Which of the following is not a common quality of quantitative risk analysis?* a. Difficult for management to understand b. Less precise c. Labor intensive d. Time-consuming

b. *Less precise* Qualitative risk assessments tend to be less precise than quantitative assessments. Quantitative risk assessments tend to be more difficult for management to understand properly without additional explanation, require intensive labor to gather all of the necessary measurements, and are time-consuming to produce and keep up to date, making answers A, C, and D incorrect.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *For physical security, what should you do with rack-mounted servers?* a. Run a cable from them to a desk. b. Lock each of them into the cabinet. c. Install them in safes. d. Use only Type D, which incorporates its own security.

b. *Lock each of them into the cabinet.* Server racks should lock the rack-mounted servers into the cabinets to prevent someone from simply pulling one and walking out the front door with it.

*Which of the following is not one of the vulnerabilities of LDAP authentication services?* a. Buffer overflow vulnerabilities can be used to enact arbitrary commands on the LDAP server. b. Loss of time synchronization between the service, client, and KDC prevents communication. c. Format string vulnerabilities might result in unauthorized access to enact commands on the LDAP server or impair its normal operation. d. Improperly formatted requests might be used to create an effective denial-of-service (DoS) attack against the LDAP server.

b. *Loss of time synchronization between the service, client, and KDC prevents communication.* Kerberos is a time-synchronized protocol that relies on a common time base for session ticket lifetime verification. LDAP is not a ticket-based or a lifetime-based protocol. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because all three are vulnerabilities of some LDAP service variations.

*An event that, in the beginning, is considered to be a risk, yet turns out not to be one, is called a _______________.* a. false negative b. false positive c. negative-positive d. positive-negative

b. *false positive* An event that, in the beginning, is considered to be a risk yet turns out not to be one is called a false positive.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *An organization is looking for a filtering solution that will help eliminate some of the recent problems it has had with viruses and worms. Which of the following best meets this requirement?* a. Intrusion detection b. Malware inspection c. Load balancing d. Internet content filtering

b. *Malware inspection* A malware inspection filter is basically a web filter applied to traffic that uses HTTP. The body of all HTTP requests and responses is inspected. Malicious content is blocked, but legitimate content passes through unaltered. Answer A is incorrect because intrusion-detection systems are designed to analyze data, identify attacks, and respond to the intrusion. Answer C is incorrect because load balancers are servers configured in a cluster to provide scalability and high availability. Answer D is incorrect because Internet content filters use a collection of terms, words, and phrases that are compared to content from browsers and applications.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is needed to establish effective security baselines for host systems? (Select two correct answers.)* a. Cable locks b. Mandatory settings c. Standard application suites d. Decentralized administration

b. *Mandatory settings* c. *Standard application suites* To establish effective security baselines, enterprise network security management requires a measure of commonality between the systems. Mandatory settings, standard application suites, and initial setup configuration details all factor into the security stance of an enterprise network. Answer A is incorrect because cable locks have nothing to do with effective security baselines. Answer D is incorrect because decentralized management does not have anything to do with security baselines.

*What is the most common type of wireless access control?* a. Electronic Access Control (EAC) b. Media Access Control (MAC) address filtering c. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security (EAP/TLS) d. Port Based Access Control (PBAC)

b. *Media Access Control (MAC) address filtering* The most common type of wireless access control is Media Access Control (MAC) address filtering. The MAC address is a hardware address that uniquely identifies each node of a network.

*The most effective means to reduce the risk of losing the data on a mobile device, such as a notebook computer, is _____.* a. Encrypt the hard drive. b. Minimize sensitive data stored on the mobile device. c. Use a cable lock. d. Define a strong logon password.

b. *Minimize sensitive data stored on the mobile device.* The risk of a lost or stolen notebook is the data loss, not the loss of the system itself. Thus, keeping minimal sensitive data on the system is the only way to reduce the risk. Hard-drive encryption, cable locks, and strong passwords, although good ideas, are preventative tools, not means of reducing risk. They don't keep intentional and malicious data compromise from occurring; instead, they encourage honest people to stay honest.

*What technology provides an organization with the best control over BYOD equipment?* a. Encrypted removable storage b. Mobile device management c. Geo-tagging d. Application whitelisting

b. *Mobile device management* Mobile device management (MDM) is a software solution to the challenging task of managing the myriad mobile devices that employees use to access company resources. The goals of MDM are to improve security, provide monitoring, enable remote management, and support troubleshooting. Not all mobile devices support removable storage, and even fewer support encrypted removable storage. Geotagging is used to mark photos and social network posts, not for BYOD management. Application whitelisting may be an element of BYOD management, but is only part of a full MBM solution.

Cryptography Basics *During a training session, you want to impress upon users how serious security and, in particular, cryptography is. To accomplish this, you want to give them as much of an overview about the topic as possible. Which government agency should you mention is primarily responsible for establishing government standards involving cryptography for general-purpose government use?* a. NSA b. NIST c. IEEE d. ITU

b. *NIST* NIST is responsible for establishing the standards for general-purpose government encryption. NIST is also becoming involved in private-sector cryptography.

*In a MAC environment, when a user has clearance for assets but is still unable to access those assets, what other security feature is in force?* a. Principle of least privilege b. Need to know c. Privacy d. Service-level agreement

b. *Need to know* Need to know is the MAC environment's granular access-control method. The principle of least privilege is the DAC environment's concept of granular access control. Privacy and SLAs aren't forms of access control.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is synonymous with MAC filtering?* a. TKIP b. Network lock c. EAP-TTLS d. MAC secure

b. *Network lock* The term network lock is synonymous with MAC filtering.

*Which of the following is a term describing the process of registering an asset and provisioning the asset so it can be used to access the corporate network?* a. Mobile application management b. Onboarding c. Mobile device management d. Device access controls

b. *Onboarding* On-boarding is a term describing the process of registering an asset and provisioning the asset so it can be used to access the corporate network. Answer A is incorrect because mobile application management (MAM) focuses on application management. Answer C is incorrect. Mobile device management (MDM) allows the enrollment of enterprise devices for management functions such as provisioning devices, tracking inventory, configuration changes, updates, managing applications, and enforcing policies. Answer D is incorrect because device access controls are used to control network access not manage devices.

*Which is the strongest form of password?* a. More than eight characters b. One-time use c. Static d. Different types of keyboard characters

b. *One-time use* A one-time password is always the strongest form of password. A static password is always the weakest form of password. Passwords with more than eight characters and those that use different types of keyboard characters are usually strong, but these factors alone are unable to indicate their strength.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following security areas encompasses network access control (NAC)?* a. Physical security b. Operational security c. Management security d. Triad security

b. *Operational security* Operational security issues include network access control (NAC), authentication, and security topologies after the network installation is complete.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which device is used to connect voice, data, pagers, networks, and almost any other conceivable application into a single telecommunications system?* a. Router b. PBX c. Hub d. Server

b. *PBX* Many modern PBX (private branch exchange) systems integrate voice and data onto a single data connection to your phone service provider. In some cases, this allows an overall reduction in cost of operations. These connections are made using existing network connections such as a T1 or T3 network.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Most of the sales force have been told that they should no longer report to the office on a daily basis. From now on, they're to spend the majority of their time on the road calling on customers. Each member of the sales force has been issued a laptop computer and told to connect to the network nightly through a dial-up connection. Which of the following protocols is widely used today as a transport protocol for Internet dial-up connections?* a. SMTP b. PPP c. PPTP d. L2TP

b. *PPP* PPP can pass multiple protocols and is widely used today as a transport protocol for dial-up connections.

Access Control and Identity Management *Most of your client's sales force have been told that they should no longer report to the office on a daily basis. From now on, they're to spend the majority of their time on the road calling on customers. Each member of the sales force has been issued a laptop computer and told to connect to the network nightly through a remote connection. Which of the following protocols is widely used today as a transport protocol for remote Internet connections?* a. SMTP b. PPP c. PPTP d. L2TP

b. *PPP* PPP can pass multiple protocols and is widely used today as a transport protocol for remote connections.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You're the administrator for MTS. You're creating a team that will report to you, and you're attempting to divide the responsibilities for security among individual members. Similarly, which of the following access methods breaks a large area into smaller areas that can be monitored individually?* a. Zone b. Partition c. Perimeter d. Floor

b. *Partition* Partitioning is the process of breaking a network into smaller components that can each be individually protected. This is analogous to building walls in an office building.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is equivalent to building walls in an office building from a network perspective?* a. Perimeter security b. Partitioning c. Security zones d. IDS systems

b. *Partitioning* Access control is the primary process of preventing access to physical systems.

*An organization has had a rash of malware infections. Which of the following can help mitigate the number of successful attacks?* a. Application baselining b. Patch management c. Network monitoring d. Input validation

b. *Patch management* Proactive patch management is necessary to keep your technology environment secure and reliable. Answer A is incorrect because application baselining is similar to operating system baselining in that it provides a reference point for normal and abnormal activity. Answer C is incorrect because network monitoring is used to check network activity. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You are the senior administrator for a bank. A user calls you on the telephone and says they were notified to contact you but couldn't find your information on the company website. Two days ago, an email told them there was something wrong with their account and they needed to click a link in the email to fix the problem. They clicked the link and filled in the information, but now their account is showing a large number of transactions that they did not authorize. They were likely the victims of what type of attack?* a. Spimming b. Phishing c. Pharming d. Escalating

b. *Phishing* Sending an email with a misleading link to collect information is a phishing attack.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following statements are true when discussing physical security? (Select all correct answers.)* a. Physical security attempts to control access to data from Internet users. b. Physical security attempts to control unwanted access to specified areas of a building. c. Physical security attempts to control the effect of natural disasters on facilities and equipment. d. Physical security attempts to control internal employee access into secure areas.

b. *Physical security attempts to control unwanted access to specified areas of a building.* c. *Physical security attempts to control the effect of natural disasters on facilities and equipment.* d. *Physical security attempts to control internal employee access into secure areas.* Natural disasters, unwanted access, and user restrictions are all physical security issues. Preventing Internet users from getting to data is data security, not physical security; therefore, answer A is incorrect.

*In which of the following types of fuzzing are forged packets sent to the tested application and then replayed?* a. Application fuzzing b. Protocol fuzzing c. File format fuzzing d. Web page fuzzing

b. *Protocol fuzzing* In protocol fuzzing, forged packets are sent to the tested application, which can act as a proxy and modify requests on the fly and then replay them. Answer A is incorrect because in an application fuzzing attack vectors are within its I/O, such as the user interface, the command-line options, URLs, forms, user-generated content, and RPC requests. Answer C is incorrect because in file format fuzzing, multiple malformed samples are generated and then opened sequentially. Answer D is incorrect because web page fuzzing is not a real term.

Educating and Protecting the User *______ information is made available to either large public or specific individuals, while ______ information is intended for only those internal to the organization.* a. Private; Restricted b. Public; Private c. Limited distribution; Internal d. Public; Internal

b. *Public; Private* Public information is made available to either large public or specific individuals, while Private information is intended for only those internal to the organization.

*Which of the following technologies can be used to add an additional layer of protection between a directory services-based network and remote clients?* a. SMTP b. RADIUS c. PGP d. VLAN

b. *RADIUS* RADIUS is a centralized authentication solution that adds an additional layer of security between a network and remote clients. SMTP is the email-forwarding protocol used on the Internet and intranets. PGP is a security solution for email. VLANs are created by switches to logically divide a network into subnets.

*Which of the following should you deploy within your PKI to provide a method for initially verifying a user's identity so that a certificate may be issued?* a. Certificate authority (CA) b. Registration authority (RA) c. Certificate practice statement (CPS) d. Certificate registration list (CRL)

b. *Registration authority (RA)* A registration authority is used to first verify the user's identity before passing the request along to the certificate authority to issue a digital certificate. So, answer A is incorrect. Answer C is also incorrect because a CPS is a legal document created and published by the CA. Answer D is incorrect. A certificate registration list is a red herring. Within PKI, CRL refers to a certificate revocation list, which is a mechanism for disturbing information about revoked certificates.

*Which of the following are steps that can be taken to harden DHCP services?* a. Anonymous access to share files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited. b. Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers. c. Technologies that allow dynamic updates must also include access control and authentication. d. Unauthorized zone transfers should also be restricted.

b. *Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers.* Regular review of networks for unauthorized or rogue servers is a practice used to harden DHCP services. Answer A is incorrect because anonymous access to share files of questionable or undesirable content should be limited for proper FTP server security. Answers C and D are incorrect because they are associated with hardening DNS servers.

Operating System and Application Security *Your company is growing at a tremendous rate, and the need to hire specialists in various areas of IT is becoming apparent. You're helping to write the newspaper ads that will be used to recruit new employees, and you want to make certain that applicants possess the skills you need. One knowledge area in which your organization is weak is database intelligence. What is the primary type of database used in applications today that you can mention in the ads?* a. Hierarchical b. Relational c. Network d. Archival

b. *Relational* Relational database systems are the most frequently installed database environments in use today.

*Which of the following is considered best practice when formulating minimum standards for developing password policies?* a. Password length set to 6 characters b. Require password change at 90 days c. Maximum password age set to zero d. Account lockout threshold set to zero

b. *Require password change at 90 days* Require users to change passwords every 90 to 180 days, depending on how secure the environment needs to be. Remember that the more often users are required to change passwords, the greater the chance that they will write them down, potentially exposing them to unauthorized use. Answer A is incorrect because making the password length at least eight characters and requiring the use of combinations of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters is good practice. Answer C is incorrect because good policy is to set the maximum password age to a value between 30 and 90 days. Answer D is incorrect because if the lockout threshold is set to zero, accounts will not be locked out due to invalid logon attempts.

*You run a full backup every Monday. You also run a differential backup every other day of the week. You experience a drive failure on Friday. Which of the following restoration procedures should you use to restore data to the replacement drive?* a. Restore the full backup and then each differential backup. b. Restore the full backup and then the last differential backup. c. Restore the differential backup. d. Restore the full backup.

b. *Restore the full backup and then the last differential backup.* The proper procedure is to restore the full backup, and then the last differential backup. The other three options are incorrect or incomplete.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Your system has been acting strangely since you downloaded a file from a colleague. Upon examining your antivirus software, you notice that the virus definition file is missing. Which type of virus probably infected your system?* a. Polymorphic virus b. Retrovirus c. Worm d. Armored virus

b. *Retrovirus* Retroviruses are often referred to as anti-antiviruses. They can render your antivirus software unusable and leave you exposed to other, less-formidable viruses.

*A certificate authority discovers it has issued a digital certificate to the wrong person. What needs to be completed?* a. Certificate practice statement (CPS) b. Revocation c. Private key compromise d. Fraudulent practices statement (FPS)

b. *Revocation* A certificate might need to be revoked (including a certificate being issued to the incorrect person) for any number of reasons. A CPS is a published document from the CA describing their policies and procedures for issuing and revoking certificates; therefore, answer A is incorrect. A private key compromise is actually another reason to perform revocation of a certificate; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because this is a bogus term.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies involves identifying a risk and making the decision to no longer engage in the action?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

b. *Risk avoidance* Risk avoidance involves identifying a risk and making the decision to no longer engage in the actions associated with that risk.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which service(s), by default, use TCP and UDP port 22? (Choose all that apply.)* a. SMTP b. SSH c. SCP d. IMAP

b. *SSH* c. *SCP* Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with TCP and UDP.

*Which of the following statements is true about SSL?* a. SSL provides security for both the connection and the data after it is received. b. SSL only provides security for the connection, not the data after it is received. c. SSL only provides security for the data when it is received, not the connection. d. SSL does not provide security for either the connection or the data after it is received.

b. *SSL only provides security for the connection, not the data after it is received.* Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) provides security only for the connection, not the data after it is received. The data is encrypted while it is being transmitted, but when received by the computer, it is no longer encrypted. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which log visible in Event Viewer shows successful and unsuccessful login attempts in Windows 7?* a. System b. Security c. Audit d. Application

b. *Security* The Security log in Windows 7 (as well as in all versions of Windows) shows successful and unsuccessful login attempts and can be viewed with Event Viewer.

*The _______________ is the expected monetary loss every time a risk occurs.* a. Annualized Loss Expectancy b. Single Loss Expectancy c. Annualized Rate of Occurrence d. Multiple Loss Expectancy

b. *Single Loss Expectancy* The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the expected monetary loss every time a risk occurs.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which category of authentication includes smart cards?* a. Something you know b. Something you have c. Something you are d. Something you do e. Somewhere you are

b. *Something you have* Something you have includes smart cards, tokens, and keys. Something you know includes account logons, passwords, and PINs, making answer A incorrect. Answers C and D are incorrect because both something you are and something you do involve measures of personal biological qualities and do not require an external device such as a smart card or key. Answer E is incorrect because somewhere you are is generally associated with either being in a trusted or less trusted location which could be based on GPS coordinates or IP address.

Educating and Protecting the User *The Clark-Wilson model must be accessed through applications that have predefined capabilities. This process prevents all except:* a. Modification b. Spam c. Errors d. Fraud

b. *Spam* The Clark-Wilson model must be accessed through applications that have predefined capabilities. This process prevents all the choices listed except spam.

*A _______________ cloud is a combination of public and private clouds.* a. community b. hybrid c. mixed d. connected

b. *hybrid* A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private clouds.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *What kind of virus could attach itself to the boot sector of your disk to avoid detection and report false information about file sizes?* a. Trojan horse virus b. Stealth virus c. Worm d. Polymorphic virus

b. *Stealth virus* A stealth virus reports false information to hide itself from antivirus software. Stealth viruses often attach themselves to the boot sector of an operating system.

*Which of the following is not a certificate trust model for the arranging of certificate authorities?* a. Bridge CA architecture b. Sub-CA architecture c. Single-CA architecture d. Hierarchical CA architecture

b. *Sub-CA architecture* Sub-CA architecture does not represent a valid trust model. Answers A, C, and D, however, all represent legitimate trust models. Another common model also exists, called cross-certification; however, it usually makes more sense to implement a bridge architecture over this type of model.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *On a NetWare-based system, which account is equivalent to the administrator account in Windows?* a. Auditor b. Supervisor c. Root d. Master

b. *Supervisor* The supervisor user in NetWare is equivalent to the administrator user in Windows.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *As more and more clients have been added to your network, the efficiency of the network has decreased significantly. You're preparing a budget for next year, and you specifically want to address this problem. Which of the following devices acts primarily as a tool to improve network efficiency?* a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. PBX

b. *Switch* Switches create virtual circuits between systems in a network. These virtual circuits are somewhat private and reduce network traffic when used.

