Exam 1 Practice Questions
Why are trade names much easier to say and remember than generic names? a. the FDA assigns every drugs generic name b. trade names must be the same regardless of which drug company manufactures the drug c. companies have a marketing advantage when the trade name is easier to recognize d. trade names improve oral and written communication in the healthcare system
c
Generally, hyponatremia is: a. an outcome of serious burns, vomiting, or diarrhea b. a result of a decrease in total body water (TBW) c. an outcome of serum sodium levels dropping below 145 mEq/L d. a result of inadequate sodium intake
a
The drug dobutamine acts as an agonist of norepinephrine (NE) receptors. Which effect is the nurse most likely to observe in a patient receiving this medication? a. Increased heart rate b. Atrioventricular heart block c. Sinus bradycardia d. Reduced cardiac output
a
The nurse is administering warfarin, an anticoagulant, to a patient with a low albumin level. Which effect of this medication should the nurse expect to observe? a. increased PT/INR levels b. deep vein thromboses c. reduced risk of bruising d. increased platelet aggression
a
The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old boy who weighs 72 pounds. The healthcare provider should make the most precise dosage adjustments for this patient's medications based on what? a. Body surface area b. Body mass index c. Body weight d. Body fat percentage
a
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with cancer who will be receiving chemotherapy. The nurse defines goals, set priorities, identifies interventions, and establishes criteria for evaluating success. Which phase of the nursing process does this represent? a. assessment b. planning c. implementations d. evaluation
b
The pigment correctly paired with its color is: a. bilirubin: yellow-brown b. melanin: brown-black c. blue nevus: brown-black d. hemosiderin: green-black
b
Which is a true statement about new drug development in the United States? a. development and testing of new drugs takes about 3 to 5 years b. about 50% of drugs undergoing clinical trials gain approval c. randomized controlled trials are the best way to assess drug therapy d. the cost of developing a new drug is usually around $1 million
c
Which is a true statement regarding hyperkalemia? a. there is an increase in the renal secretion of potassium b. dietary excesses are commonly the cause c. hyperkalemia often occurs in acidosis d. increased aldosterone levels are noted
c
Which legislation sets rules for the manufacture and distribution of drugs considered to have the potential for abuse? a. Food, Drugs, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 b. Harris-Kefauver Amendments of 1962 c. Controlled Substances Act of 1970 d. Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997
c
Which statement about renal excretion in infants is true? a. Renal blood flow is high during infancy. b. Renal drug excretion is significantly increased at birth. c. Adult levels of renal function are achieved by 1 year. d. Drugs that are eliminated primarily by renal excretion must be given in higher doses.
c
The appropriate term for the reversible replacement of one mature cell by another is: a. dysplasia b. atypical hyperplasia c. hyperplasia d. metaplasia
d
The nurse is preparing to give a drug with certain properties. Which property of the drug is the most compelling indication that it should not be given? a. the drug produces unwanted side effect b. the drug is difficult to administer c. the drugs effects are reversible d. the drug is not effective for its intended purpose
d
The nurse should provide which teaching point when administering an enteric-coated tablet to a patient? a. "chew the tablet before swallowing" b. "break the tablet in half before swallowing" c. "allow the tablet to be absorbed under the tongue" d. "swallow the tablet whole after double checking the dose"
d
When assessing for drug effects in the older adult, which phase of pharmacokinetics is the greatest concern? a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Metabolism d. Excretion
d
Which is not a reason for the decline in hepatic drug metabolism with age? a. Reduced hepatic blood flow b. Reduced liver mass c. Decreased activity of some hepatic enzymes d. Poor diet
d
Which nursing action results in the most common cause of fatal medication errors? a. Miscalculation of dosage b. Miscommunication of drug orders c. Misreading of the healthcare provider's handwriting d. Administering a drug intravenously (IV) instead of intramuscularly (IM)
d
Which of the following is not an example of age-related adverse drug effects? a. Growth suppression b. Discoloration of developing teeth c. Kernicterus d. Toxicity
d
Which statement about intramuscular (IM) administration is incorrect? a. Drug absorption following IM injection in the neonate is slow and erratic. b. Absorption of IM drugs becomes more rapid in infancy than in neonates. c. Neonates experience low blood flow through muscle during the first days of postnatal life. d. Absorption of IM drugs becomes slower and more erratic in infancy than in neonates.
