Exam 1 Practice Questions

A nurse is performing a cardiac assessment on a client. Identify the area the nurse should inspect when evaluating the point of maximal impulse. (You will find "Hot Spots" to select in the artwork below. Select only the hotspot that corresponds to your answer.)

D Rationale: Inspection of this location allows the nurse to assess for pulsations of the apex area of the heart, which is considered the apical pulse or point of maximal impulse. The point of maximal impulse is located at the left fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume overload from a cardiovascular disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select All That Apply) a) Jugular vein distension b) Moist crackles c) Postural hypotension d) Increased heart rate e) Fever

a) Jugular vein distention : The increase in venous pressure due to excessive circulating blood volume results in neck vein distention b) Moist crackles : An indicator of pulmonary edema that can quickly lead to death d) Increased heart rate : fluid volume excess, or hypervolemia, is an expansion of fluid volume in the extracellular fluid compartment. This results in increased heart rate and bounding pulses

A nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make? a. Daily alcohol intake b. Intake of dietary protein c. Multivitamin/mineral use d. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives

a. Daily alcohol intake Hypomagnesemia is associated with alcoholism. Protein intake would not have a significant effect on magnesium level. OTC laxatives (such as milk of magnesia) and use of multivitamin/mineral supplements would tend to increase magnesium levels.

A nurse is planning a presentation about hypertension for a community women's group. Which of the following lifestyle modifications should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) A. Limited alcohol intake B. Regular exercise program C. Decreased magnesium intake D. Reduced potassium intake E. Smoking cessation

A / B / E Rationale: Limited alcohol intake is correct. Clients who have hypertension should limit alcohol intake. Regular exercise program is correct. Clients who have hypertension should develop a regular exercise program to help reduce blood pressure. Decreased magnesium intake is incorrect. Low magnesium intake is associated with hypertension and is not a lifestyle modification the nurse should include. Reduced potassium intake is incorrect. Low potassium intake is associated with hypertension and is not a lifestyle modification the nurse should include. Tobacco cessation is correct. Clients who have hypertension should have a goal of tobacco cessation because tobacco use exacerbates hypertension.

A nurse is caring for a client following insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following client statements indicates a potential complication of the insertion procedure? A. "I can't get rid of these hiccups." b. "I feel dizzy when I stand." c. "My incision site stings." d. "I have a headache."

A. "I can't get rid of these hiccups." Rationale:

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is 2 days post-op following a heart transplant. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "you may no longer be able to feel chest pain." b. "your level of activity tolerance will not change." c. "after 6 months, you will no longer need to restrict your sodium intake." d. "you will be able to stop taking immunosuppressants after 12 months."

A. "you may no longer be able to feel chest pain." Rationale: Heart transplant clients usually are no longer able to feel chest pain due to the denervation of the heart.

A nurse is assessing a client who has pulmonary edema related to heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates effective treatment of the client's condition? A. Absence of adventitious breath sounds B. Presence of a nonproductive cough C. Decrease in respiratory rate at rest D. Sao2 86% on room air

A. Absence of adventitious breath sounds Rationale: Adventitious breath sounds occur when there is fluid in the lungs. The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that the pulmonary edema is resolving.

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new laryngectomy. The nurse should tell the client to be careful while bathing to prevent which of the following complications? A. Aspiration of water B. Infection of the stoma C. Bleeding around the stoma D. Skin breakdown around the stoma

A. Aspiration of water The client should be careful during bathing and showering and should avoid swimming due to the risk of aspiration of water. The client should use a shower shield over the stoma when bathing or showering to keep water out of the airway.

A charge nurse receives notification of the admission of a client who is coughing frequently and whose sputum is pink, frothy, and copious. The client has a history of night sweats, anorexia, and weight loss. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Assign the client to a private room with negative-pressure airflow. B. Add contact precautions to the client's plan of care. C. Wear an N95 respirator when entering the client's room. D. Ensure the client's environment provides 4 exchanges of fresh air per minute. E. Institute protective environment precautions as soon as the client arrives on the unit.

A. Assign the client to a private room with negative-pressure airflow. C. Wear an N95 respirator when entering the client's room. This client's history and present status suggest tuberculosis, a communicable infection that mandates a private room with negative-pressure airflow. Airborne precautions will be required, including wearing an N95 respirator when entering the client's room.

A nurse is assessing a client in the emergency room who has a bradydysrhythmia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Confusion B. Friction Rub C. Hypertension D. Dry Skin

A. Confusion Rationale: Bradydysrhythmia can cause decreased systemic perfusion, which can lead to confusion. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's mental status.

A nurse is admitting a client who reports nausea, vomiting, and weakness. The client has dry oral mucous membranes and blood pressure 102/64 mm Hg. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as manifestations of fluid volume deficit? (Select all that apply.) A. Decreased skin turgor B. Concentrated urine C. Bradycardia D. Low‑grade fever E. Tachypnea

A. Decreased skin turgor B. Concentrated urine D. Low‑grade fever E. Tachypnea Decreased skin turgor is a manifestation present with fluid volume deficit. Skin turgor is decreased due to the lack of fluid within the body and results in dryness of the skin. Concentrated urine is a manifestation present with fluid volume deficit. Urine is concentrated due to lack of fluid in the vascular system, causing a decreased profusion of the kidneys and resulting in an increased urine specific gravity. Tachycardia is a manifestation present with fluid volume deficit due to an attempt to maintain a normal blood pressure. Low‑grade fever is a manifestation present with fluid volume deficit. Low‑grade fever is one of the body's ways to maintain homeostasis to compensate for lack of fluid within the body. Tachypnea is a manifestation present with fluid volume deficit. Increased respirations are the body's way to obtain oxygen due to the lack of fluid volume within the body. NCLEX® Connection: Physiological Adaptati

A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperkalemia. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as being associated with this electrolyte imbalance? A. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Heart failure C. Cushing's syndrome D. Thyroidectomy

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis Hyperkalemia, an increase in blood potassium, is a laboratory finding associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.

A nurse is caring for a client who smokes cigarettes and has a new diagnosis of emphysema. How should the nurse assist the client with smoking cessation? A. Discuss ways the client can reduce the number of cigarettes smoked per day B. Suggest the client switch from smoking cigarettes to smoking a pipe C. Inform the client that treatment will be ineffective if smoking continues D. Discourage the use of nicotine gum

A. Discuss ways the client can reduce the number of cigarettes smoked per day The nurse should discuss ways the client can reduce the number of cigarettes smoked per day to assist the client in creating a realistic goal to decrease smoking gradually.

A nurse is admitting an older adult client who reports a weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 48 hr. Which of the following manifestations of fluid volume excess should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) A. Dyspnea B. Edema C. Bradycardia D. Hypertension E. Weakness

A. Dyspnea B. Edema D. Hypertension E. Weakness Dyspnea is a manifestation present with fluid volume excess. Dyspnea is due to an excess of fluids within the body and lungs, and the client is struggling to breathe to obtain oxygen. Edema is a manifestation present with fluid volume excess. Weight gain can be a result of edema. Tachycardia and bounding pulses are manifestations related to fluid volume excess. Hypertension is a manifestation related to fluid volume excess. Blood pressure rises as the heart must work harder due to the excess fluid. Weakness is a manifestation present with fluid volume excess. Weakness is due to the excess fluid that is retained, which depletes ener

A nurse is caring for a client who has dilated cardiomyopathy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Dyspnea on exertion B. Tracheal deviation C. Pericardial rub D. Weight loss

A. Dyspnea on exertion Rationale: The nurse should identify dyspnea on exertion as an expected manifestation of dilated cardiomyopathy. Dyspnea on exertion is due to ventricular compromise and reduced cardiac output.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a blood potassium 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse should assess for which of the following manifestations? A. ECG changes B. Constipation C. Polyuria D. Paresthesia

A. ECG changes Assess for ECG changes. Potassium levels can affect the heart and result in arrhythmias.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is malnourished. Which of the following recommendations to promote nutritional intake should the nurse include in the plan? A. Eat high-calorie foods first B. Increase intake of water at meal times C. Perform active range-of-motion exercises before meals D. Keep saltine crackers nearby for snacking

A. Eat high-calorie foods first Clients who have COPD often experience early satiety. Therefore, the client should eat calorie-dense foods first.

A nurse is preparing a client for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Explain that the client will receive sedation and will not remember the procedure. B. Verify that the client understands the purpose and nature of the procedure. C. Offer the client sips of clear liquids until 1 hr before the test. D. Obtain a pre-procedural sputum specimen. E. Instruct the client to keep his neck in a neutral position.

A. Explain that the client will receive sedation and will not remember the procedure. B. Verify that the client understands the purpose and nature of the procedure. For a bronchoscopy, clients typically receive premedication with a benzodiazepine or an opioid to ensure sedation and amnesia. The client will have signed a consent form, so the nurse should verify that the provider explained the procedure and that the client understands it.

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assessing a client who recently transferred from the ICU following endotracheal extubation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible manifestation of tracheal stenosis and report to the provider? A. Increased coughing B. Diaphragmatic breathing C. Hemoptysis D. Kussmaul respirations

A. Increased coughing The nurse should identify increased coughing as a manifestation of tracheal stenosis. Other manifestations include an inability to cough up secretions and difficulty talking or breathing.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and develops acute respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Initiate bag-valve-mask ventilation B. Provide the client with a communication board C. Obtain a blood sample for ABG analysis D. Document the ventilator settings

A. Initiate bag-valve-mask ventilation The nurse should apply the ABC priority-setting framework, which emphasizes the basic core of human functioning: having an open airway, being able to breathe in adequate amounts of oxygen, and circulating oxygen to the body's organs via the blood. An alteration in any of these areas can indicate a threat to life and is the nurse's priority concern. When applying the ABC priority-setting framework, airway is always the highest priority because the airway must be clear for oxygen exchange to occur. Breathing is the second-highest priority because adequate ventilatory effort is essential in order for oxygen exchange to occur. Circulation is the third-highest priority because the delivery of oxygen to critical organs only occurs if the heart and blood vessels are capable of efficiently carrying oxygen to them. Therefore, the nurse should first provide ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The nurse should plan to monitor for and report which of the following findings to the provider immediately? A. Slurred speech B. Irregular pulse C. Dependent edema D. Persistent fatigue

A. Slurred speech Rationale: The greatest risk to this client is injury from an embolus caused by the pooling of blood that can occur with atrial fibrillation. Slurred speech can indicate inadequate circulation to the brain because of an embolus. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately.

