Exam 2 - Practice Questions

Chapter 30: Assessment of the Cardiovascular System

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Chapter 31: Concepts of Care for Patients With Dysrhythmias

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A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and whose telemetry reading displays a flattening of the T wave. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse anticipate as the cause of this ECG change? a. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L b. Digoxin level 0.7 ng/mL c. Hemoglobin 9.8 g/dL d. Calcium 8.0 mg

Answer: Potassium 2.8 mEq/L A flattened T wave or the development of U waves is indicative of a low potassium level.

The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which laboratory data would indicate that the client is in severe congestive heart failure? a. An elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP). b. An elevated creatine kinase (CK-MB). c. A positive D-dimer. d. A positive ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan.

Answer: a. An elevated B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP). BNP is a specific diagnostic test. Levels higher than normal indicate congestive heart failure, with the higher the number, the more severe the CHF. An elevated CK-MB would indicate a myocardial infarction, not severe CHF. CK-MB is an isoenzyme. A positive D-dimer would indicate a pulmonary embolus. A positive ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan (ratio) would indicate a pulmonary embolus. TEST-TAKING HINT: This question requires the test taker to discriminate between CHF, MI, and PE.

The nurse identifies the concept of perfusion for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which assessment data support this concept? a. The client has a large abdomen and a positive tympanic wave. b. The client has paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. c. The client has 2+ glucose in the urine. d. The client has a comorbid condition of myocardial infarction.

Answer: b. The client has paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Dyspnea occurring at night when the client is in a recumbent position indicates that the cardiac muscle is not able to compensate for extra fluid returning to the heart during sleep.

The client has just returned from a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment data would warrant immediate intervention from the nurse? a. The client's BP is 110/70 and pulse is 90. b. The client's groin dressing is dry and intact. c. The client refuses to keep the leg straight. d. The client denies any numbness and tingling.

Answer: c. The client refuses to keep the leg straight. If the client bends the leg, it could cause the insertion site to bleed. This is arterial blood and the client could bleed to death very quickly, so this requires immediate intervention.

The nurse is caring for a client who suddenly complains of crushing substernal chest pain while ambulating in the hall. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first? a. Call a Code Blue. b. Assess the telemetry reading. c. Take the client's apical pulse. d. Have the client sit down.

Answer: d. Have the client sit down. The client began to have a problem during physical exertion. Stopping the exertion should be the first action taken by the nurse.

A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How would the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The client's chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

Answer: d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites. Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization. This finding on an electrocardiograph tracing is not an indication of hyperkalemia, ventricular tachycardia, or disconnection of leads.

A nurse assesses a client who has aortic regurgitation. In which location would the nurse auscultate to best hear a cardiac murmur related to aortic regurgitation?

Second intercostal space just to the right of the sternum. The aortic valve is auscultated in the second intercostal space just to the right of the sternum. The pulmonic valve would be heard in location B located in the second intercostal space just left of the sternum. The mitral valve would be heard in location D located in the fifth intercostal space at the apex of the heart. The tricuspid valve would be heard in location C located in the fifth intercostal space at the lower left of the sternal border.

Chapter 32: Concepts of Care for Patients With Cardiac Problems

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Chapter 33: Concepts of Care for Patients With Vascular Problems

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Chapter 35: Critical Care of Patients With Acute Coronary Syndromes

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The nurse is discussing angina with a client who is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which action should the client take first when experiencing angina? a. Put a nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue. b. Stop the activity immediately and rest. c. Document when and what activity caused angina. d. Notify the health-care provider immediately.

Answer: b. Stop the activity immediately and rest. Stopping the activity decreases the heart's need for oxygen and may help decrease the angina (chest pain).

A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. For which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary crackles b. Confusion c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Dependent edema e. Cough that worsens at night f. Jugular venous distention

Answer: a, b, e. a. Pulmonary crackles b. Confusion e. Cough that worsens at night Left-sided heart failure occurs with a decrease in contractility of the heart or an increase in afterload. Most of the signs will be noted in the respiratory system. These include crackles, confusion (due to decreased oxygenation), and cough. Right ventricular failure is associated with pulmonary hypertension, edema, and jugular venous distention.

The client diagnosed with rule-out myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain while walking to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first? a. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. b. Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Have the client sit down immediately. d. Assess the client's vital signs.

Answer: c. Have the client sit down immediately. Stopping all activity will decrease the need of the myocardium for oxygen and may help decrease the chest pain.

The home health nurse is assigned a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Request a dietary consult for a sodium-restricted diet. b. Instruct the client to elevate the feet during the day. c. Teach the client to weigh every morning wearing the same type of clothing. d. Assess for edema in dependent areas of the body. e. Encourage the client to drink at least 3,000 mL of fluid per day. f. Have the client repeat back instructions to the nurse.

Answer: a, b, c, d, f. a. Request a dietary consult for a sodium-restricted diet. b. Instruct the client to elevate the feet during the day. c. Teach the client to weigh every morning wearing the same type of clothing. d. Assess for edema in dependent areas of the body. f. Have the client repeat back instructions to the nurse. A dietitian can assist the nurse in explaining the sodium restrictions to the client as well as hidden sources of sodium. This will help the client's body to return excess fluid to the heart for removal from the body by the kidneys. The client should weigh himself/herself every morning in the same type of clothing (gown, underwear, jeans, etc.) and report a weight gain of 3 pounds in a week to the HCP. The nurse should not assess for edema in the feet and lower legs, but if the client is in bed the lowest part of the body may be in the sacral area. Whichever area is dependent is where the nurse should look for edema. Whenever the nurse is instructing a client, the nurse should determine if the client heard and understood the instructions. Having the client repeat the instructions is one way of determining "hearing." Having the client return demonstrate is a method of determining understanding.

The client has just had a pericardiocentesis. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply) a. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour. b. Assess the client's heart and lung sounds. c. Record the amount of fluid removed as output. d. Evaluate the client's cardiac rhythm. e. Keep the client in the supine position.

Answer: a, b, c, d. a. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour. b. Assess the client's heart and lung sounds. c. Record the amount of fluid removed as output. d. Evaluate the client's cardiac rhythm. a. The nurse should monitor the vital signs for any client who has just undergone surgery. b. A pericardiocentesis involves entering the pericardial sac. Assessing heart and lung sounds allows assessment for cardiac failure. c. The pericardial fluid is documented as output. d. Evaluating the client's cardiac rhythm allows the nurse to assess for cardiac failure, which is a complication of pericardiocentesis.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a heart transplant. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of heart transplant rejection? (Select all that apply.) a. Shortness of breath b. Abdominal bloating c. New-onset bradycardia d. Increased ejection fraction e. Hypertension f. Fatigue

Answer: a, b, c, f. a. Shortness of breath b. Abdominal bloating c. New-onset bradycardia f. Fatigue Clinical findings of heart transplant rejection include shortness of breath, fatigue, fluid gain, abdominal bloating, new-onset bradycardia, hypotension, atrial fibrillation or flutter, decreased activity tolerance, and decreased ejection fraction.

A client is being discharged on warfarin therapy. What discharge instruction is the nurse required to provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Dietary restrictions b. Driving restrictions c. Follow-up laboratory monitoring d. Possible drug-drug interactions e. Reason to take medication f. Wearing a Medic Alert bracelet

Answer: a, c, d, e. a. Dietary restrictions c. Follow-up laboratory monitoring d. Possible drug-drug interactions e. Reason to take medication Best practices state that clients being discharged on warfarin need instruction on follow-up monitoring, dietary restrictions, drug-drug interactions, using a Medic Alert bracelet or necklace, and reason for compliance. Driving is typically not restricted.

A nurse is caring for a client with a nonhealing arterial ulcer. The primary health care provider has informed the client about possibly needing to amputate the client's leg. The client is crying and upset. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask the client to describe his or her current emotions. b. Assess the client for support systems and family. c. Offer to stay with the client if he or she desires. d. Relate how smoking contributed to this situation. e. Tell the client that many people have amputations. f. Arrange for an amputee to come visit the client.

Answer: a, b, c. a. Ask the client to describe his or her current emotions. b. Assess the client for support systems and family. c. Offer to stay with the client if he or she desires. When a client is upset, the nurse would offer self by remaining with the client if desired. Other helpful measures include determining what and whom the client has for support systems and asking the client to describe what he or she is feeling. Telling the client how smoking has led to this situation will only upset the client further and will damage the therapeutic relationship. Telling the client that many people have amputations belittles the client's feelings. It is too early to send an amputee to visit the client as the decision to amputate has not yet been made.

A nurse studying acute coronary syndromes learns that the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differs from stable angina in what ways? (Select all that apply.) a. Accompanied by shortness of breath b. Feelings of fear or anxiety c. Lasts less than 15 minutes d. No relief from taking nitroglycerin e. Pain occurs without known cause f. Can be precipitated by exertion or stress

Answer: a, b, d, e. a. Accompanied by shortness of breath b. Feelings of fear or anxiety d. No relief from taking nitroglycerin e. Pain occurs without known cause The pain from an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and fear or anxiety. It lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. It occurs without a known cause such as exertion or stress.

Which client teaching should the nurse implement for the client diagnosed with coronary artery disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Encourage a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet. b. Instruct the client to walk 30 minutes a day. c. Decrease the salt intake to two (2) g a day. d. Refer to a counselor for stress reduction techniques. e. Teach the client to increase fiber in the diet.

Answer: a, b, d, e. a. Encourage a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet. b. Instruct the client to walk 30 minutes a day. d. Refer to a counselor for stress reduction techniques. e. Teach the client to increase fiber in the diet. A low-fat, low-cholesterol diet will help decrease the buildup of atherosclerosis in the arteries. Walking will help increase collateral circulation. Stress reduction is encouraged for clients with CAD because this helps prevent excess stress on the heart muscle. Increasing fiber in the diet will help remove cholesterol via the gastrointestinal system.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Which questions would the nurse ask to ensure this client's safety prior to discharging home? (Select all that apply.) a. "Are your bedroom and bathroom on the first floor?" b. "What social support do you have at home?" c. "Will you be able to afford your oxygen therapy?" d. "What spiritual beliefs may impact your recovery?" e. "Are you able to accurately weigh yourself at home?"