d
Which statement regarding adverse reactions during pregnancy is false? a. Not only are pregnant women subject to the same adverse effects as everyone else, but they may also suffer effects unique to pregnancy. b. Drugs taken during pregnancy can adversely affect the patient as well as the fetus. c. The drug effect of greatest concern is teratogenesis. This is the production of birth defects in the fetus. d. One in five children is born with a malformation related to drug use during pregnancy.
d
A decrease in workload, use, pressure, or blood supply appropriately describes: a. pathologic atrophy b. hypertrophy c. hyperplasia d. physiologic atrophy
a
A diabetic patient is taught the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia with insulin use. The patient knows to eat fast acting carbohydrates. This is an example of which goal? a. minimizing adverse effects b. promoting therapeutic effects c. minimizing adverse interactions d. managing toxicity
a
Which statement about medication administration would the nurse identify as true? (select all that apply) a. all drugs have the potential to produce undesired effects b. drug therapy often can be enhanced by nonpharmacologic measures c. patients taking two drugs are not likely to have a drug interaction d. nurses knowledge of pharmacology is more important for standing orders that for PRN medications e. patient adherence is essential in achieving the therapeutic objective of medications
a, b, e
Which is a true statement about new drug development? (select all that apply) a. preclinical testing of drugs is always performed in healthy, non pregnant adults b. drug trials require that those involved dont know which subjects are receiving the drug or control c. during preclinical testing, drugs are evaluated for toxicities, kinetic properties, and useful effects d. when a new drug is released, all adverse effects are known
b, c
A nurse is preparing to give an oral dose of drug X to treat a patients high blood pressure. After giving the drug, the nurse finds that it not only reduces the blood pressure without serious harmful effects, but it also causes the patient to have nausea and headache. Based on this information, which property of an ideal drug is this drug lacking? a. effectiveness b. safety c. selectivity
c
According to the FDA Pregnancy Risk categories, which category represents the greatest risk for fetal harm? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. X
e
Common clinical manifestations of hypokalemia include: (select all that apply) a. carbohydrate metabolism effects due to decreased insulin secretion b. inability of kidneys to concentrate urine c. neuromuscular excitability is decreased d. skeletal muscle contractibility is increased e. smooth muscle tone is increased
a, b, c
The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed Isoniazid for the treatment of tuberculosis. The nurse should assess for which signs and symptoms of drug-induced liver toxicity? (Select all that apply.) a. Nausea b. Malaise c. Jaundice d. Vomiting e. Clear urine
a, b, c, d
Why are infants especially sensitive to drugs that affect CNS function? a. The blood-brain barrier is especially strong in infants. b. The blood-brain barrier does not exist until 1 year of age. c. The blood-brain barrier is not fully developed at birth. d. The blood-brain barrier is weakened by the birth process.
c
Why is it important for drugs to have ease of administration? a. fewer administration errors b. less risk of side effects c. greater chemical stability d. greater likelihood of reversibility
a
A characteristic of a stab wound includes: a. the injury is deeper than it is long b. the injury is longer than it is deep c. there is significant crush injury d. there is a broken bone
a
A nurse prepares to administer acetaminophen [Tylenol] to a patient with an oral temperature of 101.7 degrees F. Which preparation would the nurse expect to have the most rapid onset of action? a. tylenol elixir b. tylenol tablets c. tylenol capsules d. tylenol gel caps
a
A patient has deep and rapid respirations. Laboratory tests reveal decreases in both pH and bicarbonate values. This patient is experiencing: a. metabolic acidosis b. respiratory acidosis c. metabolic alkalosis d. respiratory alkalosis
a
When a pregnant woman has been exposed to a known teratogen, what is the first step in identifying risks for malformation? (Select all that apply.) a. Determine exactly when the drug was taken. b. Determine exactly when the pregnancy began. c. Determine why the woman was taking the medication. d. Determine who prescribed the medication.