A nurse is caring for a client immediately following extubation. Which of the following manifestations indicates that the nurse should call the rapid response team? A. Stridor B. Coughing C. Hoarseness D. Extensive oral secretions

A. Stridor The nurse should identify that stridor (a high-pitched crowing sound heard during inspiration) is caused by laryngeal edema and can indicate impending airway obstruction. The nurse should call the rapid response team for assistance before the airway becomes completely obstructed.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a blood sodium level 133 mEq/L and blood potassium level 3.4 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that which of the following treatments can result in these laboratory findings? A. Three tap water enemas B. 0.9% sodium chloride solution IV at 50 mL/hr C. 5% dextrose with 0.45% sodium chloride solution with 20 mEq of K+ IV at 80 mL/hr D. Antibiotic therapy

A. Three tap water enemas Three tap water enemas can result in a decrease in blood sodium and potassium. Tap water is hypotonic, and gastrointestinal losses are isotonic. This creates an imbalance and solute dilution.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client about pulmonary function testing. Which of the following tests measures the volume of air the lungs can hold at the end of maximum inhalation? A. Total lung capacity B. Vital lung capacity C. Functional residual capacity D. Residual volume

A. Total lung capacity Pulmonary function tests are used to examine the effectiveness of the lungs and to identify lung problems. Total lung capacity measures the amount of air the lungs can hold after maximum inhalation.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching about improving gas exchange for a client who has emphysema. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea B. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day C. Practice chest breathing each day D. Wear home oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of at least 94%

A. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea The nurse should instruct the client about using pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea to slow expiration, increase airway pressure, and facilitate effective gas exchange.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has heart failure. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately to the provider? A. Weight gain of 2 lb. in 24 hr b. Increase of 10 mmhg in systolic BP c. Dyspnea with exertion d. Dizziness when rising quickly

A. Weight gain of 2 lb. in 24 hr Rationale: When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is a weight gain of 0.5 to 0.9 kg (1.1 to 2 lb) in 1 day. This weight gain is an indication of fluid retention resulting from worsening heart failure. The client should report this finding immediately.

a nurse receives prescriptions from the provider for performing nasopharyngeal suctioning on 4 clients. for which of the following clients should the nurse clarify the provider's prescription? A.) A client who has epistaxis B.) A client who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C.) A client who has pneumonia D.) A client who has emphysema

A.) A client who has epistaxis rationale: The nurse should avoid providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has nasal bleeding because this intervention might cause an increase in bleeding.

a nurse is caring for 4 clients. which of the following clients is at greatest risk for a pulmonary embolism? A.) A client who is 48 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty B.) A client who is 8 hr postoperative following an open surgical appendectomy C.) A client who is 2 hr postoperative following an open reduction external fixation of the right radius D.) A client who is 4 hr postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy

A.) A client who is 48 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty rationale: The nurse should identify that a client who has undergone a total hip arthroplasty surgery is at greatest risk for a pulmonary embolus because of decreased mobility of the affected extremity and an increased amount of blood clots forming in the veins of the thigh following hip surgery. Deep-vein thromboses are most likely to occur 48 to 72 hr following the arthroplasty. The nurse should intervene to reduce the risk by applying sequential compression devices or antiembolic stockings and by administering anticoagulant medications.

a nurse developing a plan of care for a client who has active TB. which of the following isolation precautions should the nurse include in the plan? A.) Airborne B.) Neutropenic C.) Contact D.) Droplet

A.) Airborne rationale: The nurse should initiate airborne precautions for a client who has tuberculosis because tuberculosis is a respiratory infection that is spread through the air. The client should be placed in a room with negative airflow pressure that is filtered through a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter. Members of the health care team should not enter the client's room without wearing an N95 respirator mask.

a nurse in an ED is caring for a client who's experiencing a pulmonary embolism. which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A.) Apply supplemental oxygen. B.) Increase the rate of IV fluids. C.) Administer pain medication. D.) Initiate cardiac monitoring.

A.) Apply supplemental oxygen. rationale: When using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the greatest risk to the client is severe hypoxemia. Therefore, the first action the nurse should take is to apply supplemental oxygen.

a nurse is assessing a client who has lung cancer. which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? A.) Blood-tinged sputum B.) Decreased tactile fremitus C.) Resonance with percussion D.) Peripheral edema

A.) Blood-tinged sputum rationale: The nurse should expect blood-tinged sputum secondary to bleeding from the tumor.

a nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a bronchoscopy with the use of moderate sedation. the nurse should identify that which of the following assessments if the priority? A.) presence of gag reflex B.) pain level rating using 0 to 10 scale C.) hydration status D.) appearance of the IV insertion site

A.) presence of gag reflex rationale: The greatest risk to the client is aspiration due to a depressed gag reflex. Therefore, the priority assessment by the nurse is to determine the return of the gag reflex.

A nurse is reviewing the ECG rhythm strip of a client who is receiving telemetry. Identify the area of the strip the nurse should examine to observe for atrial depolarization. (You will find "Hot Spots" to select in the artwork below. Select only the hotspot that corresponds to your answer.)

A: P wave Rationale: you observe the p wave for atrial depolarization.......so thats A.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has emphysema. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Be sure to take cough medicine to avoid coughing." B. "Try to drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluid per day." C. "Try to reduce your smoking to 2 cigarettes per day." D. "Be sure to eat 3 full meals each day."

B. "Try to drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluid per day." Although adequate hydration is essential for all clients, clients who have emphysema should drink 2 to 3 L per day to help liquefy secretions.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy and is receiving mechanical ventilation. When the low-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, it indicates which of the following to the nurse? A. Excessive airway secretions B. A leak within the ventilator's circuitry C. Decreased lung compliance D. The client coughing or attempting to talk

B. A leak within the ventilator's circuitry The low-pressure alarm means that either the ventilator tubing has come apart or the tubing detached from the client. Low-pressure alarms are often the result of a malfunction or displacement of connections somewhere between the endotracheal or tracheostomy tube and the ventilator.

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client about preventing acute asthma attacks. Which of the following points should the nurse plan to discuss first? A. Eliminating environmental triggers that precipitate attacks B. Addressing the client's perception of the disease process and what might have triggered past attacks C. Overviewing the client's medication regimen D. Explaining manifestations of respiratory infections

B. Addressing the client's perception of the disease process and what might have triggered past attacks The nurse should apply the nursing process priority-setting framework to plan client care and prioritize nursing actions. Each step of the nursing process builds on the previous step, beginning with an assessment. Before the nurse can formulate a plan of action, implement a nursing intervention, or notify a provider of a change in the client's status, the nurse must first collect adequate data from the client. Assessing the client will provide the nurse with the knowledge to make an appropriate decision. Therefore, the nurse should first assess the client's current knowledge.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and reports increased shortness of breath. The nurse increases the oxygen per protocol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Obtain the client's weight. B. Assist the client into high-Fowler's position. C. Auscultate lung sounds. D. Check oxygen saturation with pulse oximeter.

B. Assist the client into high-Fowler's position.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute opioid toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority? A. Insert a large-bore IV catheter B. Ensure an adequate airway C. Obtain an accurate medication history D. Prepare to administer an antagonist

B. Ensure an adequate airway The first action the nurse should take when using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) approach to client care is to ensure the client's airway is adequate, as respiratory depression is a manifestation of opioid toxicity.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suctioning. The nurse should monitor for which of the following electrolyte imbalances? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperphosphatemia D. Hyperkalemia

B. Hyponatremia Monitor the client for hyponatremia. Nasogastric losses are isotonic and contain sodium.

A nurse on a medical unit is caring for a client who aspirated gastric contents prior to admission. The nurse administers 100% oxygen by nonrebreather mask after the client reports severe dyspnea. Which of the following findings is a clinical manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A. Tympanic temperature 38°C (100.4°F) B. PaO2 50 mmHg C. Rhonchi D. Hypopnea

B. PaO2 50 mmHg This client who has manifestations of ARDS has a low PaO2 level, even after the administration of oxygen. Hypoxemia after treatment with oxygen is a manifestation of ARDS.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has a prescription for the transdermal nitroglycerin patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Apply the new patch to the same site as the previous patch. B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints. C. Keep the patch on 24 hr per day. D. Replace the patch at the onset of angina.

B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints. Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to apply the patch to an area of intact skin with enough room for the patch to fit smoothly.

A nurse is providing instructions about pursed-lip breathing for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with emphysema. This breathing technique accomplishes which of the following? A. Increases oxygen intake B. Promotes carbon dioxide elimination C. Uses the intercostal muscles D. Strengthens the diaphragm

B. Promotes carbon dioxide elimination A client who has COPD with emphysema should use pursed-lip breathing when experiencing dyspnea. This simple method slows the client's pace of breathing, making each breath more effective. Pursed-lip breathing releases trapped air in the lungs and prolongs exhalation in order to slow the breathing rate. This improved breathing pattern moves carbon dioxide out of the lungs more efficiently.

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with pneumonia. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following acid-base imbalances? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis

B. Respiratory acidosis Respiratory acidosis is a common complication of COPD. This complication occurs because clients who have COPD are unable to exhale carbon dioxide due to a loss of elastic recoil in the lungs.

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted for a treatment of left-sided heart failure with intravenous loop diuretics and digitalis therapy. The client is experiencing weakness and an irregular heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Obtain clients current weight B. Review serum electrolyte values C. Determine the time of the last digoxin dose D. Check the clients urine output)

B. Review serum electrolyte values Rationale: Weakness and irregular heart rate indicate that the client is at the greatest risk for electrolyte imbalance, an adverse effect of loop diuretics. The first action the nurse should take is to review the client's electrolyte values, particularly the potassium level, because the client is at risk for dysrhythmias from hypokalemia.

a charge nurse is reviewing the care of a client who has a chest tube connected to a water seal drainage system in a place following thoracic surgery w/ newly licensed nurse. which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of when to notify the provider? A.) "I will notify the provider if there is a fluctuation of drainage in the tubing with inspiration." B.) "I will notify the provider if there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber." C.) "I will notify the provider if there is drainage of 60 milliliters in the first hour after surgery." D.) "I will notify the provider if there are several small, dark-red blood clots in the tubing."