Answer: a, b, d. a. "Are your bedroom and bathroom on the first floor?" b. "What social support do you have at home?" d. "What spiritual beliefs may impact your recovery?" To ensure safety upon discharge, the nurse would assess for structural barriers to functional ability, such as stairs. The nurse would also assess the client's available social support, which may include family, friends, and home health services. The client's beliefs about and ability to adhere to medication and treatments, including daily weights, would also be reviewed. The other questions do not specifically address the client's safety upon discharge.

A client has been bedridden for several days after major abdominal surgery. What action does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prevention? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply compression stockings. b. Assist with ambulation. c. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. d. Offer fluids frequently. e. Teach leg exercises.

Answer: a, b, d. a. Apply compression stockings. b. Assist with ambulation. d. Offer fluids frequently. The AP can apply compression stockings, assist with ambulation, and offer fluids frequently to help prevent DVT. The AP can also encourage the client to do pulmonary exercises, but these do not decrease the risk of DVT. Teaching is a nursing function.

A nurse is caring for a client on IV infusion of heparin. What actions does this nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess the client for bleeding. b. Monitor the daily activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) results. c. Stop the IV for aPTT above baseline. d. Use an IV pump for the infusion. e. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

Answer: a, b, d. a. Assess the client for bleeding. b. Monitor the daily activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) results. d. Use an IV pump for the infusion. Assessing for bleeding, monitoring aPTT, and using an IV pump for the infusion are all important safety measures for heparin to prevent injury from bleeding. The aPTT needs to be 1.5 to 2.5 times normal in order to demonstrate that the heparin is therapeutic. Weighing the client is not related.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for an adult client who has sickle cell anemia and a history of receiving blood transfusions. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor? a. Hypokalemia b. Lead poisoning c. Hypercalcemia d. Iron toxicity

Answer: d. Iron toxicity The client who has received several blood transfusions is at risk for development of hemosiderosis, which is excess storage of iron in the body. The excessive iron can come from overuse of supplements or from receiving frequent blood transfusions, as in sickle cell anemia.

A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which clients would the nurse identify as at greatest risk for the development of acute pericarditis? (Select all that apply.) a. A 36-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) b. A 42-year-old man recovering from coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 59-year-old woman recovering from a hysterectomy d. An 80-year-old man with a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract e. An 88-year-old woman with a stage III sacral ulcer

Answer: a, b, d. a. A 36-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) b. A 42-year-old man recovering from coronary artery bypass graft surgery d. An 80-year-old man with a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract Acute pericarditis is most commonly associated with acute exacerbations of systemic connective tissue disease, including SLE; with Dressler syndrome, or inflammation of the cardiac sac after cardiac surgery or a myocardial infarction; and with infective organisms, including bacterial, viral, and fungal infections. Abdominal and reproductive surgeries and pressure injuries do not increase clients' risk for acute pericarditis.

The nurse is reviewing risk factors in a client who has atherosclerosis. Which findings are most concerning? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL-C) b. Decreased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) c. Asian ethnicity d. History of smoking e. Blood pressure: 142/92 mm Hg on one occasion

Answer: a, b, d. a. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL-C) b. Decreased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) d. History of smoking Elevated levels of lipids (fats) such as low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) and decreased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol can cause chemical damage to blood vessel walls. Smoking can cause endothelial damage in addition to increasing a client's carbon monoxide levels. African American and Hispanic ethnicities carry an increased risk for atherosclerosis. Hypertension does increase atherosclerosis risk, but an elevated reading on one occasion is not classified as hypertension.

A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume overload from a cardiovascular disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Jugular vein distension b. Moist crackles c. Postural hypotension d. Increased heart rate e. Fever

Answer: a, b, d. a. Jugular vein distension b. Moist crackles d. Increased Heart Rate

A nurse is teaching a client who has premature ectopic beats. Which education would the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management c. Avoiding vagal stimulation d. Adverse effects of medications e. Foods high in potassium f. Types of aerobic exercise

Answer: a, b, d. a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management d. Adverse effects of medications A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms would be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances. While exercise is beneficial, aerobic exercise is not specifically linked to this client's educational needs.

A nurse evaluates laboratory results for a client with heart failure. Which results would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Hematocrit: 32.8% b. Serum sodium: 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) c. Serum potassium: 4.0 mEq/L (4.0 mmol/L) d. Serum creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L) e. Proteinuria f. Microalbuminuria

Answer: a, b, e, f. a. Hematocrit: 32.8% b. Serum sodium: 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) e. Proteinuria f. Microalbuminuria A hematocrit of 32.8% is low (should be 42.6%), indicating a dilutional ratio of red blood cells to fluid. A serum sodium of 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) is low because of hemodilution. Microalbuminuria and proteinuria are present, indicating a decrease in renal filtration. These are early warning signs of decreased compliance of the heart. The potassium level is normal and the serum creatinine level is normal.

The nurse identifies the concept of altered tissue perfusion related to a client admitted with atrial fibrillation. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Monitor the client's blood pressure and apical rate every four (4) hours. b. Place the client on intake and output every shift. c. Require the client to sleep with the head of the bed elevated. d. Teach the patient to perform Buerger Allen exercises daily. e. Determine if the client is on an antiplatelet or anticoagulant medication. f. Assess the client's neurological status every shift and prn.

Answer: a, b, e, f. a. Monitor the client's blood pressure and apical rate every four (4) hours. b. Place the client on intake and output every shift. e. Determine if the client is on an antiplatelet or anticoagulant medication. f. Assess the client's neurological status every shift and prn. The client should be monitored for any cardiovascular changes. The client should be monitored for the development of heart failure as a result of increased strain on the heart from the atria not functioning as they should. Clients who have been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation are at risk for developing emboli from the stasis of blood in the atria. If an emboli breaks loose from the lining of the atria then it can travel to the lungs (right) or to the brain (left). Clients who have been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation are at risk for developing emboli from the stasis of blood in the atria. If an emboli breaks loose from the lining of the atria then it can travel to the lungs (right) or to the brain (left).

A nurse teaches a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which instructions would the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers." b. "Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings." c. "If you feel weak, apply pressure over your generator." d. "Have your pacemaker turned off before having magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)." e. "Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks."

Answer: a, b, e. a. "Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers." b. "Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings." e. "Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks." The client would not submerge in water until the site has healed; after the incision is healed, the client may take showers or baths without concern for the pacemaker. The client would be instructed to report changes in heart rate or rhythm, such as rates lower than the pacemaker setting or greater than 100 beats/min. The client would be advised of restrictions on physical activity for 8 weeks to allow the pacemaker to settle in place. The client would never apply pressure over the generator and would avoid tight clothing. The client would never have MRI because, whether turned on or off, the pacemaker contains metal. The client would be advised to inform all health care providers that he or she has a pacemaker.

A nurse is studying hemodynamic monitoring. Which measurements are correctly matched with the physiologic cause? (Select all that apply.) a. Right atrial pressure 12 mm Hg: right ventricular failure b. Right atrial pressure 4 mm Hg: hypovolemia c. Pulmonary artery pressure 20/10 mm Hg: normal finding d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 20 mm Hg: mitral regurgitation e. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 2 mm Hg: afterload reduction

Answer: a, c, d, e. a. Right atrial pressure 12 mm Hg: right ventricular failure c. Pulmonary artery pressure 20/10 mm Hg: normal finding d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 20 mm Hg: mitral regurgitation e. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 2 mm Hg: afterload reduction Normal right atrial pressure is 0 to 8 mm Hg; high readings can indicate right ventricular failure; low readings often signify hypovolemia. Normal pulmonary artery pressure ranges from 15 to 30 mm Hg systolic to 3 to 12 mm Hg diastolic. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ranges from 5 to 12 mm Hg; high values may indicate left ventricular failure, hypervolemia, mitral regurgitation, or intracardiac shunting. A decreased PAOP is seen with hypovolemia or afterload reduction.

The client is in ventricular fibrillation. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply) a. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation. b. Prepare to administer the antidysrhythmic adenosine IVP. c. Prepare to defibrillate the client. d. Bring the crash cart to the bedside. e. Prepare to administer the antidysrhythmic amiodarone IVP.

Answer: a, c, d, e. a. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation. c. Prepare to defibrillate the client. d. Bring the crash cart to the bedside. e. Prepare to administer the antidysrhythmic amiodarone IVP. Ventricular fibrillation indicates the client does not have a heartbeat. Therefore, CPR should be instituted. Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation. The crash cart has the defibrillator and is used when performing advanced cardio- pulmonary resuscitation. Amiodarone is an antidysrhythmic that is used in ventricular dysrhythmias.

A nurse collaborates with assistive personnel (AP) to provide care for a client with congestive heart failure. Which instructions would the nurse provide to the AP when delegating care for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. "Reposition the client every 2 hours." b. "Teach the client to perform deep-breathing exercises." c. "Accurately record intake and output." d. "Use the same scale to weigh the client each morning." e. "Place the client on oxygen if the client becomes short of breath."

Answer: a, c, d. a. "Reposition the client every 2 hours." c. "Accurately record intake and output." d. "Use the same scale to weigh the client each morning." The AP should reposition the client every 2 hours to improve oxygenation and prevent atelectasis. The AP can also accurately record intake and output, and use the same scale to weigh the client each morning before breakfast. APs are not qualified to teach clients or assess the need for and provide oxygen therapy.

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). What interprofessional care does the nurse anticipate providing? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering beta blockers b. Administering high-dose furosemide c. Preparing for a cardiac catheterization d. Loading the client on digitalis e. Instructing the client to avoid strenuous exercise f. Teaching the client how to use the CardioMEMS™

Answer: a, c, e. a. Administering beta blockers c. Preparing for a cardiac catheterization e. Instructing the client to avoid strenuous exercise Management of obstructive HCM includes administering negative inotropic agents such as beta-adrenergic blocking agents (carvedilol) and calcium antagonists (verapamil). Vasodilators, diuretics, nitrates, and cardiac glycosides are contraindicated in patients with obstructive HCM. Strenuous exercise is also prohibited. Echocardiography, radionuclide imaging, and angiocardiography during cardiac catheterization are performed to diagnose and differentiate cardiomyopathies. The CardioMEMS™ device is used with clients who have heart failure.

