Exam 2 (Assessment 2) for Adult Health II

When assessing a patient with possible peripheral artery disease (PAD), the nurse obtains a brachial blood pressure (BP) of 147/82 mm Hg and an ankle pressure of 112/74 mm Hg. The nurse calculates the patient's ankle-brachial index (ABI) as ________ (round up to the nearest hundredth).

0.76 The ABI is calculated by dividing the ankle systolic BP by the brachial systolic BP. 112/147=0.7619

A 198-lb patient is to receive a dobutamine infusion at 5 mcg/kg/min. The label on the infusion bag states: dobutamine 250 mg in 250 mL of normal saline. When setting the infusion pump, the nurse will set the infusion rate at how many milliliters per hour?

27 198 lb = 90 kg. To administer the dobutamine at the prescribed rate of 5 mcg/kg/min from a concentration of 250 mg in 250 mL, the nurse will need to infuse 27 mL/hr.

The health care provider prescribes the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with a blood pressure of 70/42 mm Hg and O2 saturation of 90% on room air. In which order will the nurse implement the actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Give vancomycin by IV infusion. c. Start norepinephrine 0.5 mcg/min. d. Infuse normal saline 2000 mL over 30 minutes. e. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 95%.

E, D, C, A, B e. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 95%. d. Infuse normal saline 2000 mL over 30 minutes. c. Start norepinephrine 0.5 mcg/min. a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Give vancomycin by IV infusion. The initial action for this hypotensive and hypoxemic patient should be to improve the O2 saturation, followed by infusion of IV fluids and vasopressors to improve perfusion. Cultures should be obtained before giving antibiotics.

ANSWER c. Third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block The inconsistency between the atrial and ventricular rates and the variable PR interval indicate that the rhythm is third-degree AV block. Sinus rhythm with PACs will have a normal rate and consistent PR intervals with occasional PACs. An accelerated idioventricular rhythm will not have visible P waves.

QUESTION A patient reports dizziness and shortness of breath for several days. During heart monitoring in the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. How does the nurse interpret this heart rhythm? a. Junctional escape rhythm b. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm c. Third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block d. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions

ANSWER c. Obtain the patient's vital signs including O2 saturation. The patient has sinus tachycardia, which may have multiple causes, such as pain, dehydration, anxiety, and myocardial ischemia. Further assessment is needed before determining the treatment. Vagal stimulation or -blockade may be used after further assessment of the patient. Electrical cardioversion is a treatment for some tachydysrhythmias but not sinus tachycardia.

QUESTION A patient who reports a "racing" heart and feeling "anxious" comes to the emergency department. The nurse places the patient on a heart monitor and obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Prepare to perform electrical cardioversion. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Obtain the patient's vital signs including O2 saturation. d. Prepare to give a -blocker medication to slow the heart rate.

ANSWER d. 4 Sounds from the mitral valve are best heard at the apex of the heart, fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line.

QUESTION The nurse is caring for a patient with mitral regurgitation. Referring to the figure below, where should the nurse listen to best hear a murmur typical of mitral regurgitation? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Which patient statement to the nurse is most consistent with the diagnosis of venous insufficiency? a. "I can't get my shoes on at the end of the day." b. "I can't ever seem to get my feet warm enough." c. "I have burning leg pain after I walk two blocks." d. "I wake up during the night because my legs hurt."

a. "I can't get my shoes on at the end of the day." Because the edema associated with venous insufficiency increases when the patient has been standing, shoes will feel tighter at the end of the day. The other patient statements are characteristic of peripheral artery disease.

A 78-kg patient in septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. After initial fluid volume resuscitation, the patient's urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Use norepinephrine to keep systolic BP above 90 mm Hg.

a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. Patients in septic shock need large amounts of fluid replacement. If the patient is still hypotensive after initial volume resuscitation with minimally 30 mL/kg, vasopressors such as norepinephrine may be added. IV corticosteroids may be considered for patients in septic shock who cannot maintain an adequate BP with vasopressor therapy despite fluid resuscitation.

Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital? (Select all that apply.) a. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. b. Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis. e. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take in adequate calories.

a. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. b. Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis. Because sepsis is the most frequent etiology for SIRS, measures to avoid infection such as removing indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible, use of aseptic technique, and early ambulation should be included in the plan of care. Adequate nutrition is important in preventing SIRS. Enteral, rather than parenteral, nutrition is preferred when patients are unable to take oral feedings because enteral nutrition helps maintain the integrity of the intestine, thus decreasing infection risk. Antibiotics should be given within 1 hour after being prescribed to decrease the risk of sepsis progressing to SIRS.

Two days after an acute myocardial infarction (MI), a patient reports stabbing chest pain that increases with a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the heart sounds. b. Check the patient's temperature. c. Give PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

a. Auscultate the heart sounds. The patient's clinical manifestations and history are consistent with pericarditis, and the first action by the nurse should be to listen for a pericardial friction rub. Checking the temperature and notifying the health care provider are also appropriate actions but would not be done before listening for a rub. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not effective for pericarditis pain. An analgesic would not be given before assessment of a new symptom.

The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with thromboangitis obliterans (Buerger's disease). Which expected outcome has the highest priority for this patient? a. Cessation of all tobacco use b. Control of serum lipid levels c. Maintenance of appropriate weight d. Demonstration of meticulous foot care

a. Cessation of all tobacco use Absolute cessation of nicotine use is needed to reduce the risk for amputation in patients with Buerger's disease. Other therapies have limited success in treatment of this disease.

A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128, respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is high, and cardiac output is low. Which treatment would the nurse expect to be prescribed? a. Furosemide b. Hydrocortisone c. Epinephrine drip d. 5% albumin infusion

a. Furosemide The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated. Furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase the heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. 5% albumin would also increase the PAWP. Hydrocortisone might be considered for septic or anaphylactic shock.

A patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion b. Decreased bowel sounds c. Heart rate 112 beats/min d. Pale, cool, and dry extremities

a. New onset of confusion The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock.

The nurse is caring for a patient with critical limb ischemia who has just arrived on the nursing unit after having percutaneous transluminal balloon angioplasty. Which action should the nurse perform first? a. Obtain vital signs. b. Teach wound care. c. Assess pedal pulses. d. Check the wound site.

a. Obtain vital signs. Bleeding is a possible complication after catheterization of the femoral artery, so the nurse's first action should be to assess for changes in vital signs that might indicate hemorrhage. The other actions are also appropriate but can be done after determining that bleeding is not occurring.

A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. c. Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Provide high-flow O2 (100%) by nonrebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.

a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. d. Provide high-flow O2 (100%) by nonrebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation. All the actions are appropriate except to give large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. The patient with neurogenic shock usually has a normal blood volume, and it is important not to volume overload the patient. In addition, lactated Ringer's solution is used cautiously in all shock situations because an ischemic liver cannot convert lactate to bicarbonate.

A patient with aortic stenosis has acute pain due to decreased coronary blood flow. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient? a. Promote rest to decrease myocardial oxygen demand. b. Teach the patient about the need for anticoagulant therapy. c. Teach the patient to use sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. d. Raise the head of the bed 60 degrees to decrease venous return.

a. Promote rest to decrease myocardial oxygen demand. Rest is recommended to balance myocardial oxygen supply and demand and to decrease chest pain. The patient with aortic stenosis requires higher preload to maintain cardiac output, so nitroglycerin and measures to decrease venous return are contraindicated. Anticoagulation is not recommended unless the patient has atrial fibrillation.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Skin cool and clammy b. Heart rate of 118 beats/min c. Blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg d. O2 saturation of 93% on room air

a. Skin cool and clammy Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status.

Which group of drugs will the nurse plan to include when teaching a patient who has a new diagnosis of peripheral artery disease (PAD)? a. Statins b. Antibiotics c. Thrombolytics d. Anticoagulants

a. Statins Research indicates that statin use by patients with PAD improves multiple outcomes. There is no research that supports the use of the other drug categories in PAD.

A patient who is 2 days post femoral popliteal bypass graft to the right leg is being cared for on the vascular unit. Which action by a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) caring for the patient requires the registered nurse (RN) to intervene? a. The LPN/VN tells the patient sit in a chair for 2 hours. b. The LPN/VN gives the prescribed aspirin after breakfast. c. The LPN/VN assists the patient to walk 40 ft in the hallway. d. The LPN/VN places the patient in Fowler's position for meals.

a. The LPN/VN tells the patient sit in a chair for 2 hours. The patient should avoid sitting for long periods because of the increased stress on the suture line caused by leg edema and because of the risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate.

Which action by the patient with newly diagnosed Raynaud's phenomenon best demonstrates that the nurse's teaching about managing the condition has been effective? a. The patient exercises indoors during the winter months. b. The patient immerses hands in hot water when they turn pale. c. The patient takes pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) for cold symptoms. d. The patient avoids taking nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

a. The patient exercises indoors during the winter months. Patients should avoid temperature extremes by exercising indoors when it is cold. To avoid burn injuries, the patient should use warm rather than hot water to warm the hands. Pseudoephedrine is a vasoconstrictor and should be avoided. There is no reason to avoid taking NSAIDs with Raynaud's phenomenon.

The nurse is caring for a patient with aortic stenosis. Which assessment data would be most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient reports chest pressure when ambulating. b. A loud systolic murmur is heard along the right sternal border. c. A thrill is palpated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border. d. The point of maximum impulse (PMI) is at the left midclavicular line.

a. The patient reports chest pressure when ambulating. Chest pressure (or pain) occurring with aortic stenosis is caused by cardiac ischemia and reporting this information would be a priority. A systolic murmur and thrill are expected in a patient with aortic stenosis. A PMI at the left midclavicular line is normal.

Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is high. b. The patient reports intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient's extremities are cool, and pulses are 1+. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

a. The patient's serum creatinine level is high. The high serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all symptoms consistent with the patient's diagnosis of cardiogenic shock.

A patient with a venous thromboembolism (VTE) is started on enoxaparin (Lovenox) and warfarin (Coumadin). The patient asks the nurse why two medications are necessary. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "Taking both blood thinners greatly reduces the risk for another clot to form." b. "Enoxaparin will work right away, but warfarin takes several days to begin preventing clots." c. "Enoxaparin will start to dissolve the clot, and warfarin will prevent any more clots from forming." d. "Because of the risk for a blood clot in the lungs, it is important for you to take more than one blood thinner."

b. "Enoxaparin will work right away, but warfarin takes several days to begin preventing clots." Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is used because of the immediate effect on coagulation and discontinued once the international normalized ratio (INR) value indicates that the warfarin has reached a therapeutic level. LMWH has no thrombolytic properties. The use of two anticoagulants is not related to the risk for pulmonary embolism, and two are not necessary to reduce the risk for another VTE. Anticoagulants do not thin the blood.

The nurse has started discharge teaching for a patient who is to continue warfarin (Coumadin) after hospitalization for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which patient statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I should get a Medic Alert device stating that I take warfarin." b. "I should reduce the amount of green, leafy vegetables that I eat." c. "I will need routine blood tests to monitor the effects of the warfarin." d. "I will check with my health care provider before I begin any new drugs."

b. "I should reduce the amount of green, leafy vegetables that I eat." Teach patients taking warfarin to follow a consistent diet regarding foods that are high in vitamin K, such as green, leafy vegetables. The other patient statements are accurate.

The nurse is evaluating the discharge teaching outcomes for a patient with chronic peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which patient statement indicates a need for further instruction? a. "I will buy loose clothes that do not bind across my legs or waist." b. "I will use a heating pad on my feet at night to increase the circulation." c. "I will walk to the point of pain, rest, and walk again for at least 30 minutes 3 times a week." d. "I will change my position every hour and avoid long periods of sitting with my legs crossed."

b. "I will use a heating pad on my feet at night to increase the circulation." Because the patient has impaired circulation and sensation to the feet, the use of a heating pad could lead to burns. The other patient statements are correct and indicate that teaching has been successful.