B.) "I will notify the provider if there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber." rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber suggests an air leak and requires notification of the provider. The nurse should check the system for external, correctable leaks while waiting for instructions from the provider.

a charge nurse is providing an in-service to a group of staff nurses about endotracheal suctioning. which of the following statements by a staff nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching? A.) "I will use clean technique when suctioning a client's endotracheal tube." B.) "I will use a rotating motion when removing the suction catheter." C.) "I will suction the oropharyngeal cavity prior to suctioning the endotracheal tube." D.) "I will suction a client's endotracheal tube every 2 hours."

B.) "I will use a rotating motion when removing the suction catheter." rationale: The nurse should rotate the suction catheter during withdrawal to remove secretions from the sides of the airway.

a nurse is assessing a client who's 4 hr postoperative following a total laryngectomy. which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider? A.) Bleeding at the surgical site B.) Decreased oxygen saturation C.) Urinary retention D.) Increased pain level

B.) Decreased oxygen saturation rationale: When using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the nurse should identify decreased oxygen saturation as the priority finding to address and report to the provider. A client who is postoperative following a total laryngectomy is at higher risk for hypoxia because of airway obstruction.

a nurse is assessing a client who has emphysema. which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A.) Rhonchi on inspiration B.) Elevated temperature C.) Barrel-shaped chest D.) Diminished breath sounds

B.) Elevated temperature rationale: The nurse should report an elevated temperature to the provider because it can indicate a possible respiratory infection. Clients who have emphysema are at risk for the development of pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

a nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has emphysema. the nurse should place the client in which of the following positions to promote effective breathing? A.) Lateral position with a pillow at the back and over the chest to support the arm B.) High-Fowler's position with the arms supported on the overbed table C.) Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting both arms D.) Supine position with the head of the bed elevated to 15°

B.) High-Fowler's position with the arms supported on the overbed table rationale: The nurse should place the client in a position that allows for greater expansion of the chest, such as sitting upright and leaning slightly forward while supporting both arms with pillows for comfort on the overbed table.

a nurse is caring for a client who's in respiratory distress. which of the following low-flow delivery devices should the nurse use to provide the client w/ highest level of oxygen? A.) Nasal cannula B.) Nonrebreather mask C.) Simple face mask D.) Partial rebreather mask

B.) Nonrebreather mask rationale: The nurse should use a nonrebreather mask for a client who is in respiratory distress to provide the highest oxygen level. A nonrebreather mask is made up of a reservoir bag from which the client obtains the oxygen, a one-way valve to prevent exhaled air from entering the reservoir bag, and exhalation ports with flaps that prevent room air from entering the mask. This device delivers greater than 90% FiO2.

a nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has COPD. which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider? A.) Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter B.) Productive cough with green sputum C.) Clubbing of the fingers D.) Pursed-lip breathing with exertion

B.) Productive cough with green sputum rationale: When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is a productive cough with green sputum. The nurse should report this finding to the provider because it can indicate infection.

A nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a client who has COPD. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of impending respiratory failure? A. Wheezing B. Bradypnea C. Tachycardia D. Diaphoresis

C. Tachycardia Tachycardia, dyspnea, restlessness, headaches, and increased blood pressure are indications of impending respiratory failure.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a chronic cough and is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I can keep my dentures in during the procedure." B. "I am allowed only clear liquids prior to the procedure." C. "A tissue sample might be obtained during the procedure." D. "A signed consent form is not required for this procedure."

C. "A tissue sample might be obtained during the procedure." The nurse should inform the client that a tissue sample might be obtained during the procedure for biopsy testing.

A nurse is teaching breathing techniques to a client who has emphysema. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the mechanics of pursed-lip breathing? A. "I'll inhale slowly through pursed lips to help me breathe better." B. "When I do my pursed-lip breathing, I'll lie down first." C. "When I breathe out through pursed lips, my airways don't collapse between breaths." D. "I'll relax my stomach muscles when I am doing my pursed-lip breathing exercises."

C. "When I breathe out through pursed lips, my airways don't collapse between breaths." Breathing through pursed lips slows exhalation and maintains inflation of the distal airways, which enhances respiration for clients who have emphysema. The client should use this technique during physical activity and episodes of dyspnea.

A nurse in a clinic is providing teaching for a client who is scheduled to have a tuberculin skin test. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include? A. "If the test is positive, it means you have an active case of tuberculosis." B. "If the test is positive, you should have another tuberculin skin test in 3 weeks." C. "You must return to the clinic to have the test read in 2 or 3 days." D. "A nurse will use a small lancet to scratch the skin of your forearm before applying the tuberculin substance."

C. "You must return to the clinic to have the test read in 2 or 3 days." The client should have the skin test read in 2 to 3 days. An area of induration after 48 to 72 hours indicates exposure to the tubercle bacillus. If the client does not return to have the test read within 72 hours, another tuberculin skin test is necessary.

A nurse is caring for a client who presents to the ER with a BP of 254/138 mmhg. The nurse recognizes that the client is in a hypertensive crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Initiate seizure precautions. B. Tell the client to report vision changes C. Elevate the head of the clients bed D. Start a peripheral IV

C. Elevate the head of the clients bed Rationale: The greatest risk to this client is organ injury due to severe hypertension. Therefore, the first action the nurse should take is to elevate the head of the client's bed to reduce blood pressure and promote oxygenation.

A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who is experiencing thick oral secretions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Provide chest physiotherapy B. Perform oropharyngeal suction C. Encourage deep-breathing and coughing D. Assist the client with ambulation

C. Encourage deep-breathing and coughing The first action the nurse should take when using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) approach is to encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough to clear secretions from the airway.

A nurse is caring for a client for whom the respiratory therapist has just removed the endotracheal tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Instruct the client to cough B. Administer oxygen via face mask C. Evaluate the client for stridor D. Keep the client in a semi- to high-Fowler's position

C. Evaluate the client for stridor The first action the nurse should take using the nursing process is to assess the client. After extubation, the nurse should continuously evaluate the client's respiratory status. Stridor is a high-pitched sound during inspiration that indicates laryngospasm or swelling around the glottis. Stridor reflects a narrowed airway and might require emergency reintubation.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a 20-year history of COPD and is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client is dyspneic and has an oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry of 85%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Place a nonrebreather mask on the client and increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min B. Prepare the client for possible endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation C. Increase the oxygen flow and request an arterial blood gas determination D. Position the client supine and administer an antianxiety medication

C. Increase the oxygen flow and request an arterial blood gas determination The client requires oxygen therapy at a rate that will keep the oxygen saturation between 88% and 92%. The nurse should increase the client's oxygen flow and evaluate its effectiveness with ABG results and oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry measurements.

A nurse is admitting a client who has a leg ulcer and a history of DM. The nurse should use which of the following focused assessments to help differentiate between an arterial ulcer and a venous stasis ulcer? A. Explore the clients family history of peripheral vascular disease B. Note the presence or absence of pain at the ulcer site C. Inquire about the presence or absence of claudication D. Ask if the client has had a recent infection

C. Inquire about the presence or absence of claudication Rationale: Knowing if the client is experiencing claudication helps differentiate venous from arterial ulcers. Clients who have arterial ulcers experience claudication, but those who have venous ulcers do not.

A nurse is assessing a client who has pharyngitis. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority to report to the provider? A. Elevated temperature B. Swollen cervical lymph nodes C. Inspiratory stridor D. Purulent nasal discharge

C. Inspiratory stridor When using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is inspiratory stridor, which is a manifestation of airway obstruction. The nurse should notify the rapid response team and administer humidified oxygen.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a positive tuberculin skin test. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has active tuberculosis? A. Rhinitis B. Air hunger C. Night sweats D. Weight gain

C. Night sweats Manifestations of active tuberculosis include a fever, coughing, night sweats, anorexia, and fatigue.

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who states he was recently exposed to tuberculosis. Which of the following findings is a clinical manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis? A. Pericardial friction rub B. Weight gain C. Night sweats D. Cyanosis of the fingertips

C. Night sweats Night sweats and fevers are clinical manifestations of tuberculosis.

A nurse is preparing to assist a provider with an arterial blood withdrawal from a client's radial artery for ABG measurement. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. Hyperventilate the client with 100% oxygen prior to obtaining the specimen B. Apply ice to the site after obtaining the specimen C. Perform an Allen's test prior to obtaining the specimen D. Release the pressure applied to the puncture site 1 min after the needle is withdrawn

C. Perform an Allen's test prior to obtaining the specimen The nurse should ensure that circulation to the hand is adequate from the ulnar artery in case the radial artery is injured from the blood draw. The most common site for withdrawal of arterial blood gases is the radial artery.

A nurse is caring for a client who is extremely anxious and is hyperventilating. The client's ABG results are pH 7.50, PaCO2 27 mmHg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should identify that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Respiratory alkalosis Because of rapid breathing, the client is exhaling excessive amounts of carbon dioxide. This loss of carbon dioxide decreases the hydrogen ion level of the blood, which causes the pH to increase and results in respiratory alkalosis.

A nurse is assessing a client for Chvostek's sign. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use to perform this test? A. Apply a blood pressure cuff to the client's arm. B. Place the stethoscope bell over the client's carotid artery. C. Tap lightly on the client's cheek. D. Ask the client to lower their chin to their chest.

C. Tap lightly on the client's cheek. Tap the client's cheek over the facial nerve just below and anterior to the ear to elicit Chvostek's sign. A positive response is indicated when the client exhibits facial twitching on this side of the face.