A nurse is caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass grafting 2 days ago. What actions does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the client to the chair for meals and to the commode. b. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours. c. Ensure that the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices. d. Have the client rate pain on a 0-10 scale and report to the nurse. e. Take and record a full set of vital signs per hospital protocol.

Answer: a, c, e. The nurse can delegate assisting the client to get up in the chair or commode (if the nurse has evaluated the client as being stable), applying TEDs or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs. The spirometer would be used every hour the day after surgery. Assessing pain using a 0-10 scale is a nursing assessment, although if the client reports pain, the AP would inform the nurse so a more detailed assessment is done.

A nurse cares for a client with congestive heart failure who has a regular cardiac rhythm of 128 beats/min. For which physiologic alterations would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in cardiac output b. Increase in cardiac output c. Decrease in blood pressure d. Increase in blood pressure e. Decrease in urine output f. Increase in urine output

Answer: a, c, e. a. Decrease in cardiac output c. Decrease in blood pressure e. Decrease in urine output Elevated heart rates in a healthy client initially cause blood pressure and cardiac output to increase. However, in a client who has congestive heart failure or a client with long-term tachycardia, ventricular filling time, cardiac output, and blood pressure eventually decrease. As cardiac output and blood pressure decrease, urine output will fall.

A client is in the clinic a month after having a myocardial infarction. The client reports sleeping well since moving into the guest bedroom. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Do you have any concerns about sexuality?" b. "I'm glad to hear you are sleeping well now." c. "Sleep near your spouse in case of emergency." d. "Why would you move into the guest room?"

Answer: a. "Do you have any concerns about sexuality?" Concerns about resuming sexual activity are common after cardiac events. The nurse would gently inquire if this is the issue. While it is good that the client is sleeping well, the nurse would investigate the reason for the move. The other two responses are likely to cause the client to be defensive.

The nurse working in the emergency department knows that which factors are commonly related to aneurysm formation? (Select all that apply.) a. Atherosclerosis b. Down syndrome c. Frequent heartburn d. History of hypertension e. History of smoking f. Hyperlipidemia

Answer: a, d, e, f. a. Atherosclerosis d. History of hypertension e. History of smoking f. Hyperlipidemia Atherosclerosis, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, hyperlipidemia, and smoking are the most commonly related factors. Down syndrome and heartburn have no relation to aneurysm formation.

After teaching a client with congestive heart failure (CHF), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to nutritional intake? (Select all that apply.) a. "I'll read the nutritional labels on food items for salt content." b. "I will drink at least 3 L of water each day." c. "Using salt in moderation will reduce the workload of my heart." d. "I will eat oatmeal for breakfast instead of ham and eggs." e. "Substituting fresh vegetables for canned ones will lower my salt intake." f. "Salt substitutes are a good way to cut down on sodium in my diet."

Answer: a, d, e. Nutritional therapy for a client with CHF is focused on decreasing sodium and water retention to decrease the workload of the heart. The client would be taught to read nutritional labels on all food items, omit table salt and foods high in sodium (e.g., ham and canned foods), and limit water intake to a normal 2 L/day. Salt substitutes typically contain potassium, so although they are not strictly banned, clients would have to have their renal function and serum potassium monitored while using them. It would be safer to avoid them.

A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure who has been prescribed enalapril. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Avoid using salt substitutes." b. "Take your medication with food." c. "Avoid using aspirin-containing products." d. "Check your pulse daily."

Answer: a. "Avoid using salt substitutes." Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as enalapril inhibit the excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia can be a life-threatening side effect, and clients should be taught to limit potassium intake. Salt substitutes are composed of potassium chloride. ACE inhibitors do not need to be taken with food and have no impact on the client's pulse rate. Aspirin is often prescribed in conjunction with ACE inhibitors and is not contraindicated.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction. The nurse is confused because the client states that nothing is wrong and yet listens attentively while the nurse provides education on lifestyle changes and healthy menu choices. What response by the charge nurse is best? a. "Continue to educate the client on possible healthy changes." b. "Emphasize complications that can occur with noncompliance." c. "Tell the client that denial is normal and will soon go away." d. "You need to make sure the client understands this illness."

Answer: a. "Continue to educate the client on possible healthy changes." Clients are often in denial after a coronary event. The client who seems to be in denial but is compliant with treatment may be using a healthy form of coping that allows time to process the event and start to use problem-focused coping. The nurse would not discourage this type of denial and coping, but rather continue providing education in a positive manner. Emphasizing complications may make the client defensive and more anxious. Telling the client that denial is normal is placing too much attention on the process. Forcing the client to verbalize understanding of the illness is also potentially threatening to the client.

A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The client states that walking five blocks is possible without pain. What question asked next by the nurse will give the best information? a. "Could you walk further than that a few months ago?" b. "Do you walk mostly uphill, downhill, or on flat surfaces?" c. "Have you ever considered swimming instead of walking?" d. "How much pain medication do you take each day?"

Answer: a. "Could you walk further than that a few months ago?" As PAD progresses, it takes less oxygen demand to cause pain. Needing to cut down on activity to be pain free indicates that the client's disease is worsening. The other questions are useful, but not as important.

A client is being seen in the clinic to rule out (R/O) mitral valve stenosis. Which assessment data would be most significant? a. The client complains of shortness of breath when walking. b. The client has jugular vein distention and 3+pedal edema. c. The client complains of chest pain after eating a large meal. d. The client's liver is enlarged and the abdomen chapter 3 cardiac disorders is edematous.

Answer: a. The client complains of shortness of breath when walking. Dyspnea on exertion (DOE) is typically the earliest manifestation of mitral valve stenosis.

A nurse cares for an older adult client with heart failure. The client states, "I don't know what to do. I don't want to be a burden to my daughter, but I can't do it alone. Maybe I should die." What is the best response by the nurse? a. "I can stay if you would you like to talk more about this." b. "You are lucky to have such a devoted daughter." c. "It is normal to feel as though you are a burden." d. "Would you like to meet with the chaplain?"

Answer: a. "I can stay if you would you like to talk more about this." Depression can occur in clients with heart failure, especially older adults. Having the client talk about his or her feelings will help the nurse focus on the actual problem. Open-ended statements allow the client to respond safely and honestly. The other options minimize the client's concerns and do not allow the nurse to obtain more information to provide client-centered care.

A client has peripheral arterial disease (PAD). What statement by the client indicates misunderstanding about self-management activities? a. "I can use a heating pad on my legs if it's set on low." b. "I should not cross my legs when sitting or lying down." c. "I will go out and buy some warm, heavy socks to wear." d. "It's going to be really hard but I will stop smoking."

Answer: a. "I can use a heating pad on my legs if it's set on low." Clients with PAD should never use heating pads as skin sensitivity is diminished and burns can result. The other statements show good understanding of self-management.

A client is taking warfarin and asks the nurse if taking St. John's wort is acceptable. What response by the nurse is best? a. "No, it may interfere with the warfarin." b. "There isn't any information about that." c. "Why would you want to take that?" d. "Yes, it is a good supplement for you."

Answer: a. "No, it may interfere with the warfarin." Many foods and drugs interfere with warfarin, St. John's wort being one of them. The nurse would advise the client against taking it. The other answers are not accurate.

A nurse is teaching a female client about alcohol intake and how it affects hypertension. The client asks if drinking two beers a night is an acceptable intake. What answer by the nurse is best? a. "No, women should only have one beer a day as a general rule." b. "No, you should not drink any alcohol with hypertension." c. "Yes, since you are larger, you can have more alcohol." d. "Yes, two beers per day is an acceptable amount of alcohol."

Answer: a. "No, women should only have one beer a day as a general rule." Alcohol intake should be limited to two drinks a day for men and one drink a day for women. A "drink" is classified as one beer, 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, or 5 ounces of wine. Limited alcohol intake is acceptable with hypertension. The woman's size does not matter.

A nurse cares for a client with right-sided heart failure. The client asks, "Why do I need to weigh myself every day?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid." b. "Daily weights will help us make sure that you're eating properly." c. "The hospital requires that all clients be weighed daily." d. "You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure."

Answer: a. "Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid." Daily weights are needed to document fluid retention or fluid loss. One liter of fluid equals 2.2 lb (1 kg). Weight changes are the most reliable indicator of fluid loss or gain. The other responses do not address the importance of monitoring fluid retention or loss.

The client with a mechanical valve replacement asks the nurse, "Why do I have to take antibiotics before getting my teeth cleaned?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "You are at risk of developing an infection in your heart." b. "Your teeth will not bleed as much if you have antibiotics." c. "This procedure may cause your valve to malfunction." d. "Antibiotics will prevent vegetative growth on your valves."

Answer: a. "You are at risk of developing an infection in your heart." The client is at risk for developing endocarditis and should take prophylactic anti- biotics before any invasive procedure.

A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client would the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure? a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis b. A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension c. A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily d. A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident

Answer: a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis Causes of left ventricular failure include mitral or aortic valve disease, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension and chronic cigarette smoking are risk factors for right ventricular failure. A cerebral vascular accident does not increase the risk of heart failure.

A nurse is caring for a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm and is scheduled for surgery. The client's vital signs are blood pressure 160/98 mm Hg, heart rate 102/min, respirations 22/min, and SpO2 95%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Administer antihypertensive medication for blood pressure. b. Monitor that urinary output is 20 mL/hr. c. Withhold pain medication to prepare for surgery. d. Take vital signs every 2 hr.

Answer: a. Administer antihypertensive medication for blood pressure. The nurse should administer antihypertensive medication for the elevated blood pressure because hypertension can cause a sudden rupture of the aneurysm due to pressure on the arterial wall.

A nurse is interested in providing community education and screening on hypertension. In order to reach a priority population, to what target audience would the nurse provide this service? a. African-American churches b. Asian-American groceries c. High school sports camps d. Women's health clinics

Answer: a. African-American churches African Americans in the United States have one of the highest rates of hypertension in the world. The nurse has the potential to reach this priority population by providing services at African-American churches. Although hypertension education and screening are important for all groups, African Americans are the priority population for this intervention.