Which instructions should the nurse include in a teaching plan for an older adult patient newly diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD)? a. "Exercise only if you do not experience any pain." b. "It is very important that you stop smoking cigarettes." c. "Try to keep your legs elevated whenever you are sitting." d. "Put elastic compression stockings on early in the morning."

b. "It is very important that you stop smoking cigarettes." Smoking cessation is essential for slowing the progression of PAD to critical limb ischemia and reducing the risk of myocardial infarction and death. Circulation to the legs will decrease if the legs are elevated. Patients with PAD are taught to exercise to the point of feeling pain, rest, and then resume walking. Support hose are not used for patients with PAD.

Which patient statement supports a history of intermittent claudication? a. "When I stand too long, my feet start to swell." b. "My legs cramp when I walk more than a block." c. "I get short of breath when I climb a lot of stairs." d. "My fingers hurt when I go outside in cold weather."

b. "My legs cramp when I walk more than a block." Cramping that is precipitated by a consistent level of exercise is descriptive of intermittent claudication. Finger pain associated with cold weather is typical of Raynaud's phenomenon. Shortness of breath that occurs with exercise is not typical of intermittent claudication, which is reproducible. Swelling associated with prolonged standing is typical of venous disease.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient admitted to the emergency department should the nurse assess first? a. A 67-yr-old patient who has a gangrenous foot ulcer with a weak pedal pulse b. A 50-yr-old patient who is reporting sudden sharp and severe upper back pain c. A 39-yr-old patient who has right calf tenderness and swelling after a plane ride d. A 58-yr-old patient taking anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation who has black stools

b. A 50-yr-old patient who is reporting sudden sharp and severe upper back pain The patient's presentation of sudden sharp and severe upper back pain is consistent with dissecting thoracic aneurysm, which will require the most rapid intervention. The other patients also require rapid intervention but not before the patient with severe pain.

The following interventions are prescribed by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first? a. Give diphenhydramine. b. Administer epinephrine. c. Start continuous ECG monitoring. d. Draw blood for complete blood count.

b. Administer epinephrine. Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones completed.

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. b. Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. c. Start norepinephrine to keep blood pressure above 90 mm Hg. d. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL.

b. Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. Because of the decreased preload associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate and should be initiated quickly as well.

An older patient with a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm arrives at the emergency department (ED) with severe back pain and absent pedal pulses. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Draw blood for laboratory testing. b. Check the patient's blood pressure. c. Assess the patient for an abdominal bruit. d. Determine any family history of heart disease.

b. Check the patient's blood pressure. Because the patient appears to be experiencing aortic dissection, the nurse's first action should be to determine the hemodynamic status by assessing blood pressure. The other actions may also be done, but they will not provide information to determine what interventions are needed immediately.

A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Inspiratory crackles b. Heart rate 45 beats/min c. Cool, clammy extremities d. Temperature 101.2° F (38.4° C)

b. Heart rate 45 beats/min Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The other findings would be more consistent with other types of shock.

A patient has ST segment changes that suggest an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. Which lead would be the most useful for monitoring the patient? a. I b. II c. V2 d. V6

b. II Leads II, III, and AVF reflect the inferior area of the heart and the ST segment changes. Lead II will best capture any electrocardiographic changes that indicate further damage to the myocardium. The other leads do not reflect the inferior part of the myocardial wall and will not provide data about further ischemic changes in that area.

Several hours after a patient had an open surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm, the UAP reports to the nurse that urinary output for the past 2 hours has been 45 mL. What should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? a. Hemoglobin count b. Increased IV fluids c. Additional antibiotics d. Serum creatinine level

b. Increased IV fluids The decreased urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion and monitoring of renal function is needed. There is no indication that infection is a concern, so antibiotic therapy and a WBC count are not needed. The IV rate may be increased because hypovolemia may be contributing to the patient's decreased urinary output.

A nurse is caring for a patient whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg, a pulse of 64 beats/min, and a high pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Hold nitroprusside if systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg. d. Titrate dobutamine to keep systolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg.

b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. The patient's elevated PAWP indicates volume excess in relation to cardiac pumping ability, consistent with cardiogenic shock. A saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will worsen the volume excess. The other actions will help to improve cardiac output, which should lower the PAWP and may raise the BP.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Check temperature every 2 hours. b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. c. Maintain patient in supine position. d. Assess skin for flushing and itching.

b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. Because pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually elevated to decrease dyspnea in patients with cardiogenic shock. Elevated temperature and flushing or itching of the skin are not typical of cardiogenic shock.

Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care after endovascular repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Record hourly chest tube drainage. b. Monitor fluid intake and urine output. c. Assess the abdominal incision for redness. d. Counsel the patient to plan for a long recovery time.

b. Monitor fluid intake and urine output. Because renal artery occlusion can occur after endovascular repair, the nurse should monitor parameters of renal function such as intake and output. Chest tubes will not be needed for endovascular surgery, the recovery period will be short, and there will not be an abdominal wound.

The nurse is caring for a patient immediately after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. On assessment, the patient has absent popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses. The legs are cool and mottled. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Wrap both legs in a warming blanket. b. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist. c. Document the findings and recheck in 15 minutes. d. Compare findings to the preoperative assessment of the pulses.

b. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist. Lower extremity pulses may be absent for a short time after surgery because of vasospasm and hypothermia. Decreased or absent pulses together with a cool and mottled extremity may indicate embolization or graft occlusion. These findings should be reported to the surgeon immediately because this is an emergency situation. Because pulses are marked before surgery, the nurse would know whether pulses were present before surgery before notifying the health care providers about the absent pulses. Because the patient's symptoms may indicate graft occlusion or multiple emboli and a possible need to return to surgery, it is not appropriate to wait 15 minutes before taking action. A warming blanket will not improve the circulation to the patient's legs.

The nurse is admitting a patient newly diagnosed with peripheral artery disease who takes clopidogrel. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Cilostazol drug therapy b. Omeprazole drug therapy c. Use of treadmill for exercise d. Exercise to the point of discomfort

b. Omeprazole drug therapy Because the antiplatelet effect of clopidogrel is reduced when it is used with omeprazole, the nurse should clarify this order with the health care provider. The other interventions are appropriate for a patient with peripheral artery disease.

Which assessment finding in a patient who is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE) is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Muscle aching b. Right flank pain c. Janeway's lesions on the palms d. Temperature 100.7° F (38.1° C)

b. Right flank pain Flank pain indicates possible embolization to the kidney and may require diagnostic testing such as a renal arteriogram and interventions to improve renal perfusion. The other findings are typically found in IE but do not require any new interventions.

Which admission order written by the health care provider for a patient admitted with infective endocarditis (IE) and a fever would be a priority for the nurse to implement? a. Administer ceftriaxone 1 gram IV. b. Order blood cultures from two sites. c. Schedule a transesophageal echocardiogram. d. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) PRN for fever.

b. Order blood cultures from two sites. Treatment of the IE with antibiotics should be started as quickly as possible, but it is essential to obtain blood cultures before starting antibiotic therapy to obtain accurate sensitivity results. The echocardiogram and acetaminophen administration also should be implemented rapidly, but the blood cultures (and then administration of the antibiotic) have the highest priority.

After receiving information about four patients during change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with acute pericarditis who has a pericardial friction rub. b. Patient who has just returned to the unit after balloon valvuloplasty. c. Patient who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and a heart rate of 116. d. Patient with a mitral valve replacement who has an anticoagulant scheduled.

b. Patient who has just returned to the unit after balloon valvuloplasty. The patient who has just arrived after balloon valvuloplasty will need assessment for complications such as bleeding and hypotension. The information about the other patients is consistent with their diagnoses and does not indicate any complications or need for urgent assessment or intervention.

After receiving change-of-shift report on four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with rheumatic fever who has sharp chest pain with a deep breath. b. Patient with acute aortic regurgitation whose blood pressure is 86/54 mm Hg. c. Patient with infective endocarditis who has a murmur and splinter hemorrhages. d. Patient with dilated cardiomyopathy who has bilateral crackles at the lung bases.

b. Patient with acute aortic regurgitation whose blood pressure is 86/54 mm Hg. Hypotension in patients with acute aortic regurgitation may indicate cardiogenic shock. The nurse should immediately assess this patient for other findings such as dyspnea, chest pain or tachycardia. The findings in the other patients are typical of their diagnoses and do not indicate a need for urgent assessment and intervention.

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. d. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring.

b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. ECG monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished but only after actions to maximize O2 delivery have been implemented.

A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside infusion to treat cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the drug is effective? a. No heart murmur b. Skin is warm and pink c. Decreased troponin level d. Blood pressure of 92/40 mm Hg

b. Skin is warm and pink Warm, pink, and dry skin indicates that perfusion to tissues is improved. Because nitroprusside is a vasodilator, the blood pressure may be low even if the drug is effective. Absence of a heart murmur and a decrease in troponin level are not indicators of improvement in shock.

Which action should the nurse include in a community health program to decrease the incidence of rheumatic fever? a. Vaccinate high-risk groups in the community with streptococcal vaccine. b. Teach community members to seek treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis. c. Teach about the importance of monitoring temperature when sore throats occur. d. Teach about prophylactic antibiotics to those with a family history of rheumatic fever.

b. Teach community members to seek treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis. The incidence of rheumatic fever is decreased by treatment of streptococcal infections with antibiotics. Family history is not a risk factor for rheumatic fever. There is no immunization that is effective in decreasing the incidence of rheumatic fever. Teaching about monitoring temperature will not decrease the incidence of rheumatic fever.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with mitral valve regurgitation. Which information obtained by the nurse should be reported to the health care provider immediately? a. The patient has 4+ peripheral edema. b. The patient has diffuse bilateral crackles. c. The patient has a loud systolic murmur across the precordium. d. The patient has a palpable thrill felt over the left anterior chest.

b. The patient has diffuse bilateral crackles. Crackles that are audible throughout the lungs indicate that the patient is experiencing severe left ventricular failure with pulmonary congestion and needs immediate interventions such as diuretics. A systolic murmur and palpable thrill would be expected in a patient with mitral regurgitation. Although 4+ peripheral edema indicates a need for a change in therapy, it does not need to be addressed urgently.

Norepinephrine has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine? a. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine. b. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. c. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min. d. The patient has had no urine output since admission.

b. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. Adequate fluid administration is essential before giving vasopressors to patients with hypovolemic shock. The patient's low central venous pressure indicates a need for more volume replacement. The other patient data are not contraindications to norepinephrine administration.

A patient who has a history of a transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI) is to receive a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which action by the nurse will decrease the risk for TRALI for this patient? a. Infuse PRBCs slowly over 4 hours. b. Transfuse leukocyte-reduced PRBCs. c. Administer the prescribed diuretic before the transfusion. d. Give the PRN dose of antihistamine before the transfusion.

b. Transfuse leukocyte-reduced PRBCs. TRALI is caused by a reaction between the donor and the patient leukocytes that causes pulmonary inflammation and capillary leaking. The other actions may help prevent respiratory problems caused by circulatory overload or by allergic reactions, but they will not prevent TRALI.

Which finding on a patient's nursing admission assessment is congruent with the initial medical diagnosis of a 6-cm thoracic aortic aneurysm? a. Low back pain b. Trouble swallowing c. Abdominal tenderness d. Changes in bowel habits

b. Trouble swallowing Difficulty swallowing may occur with a thoracic aneurysm because of pressure on the esophagus. The other symptoms will be important to assess for in patients with abdominal aortic aneurysms.

The nurse is admitting a patient with possible rheumatic fever. Which question on the admission health history focuses on a pertinent risk factor for rheumatic fever? a. "Do you use any illegal IV drugs?" b. "Have you ever injured your chest?" c. "Have you had a recent sore throat?" d. "Do you have a family history of heart disease?"

c. "Have you had a recent sore throat?" Rheumatic fever occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal infection. Although illicit IV drug use should be discussed with the patient before discharge, it is not a risk factor for rheumatic fever, and it would not be as pertinent when admitting the patient. Family history is not a risk factor for rheumatic fever. Chest injury would cause musculoskeletal chest pain rather than rheumatic fever.