*Which of the following is the best choice for encrypting large amounts of data?* a. Asymmetric encryption b. Symmetric encryption c. Elliptical curve encryption d. RSA encryption

b. *Symmetric encryption* Public key encryption is not usually used to encrypt large amounts of data, but it is does provide an effective and efficient means of sending a secret key from which to do symmetric encryption thereafter, which provides the best method for efficiently encrypting large amounts of data. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is a client-server-oriented environment that operates in a manner similar to RADIUS?* a. HSM b. TACACS c. TPM d. ACK

b. *TACACS* Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS) is a client-server-oriented environment, and it operates in a manner similar to how RADIUS operates.

*Why do experts recommend that access points (APs) be mounted as high as possible?* a. Antennas must hang upside down for best performance. b. The radio frequency (RF) signal may experience fewer obstructions. c. The air is "heavier" as it rises, providing better transmission of the radio frequency (RF) signal. d. Warm air rises and provides a better conductor for the radio frequency (RF) signal.

b. *The radio frequency (RF) signal may experience fewer obstructions.* Generally the AP can be secured to the ceiling or high on a wall. It is recommended that APs be mounted as high as possible for two reasons: there may be fewer obstructions for the RF signal, and to prevent thieves from stealing the device.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is true of digital signatures? (Choose the two best answers.)* a. They are the same as a hash function. b. They can be automatically time-stamped. c. They allow the sender to repudiate that the message was sent. d. They cannot be imitated by someone else.

b. *They can be automatically time-stamped.* d. *They cannot be imitated by someone else.* Digital signatures offer several features and capabilities. This includes being able to ensure the sender cannot repudiate that he or she used the signature. In addition, nonrepudiation schemes are capable of offering time stamps for the digital signature. Answer A is incorrect. Hashing algorithms are only used for integrity purposes and only confirm original content. Answer C is incorrect because a key feature of digital signatures is to provide for nonrepudiation.

*Which term describes a means of managing and presenting computer resources by function without regard to their physical layout or location?* a. Port mirroring b. Virtualization c. Cloud computing d. Virtual LAN (VLAN) management

b. *Virtualization* Virtualization is a means of managing and presenting computer resources by function without regard to their physical layout or location.

*Your organization provides a secure web portal. You discover another portal that mimics your organization's portal look and feel. This portal has a similar URL but is different by one letter. Which of the following are most likely true? (Select two correct answers.)* a. This is an example of transitive access. b. This is typo squatting. c. The site is collecting usernames and passwords. d. The site is a result of a malicious insider.

b. *This is typo squatting.* c. *The site is collecting usernames and passwords.* Typo squatting takes advantage of mistyped domain names. Sometimes for advertising purposes, but it can also be for more malicious intent. The unauthorized site may be looking to collect usernames and passwords, then of course, allowing access. Transitive access describes a situation that can be exploited, but one that is normally by design that takes advantage of trust relationships, thus answer A is incorrect. Answer D is also incorrect. A malicious insider may have set up the rouge site, but there is no indication this was the case.

Network Security *What is the role of a router?* a. To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry b. To forward packets across different computer networks c. To intercept user requests from the internal secure network and then process that request on behalf of the user d. To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment

b. *To forward packets across different computer networks* A router is a network device that can forward packets across different computer networks. When a router receives an incoming packet, it reads the destination address and then, using information in its routing table, sends the packet to the next network toward its destination.

*Your organization has organized a trade show in the United States. With the goal of increasing revenue, you decide to operate a Wi-Fi hotspot for a fee. Which of the following are reasons your organization could use wireless jamming? (Select all correct answers.)* a. To maximize revenue b. To prevent degraded service c. To prevent attendees from operating their own Wi-Fi hot spots d. To prevent attacks

b. *To prevent degraded service* d. *To prevent attacks* Wireless jamming may be a legal way to prevent degraded service or attacks. Answers A and C are incorrect. Wireless jamming may provide an effective means to ensure that no other Wi-Fi network may operating and may increase profits by interfering with the signal, but it is against FCC regulations and illegal to do this.

*Which of the following symmetric-encryption algorithms offers the strength of 168-bit keys?* a. Data Encryption Standard b. Triple DES c. Advanced Encryption Standard d. IDEA

b. *Triple DES* Triple DES (3DES) offers the strength of 168-bit keys. The Data Encryption Standard (DES) offers the strength of 56-bit keys. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) offers the strength of 128-, 192-, or 256-bit keys. The International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA) offers the strength of 128-bit keys.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A user has downloaded trial software and subsequently downloads a key generator in order to unlock the trial software. The user's antivirus detection software now alerts the user that the system is infected. Which one of the following best describes the type of malware infecting the system?* a. Logic bomb b. Trojan c. Adware d. Worm

b. *Trojan* Trojans are programs disguised as something useful. In this instance, the user was likely illegally trying to crack software, and in the process infected the system with malware. Although answers A, C, and D are types of malware, they are not the best choices.

Cryptography Implementation *PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) is a key-asymmetric system utilizing how many keys?* a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

b. *Two* PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) is a key-asymmetric system utilizing two keys.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following authentication levels with WAP requires both ends of the connection to authenticate to confirm validity?* a. Relaxed b. Two-way c. Server d. Anonymous

b. *Two-way* Two-way authentication requires both ends of the connection to authenticate to confirm validity.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Type K fire extinguishers are intended for use on cooking oil fires. This type is a subset of which other type of fire extinguisher?* a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

b. *Type B* Type K fire extinguishers are a subset of Type B fire extinguishers.

*The new biometric authentication system has been identified as having a high FAR. What does this mean?* a. Authorized users are being allowed access. b. Unauthorized users are being allowed access. c. Authorized users are being denied access. d. Unauthorized users are being denied access.

b. *Unauthorized users are being allowed access.* The false acceptance rate (FAR) is a measure of unauthorized biometric signatures being accepted as valid. Answers A and D are incorrect because they represent valid biometric operations. Answer C is incorrect because denial of authorized signatures is measured as the false rejection rate (FRR).

*An organization is looking for a mobile solution that allows both executives and employees to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Which of the following fulfills this requirement?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

b. *Voice encryption* Mobile voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer A is incorrect because in the event a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. answer C is incorrect because remote wipe allows a handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen. Answer D is incorrect because a screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which site best provides limited capabilities for the restoration of services in a disaster?* a. Hot site b. Warm site c. Cold site d. Backup site

b. *Warm site* Warm sites provide some capabilities in the event of a recovery. The organization that wants to use a warm site will need to install, configure, and reestablish operations on systems that may already exist at the warm site.

*What is the minimal level of alternative site that includes live networking?* a. Cold b. Warm c. Hot d. Remote

b. *Warm* A warm site generally includes power, phone, and networking. It might include computers that are not yet set up or kept fully up to date. Cold sites generally have little more than space, restrooms, and electricity until activated, making answer A incorrect. Hot sites are locations that are fully operational and include all aspects of operational requirements, making answer C incorrect. Alternate sites (hot, warm, or cold) should be remote enough to be outside of the zone of involvement during a disaster event, making answer D incorrect.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following is the basic premise of least privilege?* a. Always assign responsibilities to the administrator who has the minimum permissions required. b. When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more. c. Regularly review user permissions and take away one that they currently have to see if they will complain or even notice that it is missing. d. Do not give management more permissions than users.

b. *When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.* The basic premise of least privilege is: When assigning permissions, give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *In which type of testing do you begin with the premise that the attacker has inside knowledge of the network?* a. Black box b. White box c. Gray box d. Green box

b. *White box* With white box testing, you begin with the premise that the attacker has inside knowledge of the network.

*Which security stance will be most successful at preventing malicious software execution?* a. Deny by exception b. Whitelisting c. Allow by default d. Blacklisting

b. *Whitelisting* Whitelisting is a security option that prohibits unauthorized software from being able to execute. Whitelisting is also known as deny by default or implicit deny. Blacklisting, also known as deny by exception or allow by default, is the least successful means of preventing malware execution.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following are examples of protocol analyzers? (Check all correct answers.)* a. Metasploit b. Wireshark c. OVAL d. Microsoft Message Analyzer

b. *Wireshark* d. *Microsoft Message Analyzer* Windows Server operating systems come with a protocol analyzer called by Microsoft Message Analyzer. Third-party programs such as Wireshark can also be used for network monitoring. Metasploit is a framework used for penetration testing, and OVAL is intended as an international language for representing vulnerability information using an XML schema for expression; therefore, answers A and C are incorrect.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Although you're talking to her on the phone, the sound of the administrative assistant's screams of despair can be heard down the hallway. She has inadvertently deleted a file that the boss desperately needs. Which type of backup is used for the immediate recovery of a lost file?* a. Onsite storage b. Working copies c. Incremental backup d. Differential backup

b. *Working copies* Working copies are backups that are usually kept in the computer room for immediate use in recovering a system or lost file.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following statements is not true?* a. You should never share the root directory of a disk. b. You should share the root directory of a disk. c. You should apply the most restrictive access necessary for a shared directory. d. Filesystems are frequently based on hierarchical models.

b. *You should share the root directory of a disk.* Never share the root directory of a disk if at all possible. Doing so opens the entire disk to potential exploitation.

Network Security *A more "intelligent" firewall is a(n) _______________ firewall, sometimes called a next-generation firewall (NGFW).* a. rule-based b. application-aware c. hardware-based d. host-based

b. *application-aware* A more "intelligent" firewall is an application-aware firewall, sometimes called a next-generation firewall (NGFW).

Educating and Protecting the User *There are two types of implicit denies. One of these can be configured so that only users specifically named can use the service and is known as:* a. at.deny b. at.allow c. at.open d. at.closed

b. *at.allow* at.allow configurations allow only users specifically named to use the service.

*The IEEE 802.1x standard provides the highest degree of port security by implementing port-based _______________.* a. encryption b. authentication c. auditing d. integrity

b. *authentication* The IEEE 802.1x standard provides the highest degree of port security by implementing port-based authentication.

Network Security *VPN transmissions are achieved through communicating with _______________.* a. network taps b. endpoints c. Internet content filters d. proxy servers

b. *endpoints* VPN transmissions are achieved through communicating with endpoints. An endpoint is the end of the tunnel between VPN devices. An endpoint can be software on a local computer, a dedicated hardware device such as a VPN concentrator (which aggregates hundreds or thousands of VPN connections), or integrated into another networking device such as a firewall.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following utilities can be used in Linux to view a list of users' failed authentication attempts?* a. badlog b. faillog c. wronglog d. killlog

b. *faillog* Use the faillog utility in Linux to view a list of users' failed authentication attempts.

*In many fraud schemes, the perpetrator must be present every day in order to continue the fraud or keep it from being exposed. Many organizations require _______________ for all employees to counteract this.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacations c. separation of duties d. least privilege

b. *mandatory vacations* In many fraud schemes, the perpetrator must be present every day in order to continue the fraud or keep it from being exposed. Many organizations require mandatory vacations for all employees to counteract this.

*Risk _______________ is the attempt to address risks by making risk less serious.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. acceptance d. avoidance

b. *mitigation* Risk mitigation is the attempt to address the risks by making risk less serious.

*A(n) _______________ policy outlines how the organization uses the personal information it collects.* a. acceptable use b. privacy c. data acquisition d. data storage

b. *privacy* A privacy policy outlines how the organization uses personal information it collects.

*A _______________ cloud is one in which the services and infrastructure are offered to all users with access provided remotely through the Internet.* a. private b. public c. hybrid d. community

b. *public* A public cloud is one in which the services and infrastructure are offered to all users with access provided remotely through the Internet.

*The _______________ approach to calculating risk uses an "educated guess" based on observation.* a. cumulative b. qualitative c. technical d. quantitative

b. *qualitative* The qualitative approach to calculating risk uses an "educated guess" based on observation.

*The _______________ is the maximum length of time that an organization can tolerate between backups.* a. mean time to failure b. recovery point objective c. mean time to recovery d. recovery time objective

b. *recovery point objective* The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum length of time that an organization can tolerate between backups.

*A(n) _______________ is an in-depth examination and analysis of a wireless LAN site.* a. network log b. site survey c. captive portal d. threat vector

b. *site survey* Ensuring that a wireless LAN can provide its intended functionality and meet its required design goals can best be achieved through a site survey. A site survey is an in-depth examination and analysis of a wireless LAN site.

*An integrated device that combines several security functions is called a(n) _______________ security product.* a. demilitarized zone (DMZ) b. unified threat management (UTM) c. virtual private network (VPN) d. application-aware IPS

b. *unified threat management (UTM)* An integrated device that combines several security functions, called a Unified Threat Management (UTM) security product.

*Segmenting a network by separating devices into logical groups is known as creating a _______________.* a. cloud b. virtual LAN (VLAN) c. flood guard d. unified threat management (UTM) system

b. *virtual LAN (VLAN)* Segmenting a network by separating devices into logical groups is known as creating a virtual LAN (VLAN).

*_______________ business partners refers to the start-up relationship between partners.* a. Enrolling b. On-boarding c. Unrolling d. Off-boarding

b.* On-boarding* On-boarding business partners refers to the start-up relationship between partners

*Which port does the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) use?* a. 20 b. 21 c. 80 d. 443

c. *80* The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *If you calculate SLE to be $4,000 and that there will be 10 occurrences a year (ARO), then the ALE is:* a. $400 b. $4,000 c. $40,000 d. $400,000

c. *$40,000* If you calculate SLE to be $4,000 and that there will be 10 occurrences a year (ARO), then the ALE is $40,000 ($4,000 × 10).

Cryptography Basics *Assuming asymmetric encryption, if data is encoded with a value of 5, what would be used to decode it?* a. 5 b. 1 c. 1/5 d. 0

c. *1/5* With asymmetric encryption, two keys are used—one to encode and the other to decode. The two keys are mathematical reciprocals of each other.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Proximity readers work with which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)* a. 15.75 fob card b. 14.32 surveillance card c. 13.56 MHZ smart card d. 125 kHz proximity card

c. *13.56 MHZ smart card* d. *125 kHz proximity card* Proximity readers work with 13.56 MHz smart card and 125 kHz proximity cards.

*Fiber channel (FC) is a high-speed storage network protocol that can transmit up to _______________ per second.* a. 16 bits b. 16 megabits c. 16 gigabits d. 16 terabits

c. *16 gigabits* Fibre Channel (FC) is a high-speed storage network protocol that can transmit up to 16 gigabits per second.

*What is the minimum number of drives necessary to provide a RAID 5 redundant with distributed parity disk array?* a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5

c. *3* The minimum number of drives in a RAID 5 array is three, making answers B and D incorrect. A single drive does not provide fault tolerance, making Answer A incorrect.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *What is the recommended range of humidity level according to the ASHRAE?* a. 10% to 20% b. 30% to 40% c. 40% to 55% d. 55% to 65%

c. *40% to 55%* The American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) recommends optimal humidity levels in the 40% to 55% range, making answers A, B, and D incorrect. Very low levels of humidity can promote the buildup of electrostatic charges that can harm sensitive electronic components. Very high levels of humidity can promote condensation on chilled surfaces and introduce liquid into operating equipment.

*Which port does the Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) use?* a. 53 b. 143 c. 443 d. 3389

c. *443* The Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) uses port 443.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *The goal of _____ is to minimize the possibility of exploitation by reducing the amount of code and limiting potential damage.* a. EAPOL b. EAP c. ASR d. 802.1X

c. *ASR* The goal of attack surface reduction (ASR) is to minimize the possibility of exploitation by reducing the amount of code and limiting potential damage.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following terms refers to the prevention of unauthorized disclosure of keys?* a. Authentication b. Integrity c. Access control d. Non-repudiation

c. *Access control* Access control refers to the process of ensuring that sensitive keys aren't divulged to unauthorized personnel.

*Which of the following is a description of a key-stretching technique?* a. Salting input before hashing b. Generating a random number, and then using a trapdoor one-way function to derive a related key c. Adding iterative computations that increase the effort involved in creating the improved result d. Using a challenge-response dialogue

c. *Adding iterative computations that increase the effort involved in creating the improved result* Often, key stretching involves adding iterative computations that increase the effort involved in creating the improved key result, usually by several orders of magnitude. Salting input before hashing is a means to increase password security against brute-force attacks. Generating a random number and then using a trapdoor one-way function to derive a related key is the process of creating an asymmetric key pair set. Using a challenge-response dialogue is the basis of CHAP authentication.

*Which of the following is not a way to prevent or protect against XSS?* a. Input validation b. Defensive coding c. Allowing script input d. Escaping metacharacters

c. *Allowing script input* A programmer can implement the most effective way to prevent XSS by validating input, coding defensively, escaping metacharacters, and rejecting all script-like input.

*Which of the following is an example of a false negative result?* a. An authorized user is granted access to a resource. b. An unauthorized user is granted access to a resource. c. An authorized user is refused access to a resource. d. An unauthorized user is refused access to a resource.

c. *An authorized user is refused access to a resource.* A false negative result involves access refusal for an authorized user, which makes answer D incorrect. Answers A and B are incorrect because they represent granted resource access.

Educating and Protecting the User *An NDA (nondisclosure agreement) is typically signed by?* a. Alpha testers b. Customers c. Beta testers d. Focus groups

c. *Beta testers* An NDA (nondisclosure agreement) is typically signed by beta testers.

*The _______________ is the expected monetary loss that can be expected for an asset due to a risk over a one-year period.* a. Single Loss Expectancy b. Annualized Rate of Occurrence c. Annualized Loss Expectancy d. Multiple Loss Expectancy

c. *Annualized Loss Expectancy* The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) is the expected monetary loss that can be expected for an asset due to a risk over a one-year period.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following IDS types looks for things outside of the ordinary?* a. Incongruity-based b. Variance-based c. Anomaly-based d. Difference-based

c. *Anomaly-based* An anomaly-detection IDS (AD-IDS) looks for anomalies, meaning it looks for things outside of the ordinary.

*Which of the following describes a simple form of social engineering in which an unauthorized individual follows closely behind someone who has authorized physical access to an environment?* a. Tailgating b. Piggybacking c. Answers A and B d. None of the above

c. *Answers A and B* Both tailgating and piggybacking describe a simple method to gain unauthorized access to an environment by closely following behind someone with authorized access. Neither answer A nor B alone is correct. Answer D is incorrect.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *When troubleshooting SSL, which two layers of the OSI model are of most value?* a. Application layer and presentation layer b. Presentation layer and session layer c. Application layer and transport layer d. Physical layer and data link layer

c. *Application layer and transport layer* SSL connections occur between the application and transport layers. Answer A is incorrect because SSL operates at a deeper level. Answer B is incorrect because the Secure Sockets Layer transport effectively fills the same role as these OSI model layers. Answer D is incorrect because the data has been abstracted beyond the level at which SSL operates.