A nurse is caring for a client who is intubated and has an intra-aortic balloon pump. The client is restless and agitated. What action would the nurse perform first for comfort? a. Allow family members to remain at the bedside. b. Ask the family if the client would like a fan in the room. c. Keep the television tuned to the client's favorite channel. d. Speak loudly to the client in case of hearing problems.

Answer: a. Allow family members to remain at the bedside. Allowing the family to remain at the bedside can help calm the client with familiar voices (and faces if the client wakes up). A fan might be helpful but may also spread germs through air movement or may agitate the client further. The TV would not be kept on all the time to allow for rest. Speaking loudly may agitate the client more.

A client had a femoral-popliteal bypass graft with a synthetic graft. What action by the nurse is most important to prevent wound infection? a. Appropriate hand hygiene before giving care b. Assessing the client's temperature every 4 hours c. Clean technique when changing dressings d. Monitoring the client's daily white blood cell count

Answer: a. Appropriate hand hygiene before giving care Hand hygiene is the best way to prevent infections in hospitalized clients. Dressing changes would be done with sterile technique. Assessing vital signs and white blood cell count will not prevent infection.

A nurse is working with a client who takes clopidogrel. The client's recent laboratory results include a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the client eats grapefruit. b. Assess the client for dehydration. c. Facilitate admission to the hospital. d. Obtain a random urinalysis.

Answer: a. Ask if the client eats grapefruit. There is a drug-food interaction between clopidogrel and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. This client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating some degree of kidney involvement. The nurse would assess if the client eats grapefruit or drinks grapefruit juice. Dehydration can cause the BUN to be elevated, but the elevation in creatinine is more specific for a kidney injury. The client does not necessarily need to be admitted. A urinalysis may or may not be ordered.

An older adult is on cardiac monitoring after a myocardial infarction. The client shows frequent dysrhythmias. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess for any hemodynamic effects of the rhythm. b. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication. c. Notify the primary health care provider or call the Rapid Response Team. d. Turn the alarms off on the cardiac monitor.

Answer: a. Assess for any hemodynamic effects of the rhythm. Older clients may have dysrhythmias due to age-related changes in the cardiac conduction system. Or this client's dysrhythmias could be a consequence of the myocardial infarction. They may or may not have significant hemodynamic effects. The nurse would first assess for the effects of the dysrhythmia before proceeding further. The alarms on a cardiac monitor would never be shut off. The other two actions may or may not be needed.

While assessing a client on a cardiac unit, a nurse identifies the presence of an S3 gallop. What action would the nurse take next? a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure. b. Document this as a normal finding. c. Call the primary health care provider immediately. d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit.

Answer: a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure. The presence of an S3 gallop is an early diastolic filling sound indicative of increasing left ventricular pressure and left ventricular failure. The other actions are not warranted.

The nurse is assessing a client on admission to the hospital. The client's leg appears as shown below: image of claudication on toe What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's ankle-brachial index. b. Elevate the client's leg above the heart. c. Obtain an ice pack to provide comfort. d. Prepare to teach about heparin sodium.

Answer: a. Assess the client's ankle-brachial index. This client has dependent rubor, a classic finding in peripheral arterial disease. The nurse would measure the client's ankle-brachial index. Elevating the leg above the heart will further impede arterial blood flow. Ice will cause vasoconstriction, also impeding circulation and perhaps causing tissue injury. Heparin sodium is not the drug of choice for this condition.

A client had an inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the client's cardiac rhythm as shown below (image of sinus bradycardia). What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's blood pressure and level of consciousness. b. Call the primary health care provider or the Rapid Response Team. c. Obtain a permit for an emergency temporary pacemaker insertion. d. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication.

Answer: a. Assess the client's blood pressure and level of consciousness. Clients with an inferior wall MI often have bradycardia and blocks that lead to decreased perfusion, as seen in this ECG strip. The nurse would first assess the client's hemodynamic status, including vital signs and level of consciousness. The client may or may not need the Rapid Response Team, a temporary pacemaker, or medication; there is no indication of this in the question.

A client with a history of heart failure and hypertension is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The client is on lisinopril and warfarin. The client reports new-onset cough. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the client's lung sounds and oxygenation. b. Instruct the client on another antihypertensive. c. Obtain a set of vital signs and document them. d. Remind the client that cough is a side effect of lisinopril.

Answer: a. Assess the client's lung sounds and oxygenation. This client could be having an exacerbation of heart failure or experiencing a side effect of lisinopril (and other angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors). The nurse would assess the client's lung sounds and other signs of oxygenation first. The client may or may not need to switch antihypertensive medications. Vital signs and documentation are important, but the nurse would assess the respiratory system first. If the cough turns out to be a side effect, reminding the client is appropriate, but then more action needs to be taken.

A nurse admits a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's respiratory status. b. Draw blood to assess the client's serum electrolytes. c. Administer intravenous furosemide. d. Ask the client about current medications.

Answer: a. Assess the client's respiratory status. Assessment of respiratory and oxygenation status is the most important nursing intervention for the prevention of complications. Monitoring electrolytes, administering diuretics, and asking about current medications are important but do not take precedence over assessing respiratory status.

A client has been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis and is to be discharged on warfarin. The client is adamant about refusing the drug because "it's dangerous." What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the reason behind the client's fear. b. Remind the client about laboratory monitoring. c. Tell the client that drugs are safer today than before. d. Warn the client about consequences of noncompliance.

Answer: a. Assess the reason behind the client's fear. The first step is to assess the reason behind the client's fear, which may be related to the experience of someone the client knows who took warfarin or misinformation. If the nurse cannot address the specific rationale, teaching will likely be unsuccessful. Laboratory monitoring once every few weeks may not make the client perceive the drug to be safe. General statements like "drugs are safer today" do not address the root cause of the problem. Warning the client about possible consequences of not taking the drug is not therapeutic and is likely to lead to an adversarial relationship.

The client diagnosed with pericarditis is being discharged home. Which intervention should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. Be sure to allow for uninterrupted rest and sleep. b Refer the client to outpatient occupational therapy. c. Maintain oxygen via nasal cannula at two(2) L/min. d. Discuss upcoming valve replacement surgery.

Answer: a. Be sure to allow for uninterrupted rest and sleep. Uninterrupted rest and sleep help de- crease the workload of the heart and help ensure the restoration of physical and emotional health.

A client had a percutaneous angioplasty for renovascular hypertension 3 months ago. What assessment finding by the nurse indicates that an important outcome for this client has been met? a. Client is able to decrease blood pressure medications. b. Insertion site has healed without redness or tenderness. c. Most recent lab data show BUN: 19 mg/dL and creatinine 1.1 mg/dL. d. Verbalizes understanding of post-procedure lifestyle changes.

Answer: a. Client is able to decrease blood pressure medications. Hypertension can be caused by renovascular disease. Opening up a constricted renal artery can lead to decreased blood pressure, manifested by the need for less blood pressure medication. The other findings are normal and desired, but not specifically related to hypertension caused by renal disease.

A nurse is caring for a client with a nonhealing arterial lower leg ulcer. What action by the nurse is best? a. Consult with the wound care nurse. b. Give pain medication prior to dressing changes. c. Maintain sterile technique for dressing changes. d. Prepare the client for eventual amputation.

Answer: a. Consult with the wound care nurse. A nonhealing wound needs the expertise of the wound care nurse. Premedicating prior to painful procedures and maintaining sterile technique are helpful, but if the wound is not healing, more needs to be done. The client may need an amputation, but other options need to be tried first.

The nurse is caring for four hypertensive clients. Which drug-laboratory value combination would the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Furosemide/potassium: 2.1 mEq/L b. Hydrochlorothiazide/potassium: 4.2 mEq/L c. Spironolactone/potassium: 5.1 mEq/L d. Torsemide/sodium: 142 mEq/L

Answer: a. Furosemide/potassium: 2.1 mEq/L Furosemide is a loop diuretic and can cause hypokalemia. A potassium level of 2.1 mEq/L is quite low and would be reported immediately. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 5.1 mEq/L is on the high side, but it is not as critical as the low potassium with furosemide. The other two laboratory values are normal.

A client is to receive a dopamine infusion. What does the nurse do to prepare for this infusion? a. Gather central line supplies. b. Mark the client's pedal pulses. c. Monitor the client's vital signs. d. Ensure an accurate weight is charted.

Answer: a. Gather central line supplies. Dopamine should be infused through a central line to prevent extravasation and necrosis of tissue. The nurse would gather supplies for the primary health care provider to insert a central line. Monitoring vital signs is important for any client who has an acute cardiac problem, but this doesn't give the frequency of evaluation. Marking the client's pedal pulses and ensuring a weight is documented are not related to this infusion.

The client is diagnosed with acute pericarditis. Which sign/symptom warrants immediate attention by the nurse? a. Muffled heart sounds. b. Nondistended jugular veins. c. Bounding peripheral pulses. d. Pericardial friction rub.

Answer: a. Muffled heart sounds. Acute pericardial effusion interferes with normal cardiac filling and pumping, causing venous congestion and decreased cardiac output. Muffled heart sounds, indicative of acute pericarditis, must be reported to the health-care provider.

A nurse is completing a medication history for a client who reports using fish oil as a dietary supplement. Which of the following substances in fish oil should the nurse recognize as a health benefit to the client? a. Omega-3 fatty acids b. Antioxidants c. Vitamins A, D, and C d. Beta-carotene

Answer: a. Omega-3 fatty acids Fish oil contains omega-3 fatty acids, which can help lower the risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke by decreasing triglyceride levels.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following vein ligation and stripping for varicose veins. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Position the client supine with his legs elevated when in bed. b. Encourage the client to ambulate for 15 min every hour while awake for the first 24 hr. c. Tell the client to sit with his legs dependent after ambulating. d. Instruct the client to wear knee-length socks for 2 weeks after surgery.

Answer: a. Position the client supine with his legs elevated when in bed. The nurse should elevate the client's legs above his heart to promote venous return by gravity. During discharge teaching, the nurse should reinforce the importance of periodic positioning of the legs above the heart.

The client diagnosed with pericarditis is experiencing cardiac tamponade. Which collaborative intervention should the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Prepare for a pericardiocentesis. b. Request STAT cardiac enzymes. c. Perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram. d. Assess the client's heart and lung sounds.