Which statement by a 23-yr-old patient who has mitral valve prolapse (MVP) without valvular regurgitation indicates that discharge teaching has been effective? a. "I will take antibiotics before any dental appointments." b. "I will limit physical activity to avoid stressing the heart." c. "I should avoid over-the-counter drugs that contain stimulants." d. "I should take an aspirin a day to prevent clots from forming on the valve."

c. "I should avoid over-the-counter drugs that contain stimulants." Patients with MVP should avoid using stimulant drugs because they may exacerbate symptoms. Daily aspirin and restricted physical activity are not needed by patients with mild MVP. Antibiotic prophylaxis is needed for patients with MVP with regurgitation but will not be necessary for this patient.

The home health nurse is visiting a 30-yr-old patient recovering from rheumatic fever without carditis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will need prophylactic antibiotic therapy for 5 years." b. "I can take aspirin or ibuprofen to relieve my joint pain." c. "I will be immune to future episodes of rheumatic fever after this infection." d. "I should call the health care provider if I am fatigued or have difficulty breathing."

c. "I will be immune to future episodes of rheumatic fever after this infection." Patients with a history of rheumatic fever are more susceptible to a second episode. Patients with rheumatic fever without carditis require prophylaxis until age 20 years and for a minimum of 5 years. The other patient statements are correct.

A patient with rheumatic fever has subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, and polyarthritis. The patient reports that joint discomfort prevents favorite activities such as taking a daily walk and sewing. What problem should be the focus of nursing interventions? a. Social isolation b. General anxiety c. Activity intolerance d. Altered body image

c. Activity intolerance The patient's joint pain will lead to difficulty with activity. Although acute joint pain will be a problem for this patient, joint inflammation is a temporary clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever and is not associated with permanent joint changes. This patient did not provide any data to support a problem with social isolation, anxiety, or altered body image.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) in shock of unknown etiology. What should be the nurse's first action? a. Obtain the blood pressure. b. Check the level of orientation. c. Administer supplemental oxygen. d. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram.

c. Administer supplemental oxygen. The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—and administration of O2 should be done first. The other actions should be done as rapidly as possible after providing O2.

Which actions for a patient at risk for venous thromboembolism could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Monitor for any bleeding after anticoagulation therapy is started. b. Tell the patient to call immediately if any shortness of breath occurs. c. Apply sequential compression devices whenever the patient is in bed. d. Ask the patient about use of any herbal medicines or dietary supplements.

c. Apply sequential compression devices whenever the patient is in bed. UAP training includes the use of equipment that requires minimal nursing judgment, such as sequential compression devices. Patient assessment and teaching require more education and critical thinking and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

Which action by the nurse will determine if therapies ordered for a patient with chronic constrictive pericarditis are effective? a. Assess for the presence of a paradoxical pulse. b. Monitor for changes in the patient's sedimentation rate. c. Assess for the presence of jugular venous distention (JVD). d. Check the electrocardiogram (ECG) for ST segment changes.

c. Assess for the presence of jugular venous distention (JVD). Because the most common finding on physical examination for a patient with chronic constrictive pericarditis is jugular venous distention, a decrease in JVD indicates improvement. Paradoxical pulse, ST segment ECG changes, and changes in sedimentation rates occur with acute pericarditis but are not expected in chronic constrictive pericarditis.

A young adult patient tells the health care provider about experiencing cold, numb fingers and Raynaud's phenomenon is suspected. What type of testing should the nurse anticipate explaining to the patient? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hyperlipidemia c. Autoimmune disorders d. Coronary artery disease

c. Autoimmune disorders Secondary Raynaud's phenomenon may occur in conjunction with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. Patients should be screened for autoimmune disorders. Raynaud's phenomenon is not associated with hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia, or coronary artery disease.

The health care provider prescribes an infusion of heparin and daily partial thromboplastin time (PTT) testing for a patient with venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Obtain a Doppler for monitoring bilateral pedal pulses. b. Decrease the infusion when the PTT value is 65 seconds. c. Avoid giving IM medications to prevent localized bleeding. d. Have vitamin K available in case reversal of the heparin is needed.

c. Avoid giving IM medications to prevent localized bleeding. Intramuscular injections are avoided in patients receiving anticoagulation to prevent hematoma formation and bleeding from the site. A PTT of 65 seconds is within the therapeutic range. Vitamin K is used to reverse warfarin. Pulse quality is not affected by VTE.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a descending aortic dissection. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Weak pedal pulses b. Absent bowel sounds c. Blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg d. 25 mL of urine output over the past hour

c. Blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg The blood pressure is typically kept at less than 120 mm Hg systolic to minimize extension of the dissection. The nurse will need to notify the health care provider so that -blockers or other antihypertensive drugs can be prescribed. The other findings are typical with aortic dissection and should also be reported but do not require immediate action.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) given to a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. b. Ask the patient about nausea. c. Check stools for occult blood. d. Palpate for abdominal tenderness.

c. Check stools for occult blood. Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill patients. The other assessments will also be done, but these will not help in determining the effectiveness of the pantoprazole administration.

A 46-yr-old service-counter worker undergoes sclerotherapy for treatment of superficial varicose veins at an outpatient center. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the patient before discharge? a. Sitting at the work counter, rather than standing, is recommended. b. Exercise, such as walking or jogging, can cause recurrence of varicosities. c. Elastic compression stockings should be applied before getting out of bed. d. Taking an aspirin daily will help prevent clots from forming around venous valves.

c. Elastic compression stockings should be applied before getting out of bed. Elastic compression stockings are applied with the legs elevated to reduce pressure in the lower legs. Walking is recommended to prevent recurrent varicosities. Sitting and standing are both risk factors for varicose veins and venous insufficiency. An aspirin a day is not adequate to prevent venous thrombosis and would not be recommended for a patient who had just had sclerotherapy.

An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy. Hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? a. Increase the rate for the dopamine infusion. b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin infusion. c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion. d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline infusion.

c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5/.9 NS and nitroglycerin infusions will not directly decrease SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR.

The nurse is assessing a patient with myocarditis before giving a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Fatigue b. Leukocytosis c. Irregular pulse d. Generalized myalgia

c. Irregular pulse Myocarditis predisposes the heart to digoxin-associated dysrhythmias and toxicity. The other findings are common symptoms of myocarditis and there is no urgent need to report these.

Which finding by the nurse assessing a patient with acute pericarditis should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. Pulsus paradoxus 8 mm Hg b. Blood pressure (BP) of 168/94 mm Hg c. Jugular venous distention (JVD) to jaw level d. Level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with a deep breath

c. Jugular venous distention (JVD) to jaw level The JVD indicates that the patient may have developed cardiac tamponade and may need rapid intervention to maintain adequate cardiac output. Hypertension would not be associated with complications of pericarditis. The BP is not high enough to indicate that there is any immediate need to call the health care provider. A pulsus paradoxus of 8 mm Hg is normal. Level 6/10 chest pain should be treated but is not unusual with pericarditis.

A 21-yr-old woman is scheduled for percutaneous transluminal balloon valvuloplasty to treat mitral stenosis. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the advantages of valvuloplasty over valve replacement to the patient? a. Biologic valves will require immunosuppressive drugs after surgery. b. Mechanical mitral valves need to be replaced sooner than biologic valves. c. Lifelong anticoagulant therapy is needed after mechanical valve replacement. d. Ongoing cardiac care by a health care provider is not necessary after valvuloplasty.

c. Lifelong anticoagulant therapy is needed after mechanical valve replacement. Long-term anticoagulation therapy is needed after mechanical valve replacement, and this would restrict decisions about career and childbearing in this patient. Mechanical valves are durable and last longer than biologic valves. All valve repair procedures are palliative, not curative, and require lifelong health care. Biologic valves do not activate the immune system and immunosuppressive therapy is not needed.

When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients with shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside for a patient with cardiogenic shock and a high SVR

c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock Patients with neurogenic shock have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

When caring for a patient on the first postoperative day after an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Presence of flatus b. Hypoactive bowel sounds c. Maroon-colored liquid stool d. Abdominal pain with palpation

c. Maroon-colored liquid stool Loose, bloody (maroon-colored) stools at this time may indicate intestinal ischemia or infarction and should be reported immediately because the patient may need an emergency bowel resection. The other findings are normal on the first postoperative day after abdominal surgery.

An older adult patient who had a mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve is taking warfarin. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching? a. Use of daily aspirin for anticoagulation. b. Correct method for taking the radial pulse. c. Need for frequent laboratory blood testing. d. Plan to avoid any physical activity for 1 month.

c. Need for frequent laboratory blood testing. Anticoagulation with warfarin (Coumadin) is needed for a patient with mechanical valves to prevent clotting on the valve. This will require frequent international normalized ratio testing. Daily aspirin use will not be effective in reducing the risk for clots on the valve. Monitoring of the radial pulse is not necessary after valve replacement. Patients should resume activities of daily living as tolerated.

Which assessment finding for a patient who has been admitted with a right calf venous thromboembolism (VTE) requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Report of right calf pain b. Erythema of right lower leg c. New onset shortness of breath d. Temperature of 100.4° F (38° C)

c. New onset shortness of breath New onset dyspnea suggests a pulmonary embolus, which will require rapid actions such as O2 administration and notification of the health care provider. The other findings are typical of VTE.

After a patient who has septic shock receives 2 L of normal saline intravenously, the central venous pressure is 10 mm Hg and the blood pressure is 82/40 mm Hg. What medication should the nurse anticipate? a. Furosemide b. Nitroglycerin c. Norepinephrine d. Sodium nitroprusside

c. Norepinephrine When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are given to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure and improve tissue perfusion. Furosemide would cause diuresis and further decrease the BP. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

A patient recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis and reports level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with deep breathing. Which prescribed PRN medication will be the most appropriate for the nurse to give? a. Fentanyl 1 mg IV b. IV morphine sulfate 4 mg c. Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg d. Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg

c. Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg The pain associated with pericarditis is caused by inflammation, so nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (e.g., ibuprofen) are most effective. Opioid analgesics and acetaminophen are not very effective for the pain associated with pericarditis.

Which patient will need the nurse to plan discharge teaching about prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures? a. Patient admitted with a large acute myocardial infarction b. Patient being discharged after an exacerbation of heart failure c. Patient who had a mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve d. Patient being treated for rheumatic fever after a streptococcal infection

c. Patient who had a mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve Current American Heart Association guidelines recommend the use of prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures for patients with prosthetic valves to prevent infective endocarditis (IE). The other patients are not at risk for IE.

The nurse who works in the vascular clinic has several patients with venous insufficiency. Which patient should the nurse assign to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN)? a. Patient who has a history of venous thromboembolism and reports dyspnea. b. Patient who has been reporting increased edema and skin changes in the legs. c. Patient who needs wound care for a chronic venous stasis ulcer on the lower leg. d. Patient who needs teaching about compression stockings for venous insufficiency.

c. Patient who needs wound care for a chronic venous stasis ulcer on the lower leg. LPN education and scope of practice includes wound care. The other patients, which require more complex assessments or education, should be managed by the RN.

After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, who should the nurse care for first? a. Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases. b. Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/min. c. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new prescriptions for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics. d. Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg.

c. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new prescriptions for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics. Antibiotics should be given within the first hour for patients who have sepsis or suspected sepsis to prevent progression to systemic inflammatory response syndrome and septic shock. The data on the other patients indicate that they are more stable. Crackles heard only at the lung bases do not need immediate intervention in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction. Mild bradycardia does not usually need treatment in patients with a spinal cord injury. The findings for the patient admitted with anaphylaxis show resolution of bronchospasm and hypotension.

