evolve quiz #3
the correct dental formula for an adult cat is: a) 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30 b) 2 (I 4/4 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 34 c) 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 30 d) 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 2/1) = 32
a) 2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30
The normal sulcus depth in the dog is: a) 3 mm b) 7 mm c) 10 mm d) 8 mm
a) 3 mm (between 2.0 mm and 3.0 mm)
What breed is prone to lip fold dermatitis? a) bulldogs b) chihuahuas c) labradors d) miniature pinschers
a) bulldogs
When referring to dental-related conditions, staging is a way to: a) classify tumors b) plan periodontal care c) plan surgical care for cancerous tumors d) determine how large a tumor is
a) classify tumors (it is performed by the vet and uses the system set up by the world health organization for classifying cancerous tumors in humans)
Periodontal disease is the result of the inflammatory process to: a) dental plaque b) systemic bacteria c) systemic lupus d) chronic stomatitis
a) dental plaque
Enamel hypoplasia is also referred to as: a) dysplasia b) odontalgia c) anodontia d) oligodontia
a) dysplasia
the most common benign soft-tissue tumor of the oral cavity is a/an: a) epulis b) fibrosarcoma c) malignant melanoma d) squamous cell carcinoma
a) epulis (all others are malignant)
How long does it take plaque to accumulate on a clean tooth surface? a) minutes b) hours c) days d) weeks
a) minutes
What is the most common cause for dental malocclussions a) retained deciduous teeth b) overbite c) skeletal defects d) bad breeding
a) retained deciduous teeth (when these teeth don't fall out and the adult teeth start coming in, the adult teeth will erupt in the wrong position)
Which of the following is the single most effective means of removing plaque? a) tooth brushing b) toothpaste c) dental diets d) all of the above
a) tooth brushing
How many incisors are present in the adult equine patient? a) 6 b) 12 c) 24 d) 36
b) 12
when using motorized equipment for an equine prophylaxis, speeds should range from ____ to prevent thermal damage. a) 100-200 rpm b) 2000-3000 rpm c) 3000-4000 rpm d) 4000-5000 rpm
b) 2000-3000 rpm (lower speeds are preferred because higher-speed rotation procedures heat faster)
Two tooth buds that grow together to form one larger tooth is referred to as a) Gemini b) Fusion c) Polydontia d) Oligodontia
b) Fusion (fusion tooth is when two separate-forming tooth structures join to form a single structure)
Abbreviations are commonly used in vet practice, and some abbreviations are exclusive to dental terminology. Which abbreviation best aligns with the uncomplicated crown fracture? a) CCF b) UCF c) UCRF d) CCRF
b) UCF (UCF: uncomplicated crown fracture, CCF: complicated crown fracture, UCRF: uncomplicated crown and root fracture, and CCRF: complicated crown and root fracture)
A curette: a) is used strictly as a supragingival instrument b) can be used either supragingival or subgingivally c) is used to remove microetchants on the tooth surface after power scaling d) is used to irrigate the teeth with air or water
b) can be used either supragingival or subgingivally
Which of the following options are best suited for rinsing a mouth before a dental prophy? a) 10% dilute betadine solution b) chlorhexidine gluconate c) 50% dilute ampicillin solution d) there is no need to rinse a mouth before a prophylaxis, but rinsing should be done after the procedure is completed
b) chlorhexidine gluconate
Malocclusion in which the mandible is caudal to the maxilla is termed: a) class 3 mandibular mesioclusions b) class 2 mandibular distoclusions c) class 1 neutroclusions d) dental malocclusion
b) class 2 mandibular distoclusions (Class 2 malocclusion or mandibular distoclusion is an abnormal rostral-caudal relationship of the maxillary and mandibular arches)
What is the main purpose of premolar teeth? a) holding and tearing b) cutting and breaking c) grinding d) gnawing and grooming
b) cutting and breaking (the premolars function to hold and carry food, as well as to break food down into smaller pieces.)