a, b
The nurse is caring for a group of female patients receiving medication therapy. Which factor is of greatest concern with regard to drug therapy in these patients? a. Most drug research has been carried out exclusively in male subjects. b. Hormonal differences make managing drug therapy more difficult in most women. c. Overall, women tend to be less compliant with medication therapy. d. Women tend to be caregivers and may not take time to care for themselves.
a
The nurse is concerned with minimizing adverse drug-drug interactions for the patient. Which drug characteristic could result in the most serious consequences from a drug-drug interaction? a. Low therapeutic range b. High biologic half-life c. Low potency d. First-pass effect
a
The nurse is preparing a staff education inservice about specific safety measures that reduce patient medication errors. Which measure improves safety for patients during care transition? a. Medication reconciliation b. MEDWATCH program c. Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy d. Regional Medication Safety Program
a
The nurse is preparing to give a drug that is not classified according to a Pregnancy Risk Category. What should the nurse do? a. Administer the medication, because the nurse knows that it was in use before 1983. b. Notify the healthcare provider before administering the drug, because it should be considered a teratogen. c. Hold the medication, because the drug has a proven risk of fetal harm. d. Return the medication to the pharmacy to be assigned a Pregnancy Risk Category.
a
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory value for a patient prescribed atorvastatin [Lipitor]. Which laboratory value is most useful for monitoring this drug? a. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. International normalized ratio (INR) d. C-reactive protein (CRP)
a
The nurse is teaching a patient prescribed felodipine [Plendil] for the treatment of hypertension. Which statement is the most appropriate for the nurse to include in the teaching session? a. "Avoid grapefruit juice while you are taking this medication." b. "Do not eat foods high in tyramine such as aged cheese." c. "Herbal agents can help this drug work more effectively." d. "This drug is free of dangerous drug interactions."
a
The nurse prepares to give a drug that will prevent receptor activation. Which term would describe this drug? a. Antagonist b. Selective c. Agonist d. Potent
a
The nurse reviews all of the patient's prescriptions. Which prescribed medications may cause a detrimental potentiative drug interaction? a. Aspirin and warfarin b. Sulbactam and ampicillin c. Propranolol and albuterol d. Isoniazid and rifampin
a
The nurse should instruct a patient complaining of pain to do what to reduce fluctuations in drug levels? a. "take pain medication around the clock at specified intervals and doses" b. "take pain medication when the pain level reaches an 8 or 9 on a 1 to 10 scale" c. "take pain medication at night before bed and avoid daytime dosing because of drowsiness" d. "take pain medicine after breakfast and dinner to reduce stomach upset"
a
The term apoptosis is appropriately defined as: a. programmed cell death b. pass it on signal c. second messenger system d. autostimulation
a
Tuberculosis infections are likely to result in a form of necrosis called: a. caseous b. fat c. coagulative d. liquefactive
a
What is a result of the Prescription Drug User Fee Act (PDUFA) of 1992? a. new drugs reach the market sooner than ever before b. controlled substances are categorized into schedules c. drugs for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) receive accelerated approval d. more research is conducted on drug safety in children
a
What is the objective of drug therapy? a. to provide maximum benefit with minimal harm b. to provide minimum benefit with maximum harm c. to provide total relief of symptoms regardless of harm d. to provide as much benefit as possible
a
What is the ultimate concerns for the nurse when administering a drug? a. intensity of the response b. dosage c. route of administration d. timing of administration
a
When administering a central nervous system depressant, the nurse should closely observe for toxicity in which patient? a. a 3 week old neonate b. a 12 year old boy c. a 25 year old woman d. a 15 months old infant
a
When administering a medication known to be metabolized by the liver, the nurse will closely monitor for adverse drug reactions in which patient? a. A 3-month-old infant b. A 12-month-old infant c. An 18-month-old toddler d. A 13-year-old adolescent
a
When preparing a teaching session for residents at an assisted living facility, the nurse will include what? a. The importance of avoiding intentional underdosing b. The importance of using multiple pharmacies for cost-effective savings on prescription drugs c. The importance of taking double amounts of missed doses to maintain therapeutic levels of medications d. The importance of reducing protein intake while taking prescription medications
a
Which intervention would the nurse choose to minimize the risk of drug toxicity in neonates and infants? a. Reduce the amount of drug given. b. Administer the medication before meals. c. Shorten the interval between doses. d. Administer the medication intravenously.