After reviewing the information shown in the accompanying figure for a patient with pneumonia and sepsis, which information is most important to report to the health care provider? Physical Assessment • Petechiae notes on chest and legs • Crackles heard bilaterally in lung bases • No redness or swelling at central line IV site Laboratory Data • Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 34mg/dL • Hematocrit 30% • Platelets 50,000/µL Vital Signs • Temp 100 degrees F (37.8 C) • Pulse 102/min • Respirations 26/min • BP 110/60 mm Hg • O2 Sat 93% on 2L O2 via nasal cannula a. Temperature and IV site appearance b. Oxygen saturation and breath sounds c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae d. Blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate

c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae The low platelet count and presence of petechiae suggest that the patient may have disseminated intravascular coagulation and that multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is developing. The other information will be discussed with the health care provider but does not show that the patient's condition is deteriorating or that a change in therapy is needed immediately.

A patient has chronic peripheral artery disease (PAD) of the legs and an ulcer on the right second toe. What should the nurse expect to find on assessment? a. Dilated superficial veins. b. Swollen, dry, scaly ankles. c. Prolonged capillary refill in all the toes. d. Serosanguineous drainage from the ulcer.

c. Prolonged capillary refill in all the toes. Capillary refill is prolonged in PAD because of the slower and decreased blood flow to the periphery. The other listed clinical manifestations are consistent with chronic venous disease.

What nursing assessment finding for a patient with infective endocarditis would be consistent with embolized vegetations from the tricuspid valve? a. Flank pain b. Splenomegaly c. Shortness of breath d. Mental status changes

c. Shortness of breath Embolization from the tricuspid valve would cause symptoms of pulmonary embolus. Flank pain, changes in mental status, and splenomegaly would be associated with embolization from the left-sided valves.

Which finding for a patient with mitral valve stenosis would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Diastolic murmur b. Peripheral edema c. Shortness of breath on exertion d. Right upper quadrant tenderness

c. Shortness of breath on exertion The pressure gradient changes in mitral stenosis lead to fluid backup into the lungs, resulting in hypoxemia and dyspnea. The other findings also may be associated with mitral valve disease but are not indicators of hypoxemia, which is a priority.

Which action by a nurse who is giving fondaparinux (Arixtra) to a patient with a lower leg venous thromboembolism (VTE) indicates that the nurse needs further education about the drug? a. The nurse avoids rubbing the site after giving the injection. b. The nurse injects the drug into the abdominal subcutaneous tissue. c. The nurse ejects the air bubble from the syringe before giving the drug. d. The nurse does not check partial thromboplastin time (PTT) before giving the drug.

c. The nurse ejects the air bubble from the syringe before giving the drug. The air bubble is not ejected before giving fondaparinux to avoid loss of drug. The other actions by the nurse are appropriate for subcutaneous administration of a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). LMWHs typically do not require ongoing PTT monitoring and dose adjustment.

A patient who has neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine infusion through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action? a. The patient's heart rate is 58 beats/min. b. The patient's extremities are warm and dry. c. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale. d. The patient's urine output is 28 mL over the past hour.

c. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale. The coldness and pallor at the infusion site suggest extravasation of the phenylephrine. The nurse should discontinue the IV and, if possible, infuse the drug into a central line. An apical pulse of 58 beats/min is typical for neurogenic shock but does not indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention. A 28-mL urinary output over 1 hour would require the nurse to monitor the output over the next hour, but an immediate change in therapy is not indicated. Warm, dry skin is consistent with early neurogenic shock, but it does not indicate a need for a change in therapy or immediate action.

Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a 90-kg patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. There are no signs of hemorrhage. b. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. c. Urine output 65 mL over the past hour. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.

c. Urine output 65 mL over the past hour. Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. Urine output should be equal to or more than 0.5 mL/kg/hr. The hemoglobin level and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion. The absence of hemorrhage helps to prevent further fluid loss but does not reflect fluid balance.

Which statement by a patient with restrictive cardiomyopathy indicates that the nurse's discharge teaching about self-management has been effective? a. "I will avoid taking aspirin or other antiinflammatory drugs." b. "I can restart my exercise program that includes hiking and biking." c. "I will need to limit my intake of salt and fluids even in hot weather." d. "I will take antibiotics before my teeth are cleaned at the dental office."

d. "I will take antibiotics before my teeth are cleaned at the dental office." Patients with restrictive cardiomyopathy are at risk for infective endocarditis and should use prophylactic antibiotics for any procedure that may cause bacteremia. The other statements indicate a need for more teaching by the nurse. Dehydration and vigorous exercise impair ventricular filling in patients with restrictive cardiomyopathy. There is no need to avoid salt (unless ordered), aspirin, or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.

Which topic should the nurse include in teaching for a patient with a venous stasis ulcer on the lower leg? a. Need to increase carbohydrate intake b. Methods of keeping the wound area dry c. Purpose of prophylactic antibiotic therapy d. Application of elastic compression stockings

d. Application of elastic compression stockings Compression of the leg is essential to healing of venous stasis ulcers. High dietary intake of protein, rather than carbohydrates, is needed. Prophylactic antibiotics are not routinely used for venous ulcers. Moist dressings are used to hasten wound healing.

Which nursing intervention for a patient who had an open repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 2 days previously is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Monitor the quality and presence of the pedal pulses. b. Teach the patient the signs of possible wound infection. c. Check the lower extremities for strength and movement. d. Help the patient to use a pillow to splint while coughing.

d. Help the patient to use a pillow to splint while coughing. Assisting a patient who has already been taught how to cough is part of routine postoperative care and within the education and scope of practice for UAP. Patient teaching and assessment of essential postoperative functions such as circulation and movement should be done by RNs.

A patient is being evaluated for postthrombotic syndrome. Which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Ask about leg pain with exercise. b. Determine the ankle-brachial index. c. Assess capillary refill in the patient's toes. d. Inspect for presence of lipodermatosclerosis.

d. Inspect for presence of lipodermatosclerosis. Clinical signs of postthrombotic syndrome include lipodermatosclerosis. In this situation, the skin on the lower leg becomes scarred, and the leg becomes tapered like an "inverted bottle." The other assessments would be done for patients with peripheral arterial disease.

An older patient with chronic atrial fibrillation develops sudden severe pain, pulselessness, pallor, and coolness in the right leg. After the nurse notifies the health care provider, what should the nurse do next? a. Apply a compression stocking to the leg. b. Elevate the leg above the level of the heart. c. Assist the patient in gently exercising the leg. d. Keep the patient in bed in the supine position.

d. Keep the patient in bed in the supine position. The patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute arterial occlusion. Resting the leg will decrease the O2 demand of the tissues and minimize ischemic damage until circulation can be restored. Elevating the leg or applying an elastic wrap will further compromise blood flow to the leg. Exercise will increase oxygen demand for the tissues of the leg.

A patient admitted with acute dyspnea is newly diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy. Which information will the nurse plan to teach the patient? a. A heart transplant should be scheduled as soon as possible. b. Elevating the legs above the heart will help relieve dyspnea. c. Careful compliance with diet and medications will prevent heart failure. d. Notify the health care provider about symptoms such as shortness of breath.

d. Notify the health care provider about symptoms such as shortness of breath. The patient should be instructed to notify the health care provider about any worsening of heart failure symptoms. Because dilated cardiomyopathy does not respond well to therapy, even patients with good compliance with therapy may have recurrent episodes of heart failure. Elevation of the legs above the heart will worsen symptoms (although this approach is appropriate for a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy). The patient with terminal or end-stage cardiomyopathy may consider heart transplantation.

The health care provider has prescribed bed rest with the feet elevated for a patient admitted to the hospital with venous thromboembolism of the left lower leg. Which action by the nurse is best? a. The patient's bed is placed in the Trendelenburg position. b. Two pillows are positioned under the calf of the affected leg. c. The bed is elevated at the knee and pillows are placed under both feet. d. One pillow is placed under the thighs and 2 pillows are under the lower legs.

d. One pillow is placed under the thighs and 2 pillows are under the lower legs. The purpose of elevating the feet is to enhance venous flow from the feet to the right atrium, which is best accomplished by placing 2 pillows under the feet and another under the thighs. Placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position will lower the head below heart level, which is not indicated for this patient. Placing pillows under the calf or elevating the bed at the knee may cause blood stasis at the calf level.

Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain when evaluating whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate b. Orientation c. Blood pressure d. Oxygen saturation

d. Oxygen saturation Because the airway edema that is associated with anaphylaxis can affect airway and breathing, the O2 saturation is the most critical assessment. Improvements in the other assessments will also be expected with effective treatment of anaphylactic shock.

A patient at the clinic says, "I always walk after dinner, but lately my leg cramps and hurts after just a few minutes. The pain goes away after I stop walking, though." What focused assessment should the nurse make? a. Look for the presence of tortuous veins bilaterally on the legs. b. Ask about any skin color changes that occur in response to cold. c. Assess for unilateral swelling, redness, and tenderness of either leg. d. Palpate for the presence of dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.

d. Palpate for the presence of dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses. The nurse should assess for other clinical manifestations of peripheral arterial disease in a patient who describes intermittent claudication. Changes in skin color that occur in response to cold are consistent with Raynaud's phenomenon. Tortuous veins on the legs suggest venous insufficiency. Unilateral leg swelling, redness, and tenderness indicate venous thromboembolism.

Which finding from a newly admitted adult patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) requires further investigation by the nurse? a. Isoelectric ST segment b. PR interval of 0.18 second c. QT interval of 0.38 second d. QRS interval of 0.14 second

d. QRS interval of 0.14 second Because the normal QRS interval is less than 0.12 seconds, the patient's QRS interval of 0.14 seconds indicates that the conduction through the ventricular conduction system is prolonged. The PR interval and QT interval are within normal range and ST segment should be isoelectric (flat).

Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin to treat septic shock indicates an immediate need for the nurse to contact the health care provider? a. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hr. b. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/min. c. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak. d. The patient reports diffuse chest pressure.

d. The patient reports diffuse chest pressure. Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion and cause chest pain or pressure. Low urine output, weal pulses, and tachycardia are consistent with the patient's diagnosis. They and should be reported to the health care provider but do not require an immediate need for a change in therapy.

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a 24-yr-old patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (CMP). Which information obtained by the nurse is most important in planning care? a. The patient had a recent upper respiratory infection. b. The patient has a family history of coronary artery disease. c. The patient reports using cocaine "a few times" as a teenager. d. The patient's 29-yr-old brother died from a sudden cardiac arrest.

d. The patient's 29-yr-old brother died from a sudden cardiac arrest. About half of all cases of hypertrophic CMP have a genetic basis, and it is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in otherwise healthy young people. The information about the patient's brother will be helpful in planning care (e.g., an automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator [AICD]) for the patient and in counseling other family members. The patient should be counseled against the use of stimulant drugs, but the limited past history indicates that the patient is not currently at risk for cocaine use. Viral infections and CAD are risk factors for dilated cardiomyopathy but not for hypertrophic CMP.

The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a seriously injured patient involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated arrival in 5 minutes. What should the nurse obtain in preparation for the patient's arrival? a. A dopamine infusion b. A hypothermia blanket c. Lactated Ringer's solution d. Two 16-gauge IV catheters

d. Two 16-gauge IV catheters A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large-bore IV lines to administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer's solution should be used cautiously and would not be prescribed until the patient has been assessed for liver abnormalities. Vasopressor infusion is not used as the initial therapy for hypovolemic shock. Patients in shock need to be kept warm not cool.

Which risk factor should the nurse focus on when teaching a patient who has a 5-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. Male gender b. Turner syndrome c. Abdominal trauma history d. Uncontrolled hypertension

d. Uncontrolled hypertension All the factors contribute to the patient's risk, but only hypertension can potentially be modified to decrease the patient's risk for further expansion of the aneurysm.