*Which of the following would be used to detect unauthorized or unintentional access or escalation of privileges?* a. Change management b. Incident management c. Auditing d. Data-loss prevention

c. *Auditing* Auditing is used to detect unauthorized or unintentional access or escalation of privileges. Answer A is incorrect because change management provides specific details when system changes are made, such as the files being replaced, the configuration being changed, or the machines or operating systems affected. Answer B is incorrect because incident management includes preparation, roles, rules, and procedures for incident response and how to maintain business continuity while defending against further attacks. Answer D is incorrect because DLP is a way of detecting and preventing confidential data from being exfiltrated physically or logically from an organization by accident or on purpose. Auditing is used to prevent unauthorized or unintentional access or escalation of privileges.

*Which of the three principles of security is supported by an offsite tape backup system?* a. Confidentiality b. Integrity c. Availability d. Sanitization

c. *Availability* Availability is concerned with ensuring that access to services and data is protected against disruption, including disasters and other events that could require recovering from offsite backup media. Answer A is incorrect because confidentiality involves protecting against unauthorized access. Integrity is concerned with preventing unauthorized modification, making Answer B incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because sanitization involves the destruction or overwriting of data to protect confidentiality.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *The risk-assessment component, in conjunction with the ________, provides the organization with an accurate picture of the situation facing it.* a. RAC b. ALE c. BIA d. RMG

c. *BIA* The risk-assessment component, in conjunction with the BIA (Business Impact Analysis), provides the organization with an accurate picture of the situation facing it.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *An alert signals you that a server in your network has a program running on it that bypasses authorization. Which type of attack has occurred?* a. DoS b. DDoS c. Backdoor d. Social engineering

c. *Backdoor* In a backdoor attack, a program or service is placed on a server to bypass normal security procedures.

*What communications technique can a hacker use to identity the product that is running on an open port facing the Internet?* a. Credentialed penetration test b. Intrusive vulnerability scan c. Banner grabbing d. Port scanning

c. *Banner grabbing* Banner grabbing is the communications technique a hacker can use to identify the product that is running on an open port facing the Internet.

*Which of the following describes a type of algorithm where data is broken into several units of varying sizes (dependent on algorithm) and encryption is applied to those chunks of data?* a. Symmetric encryption algorithm b. Elliptic curve c. Block cipher d. All of the above

c. *Block cipher* When data that is going to be encrypted is broken into chunks of data and then encrypted, the type of encryption is called a block cipher. Although many symmetric algorithms use a block cipher, answer A is incorrect because block cipher is a more precise and accurate term for the given question. Answer B is incorrect because elliptic curve is a type of asymmetric encryption algorithm. Answer D is an incorrect choice because only one answer is correct.

*Which type of power variation includes short-term decreases in voltage levels?* a. Spikes b. Surges c. Brownouts d. Blackouts

c. *Brownouts* A brownout is a short-term decrease in voltage, often occurring when motors are started or due to provider faults. Both spikes and surges are increases of voltage, making answers A and B incorrect. Blackouts involve a complete loss of power rather than simply a reduction of voltage, making answer D incorrect.

Cryptography Basics *Due to a breach, a certificate must be permanently revoked, and you don't want it to ever be used again. What is often used to revoke a certificate?* a. CRA b. CYA c. CRL d. PKI

c. *CRL* A Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or key.

Access Control and Identity Management *To check the validity of a digital certificate, which one of the following would be used?* a. Corporate security policy b. Certificate policy c. Certificate revocation list d. Expired domain names

c. *Certificate revocation list* A certificate revocation list (CRL) provides a detailed list of certificates that are no longer valid. A corporate security policy would not provide current information on the validity of issued certificates; therefore, answer A is incorrect. A certificate policy does not provide information on invalid issued certificates, either; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Finally, an expired domain name has no bearing on the validity of a digital certificate; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

Cryptography Implementation *A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for issuing, revoking, and distributing:* a. Tokens b. Licenses c. Certificates d. Tickets

c. *Certificates* A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for issuing, revoking, and distributing certificates.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following is the structured approach that is followed to secure the company's assets?* a. Asset management b. Incident management c. Change management d. Skill management

c. *Change management* Change management is the structured approach that is followed to secure the company's assets.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *During what process do you look at all custom written applications for holes that may exist (in the form of the finished application, configuration files, libraries, and so on)?* a. Network bridging b. Design review c. Code review d. Remediation

c. *Code review* During a code review, you look at all custom written applications for holes that may exist (in the form of the finished application, configuration files, libraries, and the like).

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Separation of duties helps prevent an individual from embezzling money from a company. To successfully embezzle funds, an individual would need to recruit others to commit an act of ________ (an agreement between two or more parties established for the purpose of committing deception or fraud).* a. Misappropriation b. Misuse c. Collusion d. Fraud

c. *Collusion* Collusion is an agreement between two or more parties established for the purpose of committing deception or fraud. Collusion, when part of a crime, is also a criminal act in and of itself.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which concept does the Bell-LaPadula model deal most accurately with?* a. Integrity b. Trustworthiness c. Confidentiality d. Accuracy

c. *Confidentiality* The Bell-LaPadula model deals most accurately with confidentiality.

*What statement accurately describes a best practice for managing a virtual LAN (VLAN)?* a. Configure empty switch ports to connect to a used VLAN. b. Keep all default VLAN names. c. Configure the ports on the switch that pass tagged VLAN packets to explicitly forward specific tags. d. Configure VLANs so that public devices are on a private VLAN.

c. *Configure the ports on the switch that pass tagged VLAN packets to explicitly forward specific tags.* Some general principles for managing VLANs are: (1) Configure empty switch ports to connect to an unused VLAN (2) Change any default VLAN names (3) Configure the ports on the switch that pass tagged VLAN packets to explicitly forward specific tags (4) Configure VLANs so that public devices, such as a web application server, are not on a private VLAN, forcing users to have access to that VLAN.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following would normally not be part of an incident response policy?* a. Outside agencies (that require status) b. Outside experts (to resolve the incident) c. Contingency plans d. Evidence collection procedures

c. *Contingency plans* A contingency plan wouldn't normally be part of an incident response policy. It would be part of a disaster-recovery plan.

*What is a security risk of an embedded system that is not commonly found in a standard PC?* a. Power loss b. Access to the Internet c. Control of a mechanism in the physical world d. Software flaws

c. *Control of a mechanism in the physical world* Because an embedded system is in control of a mechanism in the physical world, a security breach could cause harm to people and property. This typically is not true of a standard PC. Power loss, Internet access, and software flaws are security risks of both embedded systems and standard PCs.

*The encryption protocol used for WPA2 is the _______________.* a. Triple DES b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) d. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

c. *Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)* The encryption protocol used for WPA2 is the Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) and specifies the use of CCM (a general purpose cipher mode algorithm providing data privacy) with AES.

*Which of the following types of attacks is characterized by client-side vulnerabilities presented by ActiveX or JavaScript code running within the client's browser?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

c. *Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)* Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks take advantage of vulnerabilities in ActiveX or JavaScript code running within the client's browser. The attack hijacks the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer B is incorrect. The key element to understanding XSRF is that attackers are betting that users have a validated login cookie for the website already stored in their browsers. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following types of attacks is executed by placing malicious executable code on a website?* a. Buffer overflow b. Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) c. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) d. Input validation error

c. *Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)* Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer B is incorrect. The key element to understanding XSRF is that attackers are betting that users have a validated login cookie for the website already stored in their browsers. Answer D is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is not one of the four main types of trust models used with PKI?* a. Hierarchical b. Bridge c. Custom d. Mesh e. Hybrid

c. *Custom* The four main types of trust models used with PKI are hierarchical, bridge, mesh, and hybrid. Custom is not one of the main PKI trust models.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following is a coordinated effort in which multiple machines attack a single victim or host with the intent to prevent legitimate service?* a. DoS b. Masquerading c. DDoS d. Trojan horse

c. *DDoS* A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack is similar to a denial-of-service (DoS) attack in that they both try to prevent legitimate access to services. However, a DDoS attack is a coordinated effort among many computer systems; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Masquerading involves using someone else's identity to access resources; therefore, answer B is incorrect. A Trojan horse is a program used to perform hidden functions; therefore, answer D is incorrect.

*llegal or unauthorized zone transfers are a significant and direct threat to what type of network server?* a. Web b. DHCP c. DNS d. Database

c. *DNS* Illegal or unauthorized zone transfers are a significant and direct threat to DNS servers.

Protecting Networks *Which type of active response fools the attacker into thinking the attack is succeeding while the system monitors the activity and potentially redirects the attacker to a system that is designed to be broken?* a. Pretexting b. Shamming c. Deception d. Scamming

c. *Deception* A deception active response fools the attacker into thinking the attack is succeeding while the system monitors the activity and potentially redirects the attacker to a system that is designed to be broken.

*Which form of media sanitization might be required for flash-based solid state drives to be considered fully sanitized?* a. Declassification b. Degaussing c. Destruction d. Overwriting

c. *Destruction* In some forms of nonferric solid-state storage devices, only destruction may provide full data sanitization. Answer A is incorrect because declassification is a formal process for assessing the risk associated with discarding information, rather than a sanitization process itself. Answer B is incorrect because nonferric solid-state data storage might not react to powerful magnetic fields used during degaussing. Answer D is incorrect because overwriting in a solid state device operates differently than in magnetic storage media and might not completely wipe all data.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which backup system backs up all the files that have changed since the last full backup?* a. Full backup b. Incremental backup c. Differential backup d. Archival backup

c. *Differential backup* A differential backup backs up all the files that have changed since the last full backup.

*Which protocol is a TCP/IP protocol that resolves (maps) a symbolic name (www.cengage.com) with its corresponding IP address (69.32.133.11)?* a. Internet protocol (IP) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Domain Name System (DNS) d. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

c. *Domain Name System (DNS)* The Domain Name System (DNS) is a TCP/IP protocol that resolves (maps) a symbolic name (www.cengage.com) with its corresponding IP address (69.32.133.11).

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which type of policy would govern whether employees can engage in practices such as taking gifts from vendors?* a. Termination policy b. Endowment policy c. Ethics policy d. Benefit policy

c. *Ethics policy* An ethics policy is the written policy governing accepted organizational ethics.

Operating System and Application Security *Which filesystem was primarily intended for desktop system use and offers limited security?* a. NTFS b. NFS c. FAT d. AFS

c. *FAT* FAT technology offers limited security options.

*Which type of biometric authentication system is not subject to false rejection due to illness or minor injury?* a. Fingerprint b. Voiceprint c. Facial recognition d. Retina

c. *Facial recognition* Facial recognition systems measure relative spacing between underlying features such as the bone structure and eye placement, requiring more than a minor injury to modify this biometric signature. Fingerprint signatures can be modified by minor cuts, abrasions, and exposure to chemicals, making answer A incorrect. Both voiceprint and retinal signatures can be modified due to illness and injury, making answers B and D incorrect.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *The process of automatically switching from a malfunctioning system to another system is called what?* a. Fail safe b. Redundancy c. Fail-over d. Hot site

c. *Fail-over* Fail-over occurs when a system that is developing a malfunction automatically switches processes to another system to continue operations.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *In which type of testing do you begin with the premise that an outsider attacker is being fed some knowledge from someone inside the network?* a. Black box b. White box c. Gray box d. Green box

c. *Gray box* With gray box testing, you begin with the premise that an outsider attacker is being fed some knowledge from someone inside the network.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *You're the chief security contact for MTS. One of your primary tasks is to document everything related to security and create a manual that can be used to manage the company in your absence. Which documents should be referenced in your manual as the ones that identify the methods used to accomplish a given task?* a. Policies b. Standards c. Guidelines d. BIA

c. *Guidelines* Guidelines help clarify processes to maintain standards. Guidelines tend to be less formal than policies or standards.

Protecting Networks *You're the administrator for Acme Widgets. After attending a conference on buzzwords for management, your boss informs you that an IDS should be up and running on the network by the end of the week. Which of the following systems should be installed on a host to provide IDS capabilities?* a. Network sniffer b. NIDS c. HIDS d. VPN

c. *HIDS* A host-based IDS (HIDS) is installed on each host that needs IDS capabilities.

*What is a potential concern to weaker encryption algorithms as time goes on? (Select the best answer.)* a. Performance of the algorithm worsens over time b. Keys generated by users start to repeat on other users' systems c. Hackers using distributed computing might be able to finally crack algorithms. d. All options are correct.

c. *Hackers using distributed computing might be able to finally crack algorithms.* As computers get faster, so does the ability for hackers to use distributed computing as a method of breaking encryption algorithms. With computer performance, in some cases, increasing by 30% to 50% a year on average, this could become a concern for some older algorithms. Answer A is incorrect because weak keys exhibit regularities, and the weakness has nothing to do with performance. Answer B is incorrect because the weakness in keys comes from a block cipher regularity in the encryption of secret keys. The keys do not repeat themselves on other machines. Answer D is incorrect because there is only one correct answer.

*What type of algorithm is SHA-1?* a. Asymmetric encryption algorithm b. Digital signature c. Hashing algorithm d. Certificate authority

c. *Hashing algorithm* SHA-1 is a cryptographic hash function and is an updated version of the original Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA). Answer A is incorrect because this is an algorithm that uses a public and private key pair and is not associated with SHA-1. Answer B is incorrect because a digital signature is not an encryption algorithm. Answer D is incorrect because a certificate authority accepts or revokes certificates.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following will help track changes to the environment when an organization needs to keep legacy machines?* a. Virtualization b. Network storage policies c. Host software baselining d. Roaming profiles

c. *Host software baselining* Host software baselining can be done for a variety of reasons including malware monitoring and creating system images. Generally, the environment needs of an organization will fall into a legacy, enterprise, or high-security client. Answer A is incorrect because virtualization adds a layer of security as well as improves enterprise desktop management and control with faster deployment of desktops and fewer support calls due to application conflicts. Answer B is incorrect because network storage policies have nothing to do with desktop management. Answer D is incorrect because roaming profiles do not add a layer of security.

Operating System and Application Security *Your company does electronic monitoring of individuals under house arrest around the world. Because of the sensitive nature of the business, you can't afford any unnecessary downtime. What is the process of applying a repair to an operating system while the system stays in operation called?* a. Upgrading b. Service pack installation c. Hotfix d. File update

c. *Hotfix* A hotfix is done while a system is operating. This reduces the necessity of taking a system out of service to fix a problem.

*Which protocol uses TLS and SSL to secure Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP) communications between a browser and a web server?* a. FTP Secure (FTPS) b. Secure Shell (SSH) c. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) d. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

c. *Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS)* One common use of TLS and SSL is to secure Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP) communications between a browser and a web server. This secure version is actually "plain" HTTP sent over SSL or TLS and is called Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS).

*In a(n) _______________ attack, an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) redirect packet is sent to the victim that asks the host to send its packets to another "router," which is actually a malicious device.* a. network discovery b. smurf c. ICMP redirect d. ping of death

c. *ICMP redirect* In an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) redirect attack, an ICMP redirect packet is sent to the victim that asks the host to send its packets to another "router," which is actually a malicious device.

*Each firewall rule is essentially a separate instruction with a(n) _______________ construction.* a. FOR-EACH b. DO-UNTIL c. IF-THEN d. WHILE-DO

c. *IF-THEN* Firewall rules are essentially an IF-THEN construction. IF these rule conditions are met, THEN the action occurs.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You're the administrator for Mercury Technical. A check of protocols in use on your server brings up one that you weren't aware was in use; you suspect that someone in HR is using it to send messages to multiple recipients. Which of the following protocols is used for group messages or multicast messaging?* a. SMTP b. SNMP c. IGMP d. L2TP

c. *IGMP* IGMP is used for group messaging and multicasting. IGMP maintains a list of systems that belong to a message group. When a message is sent to a particular group, each system receives an individual copy.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You're explaining protocols to a junior administrator shortly before you leave for vacation. The topic of Internet mail applications comes up, and you explain how communications are done now as well as how you expect them to be done in the future. Which of the following protocols is becoming the newest standard for Internet mail applications?* a. SMTP b. POP c. IMAP d. IGMP

c. *IMAP* IMAP is becoming the most popular standard for email clients and is replacing POP protocols for mail systems. IMAP allows mail to be forwarded and stored in information areas called stores.

*You have been tasked with mitigating the risk of password-based attacks. Which of the following should you consider to provide a control beyond just what someone knows?* a. Enforce complex passwords b. Prevent the user from entering more than three incorrect passwords c. Implement use of a one-time use token d. A and B

c. *Implement use of a one-time use token* Although both A and B provide controls for passwords, they are still both based on something the user knows: a password. A one-time use token can be a dedicated hardware token or may be a software token or text message on a mobile device. This would be an example of something the user has (for example, a hardware token or registered mobile device). Answer D is incorrect.

Access Control and Identity Management *What is implied at the end of each access control list?* a. Least privilege b. Separation of duties c. Implicit deny d. Explicit allow

c. *Implicit deny* An implicit deny clause is implied at the end of each ACL, and it means that if the proviso in question has not been explicitly granted, then it is denied.

* _______________ in access control means that if a condition is not explicitly met, the request for access is rejected.* a. Static allow b. Explicit allow c. Implicit deny d. Dynamic deny

c. *Implicit deny* Implicit deny in access control means that if a condition is not explicitly met, the request for access is rejected. (Implicit means that something is implied or indicated but not actually expressed.)

*An organization has an access control list implemented on the border router, but it appears that unauthorized traffic is still being accepted. Which of the following would the organization implement to improve the blocking of unauthorized traffic?* a. Loop protection b. Flood guard c. Implicit deny d. Port security

c. *Implicit deny* Implicit deny is an access control practice wherein resource availability is restricted to only those logons explicitly granted access. Answer A is incorrect because the loop protection feature makes additional checks in Layer 2 switched networks. Answer B is incorrect because a flood guard is a firewall feature to control network activity associated with denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Answer D is incorrect because port security is a Layer 2 traffic control feature on Cisco Catalyst switches. It enables individual switch ports to be configured to allow only a specified number of source MAC addresses coming in through the port.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Your organization is exploring endpoint data-loss prevention (DLP) solutions. This solution is targeting which of the following data states?* a. In-transit b. At-rest c. In-use d. In-flux

c. *In-use* Protection of data in-use is considered to be an endpoint solution and the application is run on end user workstations or servers in the organization. Answer A is incorrect because protection of data in-transit is considered to be a network solution and either a hardware or software solution is installed near the network perimeter to monitor for and flag policy violations. Answer B is incorrect because protection of data at-rest is considered to be a storage solution and is generally a software solution that monitors how confidential data is stored. Answer D is incorrect because there is no such data state.