a
Which response would the nurse anticipate when giving two drugs that have a potentiative effect, such as meperidine and Phenergan? a. Increased pain relief b. Increased nausea and vomiting c. Decreased itching d. Increased alertness
a
Which statement about drug use among older adults is true? a. Drug use among older adults is disproportionately high. b. Older adults consume 20% of the nation's prescribed drugs. c. Older patients are less sensitive to drugs than younger adults. d. Older adults experience fewer adverse drug reactions.
a
Which statement by the nursing student indicates a need for further instruction about drug selectivity? a. "Botulinum toxin is very selective and therefore very safe for administration." b. "Selective drug action is made possible by many types of receptors in the body." c. "The more selective a drug is, the fewer side effects it will produce." d. "Even though a drug is selective, it can produce nonselective results."
a
Which statements about the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (2009) would the nurse identify as true? (select all that apply) a. all ingredients in tobacco products must be listed on the warning label b. a gradual reduction of nicotine to nonaddictive levels is required c. marketing to youth is prohibited d. harmful additives are restricted e. purchasers of tobacco products must be age 21 years or older
a, b, c, d
The nurse understands drug response varies from one individual to another. What are examples of individual variations? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Genetic makeup c. Gender d. Diet e. Failure to take medication as prescribed
a, b, c, d, e
Characteristics unique to each patient can influence pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics processes. What characteristics may determine the patients response to a drug? (select all that apply) a. age b. gender c. weight d. mood e. genetics
a, b, c, e
A nurse is educating a breast-feeding patient about her medications. Which statements by the nurse are true? (Select all that apply.) a. "Drugs taken by lactating women can be excreted in breast milk." b. "If drug concentrations in milk are high enough, a pharmacologic effect can occur in the infant." c. "There is a lot of research regarding drugs taken by lactating women." d. "Most drugs can be detected in milk, but concentrations are usually too low to cause harm." e. "Nearly all drugs can enter breast milk, and the extent of entry is the same for all drugs."
a, b, d
Causes of hyponatremia include: (select all that apply) a. oversecretion of the hormone aldosterone b. cushing syndrome c. excessive free water intake d. inappropriate administration of hypertonic saline solution e. ingesting large amounts of dietary sodium
a, b, d
Which factors may contribute to unintentional nonadherence? (Select all that apply.) a. Forgetfulness b. Failure to comprehend instructions c. Unpleasant side effects d. Inability to pay for medications e. Belief that the drug is not needed
a, b, d
Common causes of the increase filtration of fluid from capillaries and lymphatic channels into surrounding tissues (edema) include: (select all that apply) a. decreased plasma oncotic pressure b. an increased hydrostatic pressure c. increased barometric pressure d. lymphatic obstruction e. increased capillary membrane permeability
a, b, d, e
Older adult patients are at high risk for adverse drug reactions (ADRs). Which measures can reduce the incidence of ADRs? (Select all that apply.) a. Taking a thorough drug history, including over-the-counter (OTC) medications b. Monitoring clinical response and laboratory results to help determine proper dosage c. Using as many drugs as possible to reduce symptoms and improve outcome d. Regularly monitoring patients for drug-drug and drug-nutrient interactions e. Helping patients to avoid prescriptions for drugs on the Beers list
a, b, d, e
When education patients about their medications, the nurse includes information about which topics? (select all that apply) a. what to do if a dose is missed b. the duration of treatment c. prescription of drug coverage d. the method of drug storage e. symptoms of adverse effects
a, b, d, e
For a drug to be a proven teratogen, which criteria must be met? (Select all that apply.) a. The drug must cause a characteristic set of malformations. b. The drug must act only during a specific window of vulnerability. c. The drug should be tested in pregnant women. d. The drug causes malformation in animal testing. e. The incidence of malformations should increase with increasing dosage and duration of drug exposure.