A nurse is planning care for a client following placement of a chest tube 1 hr ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Clamp the chest tube if there is continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber B. Keep the chest tube drainage system at the level of the right atrium C. Tape all connections between the chest tube and drainage system D. Empty the collection chamber and record the amount of drainage every 8 hr

C. Tape all connections between the chest tube and drainage system The nurse should tape all connections to ensure that the system is airtight and prevent the chest tubing from accidentally disconnecting.

A nurse is caring for a client in the first hour following an aortic aneurysm repair. Which of the following findings can indicate shock and should be reported to the provider? A. Serosanguinous drainage on dressing B. Severe pain with coughing C. Urine output of 20 ml/hr D. Increase in temp from 36.C (98.2F)- 37.5C (99.5F)

C. Urine output of 20 ml/hr Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is a manifestation of shock. Urine output is decreased due to a compensatory decreased blood flow to the kidneys, hypovolemia, or graft thrombosis or rupture.

a nurse is caring for a client who's in acute respiratory failure and is receiving mechanical ventilation. which of the following assessments is the best method for the nurse to use to determine the effectiveness of the current treatment regimen? A.) Blood pressure B.) Capillary refill C.) Arterial blood gases D.) Hear rate

C.) Arterial blood gases rationale: When using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the nurse should place priority on evaluating arterial blood gases to determine serum oxygen saturation and acid-base balance.

A nurse is caring for a client who's receiving mechanical ventilation when the low-pressure alarm sounds. which of the following situations should the nurse recognize as a possible cause of the alarm? A.) Excess secretions B.) Kinks in the tubing C.) Artificial airway cuff leak D.) Biting on the endotracheal tube

C.) Artificial airway cuff leak rationale: An artificial airway cuff leak interferes with oxygenation and causes the low-pressure alarm to sound.

a nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following a lobectomy. which of the following items should the nurse keep easily accessible for the client? A.) Extra drainage system B.) Suture removal kit C.) Container of sterile water D.) Non adherent pads

C.) Container of sterile water rationale: The nurse should have a container of sterile water in a location that is easily accessible for this client. The nurse should plan to place the open end of the tubing into the sterile water if the tubing becomes disconnected to prevent a pneumothorax.

a nurse is caring for a client who's 1 hr postoperative following a thoracentesis. which of the following is the priority assessment finding? A.) Pallor B.) Insertion site pain C.) Persistent cough D.) Temperature 37.3° C (99.1° F)

C.) Persistent cough rationale: When using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is a persistent cough because this can indicate a tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency.

a nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who has COPD. which of the following interventions should the nurse include? A.) Schedule respiratory treatments following meals. B.) Have the client sit up in a chair for 2-hr periods three times per day. C.) Provide a diet that is high in calories and protein. D.) Combine activities to allow for longer rest periods between activities.

C.) Provide a diet that is high in calories and protein. rationale: The nurse should provide a client who has COPD with a diet that is high in calories and protein and low in carbohydrates.

a nurse is caring for a client who has asthma and is receiving albuterol. for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor the client? A.) Hyperkalemia B.) Dyspnea C.) Tachycardia D.) Candidiasis

C.) Tachycardia rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of this medication, especially if the client uses albuterol on a regular basis.

a nurse is assessing a client who has bacterial pneumonia. which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? A.) decreased fremitus B.) SaO2 95% on room air C.) temperature 38.8° C (101.8° F) D.) bradypnea

C.) temperature 38.8° C (101.8° F) rationale: An elevated temperature is an expected finding for a client who has bacterial pneumonia.

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft in 2 hr. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further clarification by the nurse? A. "My arthritis is really bothering me because I haven't taken my aspiring in a week." b. "My blood pressure shouldn't be high because I took my BP medication this morning." c. "I took my warfarin last night according to my usually schedule." d. "I will check my BP because I took a reduced dose of insulin this morning."

C: "I took my warfarin last night according to my usually schedule." Rationale: Clients who are scheduled for a CABG should not take anticoagulants, such as warfarin, for several days prior to the surgery to prevent excessive bleeding.

A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client who will undergo a total laryngectomy. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the impact of the surgery? A. "I'm not going to be able to cough for a while after the surgery." B. "After I recover from the anesthesia, I'll be able to eat regular food again." C. "After the surgery, my voice will gradually return but might be weak." D. "I understand that I will have a permanent tracheostomy after the surgery."

D. "I understand that I will have a permanent tracheostomy after the surgery." With a partial laryngectomy, the tracheostomy is temporary. This client will have a total laryngectomy, so the tracheostomy will be permanent.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a rhinoplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Apply warm compresses to the face." B. "Take aspirin 650 mg by mouth for mild pain." C. "Close your mouth when sneezing." D. "Lie on your back with your head elevated 30° when resting."

D. "Lie on your back with your head elevated 30° when resting." The nurse should instruct the client to rest in the semi-Fowler's position to prevent aspiration of nasal secretions.

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who had an anterior MI. The client's history reveals she is 1 week post-op open cholecystectomy. The nurse should recognize that which of the following interventions is contraindicated? A. Administering IV morphine sulfate B. Administering oxygen at 2:/min via nasal cannula C. Helping the client to the bedside commode D. Assisting with thrombolytic therapy

D. Assisting with thrombolytic therapy Rationale: The nurse should recognize that major surgery within the previous 3 weeks is a contraindication for thrombolytic therapy.

A nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a bronchoscopy. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's monitoring priority? A. Measuring heart rate B. Palpating peripheral pulses C. Observing sputum for blood D. Confirming the gag reflex

D. Confirming the gag reflex The greatest risk to the client's safety is aspiration resulting from a depressed gag reflex. The nurse's priority is to make sure the client's gag reflex has returned before discharge so that the client can maintain hydration and nutrition without risk.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of DVT and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following client findings provides the nurse with the best evidence regarding the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy? A. Hemoglobin 14 g/dl B. Minimal bruising of extremities C. Decreased Blood pressure D. INR 2.0

D. INR 2.0 Rationale: The nurse should identify that an INR of 2.0 is within the desired reference range of 2.0 to 3.0 for a client who has a deep-vein thrombosis and is receiving warfarin to reduce the risk of new clot formation and a stroke.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. The nurse notes that the chest tube has become disconnected from the chest drainage system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Place the drainage system at the head of the client's bed B. Increase the suction to the chest drainage system C. Place the client on low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula D. Immerse the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water

D. Immerse the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water If the chest tube and drainage system have become disconnected, air can enter the pleural space, producing a pneumothorax that can result in severe respiratory distress. To prevent a pneumothorax from developing, a temporary water seal can be established by immersing the end of the chest tube in an open bottle of sterile water. This allows air to escape and not enter the pleural space. A bottle of sterile water should always be readily available at the bedside for a client who has a chest tube.

A nurse is caring for a client in a long‑term care facility who has become weak, confused, and experienced dizziness when standing. The client's temperature is 38.3° C (100.9° F), pulse 92/min, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 108/60 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Initiate fluid restrictions to limit intake. B. Check for peripheral edema. C. Encourage the client to ambulate to promote oxygenation. D. Monitor for orthostatic hypotension.

D. Monitor for orthostatic hypotension. Monitor for orthostatic hypotension because they have manifestations of dehydration Offer fluids when the client has manifestations of dehydration. Monitor for poor skin turgor when the client has manifestations of fluid volume deficit. Keep the client in bed and assist them to the bathroom as needed because they are at risk for falling due to manifestations of dehydration.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. In the client's medical record, the nurse notes a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following oxygen-delivery methods should the nurse plan to use for this client? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Bag-valve-mask device D. Nasal cannula

D. Nasal cannula A nasal cannula delivers precise concentrations of oxygen; therefore, it is an appropriate device for a client who has COPD and requires a precise percentage of inspired oxygen.

A nurse is auscultating the lungs of a client who is having an acute asthma attack. Which of the following sounds should the nurse expect to hear? A. Soft blowing B. Loud bubbling C. Dry grating D. Noisy wheezing

D. Noisy wheezing Asthma causes the bronchioles of the lungs to constrict, creating a wheezing sound.

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing shortness of breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? A. Monitor the client's arterial blood gas results B. Instruct the client to perform controlled coughing C. Teach the client how to use pursed-lip breathing D. Place the client in an upright position

D. Place the client in an upright position Using the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) approach to client care, the nurse should place the client in an upright position to facilitate chest expansion and proper diaphragmatic contraction. Positioning the client upright will also assist with mobilizing secretions that might be impeding airflow.

A nurse is preparing a client for coronary angiography. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider prior to the procedure? A. Hemoglobin 14.4 g/dl b. History of peripheral arterial disease. c. Urine output 200 ml/4 hr. D. Previous allergic reaction to shellfish

D. Previous allergic reaction to shellfish Rationale: The contrast medium used for coronary angiography is iodine-based. Clients who have a history of allergic reaction to shellfish often react to iodine and might need a steroid or antihistamine prior to the procedure.

A nurse in the PACU is assessing a newly admitted client and observes intercostal retractions and a high-pitched inspiratory sound. The nurse should identify these findings as manifestations of which of the following complications? A. Pulmonary edema B. Tension pneumothorax C. Flail chest D. Respiratory obstruction

D. Respiratory obstruction Intercostal retractions and a high-pitched inspiratory noise (i.e. stridor) are manifestations of an airway obstruction caused by laryngospasm and edema. The nurse should notify the rapid response team and plan to administer racemic epinephrine.

A nurse is preparing a client for thoracentesis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client? A. Lying flat on the affected side B. Prone with the arms raised over the head C. Supine with the head of the bed elevated D. Sitting while leaning forward over the bedside table

D. Sitting while leaning forward over the bedside table When preparing a client for thoracentesis, the nurse should have the client sit on the edge of the bed and lean forward over the bedside table. This position maximizes the space between the client's ribs and allows aspiration of accumulated fluid and air.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy and develops hematuria. Which one of the following actions should the nurse take if the clients aPTTis 96 seconds? A. Increase the heparin infusion flow rate by 2 ml/hr B. Continue to monitor the heparin infusion as prescribed C. Request a prothrombin time D. Stop the heparin infusion

D. Stop the heparin infusion Rationale: The nurse should identify that the client's aPTT is above the critical value and the client is displaying manifestations of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should discontinue the heparin infusion immediately and notify the provider to reduce the risk of client injury.