*Buffer overflows, format string vulnerabilities, and utilization of shell-escape codes can be mitigated by which of the following practices?* a. Fuzzing b. Testing c. Input validation d. Browser initiated token request

c. *Input validation* Input validation tests whether an application properly handles input from a source outside the application destined for internal processing. Answer A is incorrect because fuzzing allows an attacker to inject random-looking data into a program to see if it can cause the program to crash. Answer B is incorrect because testing is too generic or a term. Answer D is incorrect because it is a method used to mitigate Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) attacks.

Network Security *Which option for installing a corporate spam filter is considered to be the most effective approach?* a. Install the spam filter on the Domain Name Server (DNS). b. Install the spam filter on the Post Office Protocol (POP3) server. c. Install the spam filter with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server. d. Contract with a third-party entity that filters out spam.

c. *Install the spam filter with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server.* Installing the spam filter with the SMTP serve is the simplest and most effective approach.

*_______________ is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications.* a. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) c. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) d. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

c. *Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)* Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications.

Network Security *Which statement concerning behavior-based monitoring is correct? * a. It is necessary to update signature files before monitoring can take place. b. It is necessary to compile a baseline of statistical behavior before monitoring can take place. c. It can more quickly stop new attacks as compared to anomaly- and behavior-based monitoring. d. Behavior-based monitoring operates in a reactive mode.

c. *It can more quickly stop new attacks as compared to anomaly- and behavior-based monitoring.* One of the advantages of behavior-based monitoring is that it is not necessary to update signature files or compile a baseline of statistical behavior before monitoring can take place. In addition, behavior-based monitoring can more quickly stop new attacks.

*When should a key or certificate be renewed?* a. Every year b. Every quarter c. Just before it expires d. Just after it expires

c. *Just before it expires* Keys and certificates should be renewed just before they expire. All the other choices are incorrect.

*Digital signatures can be created using all but which of the following?* a. Asymmetric cryptography b. Hashing c. Key escrow d. Symmetric cryptography

c. *Key escrow* Key escrow isn't used in digital signatures, but it's a fault-tolerance feature of certificate and key management. Asymmetric and symmetric cryptography along with hashing are used in digital signatures.

Cryptography Implementation *Key management includes all of the following stages/areas except:* a. Centralized versus decentralized key generation b. Key storage and distribution c. Key locking d. Key escrow e. Key expiration

c. *Key locking* Key management includes centralized versus decentralized key generation, key storage and distribution, key escrow, and key expiration. Key locking is not a part of key management.

Cryptography Basics *What is the primary organization for maintaining certificates called?* a. CA b. RA c. LRA d. CRL

c. *LRA* A Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or key.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policies should be used when assigning permissions, giving users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more?* a. Separation of duties b. Acceptable use c. Least privilege d. Physical access control

c. *Least privilege* The principle of least privilege should be used when assigning permissions. Give users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following can be implemented as a software or hardware solution and is usually associated with a device—a router, a firewall, NAT, and so on—and used to shift a load from one device to another?* a. Proxy b. Hub c. Load balancer d. Switch

c. *Load balancer* A load balancer can be implemented as a software or hardware solution, and is usually associated with a device—a router, a firewall, NAT, and so on. As the name implies, it is used to shift a load from one device to another.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following methods would be the most effective method to physically secure computers that are used in a lab environment that operates on a part-time basis?* a. Security cables b. Server cages c. Locked cabinet d. Hardware dongle

c. *Locked cabinet* A locked cabinet is an alternative for equipment that is not used or does not have to be physically accessed on a regular, daily basis. Vendors provide solutions such as a security cabinet locker that secures CPU towers. The housing is made of durable, heavy-duty steel for strength. Answer A is incorrect because security cables with combination locks can provide such security and are easy to use but are used mostly to secure laptops and leave the equipment exposed. Answer B is incorrect because PC Safe tower and server cages are designed to bolt to the floor and are meant to be in an environment that is static. Answer D is incorrect because a hardware dongle is used for license enforcement.

*An organization has agreed to collaborate on a business project with another organization. Which of the following documents would outline the terms and details of an agreement between parties, including each party's requirements and responsibilities?* a. SLA b. BPA c. MOU d. ISA

c. *MOU* A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a document that outlines the terms and details of an agreement between parties, including each party's requirements and responsibilities. Answer A is incorrect because a service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the nature of the service to be provided and the level of service that the provider will offer to the customer. Answer B is incorrect because a business partners agreement (BPA) is a contract that establishes partner profit percentages, partner responsibilities, and exit strategies for partners. Answer D is incorrect because an interconnection security agreement (ISA) is an agreement between organizations that have connected IT systems.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following is the measure of the anticipated incidence of failure for a system or component?* a. CIBR b. AIFS c. MTBF d. MTTR

c. *MTBF* Mean time between failures (MTBF) is the measure of the anticipated incidence of failure for a system or component.

*Which type of risk control is administrative in nature and includes the laws, regulations, policies, practices, and guidelines that govern overall requirements and controls?* a. Technical b. System c. Management d. Operational

c. *Management* Management risk control types are administrative in their nature and are the laws, regulations, policies, practices, and guidelines that govern the overall requirements and controls.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following is an attack against the algorithm?* a. Birthday attack b. Weak key attack c. Mathematical attack d. Registration attack

c. *Mathematical attack* A mathematical attack is an attack against the algorithm.

*Which of the following is an example of role-based access control criteria?* a. GPS coordinates b. Trusted OS c. Members of the Administrators group d. Time of day

c. *Members of the Administrators group* Role-based access control involves assignment of access rights to groups associated with specific roles, with accounts inheriting rights based on group membership. Answers A and B are incorrect, as requirements for access only from specific locations or only from systems running a trusted OS are examples of rule-based access controls. Time of day restrictions are also rule-based access controls, making answer D incorrect.

Cryptography Basics *MAC is an acronym for what as it relates to cryptography?* a. Media access control b. Mandatory access control c. Message authentication code d. Multiple advisory committees

c. *Message authentication code* A MAC as it relates to cryptography is a method of verifying the integrity of an encrypted message. The MAC is derived from the message and the key.

*Which of the following is not a benefit of single sign-on?* a. The ability to browse multiple systems b. Fewer usernames and passwords to memorize c. More granular access control d. Stronger passwords

c. *More granular access control* Single sign-on doesn't address access control and therefore doesn't provide granular or nongranular access control. Single sign-on provides the benefits of the ability to browse multiple systems, fewer credentials to memorize, and the use of stronger passwords.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *People in an organization can withhold classified or sensitive information from others in the company when governed by what type of policy?* a. Nondisclosure b. Suppression c. Need-to-know d. Revelation

c. *Need-to-know* People in an organization can withhold classified or sensitive information from others in the company when governed by need-to-know policies.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *What protocol, running on top of TCP/IP, is often used for name registration and resolution with Windows-based clients?* a. Telnet b. SSL c. NetBIOS d. TLS

c. *NetBIOS* NetBIOS is used for name resolution and registration in Windows-based environments. It runs on top of TCP/IP.

Cryptography Basics *What is the acronym for the de facto cryptographic message standards developed by RSA Laboratories?* a. PKIX b. X.509 c. PKCS d. Both A and C

c. *PKCS* The Public Key Cryptography Standards (PKCS) are the de facto cryptographic message standards developed and maintained by RSA Laboratories, the Security Division of EMC. PKIX describes the development of Internet standards for X.509-based digital certificates; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

*Which of the following would best mitigate the risks associated with allowing organizational network access required by the terms of a joint project with a business partner?* a. Captive portal b. Access control lists c. Network segmentation d. Log analysis

c. *Network segmentation* With interconnected networks, the potential for damage greatly increases because one compromised system on one network can easily spread to other networks. Networks that are shared by partners, vendors, or departments should have clear separation boundaries. Answer A is incorrect because a captive portal is used to block Internet access for users until some action is taken. Answer B is incorrect because access control generally refers to the process of making resources available to accounts that should have access, while limiting that access to only what is required. Answer D is incorrect because logging is the process of collecting data to be used for monitoring and auditing purposes.

*Which of the following is a security concern when implementing NoSQL databases?* a. NoSQL databases do not provide any authentication mechanisms. b. The NoSQL design uses server-side validation. c. NoSQL databases lack confidentiality and integrity. d. NoSQL databases are lacking in areas of scalability and performance.

c. *NoSQL databases lack confidentiality and integrity.* The NoSQL design does not place security as a high priority, lacking confidentiality and integrity. Answer A is incorrect because NoSQL databases such as MongoDB have added support for Kerberos authentication, more granular access controls, and SSL encryption. Answer B is incorrect because server-side validation helps protect against malicious attempts by a user to bypass validation or submit unsafe input and it is associated with web-based applications not databases. Answer D is incorrect because when compared to relational databases, NoSQL systems are more scalable and provide superior performance. Scalability and performance are not security concerns.

*The most commonly overlooked aspect of mobile phone eavesdropping is related to _____.* a. Wireless networking b. Storage device encryption c. Overhearing conversations d. Screen locks

c. *Overhearing conversations* The most commonly overlooked aspect of mobile phone eavesdropping is related to people in the vicinity overhearing conversations (at least one side of them). Organizations frequently consider and address issues of wireless networking, storage device encryption, and screen locks.

Operating System and Application Security *What is the process of applying manual changes to a program called?* a. Hotfix b. Service pack c. Patching d. Replacement

c. *Patching* A patch is a temporary workaround of a bug or problem in code that is applied manually. Complete programs usually replace patches at a later date.

*Security guards are a form of which specific type of control?* a. Management b. Technical c. Physical d. Access

c. *Physical* Physical controls include facility design details such as layout, door, locks, guards, and surveillance systems. Management controls include policies and procedures, whereas technical controls include access control systems, encryption, and data classification solutions, making answers A and B incorrect. Access controls include all three classifications (management, technical, and physical), making Answer D incorrect because the question asks for a specific type.

Protecting Networks *In order for network monitoring to work properly, you need a PC and a network card running in what mode?* a. Launch b. Exposed c. Promiscuous d. Sweep

c. *Promiscuous* In order for network monitoring to work properly, you need a PC and a network card running in promiscuous mode.

*Which of the following is the best measure to prevent divulging sensitive information through dumpster diving? (Select two correct answers.)* a. A firewall b. Antivirus software c. Proper disposal policy d. Training and awareness

c. *Proper disposal policy* d. *Training and awareness* Dumpster diving describes a physical means of acquiring sensitive data, often by digging through discarded material. A policy that clearly describes an organization's stance on proper disposal of data and equipment along with user training and awareness are key measures that should be taken to prevent the disclosure of sensitive data through dumpster diving. Answers A and B are incorrect and cannot prevent a physical attack on materials.

*Which utility allows the identification of all devices conducting network traffic both to and from a network segment?* a. Port scanner b. Vulnerability scanner c. Protocol analyzer d. Network mapper

c. *Protocol analyzer* Protocol analyzers examine network traffic and identify protocols and endpoint devices in the identified transactions. Port scanners check service ports on a single device, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because vulnerability scanners look for vulnerabilities associated with particular versions of software or services. Answer D is incorrect because a network mapper identifies all devices within a network segment and would not identify endpoint devices beyond that address space.

Access Control and Identity Management *Your office administrator is being trained to perform server backups. Which authentication method would be ideal for this situation?* a. MAC b. DAC c. RBAC d. Security tokens

c. *RBAC* Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) allows specific people to be assigned to specific roles with specific privileges. A backup operator would need administrative privileges to back up a server. This privilege would be limited to the role and wouldn't be present during the employee's normal job functions.

*What method of access control is best suited for environments with a high rate of employee turnover?* a. MAC b DAC c. RBAC d. ACL

c. *RBAC* Role-based access control (RBAC) is best suited for environments with a high rate of employee turnover because access is defined against static job descriptions rather than transitive user accounts (DAC and ACL) or assigned clearances (MAC).

Cryptography Basics *You're a member of a consortium wanting to create a new standard that will effectively end all spam. After years of meeting, the group has finally come across a solution and now wants to propose it. The process of proposing a new standard or method on the Internet is referred to by which acronym?* a. WBS b. X.509 c. RFC d. IEEE

c. *RFC* The Request for Comments (RFC) process allows all users and interested parties to comment on proposed standards for the Internet. The RFC editor manages the RFC process. The editor is responsible for cataloging, updating, and tracking RFCs through the process.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which of the following designates the amount of data loss that is sustainable and up to what point in time data recovery could happen before business is disrupted?* a. RTO b. MTBF c. RPO d. MTTF

c. *RPO* Recovery point objective (RPO) is the amount of time that can elapse during a disruption before the quantity of data lost during that period exceeds the BCP's maximum allowable threshold. Simply put, RPO specifies the allowable data loss. It determines up to what point in time data recovery could happen before business is disrupted. Answer A is incorrect because recovery time objective (RTO) is the amount of time within which a process must be restored after a disaster to meet business continuity. It defines how much time it takes to recover after notification of process disruption. Answer B is incorrect because mean time between failures (MTBF) is the average amount of time that passes between hardware component failures excluding time spent waiting for or being repaired. Answer D is incorrect because mean time to failure (MTTF) is the length of time a device or product is expected to last in operation.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *RFI is the byproduct of electrical processes, similar to EMI. The major difference is that RFI is usually projected across which of the following?* a. Network medium b. Electrical wiring c. Radio spectrum d. Portable media

c. *Radio spectrum* RFI is the byproduct of electrical processes, similar to EMI. The major difference is that RFI is usually projected across a radio spectrum. Motors with defective brushes can generate RFI, as can a number of other devices.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following is an active response in an IDS?* a. Sending an alert to a console b. Shunning c. Reconfiguring a router to block an IP address d. Making an entry in the security audit file

c. *Reconfiguring a router to block an IP address* Dynamically changing the system's configuration to protect the network or a system is an active response.

*Which of the following is a method that can be used to prevent data from being accessed in the event the device is lost or stolen?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Asset tracking

c. *Remote wipe* A remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen. Answer A is incorrect because in the event a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer B is incorrect because mobile voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer D is incorrect because asset tracking is used for management of assets in the field so that the device location is known at all times.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *You've discovered that an expired certificate is being used repeatedly to gain logon privileges. Which type of attack is this most likely to be?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Replay attack d. TCP/IP hijacking

c. *Replay attack* A replay attack attempts to replay the results of a previously successful session to gain access.

*Which type of biometric authentication involves identification of the unique patterns of blood-vessels at the back of the eye?* a. Facial recognition b. Iris c. Retina d. Signature

c. *Retina* Retinal biometric systems identify unique patterns of blood vessels in the back of the eye. Facial recognition systems identify fixed spacing of key features of the face such as bones, eyes, and chin shape, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because iris scanning involves identification of unique patterns in the outer colored part of the eye. Answer D is incorrect because signature analysis is a form of what you do biometric authentication recording the speed, shape, and unique kinematics of a personal written signature.

*A security template can be used to perform all but which of the following tasks?* a. Capture the security configuration of a master system b. Apply security settings to a target system c. Return a target system to its precompromised state d. Evaluate compliance with security of a target system

c. *Return a target system to its precompromised state* A security template alone cannot return a system to its precompromised state.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies involves understanding something about the enemy and letting them know the harm that can come their way if they cause harm to you?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

c. *Risk deterrence* Risk deterrence involves understanding something about the enemy and letting them know the harm that can come their way if they cause harm to you.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *On a Linux-based system, which account is equivalent to the administrator account in Windows?* a. Auditor b. Supervisor c. Root d. Master

c. *Root* The root user in Linux is equivalent to the administrator user in Windows.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following devices is the most capable of providing infrastructure security?* a. Hub b. Switch c. Router d. Modem

c. *Router* Routers can be configured in many instances to act as packet-filtering firewalls. When configured properly, they can prevent unauthorized ports from being opened.

*What type of wireless antenna can be used to send or receive signals in any direction?* a. Cantenna b. Yagi c. Rubber duck d. Panel

c. *Rubber duck* A rubber duck antenna is an omnidirectional antenna.

*An organization that relies heavily on cloud and SaaS service providers, such as Salesforce.com, WebEx, and Google, would have security concerns when implementing which of the following?* a. TACACS+ b. Secure LDAP c. SAML d. XTACACS

c. *SAML* SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) framework for creating and exchanging security information between online partners. The weakness in the SAML identity chain is the integrity of users. To mitigate risk, SAML systems need to use timed sessions, HTTPS, and SSL/TLS. Answer A is incorrect because TACACS+ protocol provides authentication and authorization in addition to accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests. Answer B is incorrect because secure LDAP is a way to make LDAP traffic confidential and secure by using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) / Transport Layer Security (TLS) technology. Answer D is incorrect because XTACACS is a proprietary version of the original TACACS protocol that was developed by Cisco.

*What mechanism is used to support the exchange of authentication and authorization details between systems, services, and devices?* a. Biometric b. Two-factor authentication c. SAML d. LDAP

c. *SAML* SAML is an open standard data format based on XML for the purpose of supporting the exchange of authentication and authorization details between systems, services, and devices. A biometric is an authentication factor, not a means of exchanging authentication information. Two-factor authentication is the use of two authentication factors. LDAP is a protocol used by directory services, not directly related to authentication.

*Which statement accurately describes Secure FTP (SFTP)?* a. SFTP is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS). b. SFTP uses two ports. c. SFTP is an entire protocol itself. d. SFTP encrypts and compresses only data, not commands.

c. *SFTP is an entire protocol itself.* There are several differences between Secure FTP (SFTP) and FTP Secure (FTPS). First, FTPS is a combination of two technologies (FTP and SSL or TLS), whereas SFTP is an entire protocol itself and is not pieced together with multiple parts. Second, SFTP uses only a single TCP port instead of two ports like FTPS. Finally, SFTP encrypts and compresses all data and commands (FTPS may not encrypt data).