a, b, e
The nurse is reading a genetic research study. The study discusses how genetic variants can directly affect the metabolism of clopidogrel [Plavix], reducing the antiplatelet response. The nurse understands reduced efficacy of clopidogrel can increase the risk of which cardiovascular event? (Select all that apply.) a. Stroke b. Cancer c. Myocardial infarction d. Pulmonary embolism e. Palpitations
a, c
The nurse is teaching young parents about medication administration in their child. Which statements are appropriate to include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. "Guard against spills and spitting to ensure that your child gets an accurate dose." b. "Do not mix your child's medication with food or drink." c. "This calibrated spoon will help your child get an accurate dose." d. "Keep a medication record to make sure you do not give more than one dose at a time." e. "If your child spits some medication out, give another full dose at that time."
a, c, d
Which statements about transdermal absorption are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. The stratum corneum of the infant's skin is very thin. b. Transdermal administration is the safest route of administration. c. Blood flow to the skin is greater in infants than in older patients. d. Infants are at increased risk of toxicity from topical drugs. e. Absorption through the skin is more rapid and complete with infants.
a, c, d, e
The nurse is obtaining a drug history for a patient admitted to the unit. The nurse obtains information about past and present health histories, currently used prescription drugs, behavioral factors, and the use of OTC drugs. What other information does the nurse need to obtain? (select all that apply) a. use of recreational drugs and substance b. usual sleep patterns and disruptions c. highest level of education completed d. use of herbal remedies e. self treatment with complementary and alternative drugs
a, d, e
The process of atrophy is a result of: (select all that apply) a. lack of blood supply b. need to replace lost cells c. work demand d. aging e. hormonal stimulation s
a, d, e
Which statement about over the counter drugs would the nurse identify as true? (select all that apply) a. most illnesses initially are treated with an OTC agent b. more prescription drugs than OTC agents are administered each year in the United States c. the average home medicine cabinet contains eight OTC preparations d. forty percent of americans take at least one OTC drug every 2 days e. some drugs that originally were sold by prescription are now OTC
a, d, e
Why does the nurse administer naloxone to a patient receiving morphine sulfate who has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute? a. Naloxone causes hypersensitivity of the opioid receptors. b. Naloxone prevents the activation of opioid receptors. c. Naloxone is a partial agonist, requiring a lesser dose to achieve pain relief. d. Naloxone is an agonist, leading to desensitization of the opioid receptors.
b
A new graduate nurse preparing to administer medications knows that which of the following is required for a drug to move through the body? a. selectivity and effectiveness b. the ability to cross membranes c. development of en electric charge d. a transporter protein
b
A nurse prepares to administer a newly prescribed medication to a 22-year-old woman. The insert in the medication package states, "Category X." Select the nurse's best action. a. Ask the patient, "Have you been sexually active during the past year?" b. Ask the patient, "When was your last menstrual period?" c. Inform the patient of the primary actions of the medication. d. Assess the patient for a history of sexually transmitted disease.