A nurse is assessing a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Moist skin B. Distended neck veins C. Increased urinary output D. Tachycardia

D. Tachycardia Tachycardia is an attempt to maintain blood. Moist skin is a manifestation of fluid volume excess. Distended neck veins are a manifestation of fluid volume excess. Increased urinary output is a manifestation of fluid volume excess.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy with an inflated cuff in place. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should suction the client's airway secretions? A. The client is unable to speak. B. The client's airway secretions were last suctioned 2 hr ago. C. The client coughs and expectorates a large mucous plug. D. The nurse auscultates coarse crackles in the lung fields.

D. The nurse auscultates coarse crackles in the lung fields. The nurse should auscultate coarse crackles or rhonchi, identify a moist cough, hear or see secretions in the tracheostomy tube, and then suction the client's airway secretions.

A nurse is caring for a client who has endocarditis. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as a potential complication? A. Ventricular depolarization B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. Valvular disease

D. Valvular disease Rationale: Valvular disease or damage often occurs as a result of inflammation or infection of the endocardium.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect? A. pH 7.31, HCO3- 22 mEq/L, PaCO2 50 mmHg B. pH 7.48, HCO3- 23 mEq/L, PaCO2 25 mmHg C. pH 7.32, HCO3- 18 mEq/L, PaCO2 40 mmHg D. pH 7.49, HCO3- 32 mEq/L, PaCO2 40 mmHg

D. pH 7.49, HCO3- 32 mEq/L, PaCO2 40 mmHg The nurse should identify that these laboratory values reflect metabolic alkalosis. The pH and bicarbonate values are greater than the expected reference range, and the PaCO2 is within the expected reference range.

a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic asthma and a new prescription for montelukast. which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A.) "I will monitor my heart rate every day while taking this medication." B.) "I will make sure I have this medication with me at all times." C.) "I will need to carefully rinse my mouth after I take this medication." D.) "I will take this medication every night even if I don't have symptoms."

D.) "I will take this medication every night even if I don't have symptoms." rationale: Montelukast is used for the prophylactic treatment of asthma and is taken on a daily basis in the evening.

a nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism. which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority? A.) Provide a quiet environment B.) Encourage use of incentive spirometer every 1-2 hrs C.) Obtain blood sample for electrolyte study D.) Administer heparin via continuous IV infusion

D.) Administer heparin via continuous IV infusion rationale: When using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the nurse should place priority on stabilizing circulation to the lungs by administering heparin to prevent further clot formation. Therefore, this is the priority intervention.

a nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A.) Decreased bowel sounds B.) Oxygen saturation 92% C.) CO2 24 mEq/L D.) Intercostal retractions

D.) Intercostal retractions rationale: The nurse should report intercostal retractions to the provider because this finding indicates increasing respiratory compromise in a client who has ARDS.

a nurse in an ED is caring for a client who's experiencing acute respiratory failure. which of the following lab findings should the nurse expect? A.) Arterial pH 7.50 B.) PaCO2 25 mm Hg C.) SaO2 92% D.) PaO2 58 mm Hg

D.) PaO2 58 mm Hg rationale: The nurse should expect the client to have lower partial pressures of oxygen.

a nurse working in an ED is caring for a client following an acute chest trauma. which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is possibly experiencing a tension pneumothorax? A.) Collapsed neck veins on the affected side B.) Collapsed neck veins on the unaffected side C.) Tracheal deviation to the affected side D.) Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side

D.) Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side rationale: The nurse should recognize that deviation of the trachea to the unaffected side is a possible indicator that the client is experiencing a tension pneumothorax. A tension pneumothorax results from free air filling the chest cavity, causing the lung to collapse and forcing the trachea to deviate to the unaffected side.

a nurse is planning care for a client who has asthma. which of the following meds should the nurse plan to administer during an acute asthma attack? A.) cromolyn sodium B.) prednisone C.) fluticasone/salmeterol D.) albuterol

D.) albuterol rationale: The nurse should administer albuterol because it acts quickly to produce bronchodilation during an acute asthma attack.

a nurse is caring for a client who's postoperative and has an RR of 9/min secondary to general anesthesia effects na incisional pain. which of the following ABG values indicates the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis? A.) pH 7.50, PO2 95 mm Hg, PaCO2 25 mm Hg, HCO3- 22 mEq/L B.) pH 7.50, PO2 87 mm Hg, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L C.) pH 7.30, PO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 35 mm Hg, HCO3- 20 mEq/L D.) pH 7.30, PO2 80 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 22 mEq/L

D.) pH 7.30, PO2 80 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 22 mEq/L rationale: These ABG values indicate respiratory acidosis. The pH is less than 7.35 and the PaCO2 is greater than 45 mm Hg, which indicates respiratory acidosis.

A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has kidney disease. Which of the following food choices should the nurse include in the teaching as containing the lowest amount of magnesium? a. 1 large hard-boiled egg b. 1 cup bran cereal c. 1/2 cup almond d. 1 cup cooked spinach

a. 1 large hard-boiled eggs One large hard-boiled egg contains 5 mg of magnesium. Therefore, the nurse should recommend this food as containing the lowest amount of magnesium.Cereal has 112 mg. Almonds 193 mg and spinach 157 mg.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has experienced excessive fluid loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Administer IV fluids to the client evenly over 24 hr. b. Provide the client with a salt substitute. c. Assess the client for pitting edema. d. Encourage the client to rise slowly when standing up. e. Weigh the client every 8 hr.

a. Administer IV fluids to the client evenly over 24 hr d. Encourage the client to rise slowly when standing up e. Weigh the client every 8 hr Administer IV fluids to the client evenly over 24 hr is correct. A client who has excessive fluid loss is typically prescribed IV replacement fluids. Administering IV fluids rapidly over a short period of time places the client at risk for fluid volume overload. Provide the client with a salt substitute is incorrect. There is no reason to limit the client's sodium intake. The client might require electrolyte replacement, depending on the cause of fluid loss. Assess for pitting edema is incorrect. This action is appropriate for a client who has fluid overload. Encourage the client to rise slowly when standing up is correct. This action can prevent injury from falls caused by orthostatic hypotension. Weigh the client every 8 hr is correct. Weighing the client every 8 hr will provide information regarding fluid balance.

A newly admitted patient is diagnosed with hyponatremia. When making room assignments, the charge nurse should take which action? a. Assign the patient to a room near the nurse's station. b. Place the patient in a room nearest to the water fountain. c. Place the patient on telemetry to monitor for peaked T waves. d. Assign the patient to a semi-private room and place an order for a low-salt diet.

a. Assign the patient to a room near the nurse's station. The patient should be placed near the nurses station if confused in order for the staff to closely monitor the patient. To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted. Therefore, a confused patient should not be placed near a water fountain. Peaked T waves are a sign of hyperkalemia, not hyponatremia. A confused patient could be distracting and disruptive for another patient in a semiprivate room. This patient needs sodium replacement, not restriction.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. b. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for the last 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.

a. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. The blood pressure indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock as a result of intravascular fluid loss due to the burn injury. This finding will require immediate intervention to prevent the complications associated with systemic hypo perfusion. The poor oral intake, decreased urine output, and skin tenting all indicate the need for increasing the patients fluid intake but not as urgently as the hypotension.

A nurse is assessing a client who has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse except? a. Confusion b. Peripheral edema c. Facial flushing d. Hyperreflexia

a. Confusion A client who has respiratory acidosis will experience confusion from a lack of cerebral perfusion. If acidosis is not reversed, the client's level of consciousness will decrease and coma may occur. Facial flushing and warmth are manifestations of metabolic acidosis. Pale, cyanotic, dry skin is a manifestation of respiratory acidosis as ineffective breathing causes a lack of perfusion to the tissues. Hyporeflexia, not hyperreflexia, is a manifestation of respiratory acidosis. As acidosis increases, hyperkalemia can occur, causing muscle weakness, flaccid paralysis, and hyporeflexia.

A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Decreased muscle strength b. Decreased gastric motility c. Increased heart rate d. Increased blood pressure

a. Decreased muscle strength Hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness. The nurse should monitor the client's muscle strength.

A nurse is assessing a client who has hypomagnesemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Hyperactive deep-tendon reflexes b. Increased bowel sounds c. Drowsiness d. Decreased blood pressure

a. Hyperactive deep-tendon reflexes Hyperactive deep-tendon reflexes are an expected finding for a client who has hypomagnesemia, along with muscle cramps, numbness, and tingling.

While reviewing a client's laboratory results, a nurse notes a serum calcium level of 0.8 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Implement seizure precautions. b. Administer phosphate. c. Initiate diuretic therapy. d. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.

a. Implement seizure precautions The client is at risk for seizures due to low excitation threshold as a result of the client's decreased calcium level. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions to prevent injury.

The home health nurse cares for an alert and oriented older adult patient with a history of dehydration. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient related to fluid intake? a. Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry. b. More fluids are needed if you feel thirsty. c. Drink more fluids in the late evening hours. d. If you feel lethargic or confused, you need more to drink.

a. Increase fluids if your mouth feels dry. An alert, older patient will be able to self-assess for signs of oral dryness such as thick oral secretions or dry-appearing mucosa. The thirst mechanism decreases with age and is not an accurate indicator of volume depletion. Many older patients prefer to restrict fluids slightly in the evening to improve sleep quality. The patient will not be likely to notice and act appropriately when changes in level of consciousness occur.

A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr. b. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN. c. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea. d. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.

a. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr. Because the patients gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions such as lactated Ringers solution would usually be ordered for this patient. The other orders are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction.

A patient receives 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor for while the patient is receiving this infusion? a. Lung sounds b. Urinary output c. Peripheral pulses d. Peripheral edema

a. Lung sounds Hypertonic solutions cause water retention, so the patient should be monitored for symptoms of fluid excess. Crackles in the lungs may indicate the onset of pulmonary edema and are a serious manifestation of fluid excess. Bounding peripheral pulses, peripheral edema, or changes in urine output are also important to monitor when administering hypertonic solutions, but they do not indicate acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation.