Which action could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) trained as electrocardiogram (ECG) technicians working on the cardiac unit? a. Select the best lead for monitoring a patient with an admission diagnosis of Dressler syndrome. b. Obtain a list of herbal medications used at home while admitting a new patient with pericarditis. c. Teach about the need to monitor the weight daily for a patient who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. d. Watch the heart monitor for changes in rhythm while a patient who had a valve replacement ambulates.

d. Watch the heart monitor for changes in rhythm while a patient who had a valve replacement ambulates. Under the supervision of registered nurses (RNs), UAPs check the patient's cardiac monitor and obtain information about changes in heart rate and rhythm with exercise. Teaching and obtaining information about home medications (prescribed or complementary) and selecting the best leads for monitoring patients require more critical thinking and should be done by the RN.

A patient is to receive an infusion of 250 mL of platelets over 2 hours through tubing that is labeled: 1 mL equals 10 drops. How many drops per minute will the nurse infuse?

21 To infuse 250 mL over 2 hours, the calculated drip rate is 20.8 drops/min or 21 drops/min.

When analyzing an electrocardiographic (ECG) rhythm strip of a patient with a regular heart rhythm, the nurse counts 30 small blocks from one R wave to the next. The nurse calculates the patient's heart rate as ____.

50 There are 1500 small blocks in a minute, and the nurse will divide 1500 by 30.

Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis? a. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day. b. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible. c. Take a daily multivitamin supplement with iron. d. Drink no more than two caffeinated beverages daily.

b. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible. Exposure to crowds increases the patient's risk for infection, the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. There is no restriction on caffeine use. Iron supplementation is generally not recommended. A high-fluid intake is recommended.

The nurse observes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. Which laboratory result the nurse should check? a. Schilling test b. Bilirubin level c. Stool occult blood d. Gastric acid analysis

b. Bilirubin level Jaundice is caused by the elevation of bilirubin level associated with red blood cell hemolysis. Other tests would not be helpful in monitoring hemolytic anemia.

A young adult who has von Willebrand disease is admitted to the hospital for minor knee surgery. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor? a. Platelet count b. Bleeding time c. Thrombin time d. Prothrombin time

b. Bleeding time The bleeding time is affected by von Willebrand disease. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and thrombin time are normal in von Willebrand disease.

Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia? a. A patient with chronic heart failure b. A patient who has viral pneumonia c. A patient who has right leg cellulitis d. A patient with multiple abdominal drains

a. A patient with chronic heart failure Patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection because of the low white blood cell production associated with this type of anemia, so the nurse should avoid assigning a roommate with any possible infectious process.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has thalassemia major? a. Administer chelation therapy as needed. b. Teach the patient to use iron supplements. c. Avoid the use of intramuscular injections. d. Notify health care provider of hemoglobin 11 g/dL.

a. Administer chelation therapy as needed. The frequent transfusions used to treat thalassemia major lead to iron toxicity in patients unless iron chelation therapy is consistently used. Iron supplementation is avoided in patients with thalassemia. There is no need to avoid intramuscular injections. The goal for patients with thalassemia major is to maintain a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL or greater.

A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) asks the nurse whether the planned chemotherapy will be worth undergoing. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "If you do not want to have chemotherapy, other treatment options include stem cell transplantation." b. "The side effects of chemotherapy are difficult, but AML often goes into remission with chemotherapy." c. "The decision about treatment is one that you and the doctor need to make rather than asking what I would do." d. "You don't need to make a decision about treatment right now because leukemias in adults tend to progress slowly."

b. "The side effects of chemotherapy are difficult, but AML often goes into remission with chemotherapy." This response uses therapeutic communication by addressing the patient's question and giving accurate information. The other responses either give inaccurate information or fail to address the patient's question, which will discourage the patient from asking the nurse for information.

An older patient who had knee replacement surgery 2 days ago can only tolerate being out of bed with physical therapy twice a day. Which potential complication should the nurse identify as a priority for this patient? a. Hypovolemic shock b. Venous thromboembolism c. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance d. Impaired d=surgical wound healing

b. Venous thromboembolism The patient is older and relatively immobile, which are two risk factors for development of DVT. The other potential complications are possible postoperative problems but they are not at a high risk based on the data about the patient.

The nurse obtains a health history from an older adult with a prosthetic mitral valve who has symptoms of infective endocarditis (IE). Which question by the nurse helps identify a risk factor for IE? a. "Do you have a history of a heart attack?" b. "Is there a family history of endocarditis?" c. "Have you had any recent immunizations?" d. "Have you had dental work done recently?"

d. "Have you had dental work done recently?" Dental procedures place the patient with a prosthetic mitral valve at risk for IE. Myocardial infarction, immunizations, and a family history of endocarditis are not risk factors for IE.

Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy? a. Platelet count b. Reticulocyte count c. Total lymphocyte count d. Absolute neutrophil count

d. Absolute neutrophil count Filgrastim increases the neutrophil count and function in neutropenic patients. Although total lymphocyte, platelet, and reticulocyte counts are also important to monitor in this patient, the absolute neutrophil count is used to evaluate the effects of filgrastim.

The nurse notes new onset confusion in an older patient who is normally alert and oriented. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Obtain the O2 saturation. b. Check the patient's pulse rate. c. Document the change in status. d. Notify the health care provider.

A, B, D, C a. Obtain the O2 saturation. b. Check the patient's pulse rate. d. Notify the health care provider. c. Document the change in status. Assessment for physiologic causes of new onset confusion such as pneumonia, infections, or perfusion problems should be the first action by the nurse. Airway and oxygenation should be assessed first, then circulation. After assessing the patient, the nurse should notify the health care provider. Finally, documentation of the assessments and care should be done.

When preparing to defibrillate a patient, in which order will the nurse perform the following steps? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Turn the defibrillator on. b. Deliver the electrical charge. c. Select the appropriate energy level. d. Place the hands-free, multifunction defibrillator pads on the patient's chest. e. Check the location of other staff and call out "all clear."

A, C, D, E, B a. Turn the defibrillator on. c. Select the appropriate energy level. d. Place the hands-free, multifunction defibrillator pads on the patient's chest. e. Check the location of other staff and call out "all clear." b. Deliver the electrical charge. This order will result in rapid defibrillation without endangering hospital staff.

A 20-yr-old patient has a mandatory electrocardiogram (ECG) before participating on a college soccer team. The patient is found to have sinus bradycardia, rate 52 and blood pressure (BP) 114/54 mm Hg. The student denies any health problems. What action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Allow the student to participate on the soccer team. b. Refer the student to a cardiologist for further testing. c. Tell the student to stop playing immediately if any dyspnea occurs. d. Obtain more detailed information about the student's family health history.

a. Allow the student to participate on the soccer team. In an aerobically trained individual, sinus bradycardia is normal. The student's normal BP and negative health history indicate that there is no need for a cardiology referral or for more detailed information about the family's health history. Dyspnea during an aerobic activity such as soccer is normal.

A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has new onset atrial fibrillation that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. What topic should the nurse plan to include in patient teaching? a. Anticoagulant therapy b. Permanent pacemakers c. Emergency cardioversion d. IV adenosine (Adenocard)

a. Anticoagulant therapy Atrial fibrillation therapy that has persisted for more than 48 hours requires anticoagulant treatment for 3 weeks before attempting cardioversion. This is done to prevent embolization of clots from the atria. Cardioversion may be done after several weeks of anticoagulation therapy. Adenosine is not used to treat atrial fibrillation. Pacemakers are routinely used for patients with brady dysrhythmias. Information does not indicate that the patient has a slow heart rate.

When planning care for a patient hospitalized with a streptococcal infective endocarditis (IE), which intervention is appropriate for the nurse to include? a. Arrange for placement of a long-term IV catheter. b. Monitor labs for levels of streptococcal antibodies. c. Teach the importance of completing all oral antibiotics. d. Encourage the patient to begin regular aerobic exercise.

a. Arrange for placement of a long-term IV catheter. Treatment for IE involves 4 to 6 weeks of IV antibiotic therapy to eradicate the bacteria, which will require a long-term IV catheter such as a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line. Rest periods and limiting physical activity to a moderate level are recommended during the treatment for IE. Oral antibiotics are not effective in eradicating the infective bacteria that cause IE. Blood cultures, rather than antibody levels, are used to monitor the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy.

After the nurse gives IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1, second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the drug has been effective? a. Increase in the patient's heart rate b. Increase in strength of peripheral pulses c. Decrease in premature atrial contractions d. Decrease in premature ventricular contractions

a. Increase in the patient's heart rate Atropine will increase the heart rate and conduction through the AV node. Because the drug increases electrical conduction, not cardiac contractility, the quality of the peripheral pulses is not used to evaluate the drug effectiveness. The patient does not have premature atrial or ventricular contractions.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient admitted with multiple myeloma? a. Monitor fluid intake and output. b. Administer calcium supplements. c. Assess lymph nodes for enlargement. d. Limit weight bearing and ambulation.

a. Monitor fluid intake and output. A high fluid intake and urine output helps prevent the complications of kidney stones caused by hypercalcemia and renal failure caused by deposition of Bence-Jones protein in the renal tubules. Weight bearing and ambulation are encouraged to help bone retain calcium. Lymph nodes are not enlarged with multiple myeloma. Calcium supplements will further increase the patient's calcium level and are not used.

The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment could be used to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies? a. Observe for distended neck veins. b. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs. c. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart. d. Monitor for elevated white blood cell count.

a. Observe for distended neck veins. Cor pulmonale is right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary hypertension, so clinical manifestations of right ventricular failure such as peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness would be expected. Crackles in the lungs are likely to be heard with left-sided heart failure. Findings in cor pulmonale include evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy on electrocardiography and an increase in intensity of the second heart sound. Heaves or thrills are not common with cor pulmonale. White blood count elevation might indicate infection but is not expected with cor pulmonale.

Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's recommendations about dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia? a. Omelet and whole wheat toast b. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese c. Strawberry and banana fruit plate d. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice

a. Omelet and whole wheat toast Eggs and whole grain breads are high in iron. The other choices are appropriate for other nutritional deficiencies but are not the best choice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia.

A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before obtaining and administering platelets? a. Platelet count is 42,000/L. b. Blood pressure is 94/56 mm Hg. c. Petechiae are present on the chest. d. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site.

a. Platelet count is 42,000/L. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/L unless the patient is actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the order with the health care provider before giving the transfusion. The other data all indicate that bleeding caused by ITP may be occurring and that the platelet transfusion is appropriate.

Which nursing intervention is appropriate for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy? a. Test all stools for occult blood. b. Encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day. c. Provide oral hygiene every 2 hours. d. Check the temperature every 4 hours.

a. Test all stools for occult blood. Because the patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding, the nurse should check stools for occult blood. A low platelet count does not require an increased fluid intake. Oral hygiene is important, but it is not necessary to provide oral care every 2 hours. The low platelet count does not increase risk for infection, so frequent temperature monitoring is not indicated.

Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first? a. A 44-yr-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look yellow b. A 23-yr-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender axillary lump c. A 50-yr-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue d. A 19-yr-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII

b. A 23-yr-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender axillary lump The patient's age and presence of a nontender axillary lump suggest possible lymphoma, which needs rapid diagnosis and treatment. The other patients have questions about treatment or symptoms that are consistent with their diagnosis but do not need to be seen urgently.

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 77-yr-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four medications due b. A 46-yr-old patient on bed rest who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath c. A 35-yr-old patient with pneumonia who has a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) d. A 23-yr-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled

b. A 46-yr-old patient on bed rest who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism and requires immediate assessment and action such as O2 administration. The other patients should be assessed as soon as possible, but there is no indication that they may need immediate action to prevent clinical deterioration.