b
A patient with a collection of blood located between the skull and the dura is diagnosed with a condition referred to as a(n): a. abrasion b. epidural hematoma c. subdural hematoma d. contusion
b
Before administrating the dosage of a prescribed medication, the nurse observes precipitation formation of the intravenous (IV) solution. What is the priority nursing action? a. Verify the prescription. b. Discard the IV solution. c. Prepare another dose to administer. d. Check the expiration date of the drug.
b
N-acetyl-para-aminophenol is an example of which type of drug name? a. proprietary b. chemical c. generic d. trade
b
The nurse administers 100 mg of drug X by mouth. After the drug moves through the hepatic system, very little active drug is left in the general circulation as a result of what? a. therapeutic range b. first pass effect c. drug half life d. plasma protein binding
b
The nurse is caring for a group of very young patients receiving a variety of medications. Which concept guides the nurse's care of these patients? a. Drugs given intravenously (IV) leave the body more quickly in infants than in adults. b. Drugs given subcutaneously (SC) remain in the body longer in infants than in adults. c. Gastric emptying time is shorter in infants than in children and adults. d. The blood-brain barrier protects the infant's brain from toxic drugs.
b
The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute as a result of a large dose of pain medication. Which term most accurately describes this reaction? a. Side effect b. Toxicity c. Allergic reaction d. Idiosyncratic effect
b
The nurse is caring for a patient with epilepsy who is on anticonvulsant therapy and is also breast-feeding. Which patient teaching instruction should minimize the risk to the baby? a. "Give the dose just before breast-feeding." b. "Avoid drugs that have a long half-life." c. "Discontinue the drug until you have stopped breast-feeding." d. "Increase your fluid intake."
b
The nurse is preparing to give a medication for pain. The label states that the drug is "lipid soluble." How soon should the nurse expect to observe the effects of the drug? a. slowly b. rapidly c. unpredictability d. variably
b
The nurse teaches a patient not to consume alcohol with nitroglycerine, because the blood pressure often drops significantly when the nitroglycerine is taken with alcohol. Which drug property does this illustrate? a. chemical stability b. drug interaction c. reversible action d. drug selectivity
b
The nurse will monitor which laboratory result closely when administering medications to an older adult patient while assessing for adverse drug reactions (ADRs)? a. Serum creatinine levels b. Creatinine clearance c. Serum albumin levels d. Liver function tests
b
What is the Beers list? a. Drugs with a low likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults b. Drugs with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults c. Drugs with zero likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults d. Drugs that are recommended to be used for older adults
b
When questioning a patient about his or her allergic reaction to a drug, the nurse should ask for which additional information? a. the dose taken b. the type of reaction c. who gave the drug d. what was eaten with the drug
b
When studying the effects of drugs in humans, the nurse is learning about what? a. pharmacology b. clinical pharmacology c. therapeutics d. effectiveness
b
Which aspect of drug therapy indicates to the nurse whether a drug is having a beneficial effect? a. performing a preadministration assessment b. evaluating therapeutic responses c. minimizing adverse effects d. managing toxicity
b
Which statement accurately describes aldosterone? a. aldosterone is a hormone that is secreted when potassium levels are depressed b. aldosterone is a hormone that is secreted when sodium levels are depressed c. aldosterone action is to decrease the retention of sodium d. aldosterone action is to decrease the secretion of potassium
b
Which statement is true regarding human bodily fluids? a. the two main extracellular compartments are interstitial and intracellular b. two thirds of the bodys water is intracellular c. standard total body water is 40% of body weight d. one fourth of the bodys fluid is extracellular
b
Which statement is true with regard to calcium? a. psammona bodies are individual calcium molecules b. dystrophic calcification occurs in chronic tuberculosis c. calcium salts accumulate in healthy, living cells with normal body functions d. metastatic calcification occurs in damaged tissue