*Which of the following services/protocols operate on port 22?* a. DNS b. HTTPS c. SSH d. RDP

c. *SSH* Secure Shell (SSH) operates on port 22. Answer A is incorrect because Domain Name Service (DNS) uses port 53. Answer B is incorrect because HTTPS uses port 443. Answer D is incorrect because Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389.

*Which of the following models is useful for individuals and businesses that want to have the right to access a certain application without having to purchase a full license?* a. PaaS b. IaaS c. SaaS d. DaaS

c. *SaaS* Software-as-a-service (SaaS) is the delivery of a licensed application to customers over the Internet for use as a service on demand. Answer A is incorrect. Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is the delivery of a computing platform, often an operating system with associated services, that is delivered over the Internet without downloads or installation. Answer B is incorrect because infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) is the delivery of computer infrastructure in a hosted service model over the Internet. Answer D is incorrect because desktop-as-a-service (DaaS), also called virtual desktop or hosted desktop services, is the outsourcing of a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) to a third-party service provider.

*Which of the following would be implemented for secure communications when the organization is using an application that authenticates with Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) through simple BIND?* a. TACACS+ b. SAML c. Secure LDAP d. XTACACS

c. *Secure LDAP* Reasons for enabling Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) / Transport Layer Security (TLS) also known as LDAPS, include protection of the authentication session when an application authenticates with Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) through simple BIND. Answer A is incorrect because the TACACS+ protocol provides authentication and authorization as well as accounting of access requests against a centralized service for authorization of access requests. Answer B is incorrect because SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) framework for creating and exchanging security information between online partners. Answer D is incorrect because XTACACS is a proprietary version of the original TACACS protocol that was developed by Cisco.

* _______________ is an encrypted alternative to the Telnet protocol that is used to access remote computers.* a. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) b. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) c. Secure Shell (SSH) d. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

c. *Secure Shell (SSH)* Secure Shell (SSH) is an encrypted alternative to the Telnet protocol that is used to access remote computers.

*Which common cryptographic transport algorithm was developed by Netscape in 1994 in response to the growing concern over Internet security?* a. Hypertext Transport Protocol Secure (HTTPS) b. Secure Shell (SSH) c. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) d. Transport Layer Security (TLS)

c. *Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)* One of the most common cryptographic transport algorithms is Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). This protocol was developed by Netscape in 1994 in response to the growing concern over Internet security.

*What is a written document that states how an organization plans to protect the company's information technology assets?* a. Privacy notice b. Acceptable use c. Security policy d. Data insurance

c. *Security policy* A security policy is a written document that states how an organization plans to protect the company's information technology assets.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *The approach a business takes to security is known as its:* a. Rule-based management b. Network bridging c. Security posture d. Assessment technique

c. *Security posture* The security posture is the approach a business takes to security.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You're the leader of the security committee at ACME. After a move to a new facility, you're installing a new security monitoring system throughout. Which of the following best describes a motion detector mounted in the corner of a hallway?* a. Perimeter security b. Partitioning c. Security zone d. IDS system

c. *Security zone* A security zone is an area that is a smaller component of the entire facility. Security zones allow intrusions to be detected in specific parts of the building.

*Which of the following provides the output for an example of banner grabbing?* a. http://www.example.com/index.htm b. This is a government computer system. Authorized access only. c. Server Apache 2.0.46 (Red Hat Linux) d. Welcome to our FTP site

c. *Server Apache 2.0.46 (Red Hat Linux)* Banner grabbing is a technique used to discover information about a computer system. This information is used to further understand the underlying system. In this example, a vulnerability scanner can narrow down which vulnerabilities to test for. However, an attacker knows which exploits the system may be susceptible to. Answer A is simply a URL and is incorrect. Answers B and D are incorrect, and although they may be referred to as a "login banner," do not confuse these with banner grabbing.

Operating System and Application Security *What is the term used when the item used to validate a user's session, such as a cookie, is stolen and used by another to establish a session with a host that thinks it is still communicating with the first party?* a. Patch infiltration b. XML injection c. Session hijacking d. DTB exploitation

c. *Session hijacking* Session hijacking occurs when the item used to validate a user's session, such as a cookie, is stolen and used by another to establish a session with a host that thinks it is still communicating with the first party.

*An organization has a high-speed fiber Internet connection that it uses for most of its daily operations, as well as its offsite backup operations. This represents what security problem?* a. Single point of failure b. Redundant connections c. Backup generator d. Offsite backup storage

c. *Single point of failure* Having only a single high-speed fiber Internet connection represents the security problem of a single point of failure.

*Federation is a means to accomplish _____.* a. Accountability logging b. ACL verification c. Single sign-on d. Trusted OS hardening

c. *Single sign-on* Federation or federated identity is a means of linking a subject's accounts from several sites, services, or entities in a single account. Thus it is a means to accomplish single sign-on. Accountability logging is used to relate digital activities to humans. ACL verification is a means to verify that correct permissions are assigned to subjects. Trusted OS hardening is the removal of unneeded components and securing the remaining elements.

*In the _______________ model, the cloud computing vendor provides access to the vendor's software applications running on a cloud infrastructure.* a. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) b. Application as a Service (AaaS) c. Software as a Service (SaaS) d. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

c. *Software as a Service (SaaS)* In the Software as a Service (SaaS) model, the cloud computing vendor provides access to the vendor's software applications running on a cloud infrastructure. These applications, which can be accessed through a web browser, do not require any installation, configuration, upgrading, or management from the user.

Cryptography Basics *Kristin, from Payroll, has left the office on maternity leave and won't return for at least six weeks. You've been instructed to suspend her key. Which of the following statements is true?* a. In order to be used, suspended keys must be revoked. b. Suspended keys don't expire. c. Suspended keys can be reactivated. d. Suspending keys is a bad practice.

c. *Suspended keys can be reactivated.* Suspending keys is a good practice: It disables a key, making it unusable for a certain period of time. This can prevent the key from being used while someone is gone. The key can be reactivated when that person returns.

*Which of the following is a hardware solution typically attached to the circuit board of the system used for greater security protection for processes such as digital signing, mission-critical applications, and businesses where high security is required?* a. Full disk encryption b. HSM c. TPM d. File-level encryption

c. *TPM* At the most basic level, a trusted platform module (TPM) provides for the secure storage of keys, passwords, and digital certificates, and it is hardware based (typically attached to the circuit board of the system). Answer A is incorrect because full disk encryption is a software solution and is most useful when you're dealing with a machine that is being taken on the road by people such as traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer B is incorrect because a hardware security module (HSM) can be described as black box combination hardware and software/firmware that is attached or contained inside a computer used to provide cryptographic functions for tamper protection and increased performance. Answer D is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is the name assigned to a chip that can store cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates?* a. ODI b. TLC c. TPM d. RDP

c. *TPM* TPM is the name assigned to a chip that can store cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates. TPM can be used to protect cell phones and devices other than PCs as well.

*Which statement accurately describes an access control list characteristic?* a. Access control lists are efficient. b. Access control lists are simple to manage in an enterprise setting. c. The structure behind an access control list table can be complex. d. Access control lists are used extensively with UNIX systems but not on Windows operating systems.

c. *The structure behind an access control list table can be complex.* Although access control lists (ACLs) can be associated with any type of object, these lists are most often viewed in relation to files maintained by the operating system. ACLs have limitations. First, using ACLs is not efficient. Second, they can be difficult to manage in an enterprise setting where many users need to have different levels of access to many different resources. Note that the structure behind ACL tables can be complex.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *You're giving hypothetical examples during a required security training session when the subject of certificates comes up. A member of the audience wants to know how a party is verified as genuine. Which party in a transaction is responsible for verifying the identity of a certificate holder?* a. Subscriber b. Relying party c. Third party d. Omni registrar

c. *Third party* The third party is responsible for assuring the relying party that the subscriber is genuine.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *_________ describes the potential that a weakness in hardware, software, process, or people will be identified and taken advantage of.* a. Vulnerability b. Exploit c. Threat d. Risk

c. *Threat* A threat is the potential that a vulnerability will be identified and exploited. Answer A is incorrect because a vulnerability is the weakness itself and not the likelihood that it will be identified and exploited. Answer B is incorrect because an exploit is the mechanism of taking advantage of a vulnerability rather than its likelihood of occurrence. Answer D is incorrect because risk is the likelihood that a threat will occur and the measure of its effect.

Operating System and Application Security *You're redesigning your network in preparation for putting the company up for sale. The network, like all aspects of the company, needs to perform the best that it possibly can in order to be an asset to the sale. Which model is used to provide an intermediary server between the end user and the database?* a. One-tiered b. Two-tiered c. Three-tiered d. Relational database

c. *Three-tiered* A three-tiered model puts a server between the client and the database.

*What mechanism of loop protection is based on an element in a protocol header?* a. Spanning Tree Protocol b. Ports c. Time to live d. Distance vector protocols

c. *Time to live* Time to live (TTL) is a value in the IP header used to prevent loops at Layer 3.

*Which of the following standards ensures privacy between communicating applications and clients on the Web and has been designed to replace SSL?* a. Secure Sockets Layer 4 b. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol c. Transport Layer Security d. Internet Protocol Security

c. *Transport Layer Security* Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a network protocol that replaces Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to provide communication security over networks. Answer A is incorrect, as such a thing was never developed. Answers B and D are incorrect as these describe methods for implementing VPNs and are were not designed to replace SSL.

Cryptography Implementation *A hierarchical trust model is also known as a:* a. Bush b. Branch c. Tree d. Limb

c. *Tree* A hierarchical trust model is also known as a tree.

*Which protocol is often used for the automated transfer of configuration files between devices?* a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) b. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) c. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) d. Secure FTP (SFTP)

c. *Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)* A "light" version of File Transfer Protocol (FTP) known as Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses a small amount of memory but has limited functionality. It is often used for the automated transfer of configuration files between devices.

*Allowing an IP address to be split anywhere within its 32 bits is known as _______________.* a. splitting b. spanning c. subnetting d. IP spraying

c. *subnetting* Allowing an IP address to be split anywhere within its 32 bits. This is known as subnetting or subnet addressing.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You've been drafted for the safety committee. One of your first tasks is to inventory all the fire extinguishers and make certain the correct types are in the correct locations throughout the building. Which of the following categories of fire extinguisher is intended for use on electrical fires?* a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

c. *Type C* Type C fire extinguishers are intended for use in electrical fires.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *A periodic security audit of which of the following can help determine whether privilege-granting processes are appropriate and whether computer usage and escalation processes are in place and working?* a. Event logs b. User account and ldp settings c. User access and rights review d. System security log files

c. *User access and rights review* A periodic security audit of user access and rights review can help determine whether privilege-granting processes are appropriate and whether computer usage and escalation processes are in place and working.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is not one of the three transmission technologies used to communicate in the 802.11 standard?* a. DSSS b. FHSS c. VITA d. OFDM

c. *VITA* The three technologies available for use with the 802.11 standard are DSSS (direct-sequence spread spectrum), FHSS (frequency-hopping spread spectrum), and OFDM (orthogonal frequency division multiplexing). VITA (Volunteer Income Tax Assistance) is not a wireless transmission technology.

*You are setting up a switched network in which each department requires a logical separation. Which of the following meets these requirements?* a. DMZ b. VPN c. VLAN d. NAT

c. *VLAN* The purpose of a VLAN is to unite network nodes logically into the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical attachment to the network. Answer A is incorrect because a DMZ is a small network between the internal network and the Internet that provides a layer of security and privacy. Answer B is incorrect because a virtual private network (VPN) is a network connection that allows you access via a secure tunnel created through an Internet connection. Answer D is incorrect because NAT acts as a liaison between an internal network and the Internet.

* A switch can be used to prevent broadcast storms between connected systems through the use of what?* a. SSL b. S/MIME c. VLANs d. LDAP

c. *VLANs* Switches can create VLANs. Broadcast storms aren't transmitted between one VLAN and another.

*If Bob wants to send a secure message to Val using public key encryption without sender validation, what does Val need?* a. Bob's private key b. Bob's public key c. Val's private key d. Val's public key

c. *Val's private key* Val needs her own private key to decrypt the message Bob encrypted with her public key. Neither of Bob's keys is needed because the originator does not need to be validated, making Answers A and B incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because Val's public key is used to encrypting the original message before transmission.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following is a software application that checks your network for any known security holes?* a. Logic bomb b. Log analyzer c. Vulnerability scanner d. Design reviewer

c. *Vulnerability scanner* A vulnerability scanner is a software application that checks your network for any known security holes.

Wireless Networking Security *Which protocol is mainly used to enable access to the Internet from a mobile phone or PDA?* a. WEP b. WTLS c. WAP d. WOP

c. *WAP* Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) is an open international standard for applications that use wireless communication.

Wireless Networking Security *WAP uses a smaller version of HTML for Internet displays. This is known as:* a. DSL b. HSL c. WML d. OFML

c. *WML* WAP uses a smaller version of HTML called Wireless Markup Language (WML) for Internet displays.

Wireless Networking Security *You're outlining your plans for implementing a wireless network to upper management. Suddenly, a paranoid vice president brings up the question of security. Which protocol was designed to provide security to a wireless network and can be considered equivalent to the security of a wired network?* a. WAP b. WTLS c. WPA2 d. IR

c. *WPA2* Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) was intended to provide security that's equivalent to the security on a wired network and implements elements of the 802.11i standard.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following provides services similar to TCP and UDP for WAP?* a. WTLS b. WDP c. WTP d. WFMD

c. *WTP* The Wireless Transaction Protocol (WTP) provides services similar to TCP and UDP for WAP.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is the best description of shoulder surfing?* a. Following someone through a door they just unlocked b. Figuring out how to unlock a secured area c. Watching someone enter important information d. Stealing information from someone's desk

c. *Watching someone enter important information* Shoulder surfing is best defined as watching someone enter important information.

*A pirated movie-sharing service was discovered operating on company equipment. Administrators do not know who planted the service or who the users are. What technique could be used to attempt to trace the identity of the users?* a. Typo squatting b. Integer overflow c. Watering hole attack d. Ransomware

c. *Watering hole attack* A watering hole attack could be used to plant phone-home-to-identity malware on the systems of subsequent visitors.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following is another name for social engineering?* a. Social disguise b. Social hacking c. Wetware d. Wetfire

c. *Wetware* Wetware is another name for social engineering.

*Due to organizational requirements strong encryption cannot be used. Which of the following is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point?* a. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) b. Wireless Session Layer (WSL) c. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) d. Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS)

c. *Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)* WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point. Answer A is incorrect. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) specifies the framework used to develop applications for mobile devices, including cell phones, data pagers, tablets, and laptops. Answers B and D are incorrect. Wireless Session Layer (WSL), Wireless Transport Layer (WTL), and Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS) are the specifications that are included in the WAP standard.

*Due to organizational requirements, strong encryption cannot be used. Which of the following is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point?* a. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) b. Wireless Session Layer (WSL) c. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) d. Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS)

c. *Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)* WEP is the most basic form of encryption that can be used on 802.11-based wireless networks to provide privacy of data sent between a wireless client and its access point. Answer A is incorrect. Wireless Application Environment (WAE) specifies the framework used to develop applications for mobile devices, including cell phones, data pagers, tablets, and laptops. Answers B and D are incorrect. Wireless Session Layer (WSL), Wireless Transport Layer (WTL), and Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS) are the specifications that are included in the WAP standard.

*_______________ is an IEEE 802.11 security protocol designed to ensure that only authorized parties can view transmitted wireless information.* a. PSK2-mixed mode b. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) c. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) d. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

c. *Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)* Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is an IEEE 802.11 security protocol designed to ensure that only authorized parties can view transmitted wireless information.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A user calls you in a panic. He is receiving emails from people indicating that he is inadvertently sending viruses to them. Over 200 such emails have arrived today. Which type of attack has most likely occurred?* a. SAINT b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

c. *Worm* A worm is a type of malicious code that attempts to replicate using whatever means are available. The worm may not have come from the user's system; rather, a system with the user's name in the address book has attacked these people.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following is one of the most common certificates in use today?* a. X.733 b. X.50 c. X.509 d. X.500

c. *X.509* One of the most common certificates in use today is the X.509 certificate. It includes encryption, authentication, and a reasonable level of validity.

*Risk _______________ simply means that the risk is acknowledged but that no steps are taken to address it.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. acceptance d. avoidance

c. *acceptance* Acceptance simply means that the risk is acknowledged but no steps are taken to address it.

Network Security *When a modern firewall receives a packet, it tends to use a(n) _______________ method to determine the action to be taken.* a. rule-based b. role-based c. application-based d. authentication-based

c. *application-based* Traditional firewalls are rule-based while more modern firewalls are application-based.

Network Security *A load balancer is typically located _______________ in a network configuration.* a. in front of a server b. in front of a router c. between a router and a server d. between a router and a switch

c. *between a router and a server* Because load balancers generally are located between routers and servers, they can detect and stop attacks directed at a server or application.

*All wireless network interface card (NIC) adapters have _______________ antennas.* a. external b. peripheral c. embedded d. focused

c. *embedded* Although all wireless network interface card (NIC) adapters have embedded antennas, attaching an external antenna will significantly increase the ability to detect a wireless signal.

*A _______________ is an event that does not appear to be a risk but actually turns out to be one.* a. false positive b. negative-positive c. false negative d. positive-negative

c. *false negative* A false negative is an event that does not appear to be a risk but actually turns out to be one.

*TCP/IP uses its own _______________ architecture that corresponds generally to the OSI reference model.* a. two-layer b. three-layer c. four-layer d. seven-layer

c. *four-layer* TCP/IP uses its own four-layer architecture that includes Network Interface, Internet, Transport, and Application layers. This corresponds generally to the OSI reference model.

*Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) encapsulates Fibre Channel _______________ over Ethernet networks.* a. headers b. addresses c. frames d. packets

c. *frames* A variation of FC is Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet networks. This allows Fibre Channel to use fast Ethernet networks while preserving the Fibre Channel protocol.

*Which of the following is a common storage networking standard chosen by businesses for ease of installation, cost, and utilization of current Ethernet networks?* a. Fibre Channel b. FTP c. iSCSI d. HTTPS

c. *iSCSI* Businesses choose Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) due to ease of installation, cost, and utilization of current Ethernet networks. Answer A is incorrect. Fibre Channel infrastructure generally is more costly and complex to manage due to the separate network switching infrastructure. Answer B is incorrect. FTP servers provide user access to upload or download files between client systems and a networked FTP server. Answer D is incorrect because HTTPS is used for secured web-based communications.