Answer: a. Prepare for a pericardiocentesis. A pericardiocentesis removes fluid from the pericardial sac and is the emergency treatment for cardiac tamponade.

The client had open-heart surgery to replace the mitral valve. Which intervention should the intensive care unit nurse implement? a. Restrict the client's fluids as ordered. b. Keep the client in the supine position. c. Maintain oxygen saturation at 90%. d. Monitor the total parenteral nutrition.

Answer: a. Restrict the client's fluids as ordered. Fluid intake may be restricted to reduce the cardiac workload and pressures within the heart and pulmonary circuit.

A nurse cares for a client with infective endocarditis. Which infection control precautions would the nurse use? a. Standard Precautions b. Bleeding Precautions c. Reverse isolation d. Contact isolation

Answer: a. Standard Precautions The client with infective endocarditis does not pose any specific threat of transmitting the causative organism. Standard Precautions would be used. Bleeding Precautions, reverse isolation, or Contact Precautions are not necessary.

A nurse learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Hypertension c. Obesity d. Smoking e. Stress f. Gender A nurse is studying hemodynamic monitoring. Which measurements are correctly matched with the physiologic cause? (Select all that apply.) a. Right atrial pressure 12 mm Hg: right ventricular failure b. Right atrial pressure 4 mm Hg: hypovolemia c. Pulmonary artery pressure 20/10 mm Hg: normal finding d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 20 mm Hg: mitral regurgitation e. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 2 mm Hg: afterload reduction Answer: a, c, d, e. a. Right atrial pressure 12 mm Hg: right ventricular failure c. Pulmonary artery pressure 20/10 mm Hg: normal finding d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 20 mm Hg: mitral regurgitation e. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure 2 mm Hg: afterload reduction Normal right atrial pressure is 0 to 8 mm Hg; high readings can indicate right ventricular failure; low readings often signify hypovolemia. Normal pulmonary artery pressure ranges from 15 to 30 mm Hg systolic to 3 to 12 mm Hg diastolic. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ranges from 5 to 12 mm Hg; high values may indicate left ventricular failure, hypervolemia, mitral regurgitation, or intracardiac shunting. A decreased PAOP is seen with hypovolemia or afterload reduction.

Answer: b, c, d, e. b. Hypertension c. Obesity d. Smoking e. Stress Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age and gender are not nonmodifiable risk factors.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Based on national quality measures, what actions would the nurse complete prior to discharging this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Teach the client about energy conservation techniques. b. Ensure that the client is prescribed a beta blocker. c. Document a discussion about advanced directives. d. Confirm that a postdischarge nurse visit has been scheduled. e. Consult a social worker for additional resources. f. Care transition record transmitted to next level of care within 7 days of discharge.

Answer: b, c, d, f. b. Ensure that the client is prescribed a beta blocker. c. Document a discussion about advanced directives. d. Confirm that a postdischarge nurse visit has been scheduled. e. Consult a social worker for additional resources. f. Care transition record transmitted to next level of care within 7 days of discharge. National quality measures aim to decrease heart failure readmission by proper preparation for discharge. These measures include :(1) beta blocker prescribed for left ventricular dysfunction at discharge, (2) postdischarge follow-up appointment scheduled within 7 days of discharge with documentation of location, date, and time. (3) care transition record transmitted to next level of care within 7 days of discharge. (4) documentation of discussion of advance directives/advance care planning with a health care provider, (5) documentation of execution of advance directives within the medical record, and (6) postdischarge evaluation of patient for symptom assessment and treatment adherence within 72 hours of discharge (this can occur by phone, scheduled office visit, or home visit).

What nonpharmacologic comfort measures would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client with severe varicose veins? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering mild analgesics for pain b. Applying elastic compression stockings c. Elevating the legs when sitting or lying d. Reminding the client to do leg exercises e. Teaching the client about surgical options f. Encouraging participation in high impact aerobic activity

Answer: b, c, d. b. Applying elastic compression stockings c. Elevating the legs when sitting or lying d. Reminding the client to do leg exercises The three Es of care for varicose veins include elastic compression hose, exercise, and elevation. Mild analgesics are not a nonpharmacologic measure. Teaching about surgical options is not a comfort measure. High impact aerobics is not encouraged and is not a comfort measure.

Prior to discharge, a client who had an acute myocardial infarction and coronary artery bypass graft asks the nurse about sexual activity. What information does the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. "You will need to wait at least 6 weeks before intercourse.' b. "Your usual sexual activity is not likely to damage your heart." c. "Start having sex when you are most rested, like in the morning." d. "When you can climb four flights of stairs, you can tolerate sex." e. "Don't eat for three hours before engaging in sexual activity." f. "Use a comfortable position that doesn't stress your incision."

Answer: b, c, f. b. "Your usual sexual activity is not likely to damage your heart." c. "Start having sex when you are most rested, like in the morning." f. "Use a comfortable position that doesn't stress your incision." Clients have many concerns about resuming sexual activity after an acute coronary event. Generally, once the client can walk one block or climb two flights of stairs, he or she can tolerate sex. The client should start after a period of rest and at least 11/2 hours after a heavy meal or exercise. Clients should be taught to choose a position that is comfortable for both parties and does not place undue stress on their incisions or on their hearts.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer morphine intramuscularly. b. Administer an aspirin orally. c. Apply oxygen via a nasal cannula. d. Place the client in a supine position. e. Administer nitroglycerin subcutaneously.

Answer: b, c. b. Administer an aspirin orally. c. Apply oxygen via a nasal cannula. Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication and should be administered orally. Oxygen will help decrease myocardial ischemia, thereby decreasing pain.

A client is 1-day postoperative after a coronary artery bypass graft. What nonpharmacologic comfort measures does the nurse include when caring for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medication before ambulating. b. Assist the client into a position of comfort in bed. c. Encourage high-protein diet selections. d. Provide complementary therapies such as music. e. Remind the client to splint the incision when coughing.

Answer: b, d, e. b. Assist the client into a position of comfort in bed. d. Provide complementary therapies such as music. e. Remind the client to splint the incision when coughing. Nonpharmacologic comfort measures can include positioning, complementary therapies, and splinting the chest incision. Medications are not nonpharmacologic. Food choices are not comfort measures.

A client with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm reports dizziness and severe abdominal pain. The nurse assesses the client's blood pressure at 82/40 mm Hg. What actions by the nurse are most important? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medication. b. Assess distal pulses every 10 minutes. c. Have the client sign a surgical consent. d. Notify the Rapid Response Team. e. Take vital signs every 10 minutes.

Answer: b, d, e. b. Assess distal pulses every 10 minutes. d. Notify the Rapid Response Team. e. Take vital signs every 10 minutes. This client may have a ruptured/rupturing aneurysm. The nurse would notify the Rapid Response team and perform frequent client assessments. Giving pain medication will lower the client's blood pressure even further. The nurse cannot have the client sign a consent until the surgeon has explained the procedure.

A client presents to the emergency department with a thoracic aortic aneurysm. Which findings are most consistent with this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Abdominal tenderness b. Difficulty swallowing c. Changes in bowel habits d. Shortness of breath e. Hoarseness

Answer: b, e. b. Difficulty swallowing e. Hoarseness Signs of a thoracic aortic aneurysm include shortness of breath, hoarseness, and difficulty swallowing. Pain is often rated as a 10 on a 10-point scale. Bowel habits are not related.

A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question would the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure? a. "Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?" b. "Are you still able to walk upstairs without fatigue?" c. "Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?" d. "Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?"

Answer: b. "Are you still able to walk upstairs without fatigue?" Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath and fatigue. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night, and peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client recovering from a heart transplant. Which statement would the nurse include? a. "Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid flossing." b. "Avoid large crowds and people who are sick." c. "Change positions slowly to avoid hypotension." d. "Check your heart rate before taking the medication."

Answer: b. "Avoid large crowds and people who are sick." Clients who have had heart transplants must take immunosuppressant therapy for the rest of their lives. The nurse would teach this client to avoid crowds and sick people to reduce the risk of becoming ill him- or herself. These medications do not place clients at risk for bleeding, orthostatic hypotension, or changes in heart rate. Orthostatic hypotension from the denervated heart is generally only a problem in the immediate postoperative period.

A nurse teaches a client with heart failure about energy conservation. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Walk until you become short of breath, and then walk back home." b. "Begin walking 200 feet a day three times a week." c. "Do not lift heavy weights for 6 months." d. "Eat plenty of protein to build your strength."

Answer: b. "Begin walking 200 feet a day three times a week." A client who has heart failure would be taught to conserve energy and given an exercise plan. The client should begin walking 200-400 feet a day at home three times a week. The client should not walk until becoming short of breath because he or she may not make it back home. The lifting restriction is specifically for clients after valve replacements. Protein does help build strength, but this direction is not specific to heart failure.

A nurse cares for a client recovering from prosthetic valve replacement surgery. The client asks, "Why will I need to take anticoagulants for the rest of my life?" What is the best response by the nurse? a. "The prosthetic valve places you at greater risk for a heart attack." b. "Blood clots form more easily in artificial replacement valves." c. "The vein taken from your leg reduces circulation in the leg." d. "The surgery left a lot of small clots in your heart and lungs."

Answer: b. "Blood clots form more easily in artificial replacement valves." Synthetic valve prostheses and scar tissue provide surfaces on which platelets can aggregate easily and initiate the formation of blood clots. The other responses are inaccurate.

The 45-year-old male client diagnosed with essential hypertension has decided not to take his medications. The client's BP is 178/94, indicating a perfusion issue. Which question should the nurse ask the client first? a. "Do you have the money to buy your medication?" b. "Does the medication give unwanted side effects?" c. "Did you quit taking the medications because you don't feel bad?" d. "Can you tell me why you stopped taking the medication?"

Answer: b. "Does the medication give unwanted side effects?" This is a mild way of introducing the subject of side effects to a client not wishing to admit the medication causes unwanted effects. It opens the door to more probing assessment questions. The nurse should bring up the subject in order to allow the client to be forthcoming with the issues of why he is not taking his medication.