b
Which statement regarding body fluid movement is accurate? a. aquaporins block water movement across the membrane b. water moves freely across membrane c. sodium maintains the osmotic balance of ICF space d. potassium is the most abundant ECF ion
b
The appropriate term for fragments of burning or unburned pieces of gunpowder that are embedded in the epidermis is: a. stippling b. blowback c. tattooing d. exit wound
c
The drug the nurse is about to give induces P-glycoprotein (PGP). Which outcome should the nurse expect when this drug is given with other drugs? a. Increased levels of other drugs b. Increased side effects of other drugs c. Reduced absorption of other drugs d. Reduced drug elimination
c
The healthcare provider prescribes a medication that is renally eliminated for a patient with acute renal failure. The nurse recognizes that the patient is at risk for which altered drug response? a. Increased drug excretion b. Decreased drug levels in the blood c. Development of drug toxicity d. Increased tolerance to the medication
c
The nurse demonstrates the concept of maximal efficacy by administering which drug for a headache that the patient describes as a "mild dullness" and as a 2 on a 1 to 10 scale? a. Meperidine [Demerol] b. Pentazocine [Talwin] c. Aspirin d. Morphine sulfate
c
The nurse is caring for a patient who has jaundice, dark urine, malaise, light-colored stools, nausea, and vomiting. What is this patient most likely experiencing? a. An idiosyncratic drug effect on the bone marrow b. Iatrogenic disease of the kidneys c. Drug toxicity of the liver d. An allergic reaction
c
The nurse is monitoring for adverse drug reactions (ADRs) of assigned patients. Which patient is most at risk for the development of drug toxicity? a. A 30-year-old man admitted for altered mental status b. A 55-year-old woman with abnormal arterial blood gas values c. A 70-year-old woman with an elevated creatinine level d. A laboring 25-year-old woman with a positive Homans' sign
c
The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan to a patient prescribed phenobarbital and oral contraceptives which are known to induce CYP isoenzymes. What patient teaching should the nurse include in the discharge plan? a. "Continue taking your medications as prescribed." b. "Condoms are not necessary while taking phenobarbital. It is not an antibiotic." c. "Plan to use another form of birth control while taking phenobarbital." d. "Your dose of birth control pills will be reduced while you are taking phenobarbital."
c
The nurse is preparing to administer a medication with the following order: "Aldomet 250 mg daily." What should the nurse do? a. administer the medication as it was given last time b. administer the medication by mouth c. verify the order with the prescriber d. ask the patient how this medication is usually given
c
The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication. What is the minimum injection time to reduce the risk of harm to a patient? a. 10 second b. 30 second c. 60 second d. 30 minutes
c
The nurse understands that the dose-response relationship is graded and should expect to observe which response? a. once a drug is given, the response is predictably all-or-nothing b. the response is maintained at a specific level when the therapeutic objective is achieved c. as the dosage increases, the response becomes progressively greater d. a graded response is based on relative potency and maximal efficiency
c
The nursing student learns that not all drugs produce effects binding to a receptor. Which drugs do not act through receptors? a. Antacids b. Analgesics c. Antihistamines d. Steroid hormones
c
When discussing hyperchloremia, a correct statement is that it: a. rises with an excess of bicarbonate b. has specific symptoms such as thirst c. is a result of an underlying disorder d. is a primary electrolyte disorder
c
When studying the impact a drug has on the body, the nurse is reviewing what? a. the drugs pharmacokinetics b. the drugs selectivity c. the drugs pharmacodynamics d. the drugs predicability
c
Which drug property is most enhanced by the presence of many different types of receptors throughout the body? a. Potency b. Safety c. Selectivity d. Convenience
c
Which statement about the percentage of oral drug absorption is true? a. The percentage absorbed increases with age. b. The percentage absorbed decreases with age. c. The percentage absorbed does not usually change with age. d. The percentage absorbed severely declines with age.