What finding should the nurse expect during the assessment of a young adult with infective endocarditis (IE)? a. Substernal chest pressure b. A new regurgitant murmur c. A pruritic rash on the chest d. Involuntary muscle movement

b. A new regurgitant murmur New regurgitant murmurs occur in IE because vegetations on the valves prevent valve closure. Substernal chest discomfort, rashes, and involuntary muscle movement are clinical manifestations of other cardiac disorders such as angina and rheumatic fever.

A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take? a. Send a urine specimen to the laboratory. b. Administer PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). c. Draw blood for a new type and crossmatch. d. Give the prescribed PRN diphenhydramine.

b. Administer PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with a febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped, and antipyretics administered for the fever as ordered. A urine specimen is needed if an acute hemolytic reaction is suspected. Diphenhydramine is used for allergic reactions. This type of reaction does not indicate incorrect crossmatching.

How should the nurse assess the patient with pericarditis for evidence of a pericardial friction rub? a. Listen for a rumbling, low-pitched, systolic murmur over the left anterior chest. b. Auscultate with the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the lower left sternal border. c. Ask the patient to cough during auscultation to distinguish the sound from a pleural friction rub. d. Feel the precordial area with the palm of the hand to detect vibrations with cardiac contraction.

b. Auscultate with the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the lower left sternal border. Pericardial friction rubs are best heard with the diaphragm at the lower left sternal border. The nurse should ask the patient to hold his or her breath during auscultation to distinguish the sounds from a pleural friction rub. Friction rubs are not typically low pitched or rumbling and are not confined to systole. Rubs are not assessed by palpation.

Which intervention will be included in the nursing care plan for a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura? a. Assign the patient to a private room. b. Avoid intramuscular (IM) injections. c. Use rinses rather than a soft toothbrush for oral care. d. Restrict activity to passive and active range of motion.

b. Avoid intramuscular (IM) injections. IM or subcutaneous injections should be avoided because of the risk for bleeding. A soft toothbrush can be used for oral care. There is no need to restrict activity or place the patient in a private room.

A routine complete blood count for an active older man indicates possible myelodysplastic syndrome. What should the nurse plan to explain to the patient? a. Blood transfusion b. Bone marrow biopsy c. Filgrastim administration d. Erythropoietin administration

b. Bone marrow biopsy Bone marrow biopsy is needed to make the diagnosis and determine the specific type of myelodysplastic syndrome. The other treatments may be necessary later if there is progression of the myelodysplastic syndrome, but the initial action for this asymptomatic patient will be a bone marrow biopsy.

Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a patient who has neutropenia? a. Avoid intramuscular injections. b. Check temperature every 4 hours. c. Place a "No Visitors" sign on the door. d. Omit fruits and vegetables from the diet.

b. Check temperature every 4 hours. The earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is an elevation in temperature. While unpeeled fresh fruits and vegetables should be avoided, fruits and vegetables that are peeled or cooked are acceptable. Injections may be required for administration of medications such as filgrastim (Neupogen). The number of visitors may be limited and visitors with communicable diseases should be avoided, but a "no visitors" policy is not needed.

A patient who has been receiving IV heparin infusion and oral warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when the platelet level drops to 110,000/µL. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Prepare for platelet transfusion. b. Discontinue the heparin infusion. c. Administer prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). d. Give low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).

b. Discontinue the heparin infusion. All heparin is discontinued when HIT is diagnosed. The patient should be instructed to never receive heparin or LMWH. Warfarin is usually not given until the platelet count has returned to 150,000/µL. The platelet count does not drop low enough in HIT for a platelet transfusion, and platelet transfusions increase the risk for thrombosis.

A patient has a sinus rhythm and a heart rate of 72 beats/min. The nurse determines that the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What action should the nurse take? a. Notify the health care provider immediately. b. Document the finding and monitor the patient. c. Give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Prepare the patient for temporary pacemaker insertion.

b. Document the finding and monitor the patient. First-degree atrioventricular block is asymptomatic and requires ongoing monitoring because it may progress to more serious forms of heart block. The rate is normal, so there is no indication that atropine is needed. Immediate notification of the health care provider about an asymptomatic rhythm is not necessary.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with possible acute pericarditis. What diagnostic test would the nurse expect the patient to undergo? a. Blood cultures b. Echocardiography c. Cardiac catheterization d. 24-hour Holter monitor

b. Echocardiography Echocardiograms are useful in detecting the presence of the pericardial effusions associated with pericarditis. Blood cultures are not indicated unless the patient has evidence of sepsis. Cardiac catheterization and 24-hour Holter monitor are not diagnostic procedures for pericarditis.

Which nursing intervention is important when providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis? a. Limiting the patient's intake of oral and IV fluids b. Evaluating the effectiveness of opioid analgesics c. Encouraging the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated d. Teaching the patient about high-protein, high-calorie foods

b. Evaluating the effectiveness of opioid analgesics Pain is the most common clinical manifestation of a crisis and usually requires large doses of continuous opioids for control. Fluid intake should be increased to reduce blood viscosity and improve perfusion. Rest is usually ordered to decrease metabolic requirements. Patients are instructed about the need for dietary folic acid, but high-protein, high-calorie diets are not emphasized.

A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. Which nutrient supplement should the nurse plan to explain to the patient? a. Iron b. Folic acid c. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) d. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)

b. Folic acid Methotrexate use can lead to folic acid deficiency. Supplementation with oral folic acid supplements is the usual treatment. The other nutrients would not correct folic acid deficiency, although they would be used to treat other types of anemia.

A patient with supraventricular tachycardia who is alert and has a blood pressure of 110/66 mm Hg is being prepared for cardioversion. Which action should the nurse take? a. Turn the synchronizer switch to the "off" position. b. Give a sedative before cardioversion is implemented. c. Set the defibrillator/cardioverter energy to 360 joules. d. Provide assisted ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

b. Give a sedative before cardioversion is implemented. When a patient has a nonemergency cardioversion, sedation is used just before the procedure. The synchronizer switch is turned "on" for cardioversion. The initial level of joules for cardioversion is low (e.g., 50). Assisted ventilations are not indicated for this patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient with type A hemophilia being admitted to the hospital with severe pain and swelling in the right knee. Which action should the nurse take? a. Apply heat to the knee. b. Immobilize the knee joint. c. Assist the patient with light weight bearing. d. Perform passive range of motion to the knee.

b. Immobilize the knee joint. The initial action should be total rest of the knee to minimize bleeding. Ice packs are used to decrease bleeding. Range of motion (ROM) and weight-bearing exercise are contraindicated initially, but after the bleeding stops, ROM and physical therapy are started.

Which potential complication should the nurse identify as a high risk for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia? a. Seizures b. Infection c. Neurogenic shock d. Pulmonary edema

b. Infection Because the patient with aplastic anemia has pancytopenia, the patient is at risk for infection and bleeding. There is no increased risk for seizures, neurogenic shock, or pulmonary edema.

Which action by a new registered nurse (RN) who is orienting to the telemetry unit indicates a good understanding of the treatment of heart dysrhythmias? a. Prepares defibrillator settings at 360 joules for a patient whose monitor shows asystole. b. Injects IV adenosine (Adenocard) over 2 seconds for a patient with supraventricular tachycardia. c. Turns the synchronizer switch to the "on" position before defibrillating a patient with ventricular fibrillation. d. Gives the prescribed dose of diltiazem (Cardizem) to a patient with new-onset type II second-degree AV block.

b. Injects IV adenosine (Adenocard) over 2 seconds for a patient with supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine must be given over 1 to 2 seconds to be effective. The other actions indicate a need for more teaching about treatment of heart dysrhythmias. The RN should hold the diltiazem until discussing it with the health care provider. The treatment for asystole is immediate CPR. The synchronizer switch should be "off" when defibrillating.

A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is considering treatment with a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). What is the best approach for the nurse to assist the patient with this treatment decision? a. Discuss the need for insurance to cover post-HSCT care. b. Inquire whether there are questions or concerns about HSCT. c. Emphasize the positive outcomes of a bone marrow transplant. d. Explain that a cure is not possible with any treatment except HSCT.

b. Inquire whether there are questions or concerns about HSCT. Offering the patient an opportunity to ask questions or discuss concerns about HSCT will encourage the patient to voice concerns about this treatment and will allow the nurse to assess whether the patient needs more information about the procedure. Treatment of AML using chemotherapy is another option for the patient. It is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient to consider insurance needs in making this decision.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who was admitted with syncopal episodes of unknown origin? a. Explain the association between dysrhythmias and syncope. b. Instruct the patient to call for assistance before getting out of bed. c. Teach the patient about the need to avoid caffeine and other stimulants. d. Tell the patient about the benefits of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators.

b. Instruct the patient to call for assistance before getting out of bed. A patient with fainting episodes is at risk for falls. The nurse will plan to minimize the risk by having assistance whenever the patient is up. The other actions may be needed if dysrhythmias are found to be the cause of the patient's syncope but are not appropriate for syncope of unknown origin.

The nurse has obtained the health history, physical assessment data, and laboratory results shown in the accompanying figure for a patient admitted with aplastic anemia. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? History • Fatigue, which has increased over last month • Frequent constipation Physical Assessment • Conjunctiva pale pink, moist • Multiple bruises • Clear lung sounds Laboratory Results • Hct 33% • WBC 1500/µL • Platelets 70,000/µL a. Bruising b. Neutropenia c. Increasing fatigue d. Thrombocytopenia

b. Neutropenia The low white blood cell count indicates that the patient is at high risk for infection and needs immediate actions to diagnose and treat the cause of the leukopenia. The other information may require further assessment or treatment but does not place the patient at immediate risk for complications.

The nurse suspects cardiac tamponade in a patient who has acute pericarditis. How should the nurse assess for the presence of pulsus paradoxus? a. Subtract the diastolic blood pressure from the systolic blood pressure. b. Note when Korotkoff sounds are heard during both inspiration and expiration. c. Check the electrocardiogram (ECG) for variations in rate during the respiratory cycle. d. Listen for a pericardial friction rub that persists when the patient is instructed to stop breathing.

b. Note when Korotkoff sounds are heard during both inspiration and expiration. Pulsus paradoxus exists when there is a gap of greater than 10 mm Hg between when Korotkoff sounds can be heard during only expiration and when they can be heard throughout the respiratory cycle. The other methods described would not be useful in determining the presence of pulsus paradoxus. The difference between the diastolic blood pressure and the systolic blood pressure is known as the pulse pressure.

Which nursing action can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working as telemetry technicians on the cardiac care unit? a. Decide whether a patient's heart rate of 116 requires urgent treatment. b. Observe heart rhythms for multiple patients who have telemetry monitoring. c. Monitor a patient's level of consciousness during synchronized cardioversion. d. Select the best lead for monitoring a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome.

b. Observe heart rhythms for multiple patients who have telemetry monitoring. UAP serving as telemetry technicians can monitor heart rhythms for individuals or groups of patients. Nursing actions such as assessment and choice of the most appropriate lead based on ST segment elevation location require RN-level education and scope of practice.

The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy. b. Obtain the patient's temperature and blood pressure before the transfusion. c. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band. d. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion.

b. Obtain the patient's temperature and blood pressure before the transfusion. UAP education includes measurement of vital signs. UAP would report the vital signs to the registered nurse (RN). The other actions require more education and a larger scope of practice and should be done by licensed nursing staff members.

A patient's heart monitor shows a pattern of undulations of varying contours and amplitude with no measurable ECG pattern. The patient is unconscious, apneic, and pulseless. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin) IV. b. Perform immediate defibrillation. c. Prepare for endotracheal intubation. d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask device.

b. Perform immediate defibrillation. The patient's rhythm and assessment indicate ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest; the initial action should be to defibrillate. If a defibrillator is not immediately available or is unsuccessful in converting the patient to a better rhythm, begin chest compressions. The other actions may also be appropriate but not first.