A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

a. Metabolic acidosis The pH and HCO3 indicate that the patient has a metabolic acidosis. The ABGs are inconsistent with the other responses.

The nurse notes a serum calcium level of 7.9 mg/dL for a patient who has chronic malnutrition. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Monitor ionized calcium level. b. Give oral calcium citrate tablets. c. Check parathyroid hormone level. d. Administer vitamin D supplements.

a. Monitor ionized calcium level. This patient with chronic malnutrition is likely to have a low serum albumin level, which will affect the total serum calcium. A more accurate reflection of calcium balance is the ionized calcium level. Most of the calcium in the blood is bound to protein (primarily albumin). Alterations in serum albumin levels affect the interpretation of total calcium levels. Low albumin levels result in a drop in the total calcium level, although the level of ionized calcium is not affected. The other actions may be needed if the ionized calcium is also decreased.

The nurse expects which client to be in respiratory acidosis? (select all that apply) a. Morphine overdose b. Panic attack c. Sleep apnea d. COPD e. Asthma attack f. Alcohol intoxication

a. Morphine overdose c. Sleep apnea d. COPD e. Asthma attack f. Alcohol intoxication

A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first? a. Notify the patients' health care provider. b. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level. c. Review the magnesium level on the patient's chart. d. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids

a. Notify the patients' health care provider. The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient's current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.

A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the health care provider immediately that the patient is on which medication? a. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily b. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours c. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily d. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening

a. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can cause serious dysrhythmias. The nurse will also need to do more assessment regarding the other medications, but they are not of as much concern with the potassium level.

Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of a tingling feeling around my mouth. Which assessment should the nurse complete immediately? a. Presence of the Chvostek's sign b. Abnormal serum potassium level c. Decreased thyroid hormone level d. Bleeding on the patients dressing

a. Presence of the Chvostek's sign The patients' symptoms indicate possible hypocalcemia, which can occur secondary to parathyroid injury/removal during thyroidectomy. There is no indication of a need to check the potassium level, the thyroid hormone level, or for bleeding.

A nurse is admitting a client who has status asthmaticus. The client's ABG results are pH 7.32, PaO2 74 mmhg, PaC02 56 mm hg, and HCO3- 26 mEq/L. The nurse should interpret these laboratory values as which of the following imbalances. a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

a. Respiratory acidosis Status asthmaticus causes inadequate gas exchange, resulting in a low pH and PaO2, an elevated PaCO2, and an HCO3- within the expected reference range. These laboratory values indicate respiratory acidosis.

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving hydrochlorothiazide and notes that the client is confused and lethargic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider? a. Sodium 128 mEq/L b. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L c. Calcium 9.1 mg/dL d. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

a. Sodium 128 mEq/L This level is below the expected reference range and is the likely cause of the client's altered mental status. The nurse should report this finding to the provider and monitor the client for weakened respiratory effort.

A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor. b. The patient complains of generalized fatigue. c. The patient's bowels have not moved for 4 days. d. The patient has numbness and tingling of the lips.

a. The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor. Hypocalcemia can cause laryngeal stridor, which may lead to respiratory arrest. Rapid action is required to correct the patients calcium level. The other data are also consistent with hypocalcemia, but do not indicate a need for as immediate action as laryngospasm

The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to note in the client? a. Twitching b. Hypoactive bowel sounds c. Negative Trousseau's sign d. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

a. Twitching A serum calcium level lower than 8.6 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Trousseau's or Chvostek's sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and anxiety. Gastrointestinal symptoms include increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.

A nurse is caring for a client who requires nasogastric suctioning. Which of the following set of laboratory results indicates that the client has metabolic alkalosis? a. pH 7.51, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 36 mm Hg, HCO3- 31 mEq/L b. pH 7.48, PaO2 89 mm Hg, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L c. pH 7.31, PaO2 77 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L d. pH 7.26, PaO2 84 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, HCO3- 20 mEq/L

a. pH 7.51, Pa02 94 mm Hg, PaC02 36 mm Hg, HCO3- 31 mEq/L An elevated pH and HCO3- with a PaCO2 within the expected reference range indicates metabolic alkalosis.

a nurse is assisting a provider who's performing a thoracentesis at the beside of a client. which of the following actions should the nurse take? a.) Wear goggles and a mask during the procedure. b.) Cleanse the procedure area with an antiseptic solution. c.) Instruct the client to take deep breaths during the procedure. d.) Position the client laterally on the affected side before the procedure. e.) Apply pressure to the site after the procedure.

a.) Wear goggles and a mask during the procedure. b.) Cleanse the procedure area with an antiseptic solution. e.) Apply pressure to the site after the procedure. rationale: a.) Wear goggles and a mask during the procedure is correct. The nurse and provider should both wear goggles and a mask to reduce the risk for exposure to pleural fluid. b.) Cleanse the procedure area with an antiseptic solution is correct. The use of an antiseptic solution decreases the risk for infection, which is increased due to the invasive nature of the procedure. c.) Instruct the client to take deep breaths during the procedure is incorrect. The nurse should instruct the client to remain as still as possible during the procedure to reduce the risk for puncturing the pleura or lung. d.) Position the client laterally on the affected side before the procedure is incorrect. The nurse should position the client in a sitting position leaning over the bedside table or laterally on the unaffected side to promote access to the site and encourage drainage of pleural fluid. e.) Apply pressure to the site after the procedure is correct. The application of pressure decreases the risk for bleeding at the procedure site.

A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for HF and has prescriptions for furosemide. The nurse should plan to monitor for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication? A. SOB b. Lightheadedness c. Dry cough d. Metallic taste

b. Lightheadedness Rationale: Furosemide can cause a substantial drop in blood pressure, resulting in lightheadedness or dizziness.

A nurse is providing teaching about lifestyle changes to a client who had a myocardial infarction and has a new prescription for a beta blocker. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should eat food that are high in saturated in fat." b. "Before taking my medication, I will count my radial pulse rate." c. "I will exercise once a week for an hour at the health club." d. "I will stop taking my medication when my blood pressure is within normal range"

b. "Before taking my medication, I will count my radial pulse rate." A beta blocker will induce bradycardia. The client should take her pulse rate for 1 min before self-administration.

A nurse is admitting a client who takes 40 mg furosemide daily for heart failure and has experienced 3 days of vomiting. The nurse suspects hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate 30 g/day b. 0.9% sodium chloride with 10 mEq/L of potassium chloride at 100 mL/hr c. Bumetanide 8 mg/day d. 100 mL of dextrose 10% in water with 10 units of insulin

b. 0.9% sodium chloride with 10 mEq/L of potassium chloride at 100 mL/hr This IV solution will provide adequate fluid and potassium replacement to offset the losses from vomiting. The typical amount of potassium chloride to administer IV is 5 to 10 mEq/hr and not to exceed 20 mEq/hr. The dilution should be 1 mEq to 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride.

A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as containing the greatest amount of potassium? a. 1/2 cup chopped celery b. 1 cup plain yogurt c. 1 slice whole grain bread d. 1/2 cup cooked tofu

b. 1 cup plain yogurt One cup of plain yogurt contains 380 g of potassium. Therefore, the nurse should recommend this food as containing the greatest amount of potassium.

A nurse is providing health teaching for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is at risk for developing peripheral arterial disease? A. A client who has hypothyroidism b. A client who has diabetes mellitus c. A client whose daily caloric intake consists of 25% fat d. A client who consumes two bottles of beer a day

b. A client who has diabetes mellitus Rationale: Diabetes mellitus places the client at risk for microvascular damage and progressive peripheral arterial disease.

A nurse is caring for a client in the first 8 hr following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which of the following client findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. Mediastinal drainage 100 ml/hr b. Blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg C. Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F) D. Potassium 4.0 meq/L

b. Blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg Rationale: The nurse should report an elevated blood pressure following a CABG because increased vascular pressure can cause bleeding at the incision sites.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a serum calcium level of 8.1 mg/dL. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to assess? a. Deep-tendon reflexes b. Cardiac rhythm c. Peripheral sensation d. Bowel sounds

b. Cardiac rhythm When using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the nurse should determine that assessing the cardiac rhythm is the priority. Calcium levels below the expected reference range can cause ECG changes, bradycardia, or tachycardia.

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain the baseline weight. b. Check the patients' blood pressure. c. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels. d. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling.

b. Check the patients' blood pressure. Because the patient's history suggests that fluid volume deficit may be a problem, assessment for adequate circulation is the highest priority. The other actions are also appropriate, but are not as essential as determining the patient's perfusion status.

A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance? a. Skin turgor b. Daily weight c. Presence of edema d. Hourly urine output

b. Daily weight Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age. Considerable excess fluid volume may be present before fluid moves into the interstitial space and causes edema. Although very important, hourly urine outputs do not take account of fluid intake or of fluid loss through insensible loss, sweating, or loss from the gastrointestinal tract or wounds.

An older adult patient who is malnourished presents to the emergency department with a serum protein level of 5.2 g/dL. The nurse would expect which clinical manifestation? a. Pallor b. Edema c. Confusion d. Restlessness

b. Edema The normal range for total protein is 6.4 to 8.3 g/dL. Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels.

A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discontinue the nasogastric suction. b. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. c. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results. d. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.

b. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. The patient's respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurses first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has fluid volume excess. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect? a. Hemoglobin 20 g/dL b. Hematocrit 34% c. BUN 25 mg/dL d. Urine specific gravity 1.050

b. Hematocrit 34% This hematocrit level is below the expected reference range. A 2+ pitting edema indicates fluid overload, which can cause hemodilution and a decreased hematocrit.