c
Which statement by a new nurse indicates that further study is indicated? a. effectiveness is the most important property a drug can have b. there is no such thing as a safe drug c. drugs are defined as illegal substances d. there is no such thing as a selective drug; all medications cause side effects
c
Which term describes oxygen failing to reach the blood? a. strangulation b. petechiae c. suffocation d. drowning
c
Which term is commonly used for nonprescription drugs? a. legend b. generic c. over the counter d. pharmaceutical
c
Why does the nurse monitor the patient closely when administering a drug with a low therapeutic index? a. The average lethal dose of the drug is much higher than the therapeutic dose. b. The dose required to produce a therapeutic response in 50% of patients is low. c. The highest dose needed to produce a therapeutic effect is close to the lethal dose. d. There is a low variability of responses to this drug.
c
A new medication becomes available for treatment of a debilitating neurologic disease. What would the nurse expect about the safety of the drug? a. the drug is safe for administration to children b. the drug has been tested in pregnant women c. all possible adverse effects have been identified by animal testing d. the drug has passed the FDA approval process
d
A nursing student is caring for a patient who has been taking morphine sulfate for pain for 2 weeks. The nursing student shows an understanding of pharmacodynamic tolerance by describing it to the instructor in what way? a. "It is a form of tolerance that is a reduction in drug responsiveness brought on by repeated dosing over a short period." b. "It affects the minimum effective concentration." c. "It is a drug response caused by psychologic factors, not by biochemical or physiological properties." d. "It is a condition in which the patient requires increased doses of morphine sulfate to achieve pain relief."
d
A tear or rip of the skin with a jagged and irregular edge is described as a(n): a. abrasion b. incision c. avulsion d. laceration
d
A teratogenic drug, such as methotrexate, is most likely to cause learning deficits during which phase of fetal development? a. Conception through week 2 b. Weeks 3 to 8 c. First trimester d. Second and third trimesters
d
For medications that do not have established pediatric doses, the most common method of extrapolating the appropriate dose is based on which measurement? a. Age b. Weight c. Height/length d. Body surface area
d
For which reason should the nurse follow safe medication administration for intravenous (IV) medications? a. the IV route can result in delayed absorption of the medication b. the IV route results in a delayed onset of action c. Control over the levels of drug in the body is unpredictable d. IV administration is irreversible
d
The appropriate term to identify the nuclear dissolution and destruction of chromatin by action of hydrolytic enzymes is: a. pyknosis b. autolysis c. karyorrhexis d. karyolysis
d
The nurse identifies which as the goal of drug therapy in the treatment of patients? a. cure of disease b. follow up with the prescriber c. correct administration technique d. production of maximum benefit with minimum harm
d
The nurse is caring for a group of older adult patients who are all receiving multiple medications. The nurse understands that it is essential to individualize each patient's therapy. Which is the best rationale for this practice? a. The percentage of drug absorbed often is decreased in older adults. b. Most older adults have decreased body fat and increased lean mass. c. Hepatic metabolism tends to increase in older adults, resulting in decreased drug levels. d. Renal function declines with age, leading to decreased drug excretion.
d
The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed abacavir [Ziagen] to treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. To reduce the potential fatal hypersensitivity reaction, which recommendation is suggested prior to initiating abacavir drug therapy? a. Administer a test dose b. Obtain liver function studies c. Drug skin testing d. Genetic screening
d
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who has chronic asthma. When administering medications to this patient, which of the options should the nurse do? a. Give the medications as ordered, because most drugs do not cross the placenta. b. First assess the creatinine level, because renal blood flow decreases during pregnancy. c. Hold the medications and notify the ordering physician, because drugs that are not known teratogens may not be safe during pregnancy. d. Advise the patient that taking asthma medications during pregnancy improve fetal outcomes.
d
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of penicillin. Before administering the medication, the nurse assesses the patients allergy history. Which aspect of drug therapy does this represent? a. making PRN (as needed) decisions b. evaluating therapeutic effects c. ensuring proper dosage d. identifying his risk patients
d
The nurse is preparing to administer a drug with a high therapeutic index. What does this mean about the drug? a. It is very potent. b. It has a low efficacy. c. It is probably lethal. d. It is relatively safe.
d