*The term _______________ refers to the average (mean) amount of time until a component fails, cannot be repaired, and must be replaced.* a. mean time to recovery b. failure in time c. mean time between failures d. mean time to failure

c. *mean time between failures* The term mean time between failures refers to the average (mean) amount of time until a component fails, cannot be repaired, and must be replaced.

*A _______________ cloud offers the highest level of security and control.* a. public b. community c. private d. hybrid

c. *private* A private cloud is created and maintained on a private network. Although this type offers the highest level of security and control (because the company must purchase and maintain all the software and hardware), it also reduces any cost savings.

*One of the best practices for access control is _______________, which requires that if the fraudulent application of a process might potentially result in a breach of security, the process should be divided between two or more individuals.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacation c. separation of duties d. least privilege

c. *separation of duties* Separation of duties requires that if the fraudulent application of a process could potentially result in a breach of security, the process should be divided between two or more individuals.

*An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address is _______________ in length.* a. 64 bits b. 64 bytes c. 32 bytes d. 32 bits

d. *32 bits* An Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address is 32 bits in length, providing about 4.3 billion possible IP address combinations. This no longer is sufficient for the number of devices that are being connected to the Internet.

*Consider a building with a value of $10,000,000 (AV) of which 75 percent of it is likely to be destroyed by a tornado (EF). The SLE is _______________.* a. $7,500 b. $75,000 c. $750,000 d. $7,500,000

d. *$7,500,000* Consider a building with a value of $10,000,000 (AV) of which 75 percent of it is likely to be destroyed by a tornado (EF). The SLE would be calculated as follows: $7,500,000 = $10,000,000 x 0.75

*Which port does the Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) use?* a. 22 b. 25 c. 80 d. 110

d. *110* The Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) uses port 110.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *With five nines availability, the total amount of downtime allowed per year is:* a. 4.38 hours b. 526 minutes c. 52.65 minutes d. 5.26 minutes

d. *5.26 minutes* With five nines availability, the total amount of downtime allowed per year is 5.26 minutes.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which IEEE standard is often referred to as EAP over LAN?* a. 802.1E b. 802.1Z c. 802.1Y d. 802.1X

d. *802.1X* The IEEE standard 802.1X is often referred to as EAP over LAN. It defines port-based security for wireless network access control.

Network Security *Which statement concerning a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is correct?* a. A NIDS knows such information as the applications that are running as well as the underlying operating systems so that it can provide a higher degree of accuracy regarding potential attacks. b. Compared to a network intrusion prevention system (NIPS), a NIDS can more quickly take action to block and attack. c. A NIDS attempts prevent malicious attacks by stopping the attack. d. A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis.

d. *A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis.* A network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) is similar to a NIDS in that it monitors network traffic to immediately react to block a malicious attack. One of the major differences between a NIDS and a NIPS is its location. A NIDS has sensors that monitor the traffic entering and leaving a firewall, and reports back to the central device for analysis. A NIPS, on the other hand, would be located "in line" on the firewall itself. This can allow the NIPS to more quickly take action to block an attack.

*Which statement describes a limitation of Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)?* a. SCP can only operate in the Windows environment. b. SCP cannot encrypt commands. c. SCP is being replaced by Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). d. A file transfer cannot be interrupted and then resumed in the same session.

d. *A file transfer cannot be interrupted and then resumed in the same session.* Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) encrypts files and commands, yet has limitations. For example, a file transfer cannot be interrupted and then resumed in the same session; the session must be completely terminated and then restarted.

*Which of the following risk-assessment formulas represents the total potential loss a company may experience within a single year due to a specific risk to an asset?* a. EF b. SLE c. ARO d. ALE

d. *ALE* The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) represents the total potential loss a company may experience within a single year due to a specific risk to an asset. EF is the percentage of asset value loss that would occur if a risk was realized. SLE is the potential dollar value loss from a single risk-realization incident. ARO is the statistical probability that a specific risk may be realized a certain number of times in a year.

*What is the last step in the access control process?* a. Identification b. Authentication c. Authorization d. Access control

d. *Access control* Only after credentials have been provided, authenticated, and authorized will access control list (ACL) values be assigned based on explicit and inherited grant and denial constraints. Answer A is incorrect because identification involves only the presentation of credentials and not the requirement for verifying those credentials as valid. Answers B and C are incorrect because both authentication and authorization must occur before access control constraints can be applied to an access request.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following policy statements should address who is responsible for ensuring that it is enforced?* a. Scope b. Exception c. Overview d. Accountability

d. *Accountability* The accountability policy statement should address who is responsible for ensuring that it is enforced.

*Which of the following is a security control type that is not usually associated with or assigned to a security guard?* a. Preventive b. Detective c. Corrective d. Administrative

d. *Administrative* A security guard is not an administrative control. A security guard can be considered a preventive, detective, and/or corrective control.

*Which one of the following is an indication that a system might contain spyware?* a. The system is slow, especially when browsing the Internet. b. It takes a long time for the Windows desktop to come up. c. Clicking a link does nothing or goes to an unexpected website. d. All of the above.

d. *All of the above.* Each of these represents common symptoms of a computer that has had spyware installed.

*Which of the following is included in hardening a host operating system?* a. A policy for antivirus updates b. A policy for remote wipe c. An efficient method to connect to remote sites d. An effective system for file-level security

d. *An effective system for file-level security* Hardening of the operating system includes planning against both accidental and directed attacks, such as the use of fault-tolerant hardware and software solutions. In addition, it is important to implement an effective system for file-level security, including encrypted file support and secured file system selection that allows the proper level of access control. Answer A is incorrect because it is a host protection measure, not an OS hardening measure. Answer B is incorrect because this is a feature associated with data security, not host hardening. Answer C is incorrect because this is a secure communication measure.

Protecting Networks *Which IDS function evaluates data collected from sensors?* a. Operator b. Manager c. Alert d. Analyzer

d. *Analyzer* The analyzer function uses data sources from sensors to analyze and determine whether an attack is under way.

*Historical data can be used to determine the likelihood of a risk occurring within a year. This is known as the _______________.* a. Annualized Loss Expectancy b. Single Loss Expectancy c. Multiple Loss Expectancy d. Annualized Rate of Occurrence

d. *Annualized Rate of Occurrence* Historical data can be used to determine the likelihood of a risk occurring within a year. This is known as the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO).

Network Security *Which statement concerning anomaly-based monitoring is correct?* a. Anomaly-based monitoring is founded on experience based techniques. b. Anomaly-based monitoring looks for well-known patterns. c. Anomaly-based monitoring operates by being adaptive and proactive. d. Anomaly-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.

d. *Anomaly-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.* Anomaly-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following authentication levels with WAP allows virtually anyone to connect to the wireless portal?* a. Relaxed b. Two-way c. Server d. Anonymous

d. *Anonymous* Anonymous authentication allows virtually anyone to connect to the wireless portal.

*Which of the following is the most useful when you're dealing with data that is stored in a shared cloud environment?* a. Full disk encryption b. File-level encryption c. Media-level encryption d. Application-level encryption

d. *Application-level encryption* In a cloud environment, application-level encryption is preferred because the data is encrypted by the application before being stored in the database or file system. The advantage is that it protects the data from the user all the way to storage. Answer A is incorrect because full disk encryption is most useful when you're dealing with a machine that is being taken on the road by people such as traveling executives, sales managers, or insurance agents. Answer B is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself. Answer C is incorrect because media encryption is used for USB flash drives, iPods, and other portable storage devices.

*Which statement accurately describes a weakness in disabling SSID broadcasts?* a. Turning off the SSID broadcast may allow users to freely roam from one AP coverage area to another. b. For most hardware routers, the effect is temporary and the disabling actions must be repeated frequently. c. Disabling SSID broadcasts may disable the entire network. d. Attackers with protocol analyzers can still detect the SSID.

d. *Attackers with protocol analyzers can still detect the SSID.* The SSID can be easily discovered even when it is not contained in beacon frames because it is transmitted in other management frames sent by the AP. Attackers with protocol analyzers can still detect the SSID.

*Which of the following is not an example of the principles of influence used in social engineering attacks?* a. Authority b. Intimidation c. Scarcity and urgency d. Authenticity and authorization e. Trust

d. *Authenticity and authorization* Authenticity and authorization both relate to identity and access control and are not principle reasons for effectiveness as related to social engineering. Answers, A, B, C, and E are all legitimate principles and so are incorrect answers.

*Which of the following is not focused on recovering after loss of function?* a. RTO b. DRP c. RPO d. BCP

d. *BCP* Business continuity planning (BCP) / continuity of operations (COO) is focused on maintaining continued service availability even if in a limited form. Recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs) are components of disaster recovery planning (DRP) focusing on recovery after a loss of function, making answers A, B, and C incorrect.

*_______________ can be prevented with loop protection.* a. IP address spoofing b. Man-in-the-middle attacks c. Denial of service (DoS) attacks d. Broadcast storms

d. *Broadcast storms* Broadcast storms can be prevented with loop protection, which uses the IEEE 802.1d standard spanning-tree algorithm (STA).

Access Control and Identity Management *Which of the following is a type of smart card issued by the Department of Defense as a general identification/authentication card for military personnel, contractors, and non-DoD employees?* a. PIV b. POV c. DLP d. CAC

d. *CAC* One type of smart card is the Common Access Card (CAC). These cards are issued by the Department of Defense as a general identification/authentication card for military personnel, contractors, and non-DoD employees.

*Which of the following types of cloud computing is designed to meet industry-specific needs such as healthcare, public sector, or energy?* a. Public b. Private c. Hybrid d. Community

d. *Community* Community clouds are designed to accommodate the mutual needs of a particular business community. This is generally industry-specific such as healthcare, public sector, or energy. Answer A is incorrect because a public cloud is an environment where the services and infrastructure are hosted at a service provider's offsite facility and accessed over the Internet based on a monthly or yearly usage fee. Answer B is incorrect because a private cloud is a hosted infrastructure on a private platform and can sometimes be referred to as an internal, corporate, or enterprise cloud. Answer C is incorrect. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private clouds where control of data is kept using a private cloud while other functions are hosted using a public cloud.

*The security service that protects the secrecy of data, information, or resources is known as what?* a. Integrity b. Authentication c. Non-repudiation d. Confidentiality

d. *Confidentiality* The security service that protects the secrecy of data, information, or resources is known as confidentiality. Integrity protects the reliability and correctness of data. Authentication verifies the identity of the sender or receiver of a message. Non-repudiation prevents the sender of a message or the perpetrator of an activity from being able to deny that they sent the message or performed the activity.

Network Security *Which type of Internet content filtering restricts unapproved websites from being displayed by searching for and matching keywords?* a. Uniform resource locator (URL filtering) b. Profiling c. Malware inspection d. Content inspection

d. *Content inspection* Internet content filters monitor Internet traffic and block access to preselected websites and files. A requested webpage is displayed only if it complies with the specified filters. Unapproved websites can be restricted based on the Uniform Resource Locator or URL (URL filtering) or by searching for and matching keywords such as sex or hate (content inspection) as well as looking for malware (malware inspection).

*Which of the following is a commonly applied principle for fault tolerance against accidental faults designed into critical facilities planning?* a. Firmware version control b. Wrappers c. Manual updates d. Control redundancy

d. *Control redundancy* Control redundancy is replication of a component in identical copies to compensate for random hardware failures. Redundancy is usually dispersed geographically as well as through backup equipment and databases, or hot sparing of system components. Answer A is incorrect because firmware version control is important in systems like gaming consoles because many vulnerabilities cannot be fixed via firmware updates, leaving a system vulnerable until a new console is released. Answer B is incorrect because wrappers are used in several types of implementations such as smart grids, integration of legacy systems, and reducing the risk of web-based attacks. Answer C is incorrect because manual updates, although inconvenient, may also be necessary when the system contains sensitive data and is segmented.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *Which of the following is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while he is currently authenticated?* a. Buffer overflow b. Input validation error c. Cross-site scripting d. Cross-site request forgery

d. *Cross-site request forgery* Cross-site request forgery (XSRF) is an attack in which the end user executes unwanted actions on a web application while he is currently authenticated. Answer A is incorrect because a buffer overflow is a direct result of poor or incorrect input validation or mishandled exceptions. Answer B is incorrect because input validation errors are a result of improper field checking in the code. Answer C is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities can be used to hijack the user's session or to cause the user accessing malware-tainted Site A to unknowingly attack Site B on behalf of the attacker who planted code on Site A.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which policy defines what constitutes sensitive data and applies protection to it?* a. Classification b. BCP c. Data review d. Data theft

d. *Data theft* A data theft policy defines what constitutes sensitive data and applies protection to it.

*In which of the following phases should code security first be implemented?* a. Testing b. Review c. Implementation d. Design

d. *Design* It is important that security is implemented from the very beginning. In the early design phase, potential threats to the application must be identified and addressed. Ways to reduce the associated risks must also be taken into consideration. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.

*What item is considered to be the biggest obstacle to log management?* a. Offsite storage accessibility b. Very large volume of data c. Multiple devices generating logs d. Different log formats

d. *Different log formats* Perhaps the biggest obstacle to log management is that different devices record log information in different formats and even with different data captured. Combining multiple logs, each with a different format, can be a major challenge.

*A newer secure version of DNS known as _______________ allows DNS information to be digitally signed so that an attacker cannot forge DNS information.* a. Domain Name System Security (DNSS) b. Advanced Domain Name System (ADNS) c. Domain Name System2 (DNS2) d. Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)

d. *Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)* A newer secure version of DNS known as Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC) allows DNS information to be digitally signed so that an attacker cannot forge DNS information.

*Which form of fire suppression functions best in an Alaskan fire of burning metals?* a. Dry-pipe sprinkler b. Wet-pipe sprinkler c. Carbon dioxide d. Dry powder

d. *Dry powder* Combustible metal fires (Class D) require sodium chloride and copper-based dry powder extinguishers. Although dry-pipe would be preferable to wet-pipe sprinklers in regions that experience very low temperatures such as Alaska, water is only appropriate for wood, paper, and trash fires (Class A), making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because carbon dioxide and Halon extinguishers are useful for fires involving live electric wiring (Class C) and would not be used for burning metals.

Cryptography Implementation *Certificate revocation is the process of revoking a certificate before it:* a. Is renewed b. Becomes public c. Reuses a value d. Expires

d. *Expires* Certificate revocation is the process of revoking a certificate before it expires.

*_______________ was created as a more secure alternative than the weak Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) and Password Authentication Protocol (PAP).* a. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) b. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) c. Protected EAP (PEAP) d. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

d. *Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)* A framework for transporting the authentication protocols is known as the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP). EAP was created as a more secure alternative than the weak Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) and Password Authentication Protocol (PAP). Despite its name, EAP is a framework for transporting authentication protocols instead of the authentication protocol itself.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *What is the term used for events that mistakenly were flagged and aren't truly events to be concerned with?* a. Fool's gold b. Non-incidents c. Error flags d. False positives

d. *False positives* False positives are events that mistakenly were flagged and aren't truly events to be concerned with.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which form of cabling is least susceptible to EM interference?* a. STP b. UTP c. Coaxial d. Fiber optic

d. *Fiber optic* Fiber-optic cabling is least subject to electromagnetic interference because its communications are conducted by transmitting pulses of light over glass, plastic, or sapphire transmission fibers. Twisted-pair (shielded STP as well as unshielded UTP) copper cables provide minimal shielding against interference but can function as antenna picking up nearby EM sources when extended over long cable runs, making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because although coaxial cables limit EM interference by encasing one conductor in a sheath of conductive material, they are still conductive and not as resistant as purely optical forms of communication.

*What form of storage or file-transfer technology was originally designed to be operated over an optical network but was adapted to run over a copper network as well?* a. FTP b. iSCSI c. SATA d. Fibre Channel

d. *Fibre Channel* Fibre Channel is a form of network data-storage solution (SAN or NAS) that allows for high-speed file transfers upwards of 16 Gbps. It was designed to be operated over fiber optic cables, but support for copper cables was added later to offer less expensive options.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following is a hybrid cryptosystem?* a. PAP b. MD5 c. RSA d. GPG

d. *GPG* Privacy Guard (GnuPG or GPG) is a hybrid cryptosystem that uses combination of public key and private key encryption. The incorrect choices are A, B, and C: PAP is a basic form of authentication during which the username and password are transmitted unencrypted, RSA is an asymmetric cipher, and MD5 is a hash.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which of the following actions would not be allowed in the Bell-LaPadula model?* a. General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Top Secret level b. Corporal with Confidential clearance writing at the Confidential level c. General with Top Secret clearance reading at the Confidential level d. General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Confidential level

d. *General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Confidential level* The first three actions would be allowed since you can write to your level and read at your level (or below). The situation that would not be allowed is the General with Top Secret clearance writing at the Confidential level.

Cryptography Implementation *A registration authority (RA) can do all the following except:* a. Distribute keys b. Accept registrations for the CA c. Validate identities d. Give recommendations

d. *Give recommendations* A registration authority (RA) can distribute keys, accept registrations for the CA, and validate identities. It cannot give recommendations.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which policies define how individuals are brought into an organization?* a. Service policies b. Continuity policies c. Pay policies d. Hiring policies

d. *Hiring policies* Hiring policies define how individuals are brought into an organization. They also establish the process used to screen prospective employees for openings.

*What tool is used to lure or retain intruders in order to gather sufficient evidence without compromising the security of the private network?* a. Firewall b. IDS c. Router d. Honeypot

d. *Honeypot* A honeypot is used to lure or retain intruders in order to gather sufficient evidence without compromising the security of the private network.

*Which term refers to the expansion and contraction of random access memory (RAM) or hard drive space as needed?* a. On-demand computing b. Host computing c. Host availability d. Host elasticity

d. *Host elasticity* Virtualization has several advantages. First, new virtual server machines can be quickly made available (host availability), and resources such as the amount of Random Access Memory (RAM) or hard drive space can easily be expanded or contracted as needed (host elasticity).

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *Which of the following is a method of cooling server racks in which hot air and cold are both handled in the server room?* a. Hot/cold vessels b. Hot and cold passages c. Hot/cold walkways d. Hot and cold aisles

d. *Hot and cold aisles* Hot and cold aisles is a method of cooling server racks in which hot air and cold are both handled in the server room.

*What form of recovery site requires the least amount of downtime before mission-critical business operations can resume?* a. Cold b. Warm c. Hot d. Offsite

d. *Hot* A hot site requires the least amount of downtime before mission-critical business operations can resume, because it is a real-time mirror of the primary site.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping on a network; the return address of the ping may be a valid system in your network. Which protocol does a smurf attack use to conduct the attack?* a. TCP b. IP c. UDP d. ICMP

d. *ICMP* A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping (ICMP) on a network. The return address of the ping may be a valid system in your network. This system will be flooded with responses in a large network.