How does the nurse expect the client to show compensation for the following ABG values? Ph 7.20, PaO2 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, HCO3 15 mEq/L (metabolic acidosis) a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Increased respiratory rate c. Increased renal retention of H+ d. Decreased renal excretion of HCO3

b. Increased respiratory rate

IV potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus. b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. c. Only give the KCl through a central venous line. d. Discontinue cardiac monitoring during the infusion.

b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. IV KCl is administered at a maximal rate of 10 mEq/hr. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can cause cardiac arrest. Although the preferred concentration for KCl is no more than 40 mEq/L, concentrations up to 80 mEq/L may be used for some patients. KCl can cause inflammation of peripheral veins, but it can be administered by this route. Cardiac monitoring should be continued while patient is receiving potassium because of the risk for dysrhythmias.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress as a result of pulmonary edema. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Assist with intubation. b. Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy. c. Administer a rapid-acting diuretic. d. Provide cardiac monitoring.

b. Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy The priority action the nurse should take when using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care is to administer high-flow oxygen therapy by face mask at 5 to 6 L/min to keep the client's oxygen saturation above 90%.

When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient's food tray? a. Grape juice b. Milk carton c. Mixed green salad d. Fried chicken breast

b. Milk carton Foods high in phosphate include milk and other dairy products, so these are restricted on low-phosphate diets. Green, leafy vegetables; high-fat foods; and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted.

Which action can the registered nurse (RN) who is caring for a critically ill patient with multiple IV lines delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port. b. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness. c. Remove the patients no tunneled subclavian central venous catheter. d. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.

b. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness. An experienced LPN/LVN has the education, experience, and scope of practice to monitor IV sites for signs of infection. Administration of medications, adjustment of infusion rates, and removal of central catheters in critically ill patients require RN level education and scope of practice.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following findings? a. Hyperactive deep-tendon reflexes b. Orthostatic hypotension c. Rapid, deep respirations d. Strong, bounding pulse

b. Orthostatic hypotension Hypokalemia can lead to hypotension. The nurse should monitor the client for orthostatic hypotension.

A nurse is caring for a client who reports difficulty breathing and tingling in both hands. His respiratory rate is 36/min and he appears very restless. Which of the following values should the nurse anticipate to be outside the expected reference range if the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis? a. PaO2 b. PaCO2 c. Sodium d. Bicarbonate

b. PaCO2 With respiratory alkalosis, the PaCO2 level is decreased.

A client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension has a prescription for an ACE inhibitor. The nurse instructs the client about adverse effects of the medication. The client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching by stating that he will notify his provider if he experiences which of the following? A. Tendon pain b. Persistent cough c. Frequent urination d. Constipation

b. Persistent cough Rationale: A persistent cough is an adverse effect of ACE inhibitors. The client should report this finding to the provider and discontinue the medication.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe fatigue and confusion. Laboratory studies are done. Which laboratory value will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Arterial blood pH is 7.32. b. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL. c. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L. d. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.

b. Serum calcium is 18 mg/dL. The serum calcium is well above the normal level and puts the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the health care provider. The potassium, oxygen saturation, and pH are also abnormal, and the nurse should notify the health care provider about these values as well, but they are not immediately life threatening.

A nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving IV fluids to treat isotonic dehydration. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates that the fluid therapy has been effective? a. BUN 26 mg/dL b. Serum sodium 142 mEq/L c. Hct 56% d. Urine specific gravity 1.035

b. Serum sodium 142 mEq/L Isotonic dehydration includes loss of water and electrolytes due to a decrease in oral intake of water and salt. A serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L is within the expected reference range and indicates that the fluid therapy has been effective.BUN is elevated. HCT is elevated and USG is elevated.

When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased. b. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent. c. The patient has been sleeping most of the day. d. The patient reports feeling sick to my stomach.

b. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent. The loss of the deep tendon reflexes indicates that the patients magnesium level may be reaching toxic levels. Nausea and lethargy also are side effects associated with magnesium elevation and should be reported, but they are not as significant as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. The decreased breath sounds suggest that the patient needs to cough and deep breathe to prevent atelectasis.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site. b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. c. Obtain an order from the health care provider to change CVAD dressing. d. Position the patients face toward the CVAD during injection cap changes.

b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. The push-pause enhances the removal of debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. To decrease infection risk, friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site. The dressing should be changed whenever it becomes damp, loose, or visibly soiled. The patient should turn away from the CVAD during cap changes.

A nurse is watching a client's ECG monitor and notes that the client's rhythm has changed from a normal sinus rhythm to supraventricular tachycardia. The client is conscious with a HR of 200-210 bpm and has a faint radial pulse. The nurse should anticipate assisting with which of the following interventions? A. Initiate chest compressions b. Vagal stimulation c. Administration of atropine IV d. Defibrillation

b. Vagal stimulation Rationale: The nurse should identify that vagal stimulation might temporarily convert the client's heart rate to normal sinus rhythm. The nurse should have a defibrillator and resuscitation equipment at the client's bedside because vagal stimulation can cause bradydysrhythmias, ventricular dysrhythmias, or asystole.

A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided HF. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect to find? A. Inc abdominal girth b. Weak peripheral pulses c. Jugular vein distention d. Dependent edema

b. Weak peripheral pulses Rationale: Weak peripheral pulses are related to decreased cardiac output resulting from left-sided heart failure.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has pulmonary TB and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. "Ringing in the ears is an adverse effect of this medication." b. "Have your skin test repeated in 4 months to show a positive result." c. "Expect your urine and other secretions to be orange while taking this medication." d. "Remember to take this medication with a sip of water just before your first bite of each meal."

c. "Expect your urine and other secretions to be orange while taking this medication." rationale: The nurse should inform the client that rifampin will turn urine and other secretions orange. Rifampin is hepatotoxic, so the nurse should also instruct the client to notify the provider if manifestations of hepatitis occur, including jaundice, fatigue, or malaise.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a temporary tracheostomy. which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should dip a cotton-tipped applicator into full-strength hydrogen peroxide to cleanse around my stoma" b. "I should cut a 4" gauze dressing and place it around my trach tube to absorb drainage" c. "I should remove the old twill ties after the new ties are in place" d. "I should apply suction while inserting the catheter into my trach tube"

c. "I should remove the old twill ties after the new ties are in place" rationale: As a safety measure, the nurse should teach the client to wait until the new ties are in place to remove the old ties. This practice can prevent accidental decannulation.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has venous insufficiency of the lower extremities. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "If my stockings feel tight, I'll just roll them down for a while." b. "I'll put on my elastic stockings at the first sign of swelling." c. "When I sit down to watch television, I'll be sure to put my feet up." d. "It's okay to cross my legs as long as it's for less than an hour."

c. "When I sit down to watch television, I'll be sure to put my feet up." Venous insufficiency makes it difficult for blood flow to return to the heart. Elevating the feet will increase the return. The client should elevate them for at least 20 min several times per day.

The nurse notes that a patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis has rapid, deep respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a. Give the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan). b. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min. c. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin. d. Encourage the patient to take deep, slow breaths with guided imagery.

c. Administer the prescribed normal saline bolus and insulin. The rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis and the need for correction of the acidosis with a saline bolus to prevent hypovolemia followed by insulin administration to allow glucose to reenter the cells. Oxygen therapy is not indicated because there is no indication that the increased respiratory rate is related to hypoxemia. The respiratory pattern is compensatory, and the patient will not be able to slow the respiratory rate. Lorazepam administration will slow the respiratory rate and increase the level of acidosis.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide daily. During the morning assessment, the client tells the nurse that he is "feeling weak in the legs." Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the client's bowel sounds. b. Review the client's daily laboratory results. c. Auscultate the client's lungs. d. Palpate the client's peripheral pulses.

c. Auscultate the client's lungs Using the airway, breathing, circulation approach to client care, the first action the nurse should take is to auscultate the client's lungs to assess for respiratory changes due to weakness of the respiratory muscles.

Which action should the nurse take first when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea soon after insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Offer reassurance to the patient. c. Auscultate the patient's breath sounds. d. Give the prescribed PRN morphine sulfate IV.

c. Auscultate the patient's breath sounds. The initial action should be to assess the patient further because the history and symptoms are consistent with several possible complications of central line insertion, including embolism and pneumothorax. The other actions may be appropriate, but further assessment of the patient is needed before notifying the health care provider, offering reassurance, or administration of morphine.

A nurse is caring for a client who had dehydration and is receiving IV fluids. Which assessing for complications, the nurse should recognize which of the following manifestations as a sign of fluid overload? a. Increased urine specific gravity b. Hypoactive bowel sounds c. Bounding peripheral pulses d. Decreased respiratory rate

c. Bounding peripheral pulses Fluid overload results in increased vascular volume and places a greater workload on the heart. Thus, an expected finding is bounding peripheral pulses.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of several clients who have peripheral arterial disease. The nurse should plan to provide dietary teaching for the client who has which laboratory values? A. Cholesterol 180 mg/dl, HDL 70 mg/dl, LDL 90 mg/dl b. Cholesterol 185 mg/dl, HDL 50 mg/dl, LDL 120 mg/dl c. Cholesterol 190 mg/dl, HDL 25 mg/dl, LDL 160 mg/dl d. Cholesterol 195 mg/dl, HDL 55 mg/dl, LDL 125 mg/dl

c. Cholesterol 190 mg/dl, HDL 25 mg/dl, LDL 160 mg/dl Rationale: These laboratory values for HDL and LDL are outside of the expected reference range and indicate that the nurse should provide dietary teaching to the client. The expected reference range for cholesterol is less than 200 mg/dL; for HDL is above 45 mg/dL for males and above 55 mg/dL for females; and for LDL is less than 130 mg/dL.

A nurse is caring for a client who had an onset of chest pain 24 hr ago. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following is diagnostic of a MI? A. Myoglobin b. C-reactive protein c. Creatine kinase- MB d. Homocysteine

c. Creatine kinase- MB Rationale: Creatine kinase-MB is the isoenzyme specific to the myocardium. Elevated creatine kinase-MB indicates myocardial muscle injury.

The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient's condition has improved? a. Hematocrit 28% b. Absence of skin tenting c. Decreased peripheral edema d. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg

c. Decreased peripheral edema Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels. The decrease in edema indicates an improvement in the patient's protein status. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.

The nurse assesses a patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days. The patient has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 mL/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Oral temperature of 100.1 F b. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) c. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) d. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) above the admission weight

c. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) The patient's history and change in LOC could be indicative of fluid and electrolyte disturbances: extracellular fluid (ECF) excess, ECF deficit, hyponatremia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia, or metabolic alkalosis. Further diagnostic information is needed to determine the cause of the change in LOC and the appropriate interventions. The weight gain, elevated temperature, crackles, and serum sodium level also will be reported, but do not indicate a need for rapid action to avoid complications.