After teaching a client who is being discharged home after mitral valve replacement surgery, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I'll be able to carry heavy loads after 6 months of rest." b. "I will have my teeth cleaned by my dentist in 2 weeks." c. "I must avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach." d. "I must use an electric razor instead of a straight razor to shave."

Answer: b. "I will have my teeth cleaned by my dentist in 2 weeks." Clients who have defective or repaired valves are at high risk for endocarditis. The client who has had valve surgery should avoid dental procedures for 6 months because of the risk for endocarditis. When undergoing a mitral valve replacement surgery, the client needs to be placed on anticoagulant therapy to prevent vegetation forming on the new valve. Clients on anticoagulant therapy would be instructed on bleeding precautions, including using an electric razor. If the client is prescribed warfarin, the client should avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients recovering from open-heart valve replacements should not carry anything heavy for 6 months while the chest incision and muscle heal.

A client has been diagnosed with hypertension but does not take the antihypertensive medications because of a lack of symptoms. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Do you have trouble affording your medications?" b. "Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms." c. "You are lucky; most people get severe morning headaches." d. "You need to take your medicine or you will get kidney failure."

Answer: b. "Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms." Most people with hypertension are asymptomatic, although a small percentage do have symptoms such as headache. The nurse would explain this to the client. Asking about paying for medications utilizes closed-ended questioning and is not therapeutic. Threatening the client with possible complications will not increase compliance.

A nurse assesses a client admitted to the cardiac unit. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure? a. "I sleep with four pillows at night." b. "My shoes fit really tight lately." c. "I wake up coughing every night." d. "I have trouble catching my breath."

Answer: b. "My shoes fit really tight lately." Signs of systemic congestion occur with right-sided heart failure. Fluid is retained, pressure builds in the venous system, and peripheral edema develops. Left-sided heart failure symptoms include respiratory symptoms. Orthopnea, coughing, and difficulty breathing all could be results of left-sided heart failure.

A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) asks the nurse about taking fish oil supplements. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Fish oil is contraindicated with most drugs for CAD." b. "The best source is fish, but pills have benefits too." c. "There is no evidence to support fish oil use with CAD." d. "You can reverse CAD totally with diet and supplements."

Answer: b. "The best source is fish, but pills have benefits too." Omega-3 fatty acids have shown benefit in reducing lipid levels, in reducing the incidence of sudden cardiac death, and for stabilizing atherosclerotic plaque. The preferred source of omega-3 acids is from fish rich in long-chain n-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids two times a week or a daily fish oil nutritional supplement (1 to 2 g/day). The other options are not accurate.

A client is in the hospital after suffering a myocardial infarction and has bathroom privileges. The nurse assists the client to the bathroom and notes the client's O2 saturation to be 95%, pulse 88 beats/min, and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min after returning to bed. What action by the nurse is best? a. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min. b. Allow continued bathroom privileges. c. Obtain a bedside commode. d. Suggest the client use a bedpan.

Answer: b. Allow continued bathroom privileges. This client's physiologic parameters did not exceed normal during and after activity, so it is safe for the client to continue using the bathroom. There is no indication that the client needs oxygen, a commode, or a bedpan.

A client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? a. Ambulate the client. b. Apply a warm moist pack. c. Massage the client's leg. d. Provide an ice pack.

Answer: b. Apply a warm moist pack. Warm moist packs will help with the pain of a DVT. Ambulation is not a comfort measure. Massaging the client's legs is contraindicated to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Ice packs are not recommended for DVT.

A client is 4 hours postoperative after a femoral-popliteal bypass. The client reports throbbing leg pain on the affected side, rated as 7/10. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Administer pain medication as ordered. b. Assess distal pulses and skin color. c. Document the findings in the client's chart. d. Notify the surgeon immediately.

Answer: b. Assess distal pulses and skin color. Once perfusion has been restored or improved to an extremity, clients can often feel a throbbing pain due to the increased blood flow. However, it is important to differentiate this pain from ischemia. The nurse would assess for other signs of perfusion, such as distal pulses and skin color/temperature. Administering pain medication is done once the nurse determines that the client's perfusion status is normal. Documentation needs to be thorough. Notifying the surgeon is not necessary.

A client has intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the client's heart rate has increased from 88 to 110 beats/min, and the blood pressure dropped from 120/82 to 100/60 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Allow the client to rest quietly. b. Assess the client for bleeding. c. Document the findings in the chart. d. Medicate the client for pain.

Answer: b. Assess the client for bleeding. A major complication related to intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is hemorrhage from the insertion site. Since these vital signs are out of the normal range, are a change, and are consistent with blood loss, the nurse would assess the client for any bleeding associated with the arterial line. The nurse would document the findings after a full assessment. The client may or may not need pain medication and rest; the nurse first needs to rule out any emergent bleeding.

The client is scheduled for a right femoral cardiac catheterization. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement after the procedure? a. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises. b. Assess the client's neurovascular status. c. Keep the client in high Fowler's position. d. Assess the gag reflex prior to feeding the client.

Answer: b. Assess the client's neurovascular status. The nurse must make sure that blood is circulating to the right leg, so the client should be assessed for pulses, paresthesia, paralysis, coldness, and pallor.

Which intervention should the nurse implement when administering a loop diuretic to a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease? a. Assess the client's radial pulse. b. Assess the client's serum potassium level. c. Assess the client's glucometer reading. d. Assess the client's pulse oximeter reading.

Answer: b. Assess the client's serum potassium level. Loop diuretics cause potassium to be lost in the urine output. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client's potassium level, and if the client is hypokalemic, the nurse should question administering this medication.

A client has hypertension and high risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The client is overwhelmed with the recommended lifestyle changes. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's support system. b. Assist in finding one change the client can control. c. Determine what stressors the client faces in daily life. d. Inquire about delegating some of the client's obligations.

Answer: b. Assist in finding one change the client can control. All options are appropriate when assessing stress and responses to stress. However, this client feels overwhelmed by the suggested lifestyle changes. Instead of looking at all the needed changes, the nurse would assist the client in choosing one the client feels optimistic about controlling. Once the client has mastered that change, he or she can move forward with another change. Determining support systems, daily stressors, and delegation opportunities does not directly impact the client's feelings of control.

A nurse assesses a client who has mitral valve regurgitation. For which cardiac dysrhythmia would the nurse assess? a. Pre-ventricular contractions b. Atrial fibrillation c. Symptomatic bradycardia d. Sinus tachycardia

Answer: b. Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation is a clinical manifestation of mitral valve regurgitation and stenosis. Pre-ventricular contractions and bradycardia are not associated with valvular problems. These are usually identified in clients with electrolyte imbalances, myocardial infarction, and sinus node problems. Sinus tachycardia is a manifestation of aortic regurgitation due to a decrease in cardiac output.

The nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates that the client is managing this condition well with diet? a. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce b. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes c. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas d. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

Answer: b. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats and red meat, high in vegetables and whole grains (fiber), low in salt, and low in trans fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli and tomatoes. The French fries have too much fat and the iceberg lettuce has little fiber. The catfish is fried. The spaghetti dinner has too much red meat and no vegetables.

A nurse is caring for four clients. Which one would the nurse see first? a. Client who needs a beta blocker, and has a blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg. b. Client who had a first dose of captopril and needs to use the bathroom. c. Hypertensive client with a blood pressure of 188/92 mm Hg. d. Client who needs pain medication prior to a dressing change of a surgical wound.

Answer: b. Client who had a first dose of captopril and needs to use the bathroom. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors such as captopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose. The nurse would see this client first to prevent falling if the client decides to get up without assistance. The two blood pressure readings are abnormal but not critical. The nurse would check on the client with higher blood pressure next to assess for problems related to the reading. The nurse can administer the beta blocker as standards state to hold it if the systolic blood pressure is below 90 to 100mm Hg. The client who needs pain medication prior to the dressing change is not a priority over client safety and assisting the other client to the bathroom.

A nurse is caring for four client s. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with an acute myocardial infarction, pulse 102 beats/min b. Client who is 1 hour post-angioplasty, and has tongue swelling and anxiety c. Client who is post coronary artery bypass, with chest tube drained 100 mL/hr d. Client who is post coronary artery bypass, with potassium 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L)

Answer: b. Client who is 1 hour post-angioplasty, and has tongue swelling and anxiety The post-angioplasty client with tongue swelling and anxiety is exhibiting signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction (perhaps to the contrast medium) that could progress to anaphylaxis. The nurse would assess this client first. The client with a heart rate of 102 beats/min may have increased oxygen demands but is just over the normal limit for heart rate. The two post coronary artery bypass clients are stable.

A nurse is in charge of the coronary intensive care unit. Which client would the nurse see first? a. Client on a nitroglycerin infusion at 5 mcg/min, not titrated in the last 4 hours b. Client who is 1-day post coronary artery bypass graft, with blood pressure 88/64 mm Hg c. Client who is 1-day post percutaneous coronary intervention, going home this morning d. Client who is 2-day post coronary artery bypass graft, who became dizzy this morning while walking

Answer: b. Client who is 1-day post coronary artery bypass graft, with blood pressure 88/64 mm Hg Hypotension after coronary artery bypass graft surgery can be dangerous because it can lead to collapse of the graft. The charge nurse would see this client first. The client who became dizzy earlier would be seen next. The client on the nitroglycerin drip is stable. The client going home can wait until the other clients are cared for.

Which client problem has priority for the client with a cardiac dysrhythmia? a. Alteration in comfort. b. Decreased cardiac output. c. Impaired gas exchange. d. Activity intolerance.

Answer: b. Decreased cardiac output. Any abnormal electrical activity of the heart causes decreased cardiac output.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI) is being discharged. Which discharge instruction(s) should the nurse teach the client? a. Call the health care provider (HCP) if any chest pain happens. b. Discuss when the client can resume sexual activity. c. Explain the pharmacology of nitroglycerin tablets. d. Encourage the client to sleep with the head of the bed elevated.

Answer: b. Discuss when the client can resume sexual activity. The nurse should make sure the client is aware of when sexual activity can be safely resumed.

A nurse assesses a client with mitral valve stenosis. What clinical sign or symptom would alert the nurse to the possibility that the client's stenosis has progressed? a. Oxygen saturation of 92% b. Dyspnea on exertion c. Muted systolic murmur d. Upper extremity weakness

Answer: b. Dyspnea on exertion Dyspnea on exertion develops as the mitral valvular orifice narrows and pressure in the lungs increases. The other signs and symptoms do not relate to the progression of mitral valve stenosis.