*Loop protection uses the _______________ standard spanning-tree algorithm (STA).* a. IEEE 801.2d b. IEEE 802.3 c. IEEE 802.11n d. IEEE 802.1d

d. *IEEE 802.1d* Broadcast storms can be prevented with loop protection, which uses the IEEE 802.1d standard spanning-tree algorithm (STA).

Infrastructure and Connectivity *A socket is a combination of which components?* a. TCP and port number b. UDP and port number c. IP and session number d. IP and port number

d. *IP and port number* A socket is a combination of IP address and port number. The socket identifies which application will respond to the network request.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *An organization is partnering with another organization which requires shared systems. Which of the following documents would outline how the shared systems interface?* a. SLA b. BPA c. MOU d. ISA

d. *ISA* An interconnection security agreement (ISA) is an agreement between organizations that have connected IT systems. Answer A is incorrect because a service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the nature of the service to be provided and the level of service that the provider will offer to the customer. Answer B is incorrect because a business partners agreement (BPA) is a contract that establishes partner profit percentages, partner responsibilities, and exit strategies for partners. Answer C is incorrect because a memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a document that outlines the terms and details of an agreement between parties, including each party's requirements and responsibilities.

*Which of the following methods of cloud computing enables the client to literally outsource everything that would normally be in a typical IT department?* a. SaaS b. DaaS c. PaaS d. IaaS

d. *IaaS* Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS) is the delivery of computer infrastructure in a hosted service model over the Internet. This method of cloud computing enables the client to literally outsource everything that would normally be in a typical IT department. Answer A is incorrect because software-as-a-service (SaaS) is the delivery of a licensed application to customers over the Internet for use as a service on demand. Answer B is incorrect because desktop-as-a-service (DaaS), also called virtual desktop or hosted desktop services, is the outsourcing of a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) to a third-party service provider. Answer C is incorrect. Platform-as-a-service (PaaS) is the delivery of a computing platform, often an operating system with associated services, that is delivered over the Internet without downloads or installation.

*Which cloud computing service model provides the customer the highest level of control?* a. Application as a Service (AaaS) b. Software as a Service (SaaS) c. Platform as a Service (PaaS) d. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

d. *Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)* In the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the customer has the highest level of control. The cloud computing vendor allows customers to deploy and run their own software, including operating systems and applications. Consumers have some control over the operating systems, storage, and their installed applications, but do not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure.

Cryptography Basics *A brainstorming session has been called. The moderator tells you to pull out a sheet of paper and write down your security concerns based on the technologies that your company uses. If your company uses public keys, what should you write as the primary security concern?* a. Privacy b. Authenticity c. Access control d. Integrity

d. *Integrity* Public keys are created to be distributed to a wide audience. The biggest security concern regarding their use is ensuring that the public keys maintain their integrity. This can be accomplished by using a thumbprint or a second encryption scheme in the certificate or key.

Cryptography Implementation *One disadvantage of decentralized key generation is:* a. It depends on key escrow. b. It is more vulnerable to single point attacks. c. There are more risks of attacks. d. It creates a storage and management issue.

d. *It creates a storage and management issue.* A disadvantage of decentralized key generation is the storage and management issue it creates.

Cryptography Implementation *The primary difference between an RA and _____ is that the latter can be used to identify or establish the identity of an individual.* a. MLA b. STR c. BSO d. LRA

d. *LRA* The primary difference between an RA and LRA is that the LRA can be used to identify or establish the identity of an individual.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Rule-based management defines conditions for access to objects and is also known as:* a. Distributed management b. Management by objective c. Role-based management d. Label-based management

d. *Label-based management* Rule-based management, also known as label-based management, defines conditions for access to objects.

Educating and Protecting the User *Which classification of information designates that information can be released on a restricted basis to outside organizations?* a. Private information b. Full distribution c. Restricted information d. Limited distribution

d. *Limited distribution* Limited distribution information can be released to select individuals and organizations, such as financial institutions, governmental agencies, and creditors.

*Which of the following is more formal than a handshake agreement but not a legal binding contract?* a. SLA b. BIA c. DLP d. MOU

d. *MOU* A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is an expression of agreement or aligned intent, will, or purpose between two entities. An MOU is not typically a legal agreement or commitment, but rather a more formal form of a reciprocal agreement or gentleman's handshake (neither of which is typically written down). An SLA is a formal control. BIA is business impact assessment. DLP is data loss prevention.

*Which of the following is the length of time a device or product is expected to last in operation?* a. RTO b. MTBF c. RPO d. MTTF

d. *MTTF* Mean time to failure (MTTF) is the length of time a device or product is expected to last in operation. Answer A is incorrect because recovery time objective (RTO) is the amount of time within which a process must be restored after a disaster to meet business continuity. It defines how much time it takes to recover after notification of process disruption. Answer B is incorrect because mean time between failures (MTBF) is the average amount of time that passes between hardware component failures excluding time spent waiting for or being repaired. Answer C is incorrect because recovery point objective (RPO) is the amount of time that can elapse during a disruption before the quantity of data lost during that period exceeds the BCP's maximum allowable threshold. It determines up to what point in time data recovery could happen before business is disrupted.

Access Control and Identity Management *If Sally wants to send a secure message to Mark using public key encryption but is not worried about sender verification, what does she need in addition to her original message text?* a. Sally's private key b. Sally's public key c. Mark's private key d. Mark's public key

d. *Mark's public key* Sally needs Mark's public key to encrypt her original message in a form that only Mark can decrypt. Neither of Sally's keys is needed because the originator does not need to be validated, making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because Mark's private key is used for decrypting the encrypted message to reveal Sally's original message.

*What is the average amount of time expected until the first failure of a piece of equipment?* a. Mean Time to Recovery b. Failure In Time c. Mean Time Between Failures d. Mean Time To Failure

d. *Mean Time To Failure* Mean Time To Failure (MTTF) is the average amount of time expected until the first failure of a piece of equipment.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which Windows Firewall events are logged by default in Windows 7?* a. Dropped packets b. Successful connections c. Both dropped packets and successful connections d. Neither dropped packets nor successful connections

d. *Neither dropped packets nor successful connections* By default, Windows Firewall in Windows 7 logs neither dropped packets nor successful connections. Logging occurs only when one or both of these are turned on.

Cryptography Basics *Mary claims that she didn't make a phone call from her office to a competitor and tell them about developments her company is working on. Telephone logs, however, show that such a call was placed from her phone, and time clock records show she was the only person working at the time. What do these records provide?* a. Integrity b. Confidentiality c. Authentication d. Non-repudiation

d. *Non-repudiation* Non-repudiation offers undisputable proof that a party was involved in an action.

Cryptography Basics *The CRL takes time to be fully disseminated. Which protocol allows a certificate's authenticity to be immediately verified?* a. CA b. CP c. CRC d. OCSP

d. *OCSP* Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) can be used to immediately verify a certificate's authenticity.

*Which type of risk control may include using video surveillance systems and barricades to limit access to secure sites?* a. Technical b. System c. Management d. Operational

d. *Operational* Operational risk control types may include using video surveillance systems and barricades to limit access to secure sites.

*An organization is looking for a basic mobile solution which will be used to prevent unauthorized access to users' phones. Which of the following fulfills this requirement?* a. GPS tracking b. Voice encryption c. Remote wipe d. Passcode policy

d. *Passcode policy* A screen lock or passcode is used to prevent access to the phone. Answer A is incorrect because if a mobile device is lost, GPS tracking can be used to find the location. Answer B is incorrect because mobile voice encryption can allow executives and employees alike to discuss sensitive information without having to travel to secure company locations. Answer C is incorrect because remote wipe allows the handheld's data to be remotely deleted in the event the device is lost or stolen.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *Which of the following involves trying to get access to your system from an attacker's perspective?* a. Loop recon b. Flood gating c. Vulnerability scanning d. Penetration testing

d. *Penetration testing* Penetration testing involves trying to get access to your system from an attacker's perspective.

*Which statement represents a best practice for securing router configurations?* a. Allow remote configuration for dynamic installation in case of an emergency. b. Store the router configuration on a public network for easy access in case of an emergency. c. Store the router configuration on a USB drive for compact storage. d. Perform changes in the router configuration from the console.

d. *Perform changes in the router configuration from the console.* The configuration of the router should be performed from the console and not a remote location. This configuration can then be stored on a secure network drive as a backup and not on a laptop or USB flash drive.

*What type of virus is able to regenerate itself if a single element of its infection is not removed from a compromised system?* a. Polymorphic b. Armored c. Retro d. Phage

d. *Phage* A phage virus is able to regenerate itself from any of its remaining parts.

Educating and Protecting the User *What is the form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you want by making it look as if it is a legitimate request?* a. Hoaxing b. Swimming c. Spamming d. Phishing

d. *Phishing* Phishing is the form of social engineering in which you simply ask someone for a piece of information that you want by making it look as if it is a legitimate request.

*A video surveillance system is a form of which type of access control?* a. Quantitative b. Management c. Technical d. Physical

d. *Physical* Physical controls include facility design details such as layout, door, locks, guards, and electronic surveillance systems. Quantitative risk analysis involved the use of numerical metrics and is used to identify and sort risks rather than to control risk, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because management controls include policies and procedures. Answer C is incorrect because technical controls include access control systems, encryption, and data classification solutions.

*Which cloud computing service model allows the consumer to install and run their own specialized applications on the cloud computing network without requiring the consumer to manage or configure any of the underlying cloud infrastructure?* a. Application as a Service (AaaS) b. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) c. Software as a Service (SaaS) d. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

d. *Platform as a Service (PaaS)* Unlike Software as a Service (SaaS), in which the application software belonging to the cloud computing vendor is used, in Platform as a Service (PaaS), consumers can install and run their own specialized applications on the cloud computing network.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *A new switch has been implemented in areas where there is very little physical access control. Which of the following would the organization implement as a method for additional checks to prevent unauthorized access?* a. Loop protection b. Flood guard c. Implicit deny d. Port security

d. *Port security* Port security is a Layer 2 traffic control feature on Cisco Catalyst switches. It enables individual switch ports to be configured to allow only a specified number of source MAC addresses coming in through the port. Answer A is incorrect because the loop guard feature makes additional checks in Layer 2 switched networks. Answer B is incorrect because a flood guard is a firewall feature used to control network activity associated with denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Answer C is incorrect because implicit deny is an access control practice wherein resource availability is restricted to only those logons explicitly granted access.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following is information that is unlikely to result in a high-level financial loss or serious damage to the organization but still should be protected?* a. Public data b. Confidential data c. Sensitive data d. Private data

d. *Private data* Private data is information that is unlikely to result in a high-level financial loss or serious damage to the organization but still should be protected. Answer A is incorrect because the unauthorized disclosure, alteration, or destruction of public data would result in little or no risk to the organization. Answer B is incorrect because confidential data is internal information that defines the way in which the organization operates. Security should be high. Answer C is incorrect because sensitive data is considered confidential data.

Educating and Protecting the User *You are implementing network access for several internal business units that work with sensitive information on a small organizational network. Which of the following would best mitigate risk associated with users improperly accessing other segments of the network without adding additional switches?* a. Log analysis b. Access control lists c. Network segmentation d. Proper VLAN management

d. *Proper VLAN management* VLANs provide a way to limit broadcast traffic in a switched network. This creates a boundary and, in essence, creates multiple, isolated LANs on one switch. Answer A is incorrect because logging is the process of collecting data to be used for monitoring and auditing purposes. Answer B is incorrect because access control generally refers to the process of making resources available to accounts that should have access while limiting that access to only what is required. Answer C is incorrect because network segmentation is used for interconnected networks where a compromised system on one network can easily threaten machines on other network segments.

*Which one of the following best identifies the system of digital certificates and certification authorities used in public key technology?* a. Certificate practice system (CPS) b. Public key exchange (PKE) c. Certificate practice statement (CPS) d. Public key infrastructure (PKI)

d. *Public key infrastructure (PKI)* PKI represents the system of digital certificates and certificate authorities. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. A CPS is a document created and published by a CA that provides for the general practices followed by the CA. Answers A and B are fictitious terms.

Access Control and Identity Management *What is the name given to the system of digital certificates and certificate authorities used for public key cryptography over networks?* a. Protocol key instructions (PKI) b. Public key extranet (PKE) c. Protocol key infrastructure (PKI) d. Public key infrastructure (PKI)

d. *Public key infrastructure (PKI)* Public key infrastructure describes the trust hierarchy system for implementing a secure public key cryptography system over TCP/IP networks. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these are bogus terms.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *You're the head of information technology for MTS and have a brother in a similar position for ABC. The companies are approximately the same size and are located several hundred miles apart. As a benefit to both companies, you want to implement an agreement that would allow either company to use resources at the other site should a disaster make a building unusable. What type of agreement between two organizations provides mutual use of their sites in the event of an emergency?* a. Backup-site agreement b. Warm-site agreement c. Hot-site agreement d. Reciprocal agreement

d. *Reciprocal agreement* A reciprocal agreement is between two organizations and allows one to use the other's site in an emergency.

*A goal of NAC is which of the following?* a. Reduce social engineering threats b. Map internal private addresses to external public addresses c. Distribute IP address configurations d. Reduce zero-day attacks

d. *Reduce zero-day attacks* The goals of Network Access Control (NAC) include preventing/reducing zero-day attacks, enforcing security policy throughout the network, and using identities to perform access control.

* _______________ refers to any combination of hardware and software that enables remote users to access a local internal network.* a. Virtual LAN (VLAN) management b. Cloud computing c. Unified threat management (UTM) d. Remote access

d. *Remote access* Remote access refers to any combination of hardware and software that enables remote users to access a local internal network.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies is accomplished anytime you take steps to reduce the risk?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

d. *Risk mitigation* Risk mitigation is accomplished anytime you take steps to reduce the risk.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which device stores information about destinations in a network?* a. Hub b. Modem c. Firewall d. Router

d. *Router* Routers store information about network destinations in routing tables. Routing tables contain information about known hosts on both sides of the router.

Network Security *What type of firewall systems are static in nature and cannot do anything other than what they have been expressly configured to do?* a. Application-based b. Authentication-based c. Role-based d. Rule-based

d. *Rule-based* Rule-based systems are static in nature and cannot do anything other than what they have been expressly configured to do.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following is a network protocol that supports file transfers and is a combination of RCP and SSH?* a. HTTPS b. FTPS c. SFTP d. SCP

d. *SCP* The Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a network protocol that supports file transfers. SCP is a combination of RCP and SSH. It uses the BSD RCP protocol tunneled through the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol to provide encryption and authentication. Answer A is incorrect because HTTPS is used for secured web-based communications. Answer B is incorrect. FTPS, also known as FTP Secure and FTP-SSL, is an FTP extension that adds support for TLS and SSL. Answer C is incorrect because SFTP, or secure FTP, is a program that uses SSH to transfer files. Unlike standard FTP, it encrypts both commands and data, preventing passwords and sensitive information from being transmitted in the clear over the network.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *Which of the following services use only TCP ports and not UDP? (Choose all that apply.)* a. IMAP b. LDAP c. FTPS d. SFTP

d. *SFTP* SFTP uses only TCP ports. IMAP, LDAP, and FTPS all use both TCP and UDP ports.

Operating System and Application Security *What is it known as when an attacker manipulates the database code to take advantage of a weakness in it?* a. SQL tearing b. SQL manipulation c. SQL cracking d. SQL injection

d. *SQL injection* SQL injection occurs when an attacker manipulates the database code to take advantage of a weakness in it.

*Which protocol is used for file transfers?* a. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) b. Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) c. Secure Network Management Protocol (SNMP) d. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)

d. *Secure Copy Protocol (SCP)* Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is used for file transfers. SCP is an enhanced version of Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). SCP encrypts files and commands.

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *What is another name for working copies?* a. Functional copies b. Running copies c. Operating copies d. Shadow copies

d. *Shadow copies* Working copies are also known as shadow copies.

Protecting Networks *Which of the following implies ignoring an attack and is a common response?* a. Eschewing b. Spurning c. Shirking d. Shunning

d. *Shunning* Shunning, or ignoring an attack, is a common response.

Network Security *Which statement concerning signature-based monitoring is correct?* a. Signature-based monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies. b. Signature-based monitoring uses an algorithm to determine if a threat exists. c. Signature-based monitoring operates by being adaptive and proactive. d. Signature-based monitoring looks for well-known patterns.

d. *Signature-based monitoring looks for well-known patterns.* A method for auditing usage is to examine network traffic, activity, transactions, or behavior and look for well-known patterns, much like antivirus scanning. This is known as signature-based monitoring because it compares activities against a predefined signature.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is a primary vulnerability of a wireless environment?* a. Decryption software b. IP spoofing c. A gap in the WAP d. Site survey

d. *Site survey* A site survey is the process of monitoring a wireless network using a computer, wireless controller, and analysis software. Site surveys are easily accomplished and hard to detect.

*If user awareness is overlooked, what attack is more likely to succeed?* a. Man-in-the-middle b. Reverse hash matching c. Physical intrusion d. Social engineering

d. *Social engineering* Social engineering is more likely to occur if users aren't properly trained to detect and prevent it. The lack of user awareness training won't have as much impact on man-in-the-middle, reverse hash-matching, or physical intrusion attacks.

*Which category of authentication includes your ATM card?* a. Something you are b. Something you do c. Somewhere you are d. Something you have

d. *Something you have* "Something you have" includes ATM cards, smart cards, and keys. "Somewhere you are" is a location, making answer C incorrect. Answers A and B are incorrect because both "something you are" and "something you do" are biometric measures present even without your ATM card.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *An executive from ABC Corp receives an email from a vice president of XYZ Corp, which is a prestigious partner organization of ABC Corp. This email was formatted using XYZ's corporate logo, images, and text from their website (checked by the executive before opening the included form). After clicking the provided link, the executive was asked to verify his credentials for access to a confidential report about ABC Corp, but after he filled out the form, the executive received only a referral to XYZ's site. What type of attack was used in this scenario?* a. Phishing b. Smishing c. Vishing d. Spear phishing

d. *Spear phishing* This is an example of a spear phishing attack, which uses fraudulent email to obtain access to data of value (here, the executive's credentials) from a targeted organization. Answer A is incorrect because while phishing attacks involve email, spear phishing attacks are targeted and customized to a selected target. The question's description of the images, links, and report all indicate a very targeted attack. Answer B is incorrect because smishing attacks are conducted using SMS messages. Answer C is similarly incorrect because vishing attacks employ telephone or VoIP audio communications.