The client diagnosed with rule-out myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain while walking to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first? a. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. b. Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram. c. Have the client sit down immediately. d. Assess the client's vital signs.

c. Have the client sit down immediately.

A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of just blowing up and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Skin turgor b. Heart sounds c. Mental status d. Capillary refill

c. Mental status Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.

An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L) b. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dL (1.95 mmol/L) c. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L) d. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dL (1.55 mmol/L)

c. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L) The elevated serum sodium level is consistent with the patients' neurologic symptoms and indicates a need for immediate action to prevent further serious complications such as seizures. The potassium and calcium levels vary slightly from normal but do not require immediate action by the nurse. The phosphate level is normal.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping b. Patient with serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water c. Patient with serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes d. Patient with serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates

c. Patient with serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures. The other patients have mild electrolyte disturbances and/or symptoms that require action, but they are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

A nurse cares for a client who has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and is exhibiting cardiovascular changes. Which prescription should the nurse implement first? a. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth. b. Provide a heart healthy, low-potassium diet. c. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. d. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.

c. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.

A nurse is assessing a client who is using PCA following a thoracotomy. The client is short of breath, appears restless, and has a respiratory rate of 28/min. The client's ABG results are pH 7.52, PoO2 89 mm hg, and HCO3- 24 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Instruct the client to cough forcefully. b. Assist the client with ambulation. c. Provide calming interventions. d. Discontinue the PCA.

c. Provide calming interventions The client's respiratory rate is above the expected range. Calming the client should decrease the respiratory rate, which will cause the client's carbon dioxide levels to increase. This will help correct the pH imbalance.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had diabetes mellitus and is recieving regular insulin by continous IV infustion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. Urine output of 30 mL/hr b. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL c. Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L d. BUN 18 mg/dL

c. Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L This serum potassium level is outside the expected reference range. The nurse should report this finding to the provider.

A patient who has a small cell carcinoma of the lung develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should notify the health care provider about which assessment finding? a. Reported weight gain b. Serum hematocrit of 42% c. Serum sodium level of 120 mg/dL d. Total urinary output of 280 mL during past 8 hours

c. Serum sodium level of 120 mg/dL Hyponatremia is the most important finding to report. SIADH causes water retention and a decrease in serum sodium level. Hyponatremia can cause confusion and other central nervous system effects. A critically low value likely needs to be treated. At least 30 mL/hr of urine output indicates adequate kidney function. The hematocrit level is normal. Weight gain is expected with SIADH because of water retention.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a phosphorus level of 2.4 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Hepatic failure b. Abdominal pain c. Slow peripheral pulses d. Increase in cardiac output

c. Slow peripheral pulses Hypophosphatemia causes slow peripheral pulses that are difficult to detect and can eventually result in cardiac muscle damage.

A patient has a parenteral nutrition infusion of 25% dextrose. A student nurse asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter was inserted. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. There is a decreased risk for infection when 25% dextrose is infused through a central line. b. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the patient has a central line. c. The 25% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line. d. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line.

c. The 25% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line. The 25% dextrose solution is hypertonic. Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered IV. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.

A client is admitted to the hospital with headache, weakness, and lethargy. The arterial blood gas results are pH 7.33, PaCO2 49, HCO3 29. How should the nurse interpret findings? a. fully compensated respiratory acidosis b. uncompensated metabolic alkalosis c. partially compensated respiratory acidosis d. partially compensated metabolic acidosis

c. partially compensated respiratory acidosis

A nurse is preparing to administer oral potassium for a client who has a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Administer a hypertonic solution. b. Repeat the potassium level. c. Withhold the medication. d. Monitor for paresthesia.

c. Withhold the medication The greatest risk to this client is injury from hyperkalemia. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the oral potassium and notify the provider.

The nurse interprets the following ECG at the nurse's station. Which action should the nurse implement first? a. administer epinephrine IVP b. prepare to defibrillate the client c. palpate carotid pulse d. start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

c. palpate carotid pulse

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina and is schedules for a stress test at 1100. Which of the following statements by the client requires the nurse to contact the provider for possible rescheduling? A. "I'm still hungry after the bowl of cereal I ate at 7am." b. "I didn't take my heart pills this morning because the doctor told me not to." c. "I have had chest pain a couple of times since I saw my doctor in the office last week." d. "I smoked a cigarette this morning to calm my nerves about having this procedure."

d. "I smoked a cigarette this morning to calm my nerves about having this procedure." Rationale: Smoking prior to this test can change the outcome and places the client at additional risk. The procedure should be rescheduled if the client has smoked before the test.

A nurse is teaching nutritional strategies to a client who has a low serum calcium level and an allergy to milk. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I will eat more cheese because I can't drink milk." b. "I need to avoid foods with vitamin D because I am allergic to milk." c. "I will stop taking my calcium supplements if they irritate my stomach."" d. I will add broccoli and kale to my diet."

d. "I will add broccoli and kale to my diet." The nurse should recommend broccoli and kale, which are good sources of calcium as alternatives to milk products.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis following surgery. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should conserve energy by limiting my physical activity." b. "I will wait until my pain is at least six out of ten before I use the PCA." c. "I will limit my daily fluid intake to two to three glasses." d. "I will use the incentive spirometer every hour."

d. "I will use the incentive spirometer every hour." Respiratory depression and limited chest expansion are both causes of respiratory acidosis. Using an incentive spirometer will promote adequate chest expansion. The nurse should identify this statement as indicating an understanding of the teaching.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 155 mEq/L. Which of the following IV fluids should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe? a. Dextrose 5% in 0.9% sodium chloride b. Dextrose 5% in lactated Ringer's c. 3% sodium chloride d. 0.45% sodium chloride

d. 0.45% sodium chloride A sodium level of 155 mEq/L is an indication of hypernatremia. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for a hypotonic solution. The 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution used to provide free water and treat cellular dehydration, which promotes waste elimination by the kidneys.Dextrose 5% in 0.9% sodium chloride is a hypertonic solution. The 3% sodium chloride is a hypertonic solution. Lactated Ringer's solution contains sodium and other electrolytes and is not indicated for hypernatremia.

A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action? a. Assess for facial muscle spasms. b. Ask the patient about loose stools. c. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals. d. Ask the health care provider to order a basic metabolic panel.

d. Ask the health care provider to order a basic metabolic panel. Generalized weakness is a manifestation of hypokalemia. After the health care provider orders the metabolic panel, the nurse should check the potassium level. Facial muscle spasms might occur with hypocalcemia. Orange juice is high in potassium and would be advisable to drink if the patient was hypokalemic. Loose stools are associated with hyperkalemia.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan? a. Maintain the patient on bed rest. b. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours. c. Monitor for Trousseaus and Chvostek's signs. d. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.

d. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. To decrease the risk for renal calculi, the patient should have a fluid intake of 3000 to 4000 mL daily. Ambulation helps decrease the loss of calcium from bone and is encouraged in patients with hypercalcemia. Trousseaus and Chvostek's signs are monitored when there is a possibility of hypocalcemia. There is no indication that the patient needs frequent assessment of lung sounds, although these would be assessed every shift.

Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective? a. I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day. b. I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake. c. I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods. d. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast.

d. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast. Because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, patients should be taught to choose low-potassium foods (e.g., apple juice) rather than foods that have higher levels of potassium (e.g., citrus fruits). Because the patient is using spironolactone as a diuretic, the nurse would not encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. Teach patients to avoid salt substitutes, which are high in potassium.

A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following assessments is the priority? a. Skin turgor b. Urine output c. Weight d. Mental status

d. Mental status The greatest risk to this client is injury from declining mental status or a fall from worsened dehydration. Therefore, assessing the client's mental status is the priority.

A nurse is caring for a client who requires continuous cardiac monitoring. The nurse identifies a prolonged PR interval and a widened QRS complex. Which of the following laboratory values supports this finding? a. Sodium 152 mEq/L b. Chloride 102 mEq/L c. Magnesium 1.8 mEq/L d. Potassium 6.1 mEq/L

d. Potassium 6.1 mEq/L Hyperkalemia can cause a prolonged PR interval; a wide QRS complex; flat or absent P waves; and tall, peaked T waves.

A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash has had a tracheostomy placed to allow for continued mechanical ventilation. How should the nurse interpret the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

d. Respiratory alkalosis The pH indicates that the patient has alkalosis and the low PaCO2indicates a respiratory cause. The other responses are incorrect based on the pH and the normal HCO3.

A patient is receiving a 3% saline continuous IV infusion for hyponatremia. Which assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse? a. The patient's radial pulse is 105 beats/minute. b. There is sediment and blood in the patient's urine. c. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94. d. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields.

d. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields. Crackles throughout both lungs suggest that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary edema, a life-threatening adverse effect of hypertonic solutions. The increased pulse rate and blood pressure and the appearance of the urine also should be reported, but they are not as dangerous as the presence of fluid in the alveoli.

A client is admitted to the hospital with acid-base imbalances. ABGs results are are pH 7.35, PaCO2 52, HCO3 30. How should the nurse interpret findings? a. uncompensated metabolic acidosis b. partially compensated respiratory acidosis c. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis d. fully compensated respiratory acidosis

d. fully compensated respiratory acidosis

A nurse is reviewing the ABG results for four clients. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as metabolic acidosis? a. pH 7.51, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, HCO3- 29 mEq/L b. pH 7.48, PaO2 89 mm Hg, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L c. pH 7.36, PaO2 77 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L d. pH 7.26, PaO2 84 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, HCO3- 20 mEq/L

d. pH 7.26, Pa02 84mm hg, PaC02 38 mmhg, HCO3- 20 mEq/L When pH and HCO3- are both above or below the expected reference range, a metabolic imbalance is present. A pH of 7.26 indicates acidosis and a HCO3- of 20 mEq/L indicates the acidosis is due to a metabolic cause. Therefore, the nurse should identify these findings as metabolic acidosis.