Which action should the nurse plan to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient? a. Turn and reposition an immobile patient at least every 2 hours. b. Place a patient with altered consciousness in a side-lying position. c. Insert a nasogastric tube for feeding a patient with high-calorie needs. d. Monitor respiratory symptoms in a patient who is immunosuppressed.

b. Place a patient with altered consciousness in a side-lying position. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. The risk for aspiration is decreased when patients with a decreased level of consciousness are placed in aside-lying or upright position. Frequent turning prevents pooling of secretions in immobilized patients but will not decrease the risk for aspiration in patients at risk. Monitoring of parameters such as breath sounds and O2 saturation will help detect pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, but it will not decrease the risk for aspiration. Conditions that increase the risk of aspiration include decreased level of consciousness (e.g., seizure, anesthesia, head injury, stroke, alcohol intake), difficulty swallowing, and nasogastric intubation with or without tube feeding.

When a patient with splenomegaly is scheduled for splenectomy, which action will the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care? a. Recommend ibuprofen for left upper quadrant pain. b. Schedule immunization with the pneumococcal vaccine. c. Avoid the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for 2 weeks prior to surgery. d. Discourage deep breathing and coughing to reduce risk for splenic rupture.

b. Schedule immunization with the pneumococcal vaccine. Asplenic patients are at high risk for infection with pneumococcal infections and immunization reduces this risk. There is no need to avoid acetaminophen use before surgery, but nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase bleeding risk and should be avoided. The enlarged spleen may decrease respiratory depth, and the patient should be encouraged to take deep breaths.

Which information obtained by the nurse assessing a patient admitted with multiple myeloma is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient reports severe back pain. b. Serum calcium level is 15 mg/dL. c. Patient reports no stool for 5 days. d. Urine sample has Bence-Jones protein.

b. Serum calcium level is 15 mg/dL. Hypercalcemia may lead to complications such as dysrhythmias or seizures and should be addressed quickly. The other patient findings will also be discussed with the health care provider but are not life threatening.

A patient is apneic and has no palpable pulses. The heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132. What action should the nurse take next? a. Perform synchronized cardioversion. b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Apply supplemental O2 via non-rebreather mask.

b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The patient's manifestations indicate pulseless electrical activity, and the nurse should immediately start CPR. The other actions would not be of benefit to this patient.

Which problem reported by a patient with hemophilia is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Leg bruises b. Tarry stools c. Skin abrasions d. Bleeding gums

b. Tarry stools Melena is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and requires collaborative actions such as checking hemoglobin and hematocrit and administration of coagulation factors. The other problems indicate a need for patient teaching about how to avoid injury but are not indicators of possible serious blood loss.

A patient receiving outpatient chemotherapy for myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL. Which collaborative action should the outpatient clinic nurse anticipate? a. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia. b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. c. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves. d. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home.

b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. The patient may be taught to self-administer filgrastim injections. Although chemotherapy may be stopped with severe neutropenia (neutrophil count <500/µL), administration of filgrastim usually allows the chemotherapy to continue. Patients with neutropenia are at higher risk for infection when exposed to other patients in the hospital. HEPA filters are expensive and are used in the hospital, where the number of pathogens is much higher than in the patient's home environment.

Which assessment finding should the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia communicate immediately to the health care provider? a. Bruises on the patient's back. b. The patient is difficult to arouse. c. Purpura on the patient's oral mucosa. d. The patient's platelet count is 52,000/µL.

b. The patient is difficult to arouse. Difficulty in arousing the patient may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage, which is life threatening and requires immediate action. The other information should be documented and reported but would not be unusual in a patient with thrombocytopenia.

Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse? a. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain. b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8° F. c. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction. d. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours.

b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8° F. A neutropenic patient with a fever is assumed to have an infection and is at risk for rapidly developing sepsis. Rapid assessment, cultures, and initiation of antibiotic therapy are needed. The other patients also require rapid assessment and care but not as urgently as the neutropenic patient.

The nurse assesses a patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's temperature is 100.3 F (37.9 C) b. The patient's calf is swollen and warm to touch c. The patient reports abdominal pain when ambulating d. The patient has a fluid intake 600 mL greater then output

b. The patient's calf is swollen and warm to touch The calf pain, swelling, and warmth suggest that the patient has a venous thromboembolism (VTE). This will require the health care provider to prescribe diagnostic tests, anticoagulants, or both and is most critical because a VTE could result in a pulmonary embolism. Because the stress response causes fluid retention for the first 2 to 5 days postoperatively, the difference between intake and output is expected. A temperature elevation to 100.3° F on the second postoperative day is suggestive of atelectasis, and the nurse should have the patient deep breathe and cough. Pain with ambulation is normal, and the nurse should administer the prescribed analgesic before patient activities.

Which assessment finding(s) indicate to the nurse that a patient with infective endocarditis has decreased cardiac output? a. Fever, chills, and diaphoresis b. Urine production of 25 mL/hr c. Increase in heart rate of 15 beats/min with walking d. Petechiae on the inside of the mouth and conjunctiva

b. Urine production of 25 mL/hr Decreased renal perfusion caused by inadequate cardiac output will lead to decreased urine output. Petechiae, fever, chills, and diaphoresis are symptoms of IE but are not caused by decreased cardiac output. An increase in pulse rate of 15 beats/min is normal with exercise.

A patient's heart monitor shows that every other beat is earlier than expected, has no visible P wave, and has a QRS complex that is wide and bizarre in shape. How will the nurse document the rhythm? a. Ventricular couplets b. Ventricular bigeminy c. Ventricular R-on-T phenomenon d. Multifocal premature ventricular contractions

b. Ventricular bigeminy Ventricular bigeminy describes a rhythm in which every other QRS complex is wide and bizarre looking. Pairs of wide QRS complexes are described as ventricular couplets. There is no indication that the premature ventricular contractions are multifocal or that the R-on-T phenomenon is occurring.

Which patient statement to the nurse indicates that the patient understands self-care for pernicious anemia? a. "I need to start eating more red meat and liver." b. "I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner." c. "I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12." d. "I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec)."

c. "I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12." Because pernicious anemia prevents the absorption of vitamin B12, this patient requires injections or intranasal administration of cobalamin. Alcohol use does not cause cobalamin deficiency. Proton pump inhibitors decrease the absorption of vitamin B12. Eating more foods rich in vitamin B12 is not helpful because the lack of intrinsic factor prevents absorption of the vitamin.

Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction about taking oral ferrous sulfate? a. "I could take a stool softener if I feel constipated." b. "I can take the iron with orange juice before eating." c. "I should notify my health care provider if my stools turn black." d. "I will increase my fluid and fiber intake while I am taking iron."

c. "I should notify my health care provider if my stools turn black." It is normal for the stools to appear black when a patient is taking iron, and the patient should not call the health care provider about this. The other patient statements are correct.

A patient has a junctional escape rhythm on the monitor. What heart rate should the nurse expect the patient to have? a. 15 to 20 b. 20 to 40 c. 40 to 60 d. 60 to 100

c. 40 to 60 If the sinoatrial (SA) node does not discharge, the atrioventricular (AV) node will automatically discharge at the normal rate of 40 to 60 beats/min. The slower rates are typical of the bundle of His and Purkinje system and may be seen with failure of both the SA and AV node to discharge. The normal SA node rate is 60 to 100 beats/min.

The nurse monitors a patient in the emergency department after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. Which assessment finding is of most concern? a. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber b. Report of pain with each deep inspiration c. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber d. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site

c. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber The large amount of blood may indicate that the patient is in danger of developing hypovolemic shock. An air leak would be expected after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. Initially, brisk bubbling of air occurs in this chamber when a pneumothorax is evacuated. The pain should be treated but is not as urgent a concern as the possibility of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema should be monitored but is not unusual in a patient with pneumothorax. A small amount of subcutaneous air is harmless and will be reabsorbed.

After receiving change-of-shift report for several patients with neutropenia, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 23-yr-old who reports severe fatigue b. A 56-yr-old with frequent explosive diarrhea c. A 33-yr-old with a fever of 100.8° F (38.2° C) d. A 66-yr-old who has white pharyngeal lesions

c. A 33-yr-old with a fever of 100.8° F (38.2° C) Any fever in a neutropenic patient indicates infection and can quickly lead to sepsis and septic shock. Rapid assessment and (if prescribed) initiation of antibiotic therapy within 1 hour are needed. The other patients also need to be assessed but do not have symptoms of potentially life-threatening problems.

After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 40-yr-old with a pleural effusion who reports severe stabbing chest pain b. A 72-yr-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet c. A 64-yr-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion d. A 28-yr-old with a history of a lung transplant 1 month ago and a fever of 101° F (38.3° C)

c. A 64-yr-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion The patient's history and symptoms suggest possible tension pneumothorax, a medical emergency. The other patients also require assessment as soon as possible, but tension pneumothorax will require immediate treatment to avoid death from inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia.

Which action for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN)? a. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection b. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection d. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/VN education and scope of practice. Patient teaching, assessment, and developing the plan of care require RN level education and scope of practice.

A 19-year-old student comes to the student health center at the end of the semester stating, "My heart is skipping beats." An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows occasional unifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). What action should the nurse take next? a. Insert an IV catheter for emergency use. b. Start supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. c. Ask the patient about current stress level and caffeine use. d. Have the patient taken to the nearest emergency department (ED).

c. Ask the patient about current stress level and caffeine use. In a patient with a normal heart, occasional PVCs are a benign finding. The timing of the PVCs suggests stress or caffeine as possible etiologic factors. The patient is hemodynamically stable, so there is no indication that the patient needs supplemental O2, an IV, or to be seen in the ED.

Which finding about a patient with polycythemia vera is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 55% b. Presence of plethora c. Calf swelling and pain d. Platelet count 450,000/L

c. Calf swelling and pain The calf swelling and pain suggest that the patient may have developed a deep vein thrombosis, which will require diagnosis and treatment to avoid complications such as pulmonary embolus. The other findings will also be reported to the health care provider but are expected in a patient with this diagnosis.

Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia? a. Provide a diet high in vitamin K. b. Teach the patient how to avoid injury. c. Encourage alternating rest and activity. d. Place the patient on protective isolation.

c. Encourage alternating rest and activity. Nursing care for patients with anemia should alternate periods of rest and activity to avoid undue fatigue. There is no indication that the patient has a bleeding disorder, so a diet high in vitamin K or teaching about how to avoid injury is not needed. Protective isolation might be used for a patient with aplastic anemia, but it is not indicated for hemolytic anemia.

A patient on the telemetry unit develops atrial flutter, rate 150, with associated dyspnea and chest pain. Which action that is included in the agency dysrhythmia protocol should the nurse do first? a. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). b. Notify the health care provider of the change in rhythm. c. Give supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. d. Assess the patient's blood pressure and discomfort level.

c. Give supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. Because this patient has dyspnea and chest pain in association with the new rhythm, the nurse's initial actions should be to address the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) by starting with O2 administration. The other actions are also important and should be implemented rapidly.

A patient's heart monitor shows sinus rhythm, rate 64. The PR interval is 0.18 seconds at 1:00 AM, 0.22 seconds at 2:30 PM, and 0.28 seconds at 4:00 PM. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Place the transcutaneous pacemaker pads on the patient. b. Give atropine sulfate 1 mg IV per agency dysrhythmia protocol. c. Hold the scheduled metoprolol (Lopressor) and call the health care provider. d. Document the patient's rhythm and PR measurements in the medical record.

c. Hold the scheduled metoprolol (Lopressor) and call the health care provider. The patient has progressive first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, and the beta-blocker should be held until discussing the drug with the health care provider. Documentation is appropriate later. The patient with first-degree AV block usually is asymptomatic; if the patient became symptomatic, a pacemaker or atropine may be used.

A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which prescribed action will the nurse implement first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg. c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. d. Schedule complete blood count and coagulation studies.

c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. The patient's blood pressure indicates hypovolemia caused by blood loss and should be addressed immediately to improve perfusion to vital organs. The other actions are also appropriate and should be rapidly implemented, but improving perfusion is the priority for this patient.