A client has hemodynamic monitoring after a myocardial infarction. What safety precaution does the nurse implement for this client? a. Document pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) readings and assess their trends. b. Ensure that the balloon does not remain wedged. c. Keep the client on strict NPO status. d. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler position.

Answer: b. Ensure that the balloon does not remain wedged. If the balloon remains inflated, it can cause pulmonary infarction or rupture. The nurse would ensure that the balloon remains deflated between PAOP readings. Documenting PAOP readings and assessing trends are important nursing actions related to hemodynamic monitoring, but are not specifically related to safety. The client does not have to be NPO while undergoing hemodynamic monitoring. Positioning is not related to safety with hemodynamic monitoring.

A nurse assesses a client with pericarditis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find? a. Heart rate that speeds up and slows down. b. Friction rub at the left lower sternal border. c. Presence of a regular gallop rhythm. d. Coarse crackles in bilateral lung bases.

Answer: b. Friction rub at the left lower sternal border. The client with pericarditis may present with a pericardial friction rub at the left lower sternal border. This sound is the result of friction from inflamed pericardial layers when they rub together. The other assessments are not related.

A client has presented to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). What action by the nurse is best for optimal client outcomes? a. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) within 20 minutes. b. Give the client a non-enteric coated aspirin. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team immediately. d. Prepare to administer thrombolytics within 30 minutes.

Answer: b. Give the client a non-enteric coated aspirin. Best practice recommendations for acute MI require that aspirin is administered when a client with MI presents to the emergency department or when an MI occurs in the hospital. A rapid ECG (within 10 minutes) is vital for best outcomes. The Rapid Response Team is not needed if an emergency department provider is available. Thrombolytics may or may not be needed depending on the type of myocardial infarction the client has.

A nurse is monitoring a client who has heart failure related to mitral stenosis. The client reports shortness of breath on exertion. Which of the following conditions should the nurse expect? a. Increased cardiac output b. Increased pulmonary congestion c. Decreased left atria pressure d. Decreased pulmonary artery pressure

Answer: b. Increased pulmonary congestion Pulmonary congestion occurs due to right-sided heart failure. Because of the defect in the mitral valve, the left atrial pressure rises, the left atrium dilates, there is an increase in pulmonary artery pressure, and hypertrophy of the right ventricle occurs. In this case, dyspnea is an indication of pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure.

The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, what action would the nurse take next? a. Perform a pericardial thump. b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Start an 18-gauge intravenous line. d. Ask the client's family about code status.

Answer: b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The client's rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse would start CPR. A pericardial thump is not a treatment for ventricular fibrillation. If the client does not already have an IV, other members of the team can insert one after defibrillation. The client's code status would already be known by the nurse prior to this event.

After administering the first dose of captopril to a client with heart failure, the nurse implements interventions to decrease complications. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Provide food to decrease nausea and aid in absorption. b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when rising from bed. c. Collaborate with assistive personnel to bathe the client. d. Monitor potassium levels and check for symptoms of hypokalemia.

Answer: b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when rising from bed. Hypotension is a side effect of ACE inhibitors such as captopril. Clients with a fluid volume deficit should have their volume replaced or start at a lower dose of the drug to minimize this effect. The nurse would instruct the client to seek assistance before arising from bed to prevent injury from postural hypotension. ACE inhibitors do not need to be taken with food. Collaboration with assistive personnel to provide hygiene is not a priority. The client would be encouraged to complete activities of daily living as independently as possible. The nurse would monitor for hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, especially if the client has renal insufficiency secondary to heart failure.

A client is receiving an infusion of alteplase for an intra-arterial clot. The client begins to mumble and is disoriented. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's neurologic status. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Prepare to administer vitamin K. d. Turn down the infusion rate.

Answer: b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. Clients on fibrinolytic therapy are at high risk of bleeding. The sudden onset of neurologic signs may indicate that the client is having a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse does need to complete a thorough neurologic examination, but would first call the Rapid Response Team based on the client's manifestations. Vitamin K is not the antidote for this drug. Turning down the infusion rate will not be helpful if the client is still receiving any of the drug.

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft. The drainage stops suddenly. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Increase the setting on the suction. b. Notify the primary health care provider immediately. c. Reposition the chest tube. d. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.

Answer: b. Notify the primary health care provider immediately. If the drainage in the chest tube decreases significantly and dramatically, the tube may be blocked by a clot. This could lead to cardiac tamponade. The nurse would notify the primary health care provider immediately. The nurse would not independently increase the suction, reposition the chest tube, or take the tubing apart.

A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What nursing assessment indicates that an important outcome has been met? a. Ambulates with assistance b. Oxygen saturation of 98% c. Pain of 2/10 after medication d. Verbalizing risk factors

Answer: b. Oxygen saturation of 98% A critical complication of DVT is pulmonary embolism. A normal oxygen saturation indicates that this has not occurred. The other assessments are also positive, but not as important.

A nurse wants to provide community service that helps meet the goals of Healthy People 2020 (HP2020) related to cardiovascular disease and stroke. What activity would best meet this goal? a. Teach high school students heart-healthy living. b. Participate in blood pressure screenings at the mall. c. Provide pamphlets on heart disease at the grocery store. d. Set up an "Ask the nurse" booth at the pet store.

Answer: b. Participate in blood pressure screenings at the mall. An important goal of HP2020 is to increase the proportion of adults who have had their blood pressure measured within the preceding 2 years and can state whether their blood pressure was normal or high. Participating in blood pressure screening in a public spot will best help meet that goal. The other options are all appropriate but do not specifically help meet a goal.

Which statements by the client indicate good understanding of foot care in peripheral vascular disease? (Select all that apply.) a. "A good abrasive pumice stone will keep my feet soft." b. "I'll always wear shoes if I can buy cheap flip-flops." c. "I will keep my feet dry, especially between the toes." d. "Lotion is important to keep my feet smooth and soft." e. "Washing my feet in room-temperature water is best." f. "I will inspect my feet daily."

Answer: c, d, e. c. "I will keep my feet dry, especially between the toes." d. "Lotion is important to keep my feet smooth and soft." e. "Washing my feet in room-temperature water is best." Good foot care includes appropriate hygiene and injury prevention. Keeping the feet dry; wearing good, comfortable shoes; using lotion; washing the feet in room-temperature water; cutting the nails straight across; and inspecting the feet daily are all important measures. Abrasive material such as pumice stones would not be used. Cheap flip-flops may not fit well and won't offer much protection against injury.

A nurse assesses a client in an outpatient clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of left-sided heart failure? a. "I have been drinking more water than usual." b. "I am awakened by the need to urinate at night." c. "I must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath." d. "I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions."

Answer: c. "I must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath." Clients with left-sided heart failure report weakness or fatigue while performing normal activities of daily living, as well as difficulty breathing, or "catching their breath." This occurs as fluid moves into the alveoli. Nocturia is often seen with right-sided heart failure. Thirst and blurred vision are not related to heart failure.

The primary health care provider requests the nurse start an infusion of milrinone on a client. How does the nurse explain the action of this drug to the client and spouse? a. "It constricts vessels, improving blood flow." b. "It dilates vessels, which lessens the work of the heart." c. "It increases the force of the heart's contractions." d. "It slows the heart rate down for better filling."

Answer: c. "It increases the force of the heart's contractions." Milrinone, is a positive inotrope, is a medication that increases the strength of the heart's contractions. It is not a vasoconstrictor, a vasodilator, nor does it slow the heart rate.

A client asks what "essential hypertension" is. What response by the registered nurse is best? a. "It means it is caused by another disease." b. "It means it is 'essential' that it be treated." c. "It is hypertension with no specific cause." d. "It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension."

Answer: c. "It is hypertension with no specific cause." Essential hypertension is the most common type of hypertension and has no specific cause such as an underlying disease process. Hypertension that is due to another disease process is called secondary hypertension. A severe, life-threatening form of hypertension is malignant hypertension.

A nurse prepares a client for coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client states, "I am afraid I might die." What is the nurse's best response? a. "This is a routine surgery and the risk of death is very low." b. "Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to surgery?" c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery." d. "What support systems do you have to assist you?"

Answer: c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery." The nurse would discuss the client's feelings and concerns related to the surgery. The nurse would not provide false hope or simply call the chaplain. The nurse would address support systems after addressing the client's current issue.

After teaching a client who is recovering from a heart transplant to change positions slowly, the client asks, "Why is this important?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out your internal vascular sutures." b. "Your new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to increased intravascular pressure and dizziness." c. "Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes." d. "While your heart is recovering, blood flow is diverted away from the brain, increasing the risk for stroke when you stand up."

Answer: c. "Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes." Because the new heart is denervated, the baroreceptor and other mechanisms that compensate for blood pressure drops caused by position changes do not function. This allows orthostatic hypotension to persist in the postoperative period. The other options are false statements and do not correctly address the client's question.

A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 15:00 (3:00 p.m.). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory abilities. To improve client outcomes, by what time would the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed? a. 15:30 (3:30 p.m.) b. 16:00 (4:00 p.m.) c. 16:30 (4:30 p.m.) d. 17:00 (5:00 p.m.)

Answer: c. 16:30 (4:30 p.m.) Percutaneous coronary intervention would be performed within 90 minutes of diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Therefore, the client would have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed no later than 16:30 (4:30 p.m.).

A nurse performs an admission assessment on a 75-year-old client with multiple chronic diseases. The client's blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg and oxygen saturation is 94% on 2 L per nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client's rhythm on the cardiac monitor and observes the reading to present normal sinus rythm. What action would the nurse take first? a. Begin external temporary pacing. b. Assess peripheral pulse strength. c. Ask the client what medications he or she takes. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

Answer: c. Ask the client what medications he or she takes. This client is stable and therefore does not require any intervention except to determine the cause of the bradycardia. Bradycardia is often caused by medications. Clients who have multiple chronic diseases are often on multiple medications that can interact with each other. The nurse would assess the client's current medications first. Pacing is not necessary. Peripheral pulses are assessed with a full assessment since this client is stable. Atropine is not needed.