if a tooth is fractured and there is a black spot in the center of the cut surface, into which you can place a dental explorer, the best treatment would be: a) an x-ray to see if there are changes in the tooth or surrounding areas, with treatment provided according to findings b) either a root canal or an extraction c) a discussion fees with the client and a determination of whether or not the patient experiences pain before therapy d) an extraction
b) either a root canal or an extraction
The only radiographic view that can be made with a true parallel technique is: a) rostral maxillary b) parallel mandibular view c) rostral mandibular view d) parallel oblique view
b) parallel mandibular view
all of the following factors must be considered when aging a horse, except: a) breed b) quantity of food c) environmental conditions d) injury
b) quantity of food
The purpose of fluoride treatment is to: a) prevent thermal damage and lubrication b) strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth c) remove plaque and strengthen the enamel d) irrigate and lubricate
b) strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth (Fluoride reduces sensitivity when applied over exposed dentinal tubules. Fluoride forms fluoroapatite, causing the tooth surface to be strengthened and more resistant to the cariogenic bacteria that dissolve enamel)
An owner's goal when providing oral home care is: a) suprascaling b) to remove or reduce the accumulation of plaque c) subgingival lavage d) all of the above
b) to remove or reduce the accumulation of plaque
Adontia is defined as: a) congenital absence of many, but not all, teeth b) total absence of teeth c) absence of only a few teeth d) cleft palate
b) total absence of teeth
when brushing a pet-patient's teeth, which angle should the brush be held at? a) 20 degree angle b) 35 degree angle c) 45 degree angle d) 65 degree angle
c) 45 degree angle
What term identifies the hard, mineralized substance on the tooth surface? a) plaque b) attrition c) calculus d) abrasion
c) calculus
Medium-and large breed dogs are most commonly affected by dental decay, which is also known as: a) trauma b) enamel hypoplasia c) caries d) furcation
c) caries (dental decay is often referred to as caries)
All of the following are preventative measures that can be taken to prevent malocclusion, except: a) extraction of persistent primary teeth b) interceptive orthodontics c) extraction of persistent permanent teeth d) a removable orthodontic device
c) extraction of persistent permanent teeth (vets would remove primary teeth, not permanent malocclusion, and this should be performed before 12-14 weeks of age)
A pseudopocket can be defined as: a) deep pocket b) shallow pocket c) false pocket d) missing a pocket
c) false pocket
The placement of an esophagostomy feeding tube benefits the dental patient after which procedure? a) routing cleaning and polishing b) extraction of a maxillary canine tooth c) mandibulectomy or maxillectomy d) excisional biopsy of a 3-mm epulis
c) mandibulectomy or maxillectomy (placement of an esophagostomy feeding tube benefits the dental patient after any major oral surgery that has necessitated the removal of large areas of jaw bone or after full-mouth extractions)
Which discipline deals with dental conditions specific to puppies and kittens? a) exodontics b) orthodontics c) pedodontics d) prothodontics
c) pedodontics (study of both genetic and acquired dental conditions of puppies and kittens)
Internal resorption primarily affects the: a) enamel b) crown c) pulp d) dentin
c) pulp
Which dental radiographic projection images 301-304 and 401-404? a) rostral maxillary b) parallel mandibular view c) rostral mandibular view d) lateral oblique view
c) rostral mandibular view (to radiograph the mandibular incisors and canines) (The film or sensor is placed below the incisors and canine teeth.)
Which of the following instruments should be used to reduce the crown of sharp canine teeth? a) nippers b) cutters c) small files d) elevators
c) small files (nippers and cutters should not be used on canine teeth because these instruments offer minimal to no control during tooth fracturing)
In horses, the term coronal refers to which portion of the tooth? a) the area of the tooth farthest away from the occlusal surface b) the area closest to the tongue c) the crown d) the tooth closest to the incisors
c) the crown
Dental dysplasia is the abnormal development of teeth that involve which of the following? a) crown b) roots c) the entire tooth d) pulp
c) the entire tooth
When grading furcation involvement, which of the following descriptions would be termed Grade 2? a) no furcation involvement b) the furcation can be felt with the probe/explorer, but horizontal tissue destruction is <(1/3) of the horizontal width c) the furcation can be explored, but the probe cannot pass through it d) the probe can be passed through the furcation from buccal to palatal/lingual
c) the furcation can be explored, but the probe cannot pass through it (Grade 0: no furcation involvement. Grade 1: initial furcation involvement: the furcation can be felt with the probe/explorer, but horizontal tissue destruction is (1/3) of the horizontal width of the furcation. Grade 3: total furcation involvement: the probe/explorer can be passed through the furcation from buccal to palatal/lingual)
When conducting a tooth-by-tooth evaluation with dental radiographs, when is the client given the total estimate for care? a) on the telephone when the appointment is made b) in the exam room c) when the animal is picked up after treatment d) after the evaluation is completed while the patient is still anesthetized
d) after the evaluation is completed while the patient is still anesthetized
most abnormal dental conditions experienced by lagomorphs and rodents are a result of: a) diet b) environment c) husbandry d) all of the above
d) all of the above
why would a vet tech lavage a pathological pocket with chlorhexidine? a) to remove bacteria b) to remove free-floating debris c) to prevent the formation of an abcess d) all of the above
d) all of the above
the heaviest calculus deposition in dogs and cats is typically located on the: a) lingual surfaces of the lower cheek teeth b) lower canine teeth c) incisor teeth d) buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth
d) buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth (this is because of the adjacent parotid salivary duct opening)
which of the following species does not have continually growing teeth? a) Equine b) rabbit c) rat d) cat
d) cat
Which of the following is the correct dental term/definition describing a tooth surface? a) mesial- farthest from the midline b) mesial- nearest the front c) distal- nearest the midline d) distal-farthest from the midline
d) distal-farthest from the midline
Teeth that grow throughout an equine patient's life are termed: a) brachydont b) hypsodont c) anelodont d) elodont
d) elodont (all others have a period of growth)
Local factors that could affect enamel development include all of the following except: a) trauma b) infection c) bite injury d) hypocalcemia
d) hypocalcemia
the vet tech's role in treating periodontal disease includes all of the following except: a) supragingival scaling b) subgingival scaling c) subgingival lavage d) periodontal surgery
d) periodontal surgery
The goal of orthodontic care is to: a) allow a dog or cat to compete better in breed shows b) correct abnormalities so a puppy or kitten can sell for a better price c) provide a better-looking pet d) return the pet to a comfortable or functional bite
d) return the pet to a comfortable or functional bite
Which disease causes a cat to start spontaneously and aggressively pawing at the face and mouth to cry out in pain? a) tooth resorption b) chronic ulcerative gingivostomatitis c) squamous cell carcinoma d)orofacial pain syndrome
d)orofacial pain syndrome
define exodontics
extraction of teeth