A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Avoid other venipunctures. b. Apply dressings to the sites. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.

c. Notify the health care provider. The patient's new onset of bleeding and diagnosis of sepsis suggest that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may have developed, which will require collaborative actions such as diagnostic testing, blood product administration, and heparin administration. The other actions are also appropriate, but the most important action should be to notify the health care provider so that DIC treatment can be initiated rapidly.

A patient has a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. Which initial assessment finding is of most concern to the emergency department nurse? a. Report of chest wall pain b. Heart rate of 110 beats/min c. Paradoxical chest movement d. Large bruised area on the chest

c. Paradoxical chest movement Paradoxical chest movement indicates that the patient may have flail chest, which can severely compromise gas exchange and can rapidly lead to hypoxemia. Chest wall pain, a slightly elevated pulse rate, and chest bruising all require further assessment or intervention, but the priority concern is poor gas exchange.

Which finding indicates to the nurse that the administered nifedipine (Procardia) was effective for a patient who has idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH)? a. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/min. b. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields. c. Patient reports a decrease in exertional dyspnea. d. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.

c. Patient reports a decrease in exertional dyspnea. Because a major symptom of IPAH is exertional dyspnea, an improvement in this symptom would indicate that the medication was effective. Nifedipine will affect BP and heart rate, but these parameters would not be used to monitor the effectiveness of therapy for a patient with IPAH. The chest x-ray will show clear lung fields even if the therapy is not effective.

A patient has pain due to acute pericarditis. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this problem? a. Teach the patient to take deep, slow breaths to control the pain. b. Force fluids to 3000 mL/day to decrease fever and inflammation. c. Place the patient in Fowler's position, leaning forward on the table. d. Provide a fresh ice bag every hour for the patient to place on the chest.

c. Place the patient in Fowler's position, leaning forward on the table. Sitting upright and leaning forward often will decrease the pain associated with pericarditis. Forcing fluids will not decrease the inflammation or pain. Taking deep breaths will tend to increase pericardial pain. Ice does not decrease this type of inflammation and pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse? a. The O2 saturation is 90%. b. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg. c. The epoprostenol (Flolan) infusion is disconnected. d. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.

c. The epoprostenol (Flolan) infusion is disconnected. The half-life of this drug is 6 minutes, so the nurse will need to restart the infusion as soon as possible to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. The other data also indicate a need for ongoing monitoring or intervention, but the priority action is to reconnect the infusion.

Which action by a nurse caring for a patient after an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) insertion indicates a need for more teaching about the care of patients with ICDs? a. The nurse administers amiodarone (Cordarone) to the patient. b. The nurse helps the patient fill out the application for obtaining a Medic Alert device. c. The nurse encourages the patient to do active range-of-motion exercises for all extremities. d. The nurse teaches the patient that sexual activity can be resumed when the incision is healed.

c. The nurse encourages the patient to do active range-of-motion exercises for all extremities. The patient should avoid moving the arm on the ICD insertion site until healing has occurred to prevent displacement of the ICD leads. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate for this patient.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with atrial flutter who is scheduled for a radiofrequency catheter ablation? a. The procedure stimulates the growth of new pathways between the atria. b. The procedure uses cold therapy to stop the formation of the flutter waves. c. The procedure uses electrical energy to destroy areas of the conduction system. d. The procedure prevents or minimizes the patient's risk for sudden cardiac death.

c. The procedure uses electrical energy to destroy areas of the conduction system. Radiofrequency catheter ablation therapy uses electrical energy to "burn" or ablate areas of the conduction system as definitive treatment of atrial flutter (i.e., restore normal sinus rhythm) and tachydysrhythmias. All other statements about the procedure are incorrect.

The nurse needs to quickly estimate the heart rate for a patient with a regular heart rhythm. Which method will be fastest to use? a. Count the number of large squares in the R-R interval and divide by 300. b. Print a 1-minute electrocardiogram (ECG) strip and count the number of QRS complexes. c. Use the 3-second markers to count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10. d. Calculate the number of small squares between one QRS complex and the next and divide into 1500.

c. Use the 3-second markers to count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10. Using the 3-second markers to count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiplying by 10 is the quickest way to determine the ventricular rate for a patient with a regular rhythm. The other methods are accurate but take longer.

Which information is most important for the nurse to monitor when evaluating the effectiveness of deferoxamine (Desferal) for a patient with hemochromatosis? a. Skin color b. Hematocrit c. Liver function d. Serum iron level

d. Serum iron level Because iron chelating agents are used to lower serum iron levels, the most useful information will be the patient's iron level. The other parameters will also be monitored but are not the most important to monitor when determining the effectiveness of deferoxamine.

The nurse evaluates that discharge teaching about the management of a new permanent pacemaker has been effective when the patient states a. "It will be several weeks before I can return to my usual activities." b. "I will avoid cooking with a microwave oven or being near one in use." c. "I will notify the airlines when I make a reservation that I have a pacemaker." d. "I won't lift the arm on the pacemaker side until I see the health care provider."

d. "I won't lift the arm on the pacemaker side until I see the health care provider." The patient is instructed to avoid lifting the arm on the pacemaker side above the shoulder to avoid displacing the pacemaker leads. The patient should notify airport security about the presence of a pacemaker before going through the metal detector, but there is no need to notify the airlines when making a reservation. Microwave oven use does not affect the pacemaker. The insertion procedure involves minor surgery that will have a short recovery period.

Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about preventing sickle cell crisis? a. "Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling." b. "There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling." c. "Routine continuous dosage opioids are prescribed to prevent a crisis." d. "Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination."

d. "Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination." Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered. Although continuous dose opioids and oxygen may be administered during a crisis, patients do not receive these therapies to prevent crisis. Hydroxyurea (Hydrea) is a medication used to decrease the number of sickle cell crises.

The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient with atrial fibrillation, rate 88 and irregular, who has a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due b. A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating c. A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98 and regular, recovering from an elective cardioversion 2 hours ago d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired twice today and has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due

d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired twice today and has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due The frequent firing of the ICD indicates that the patient's ventricles are very irritable. The priority is to assess the patient and give the amiodarone. The other patients can be seen after the amiodarone is given.

Which laboratory result will the nurse expect to show a decreased value if a patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? a. Prothrombin time b. Erythrocyte count c. Fibrinogen degradation products d. Activated partial thromboplastin time

d. Activated partial thromboplastin time Platelet aggregation in HIT causes neutralization of heparin, so the activated partial thromboplastin time will be shorter, and more heparin will be needed to maintain therapeutic levels. The other data will not be affected by HIT.

A patient develops sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/min, has a blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and reports feeling faint. Which action should the nurse take? a. Reposition the patient on the left side. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Give the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem). d. Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads.

d. Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads. The patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia and treatment with TCP is appropriate. Calcium channel blockers will further decrease the heart rate and the diltiazem should be held. The Valsalva maneuver will further decrease the rate. Repositioning on the left side may decrease cardiac output and blood pressure further.

The emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right thorax of a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient? a. Emergency pericardiocentesis b. Stabilization of the chest wall c. Bronchodilator administration d. Chest tube connected to suction

d. Chest tube connected to suction The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage to suction. The other therapies would be appropriate for an acute asthma attack, flail chest, or cardiac tamponade, but the patient's clinical manifestations are not consistent with these problems.

A patient in the emergency department reports back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. What should the nurse's first action be? a. Administer oxygen therapy at a high flowrate. b. Obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline.

d. Disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline. The patient's symptoms indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction caused by the transfusion. The first action should be to disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline. The other actions also are needed but are not the highest priority.

A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism reports chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/min, blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, and respirations of 42 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Prepare patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT). d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.

d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position. The patient has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be performed after the head is elevated and O2 is started. The health care provider may order a spiral CT to identify PE. Anticoagulants may be ordered after confirmation of the diagnosis of PE.

An adult male with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. Which laboratory data would the nurse identify as consistent with these symptoms? a. RBC count of 4,500,000/L b. Hematocrit (Hct) value of 38% c. Normal red blood cell (RBC) indices d. Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L)

d. Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L) The patient's symptoms indicate moderate anemia, which is consistent with a Hgb of 6 to 10 g/dL. The other values are all within the range of normal.

A patient who has non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving combination treatment with rituximab (Rituxan) and chemotherapy. Which patient assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Anorexia b. Vomiting c. Oral ulcers d. Lip swelling

d. Lip swelling Lip swelling in angioedema may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction to the rituximab. The nurse should stop the infusion and further assess for anaphylaxis. The other findings may occur with chemotherapy but are not immediately life threatening.

What action is expected by the nurse caring for a patient who has an acute exacerbation of polycythemia vera? a. Place the patient on bed rest. b. Administer iron supplements. c. Avoid use of aspirin products. d. Monitor fluid intake and output.

d. Monitor fluid intake and output. Monitoring hydration status is important during an acute exacerbation because the patient is at risk for fluid overload or underhydration. Aspirin therapy is used to decrease risk for thrombosis. The patient should be encouraged to ambulate to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Iron is contraindicated in patients with polycythemia vera.

Following successful treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma for a 55-yr-old woman, which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Potential impact of chemotherapy treatment on fertility b. Application of soothing lotions to treat residual pruritus c. Use of maintenance chemotherapy to maintain remission d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy

d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy The chemotherapy used in treating Hodgkin's lymphoma results in a high incidence of secondary malignancies; follow-up screening is needed. Chemotherapy will not impact the fertility of a 55-yr-old woman. Maintenance chemotherapy is not used for Hodgkin's lymphoma. Pruritus is a clinical manifestation of lymphoma but should not be a concern after treatment.

A patient who was admitted with a myocardial infarction has a 45-second episode of ventricular tachycardia, then converts to sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Immediately notify the health care provider. b. Document the rhythm and continue to monitor the patient. c. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion per agency protocol. d. Prepare to give IV amiodarone per agency dysrhythmia protocol.

d. Prepare to give IV amiodarone per agency dysrhythmia protocol. The burst of sustained ventricular tachycardia indicates that the patient has significant ventricular irritability, and antidysrhythmic medication administration is needed to prevent further episodes. The nurse should notify the health care provider after the medication is started. Cardioversion is not indicated given that the patient has returned to a sinus rhythm. Documentation and continued monitoring are not adequate responses to this situation.

What should the nurse measure to determine whether there is a delay in impulse conduction through the patient's ventricles? a. P wave b. Q wave c. PR interval d. QRS complex

d. QRS complex The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The P wave represents the depolarization of the atria. The PR interval represents depolarization of the atria, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers. The Q wave is the first negative deflection following the P wave and should be narrow and short.

Which laboratory result for a patient with multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood glucose of 243 mg/dL b. Serum chloride of 92 mEq/L c. Serum sodium of 134 mEq/L d. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L

d. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L Hypokalemia increases the risk for ventricular dysrhythmias such as PVCs, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation. The health care provider will need to prescribe a potassium infusion to correct this abnormality. Although the other laboratory values are also abnormal, they are not likely to be the cause of the patient's PVCs and do not require immediate correction.

The nurse obtains a rhythm strip on a patient who has had a myocardial infarction and makes the following analysis: no visible P waves, PR interval not measurable, ventricular rate of 162, R-R interval regular, QRS complex wide and distorted, and QRS duration of 0.18 second. How should the nurse interpret this cardiac rhythm? a. Atrial flutter b. Sinus tachycardia c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Ventricular tachycardia

d. Ventricular tachycardia The absence of P waves, wide QRS, rate greater than 150 beats/min, and the regularity of the rhythm indicate ventricular tachycardia. Atrial flutter is usually regular, has a narrow QRS configuration, and has flutter waves present representing atrial activity. Sinus tachycardia has P waves. Ventricular fibrillation is irregular and does not have a consistent QRS duration.