*While performing regular security audits, you suspect that your company is under attack and someone is attempting to use resources on your network. The IP addresses in the log files belong to a trusted partner company, however. Assuming an attack, which of the following might be occurring?* a. Replay b. Authorization c. Social engineering d. Spoofing

d. *Spoofing* The most likely answer is spoofing because this enables an attacker to misrepresent the source of the requests. Answer A is incorrect because this type of attack records and replays previously sent valid messages. Answer B is incorrect because this is not a type of attack but is instead the granting of access rights based on authentication. Answer C is incorrect because social engineering involves nontechnical means of gaining information.

*Which of the following does not describe techniques for assessing threats and vulnerabilities?* a. Understanding attack surface b. Baseline reporting c. Reviews of architecture, design, and code d. System hardening

d. *System hardening* System hardening refers to reducing a system's security exposure and strengthening its defenses against unauthorized access attempts and other forms of malicious attention. Answers A, B, and C, in contrast, are specific techniques to assess for threats and vulnerabilities.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A user reports that he is receiving an error indicating that his TCP/IP address is already in use when he turns on his computer. A static IP address has been assigned to this user's computer, and you're certain this address was not inadvertently assigned to another computer. Which type of attack is most likely underway?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

d. *TCP/IP hijacking* One of the symptoms of a TCP/IP hijacking attack may be the unavailability of a TCP/IP address when the system is started.

Threats and Vulnerabilities *A junior administrator comes to you in a panic. After looking at the log files, he has become convinced that an attacker is attempting to use an IP address to replace another system in the network to gain access. Which type of attack is this?* a. Man-in-the-middle attack b. Backdoor attack c. Worm d. TCP/IP hijacking

d. *TCP/IP hijacking* TCP/IP hijacking is an attempt to steal a valid IP address and use it to gain authorization or information from a network.

Physical and Hardware-Based Security *You work for an electronics company that has just created a device that emits less RF than any competitor's product. Given the enormous importance of this invention and of the marketing benefits it could offer, you want to have the product certified. Which certification is used to indicate minimal electronic emissions?* a. EMI b. RFI c. CC EAL 4 d. TEMPEST

d. *TEMPEST* TEMPEST is the certification given to electronic devices that emit minimal RF. The TEMPEST certification is difficult to acquire, and it significantly increases the cost of systems.

*When a vendor releases a patch, which of the following is the most important?* a. Installing the patch immediately b. Setting up automatic patch installation c. Allowing users to apply patches d. Testing the patch before implementation

d. *Testing the patch before implementation* It is most important to test patches before installing them onto production systems. Otherwise, business tasks can be interrupted if the patch does not perform as expected. Never rush to install a patch, if that means skipping testing. Do not automatically roll out patches; be sure to test them first. Do not give users the power to install patches; this should be managed by administrators.

*What is the advantage of using an access point's (AP's) power level control?* a. The power can be adjusted to "jam" frequencies of sniffers used by potential hackers. b. The power can be adjusted to provide a cleaner signal with less interference. c. The power can be adjusted so that more of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders. d. The power can be adjusted so that less of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders.

d. *The power can be adjusted so that less of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders.* A security feature on some APs is the ability to adjust the level of power at which the WLAN transmits. On devices with that feature, the power can be adjusted so that less of the signal leaves the premises and reaches outsiders.

Cryptography Basics *Which of the following best describes the process of encrypting and decrypting data using an asymmetric encryption algorithm?* a. Only the public key is used to encrypt, and only the private key is used to decrypt. b. The public key is used to either encrypt or decrypt. c. Only the private key is used to encrypt, and only the public key is used to decrypt. d. The private key is used to decrypt data encrypted with the public key.

d. *The private key is used to decrypt data encrypted with the public key.* When encrypting and decrypting data using an asymmetric encryption algorithm, you use only the private key to decrypt data encrypted with the public key. Answers A and B are both incorrect because in public key encryption, if one key is used to encrypt, you can use the other to decrypt the data. Answer C is incorrect because the public key is not used to decrypt the same data it encrypted.

*Users received a spam email from an unknown source and chose the option in the email to unsubscribe and are now getting more spam as a result. Which one of the following is most likely the reason?* a. The unsubscribe option does not actually do anything. b. The unsubscribe request was never received. c. Spam filters were automatically turned off when making the selection to unsubscribe. d. They confirmed that their addresses are "live."

d. *They confirmed that their addresses are "live."* Often an option to opt out of further email does not unsubscribe users; instead it means, "send me more spam" because it has been confirmed that the email address is not dormant. This is less likely to occur with email a user receives that he or she opted into in the first place, however. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these are less likely and not the best choices.

Access Control and Identity Management *Which is the best rule-based access control constraint to protect against unauthorized access when admins are off-duty?* a. Least privilege b. Separation of duties c. Account expiration d. Time of day

d. *Time of day* Time-of-day rules prevent administrative access requests during off-hours when local admins and security professionals are not on duty. Answer A is incorrect because least privilege is a principle of assigning only those rights necessary to perform assigned tasks. Answer B is incorrect because separation of duties aids in identification of fraudulent or incorrect processes by ensuring that action and validation practices are performed separately. Answer C is incorrect because account expiration policies ensure that individual accounts do not remain active past their designated lifespan but do nothing to ensure protections are enabled during admin downtime.

Network Security *What is the role of a switch?* a. To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry b. To forward packets across different network computer networks c. To intercept user requests from the internal secure network and then process that request on behalf of the user d. To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment

d. *To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment* Early local area networks (LANs) used a hub, which is a standard network device for connecting multiple network devices together so that they function as a single network segment. A network switch is a device that connects network devices together. However, unlike a hub, a switch has a degree of "intelligence."

Network Security *What is the primary role of a firewall?* a. To forward packets across different network computer networks b. To intercept user requests from the internal secure network and then process that request on behalf of the user c. To connect networks together so that they function as a single network segment d. To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry

d. *To inspect packets and either accept or deny entry* Although a host-based application software firewall that runs as a program on one client is different from a hardware-based network firewall designed to protect an entire network, their functions are essentially the same: to inspect packets and either accept or deny entry.

*Several organizational users are experiencing network and Internet connectivity issues. Which of the following would be most helpful in troubleshooting where the connectivity problems might exist?* a. SSL b. IPsec c. SNMP d. Traceroute

d. *Traceroute* Traceroute uses an ICMP echo request packet to find the path between two addresses. Answer A is incorrect because SSL is a public key-based security protocol that is used by Internet services and clients for authentication, message integrity, and confidentiality. Answer B is incorrect because the Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) authentication and encapsulation standard is widely used to establish secure VPN communications. Answer C is incorrect because SNMP is an application layer protocol whose purpose is to collect statistics from TCP/IP devices. SNMP is used for monitoring the health of network equipment, computer equipment, and devices such as uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs).

Disaster Recovery and Incident Response *Which risk management response is being implemented when a company purchases insurance to protect against service outage?* a. Acceptance b. Avoidance c. Mitigation d. Transference

d. *Transference* The liability of risk is transferred through insurance policies. Answer A is incorrect because accepting a risk is to do nothing in response. Risk avoidance involves simply terminating the operation that produces the risk, making answer B incorrect. Answer C is not correct because mitigation applies a solution that results in a reduced level of risk or exposure.

Access Control and Identity Management *You have added a new child domain to your network. As a result of this, the child has adopted all the trust relationships with other domains in the forest that existed for its parent domain. What is responsible for this?* a. LDAP access b. XML access c. Fuzzing access d. Transitive access

d. *Transitive access* Transitive access exists between the domains and creates this relationship.

*_______________ is a cryptographic transport algorithm.* a. Secure Shell (SSH) b. Data Encryption Standard (DES) c. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) d. Transport Layer Security (TLS)

d. *Transport Layer Security (TLS)* Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic transport algorithm.

*What two encryption modes are supported by Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)?* a. Electronic code book (ECB) and cipher block chaining (CBC) b. Kerberos and Secure Shell (SSH) c. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) d. Transport and tunnel

d. *Transport and tunnel* IPsec supports two encryption modes: transport and tunnel.

Infrastructure and Connectivity *You want to implement a technology solution for a small organization that can function as a single point of policy control and management for access to Internet content. Which of the following should you choose?* a. Proxy gateway b. Circuit-level gateway c. Application-level gateway d. Web security gateway

d. *Web security gateway* Web security gateways offer a single point of policy control and management for web-based content access. Answer A is too generic to be a proper answer. Answer B is incorrect because a circuit-level gateway's decisions are based on source and destination addresses. Answer C is incorrect because an application-level gateway understands services and protocols.

Cryptography Implementation *Which of the following uses a secure crypto-processor to authenticate hardware devices such as a PC or laptop?* a. Public key infrastructure b. Full disk encryption c. File-level encryption d. Trusted Platform Module

d. *Trusted Platform Module* Trusted Platform Module (TPM) refers to a secure crypto-processor used to authenticate hardware devices such as a PC or laptop. The idea behind TPM is to allow any encryption-enabled application to take advantage of the chip. Answer A is incorrect because public key infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates. Answer B is incorrect because full-disk encryption involves encrypting the operating system partition on a computer and then booting and running with the system drive encrypted at all times. Answer C is incorrect because in file- or folder-level encryption, individual files or folders are encrypted by the file system itself.

Security-Related Policies and Procedures *Which of the following occurs under the security policy administered by a trusted security domain?* a. Positive inspection b. Confident poll c. Voucher session d. Trusted transaction

d. *Trusted transaction* A trusted transaction occurs under the security policy administered by a trusted security domain. Your organization may decide that it can serve as its own trusted security domain and that it can use third-party CAs, thus allowing for additional flexibility.

Educating and Protecting the User *When you combine phishing with Voice over IP, it is known as:* a. Spoofing b. Spooning c. Whaling d. Vishing

d. *Vishing* Vishing involves combining phishing with Voice over IP.

Wireless Networking Security *Which of the following is a script language WAP-enabled devices can respond to?* a. WXML b. Winsock c. WIScript d. WMLScript

d. *WMLScript* WAP-enabled devices can respond to scripts using an environment called WMLScript.

*Which of the following best describes the difference between phishing and whaling?* a. They are the same. b. Whaling makes use of the voice channel, whereas phishing uses email. c. Whaling uses SMS, whereas phishing uses email. d. Whaling is similar to phishing but specifically targets high-profile individuals.

d. *Whaling is similar to phishing but specifically targets high-profile individuals.* Whaling specifically targets high-profile individuals. Phishing attempts to acquire sensitive information from anyone. Although they are very similar, they differ in the scope of the target, making answer A incorrect. Answer B is incorrect and refers to vishing, which is essentially phishing but using the phone. Answer C is incorrect as this describes smishing, which uses Short Message Service (SMS), or text messaging.

Protecting Networks *Which Linux utility can show if there is more than one set of documentation on the system for a command you are trying to find information on?* a. Lookaround b. Howmany c. Whereall d. Whatis

d. *Whatis* In Linux, the whatis utility can show if there is more than one set of documentation on the system for a command you are trying to find information on.

*When is business continuity needed?* a. When new software is distributed b. When business processes are interrupted c. When a user steals company data d. When business processes are threatened

d. *When business processes are threatened* Business continuity is used when business processes are threatened. Security policy is used when new software is distributed. Disaster recovery is used when business processes are interrupted. Incident response is used when a user steals company data.

Operating System and Application Security *An organization is looking to add a layer of security and maintain strict control over the apps employees are approved to use. Which of the following fulfills this requirement?* a. Blacklisting b. Encryption c. Lockout d. Whitelisting

d. *Whitelisting* Application whitelisting only permits known good apps. When security is a concern, whitelisting applications is a better option because it allows organizations to maintain strict control over the apps employees are approved to use. Answer A is incorrect because although blacklisting is an option, it is not as effective as whitelisting. Answer B is incorrect because encryption has nothing to do with restricting application usage. Answer C is incorrect because lockout has to do with number of times a user can enter a passcode.

Operating System and Application Security *Which of the following involves unauthorized commands coming from a trusted user to the website?* a. ZDT b. HSM c. TT3 d. XSRF

d. *XSRF* XSRF involves unauthorized commands coming from a trusted user to the website. This is often done without the user's knowledge and employs some type of social networking to pull it off.

Cryptography Basics *Which authorization protocol is generally compatible with TACACS?* a. LDAP b. RADIUS c. TACACS+ d. XTACACS

d. *XTACACS* The Extended Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (XTACACS) protocol is a proprietary form of the TACACS protocol developed by Cisco and is compatible in many cases. Neither LDAP nor RADIUS is affiliated with the TACACS protocol, making answers A and B incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the newer TACACS+ is not backward compatible with its legacy equivalent.

*A security _______________ log can provide details regarding requests for specific files on a system.* a. event b. administration c. audit d. access

d. *access* A security access log can provide details regarding requests for specific files on a system while an audit log is used to record which user performed an action and what that action was. System event logs document any unsuccessful events and the most significant successful events.

*Risk _______________ involves identifying the risk, but making a decision to not engage in the activity.* a. deterrence b. mitigation c. acceptance d. avoidance

d. *avoidance* Risk avoidance involves identifying the risk but making the decision to not engage in the activity.

*With _______________, the customer's data should be properly isolated from that of other customers, and the highest level of application availability and security must be maintained.* a. virtualization b. IP telephony c. Sandboxing d. cloud computing

d. *cloud computing* In cloud computing, the customer's data must be properly isolated from that of other customers, and the highest level of application availability and security must be maintained.

*Another name for layered security is _______________.* a. network separation b. VPN tunneling c. Unified threat management (UTM) d. defense in depth

d. *defense in depth* A basic level of security can be achieved through using the security features found in standard network hardware. And because networks typically contain multiple types of network hardware, this allows for layered security, also called defense in depth.

*The _______________ approach to calculating risk attempts to create "hard" numbers associated with the risk of an element in a system by using historical data.* a. cumulative b. qualitative c. technical d. quantitative

d. *quantitative* The quantitative approach to calculating risk attempts to create "hard" numbers associated with the risk of an element in a system by using historical data.

*A _______________ functions as a separate network that rests outside the secure network perimeter.* a. gateway b. segment c. virtual private network (VPN) d. demilitarized zone (DMZ)

d. *demilitarized zone (DMZ)* In order to allow untrusted outside users access to resources such as web servers, most networks employ a demilitarized zone (DMZ). The DMZ functions as a separate network that rests outside the secure network perimeter: untrusted outside users can access the DMZ but cannot enter the secure network.

Security and Vulnerability in the Network *You want to implement MAC filtering on a small network but do not know the MAC address of a Windows-based workstation. Which command-line tool can you run on the workstation to find the MAC address?* a. ifconfig b. ifconfig /show c. ipconfig d. ipconfig /all

d. *ipconfig /all* The command ipconfig /all will show the MAC address as the physical address.

*Limiting access to rooms in a building is a model of the information technology security principle of _______________.* a. job rotation b. mandatory vacations c. separation of duties d. least privilege

d. *least privilege* Limiting access to rooms in a building is a model of the information technology security principle of least privilege.

*With subnetting, rather than simply having networks and hosts, networks can effectively be divided into three parts: _______________.* a. network, subnet, and port b. port, subnet, and IP address c. network, port, and host d. network, subnet, and host

d. *network, subnet, and host* Improved addressing techniques introduced in 1985 allowed an IP address to be split anywhere within its 32 bits. This is known as subnetting or subnet addressing. Instead of just having networks and hosts, with subnetting, networks essentially can be divided into three parts: network, subnet, and host.

*In a(n) _______________ attack, a malformed ICMP ping that exceeds the size of an IP packet is sent to the victim's computer potentially causing the host to crash.* a. network discovery b. smurf c. ICMP redirect d. ping of death

d. *ping of death* In a ping of death attack, a malformed ICMP ping that exceeds the size of an IP packet is sent to the victim's computer. This can cause the host to crash.

*The _______________ is the length of time it will take to recover the data that has been backed up.* a. mean time to recovery b. recovery point objective c. mean time to failure d. recovery time objective

d. *recovery time objective* The recovery time objective is the length of time it will take to recover the data that has been backed up.

*A(n) _______________ VPN, often used on mobile devices like laptops in which the VPN endpoint is actually software running on the device itself, offers the most flexibility in how network traffic is managed.* a. closed b. open c. hardware-based d. software-based

d. *software-based* Software-based VPNs, often used on mobile devices like laptops in which the VPN endpoint is actually software running on the device itself, offer the most flexibility in how network traffic is managed.

Network Security *A _______________ is a special type of firewall that looks at the applications using HTTP.* a. network intrusion detection system (NIDS) b. network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) c. spam filter d. web application firewall

d. *web application firewall* A Web application firewall is a special type of firewall that looks at the applications using HTTP.

Network Security *A(n) _______________ can block malicious content in real time as it appears.* a. uniform resource locator (URL) filter b. virtual private network (VPN) c. Internet content filter d. web security gateway

d. *web security gateway* A web security gateway can block malicious content in real time as it appears (without first knowing the URL of a dangerous site).

*A(n) _______________ policy is one that defines the actions users may perform while accessing systems and networking equipment.* a. data acquisition b. privacy c. data storage d. acceptable use

d.* acceptable use* An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a policy that defines the actions users may perform while accessing systems and networking equipment.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Refer to the scenario in question 2. Which of the following is the ALE for this scenario?* a. $2 million b.$1 million c. $500,000 d. $33,333.33 e. $16,666.67

e. *$16,666.67* ALE (annual loss expectancy) is equal to SLE times the annualized rate of occurrence. In this case, SLE is $1 million and the ARO is 1/60.

Measuring and Weighing Risk *Which of the following strategies involves sharing some of the burden of the risk with someone else such as an insurance company?* a. Risk acceptance b. Risk avoidance c. Risk deterrence d. Risk mitigation e. Risk transference

e. *Risk transference* Risk transference involves sharing some of the burden of the risk with someone else such as an insurance company.

private data

lnformation about an individual that should remain private. Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and Personal Health Information (PHI) are two examples.

IaaS

lnfrastructure as a Service. A cloud computing model that allows an organization to rent access to hardware in a self-managed platform. Compare with PaaS and $005.

ECB

{lectronk Codebook. A legacy mode of operation used for encryption. It is weak and should not be used.