The client is exhibiting ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer amiodarone , an antidysrhythmic, IVP. b. Prepare to defibrillate the client. c. Assess the client's apical pulse and blood pressure. d. Start basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Answer: c. Assess the client's apical pulse and blood pressure. The nurse must assess the apical pulse and blood pressure to determine if the client is in cardiac arrest and then treat as ventricular fibrillation. If the client's heart is beating, the nurse would then administer lidocaine.

A nurse is assessing for cardiac tamponade on a client who had coronary artery bypass grafts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Check for hypertension. b. Auscultate for loud, bounding heart sounds. c. Auscultate blood pressure for pulsus paradoxus. d. Check for a pulse deficit.

Answer: c. Auscultate blood pressure for pulsus paradoxus. The client who has cardiac tamponade will have pulsus paradoxus when the systolic blood pressure is at least 10 mm Hg higher on expiration than on inspiration. This occurs because of the sudden decrease in cardiac output from the fluid compressing the atria and ventricles.

The client shows ventricular fibrillation on the telemetry at the nurse's station. Which action should the telemetry nurse implement first? a. Administer epinephrine IVP. b. Prepare to defibrillate the client. c. Call a STAT code. d. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

Answer: c. Call a STAT code. The nurse must call a code that activates the crash cart being brought to the room and a team of health-care providers that will care for the client according to an established protocol.

A client is receiving an infusion of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). The nurse assesses the client to be disoriented to person, place, and time. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's pupillary responses. b. Request a neurologic consultation. c. Call the primary health care provider immediately. d. Take and document a full set of vital signs.

Answer: c. Call the primary health care provider immediately. A change in neurologic status in a client receiving t-PA could indicate intracranial hemorrhage. The nurse would notify the primary health care provider immediately. A full assessment, including pupillary responses and vital signs, occurs next. The nurse may or may not need to call a neurologist.

A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? a. Bradycardia with S-T segment depression b. Relief of chest pain with deep inspiration c. Dyspnea with hiccups d. Chest pain that increases when sitting upright

Answer: c. Dyspnea with hiccups The client who has pericarditis will experience dyspnea, hiccups, and a nonproductive cough. These manifestations can indicate heart failure from pericardial compression due to constrictive pericarditis or cardiac tamponade.

The nurse is administering morning medications to clients on a telemetry unit. Which medication would the nurse question? a. Furosemide IVP to a client with a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. b. Digoxin orally to a client diagnosed with rapid atrial fibrillation. c. Enalapril orally to a client whose BP is 86/64 and apical pulse is 65. d. Morphine IVP to a client complaining of chest pain and who is diaphoretic.

Answer: c. Enalapril orally to a client whose BP is 86/64 and apical pulse is 65. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, will lower the blood pressure even more. The nurse should hold the medication and notify the HCP that the medication is being held.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has anemia and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Hospitalization is required when administering each treatment. b. The maximum effect of the medication will occur in 6 months. c. Hypertension is a common adverse effect of this medication. d. Blood transfusions are needed with each treatment.

Answer: c. Hypertension is a common adverse effect of this medication. The nurse should teach that a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa is hypertension because of the rise in the production of erythrocytes and other blood cell types. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic version of human erythropoietin. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia associated with kidney disease or medication therapy. It increases and maintains the red blood cell level.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? a. Administer ferrous sulfate supplementation. b. Increase dietary intake of folic acid. c. Initiate weekly injections of vitamin B12. d. Initiate a blood transfusion.

Answer: c. Initiate weekly injections of vitamin B12. The nurse should initiate weekly injections of vitamin B12 for a client who has pernicious anemia, and then decrease to monthly. Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12 from the gastrointestinal tract.

A client in the cardiac stepdown unit reports severe, crushing chest pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer an aspirin. b. Call for an electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Maintain airway patency. d. Notify the provider.

Answer: c. Maintain airway patency. Airway always is the priority. The other actions are important in this situation as well, but the nurse would stay with the client and ensure that the airway remains patent (especially if vomiting occurs) while another person calls the primary health care provider (or Rapid Response Team) and facilitates getting an ECG done. Aspirin will probably be administered, depending on the primary health care provider's prescription and the client's current medications.

A nurse is assessing an obese client in the clinic for follow-up after an episode of deep vein thrombosis. The client has lost 20lb (9.09 Kg) since the last visit. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the weight loss was intended. b. Encourage a high-protein, high-fiber diet. c. Measure for new compression stockings. d. Review a 3-day food recall diary.

Answer: c. Measure for new compression stockings. Compression stockings must fit correctly in order to work. After losing a significant amount of weight, the client would be remeasured and new stockings ordered if needed. The other options are appropriate, but not the most important.

A client had an acute myocardial infarction. What assessment finding indicates to the nurse that a significant complication has occurred? a. Blood pressure that is 20 mm Hg below baseline b. Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air c. Poor peripheral pulses and cool skin d. Urine output of 1.2 mL/kg/hr for 4 hours

Answer: c. Poor peripheral pulses and cool skin Poor peripheral pulses and cool skin may be signs of impending cardiogenic shock and would be reported immediately. A blood pressure drop of 20 mm Hg may not be worrisome. An oxygen saturation of 94% is just slightly below normal. A urine output of 1.2 mL/kg/hr for 4 hours is normal.

The client is exhibiting sinus bradycardia, is complaining of syncope and weakness, and has a BP of 98/60. Which collaborative treatment should the nurse anticipate being implemented? a. Administer a thrombolytic medication. b. Assess the client's cardiovascular status. c. Prepare for insertion of a pacemaker. d. Obtain a permit for synchronized

Answer: c. Prepare for insertion of a pacemaker. The client is symptomatic and will require a pacemaker.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction is six (6) hours post-right femoral percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), also known as balloon surgery. Which assessment data would require immediate intervention by the nurse? a. The client is keeping the affected extremity straight. b. The pressure dressing to the right femoral area is intact. c. The client is complaining of numbness in the right foot. d. The client's right pedal pulse is 3+ and bounding.

Answer: c. The client is complaining of numbness in the right foot. Any neurovascular assessment data that are abnormal require intervention by the nurse; numbness may indicate decreased blood supply to the right foot.

Which cardiac enzyme would the nurse expect to elevate first in a client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI)? a. Creatine kinase (CK-MB). b. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). c. Troponin. d. White blood cells (WBCs).

Answer: c. Troponin. Troponin is the enzyme that elevates within 1 to 2 hours.

A nurse is preparing a client for a femoropopliteal bypass operation. What actions does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering preoperative medication b. Ensuring that the consent is signed c. Marking pulses with a pen d. Raising the side rails on the bed e. Recording baseline vital signs

Answer: d, e. d. Raising the side rails on the bed e. Recording baseline vital signs The AP can raise the side rails of the bed for client safety and take and record the vital signs. Administering medications, ensuring that a consent is on the chart, and marking the pulses for later comparison would be done by the registered nurse. This is also often done by the post-anesthesia care nurse and is part of the hand-off report.

A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed digoxin therapy. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Avoid taking aspirin or aspirin-containing products." b. "Increase your intake of foods that are high in potassium." c. "Hold this medication if your pulse rate is below 80 beats/min." d. "Do not take this medication within 1 hour of taking an antacid."

Answer: d. "Do not take this medication within 1 hour of taking an antacid." Gastrointestinal absorption of digoxin is erratic. Many medications, especially antacids, interfere with its absorption. Clients are taught to hold their digoxin for bradycardia; a heart rate of 80 beats/min is too high for this cutoff. Potassium and aspirin have no impact on digoxin absorption.

An older client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is explaining the daily foot care regimen to the family practice clinic nurse. What statement by the client may indicate a barrier to proper foot care? a. "I nearly always wear comfy sweatpants and house shoes." b. "I'm glad I get energy assistance so my house isn't so cold." c. "My daughter makes sure I have plenty of lotion for my feet." d. "My hands shake when I try to do things requiring coordination."

Answer: d. "My hands shake when I try to do things requiring coordination." Clients with PVD need to pay special attention to their feet. Toenails need to be kept short and cut straight across. The client whose hands shake may cause injury when trimming toenails. The nurse would refer this client to a podiatrist. Comfy sweatpants and house shoes are generally loose and not restrictive, which is important for clients with PVD. Keeping the house at a comfortable temperature makes it less likely the client will use alternative heat sources, such as heating pads, to stay warm. The client should keep the feet moist and soft with lotion.

A nurse teaches a client who has a history of heart failure. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Avoid drinking more than 3 quarts (3 L) of liquids each day." b. "Eat six small meals daily instead of three larger meals." c. "When you feel short of breath, take an additional diuretic." d. "Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing."

Answer: d. "Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing." Clients with heart failure are instructed to weigh themselves daily to detect worsening heart failure early, and thus avoid complications. Other signs of worsening heart failure include increasing dyspnea, exercise intolerance, cold symptoms, and nocturia. Fluid overload increases symptoms of heart failure. The client would be taught to eat a heart-healthy diet, balance intake and output to prevent dehydration and overload, and take medications as prescribed. The most important discharge teaching is daily weights as this provides the best data related to fluid retention.

A nurse cares for a client with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant. The client appears depressed and states, "I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable." How would the nurse respond? a. "Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain?" b. "I will arrange for a psychiatrist to speak with you." c. "Do you want to come off the transplant list?" d. "Would you like information about advance directives?"

Answer: d. "Would you like information about advance directives?" The client is verbalizing a real concern or fear about negative outcomes of the surgery. This anxiety itself can have a negative effect on the outcome of the surgery because of sympathetic stimulation. The best action is to allow the client to verbalize the concern and work toward a positive outcome without making the client feel as though the concerns are not valid. The client needs to feel that he or she has some control over the future. The nurse personally provides care to address the client's concerns instead of immediately calling for the chaplain or psychiatrist. The nurse would not jump to conclusions and suggest taking the client off the transplant list, which is the best treatment option.

A nurse is caring for a client who is in hypovolemic shock. While waiting for a unit of blood, the nurse should administer which of the following IV solutions? a. 0.45% sodium chloride b. Dextrose 5% in 0.9% sodium chloride c. Dextrose 10% in water d. 0.9% sodium chloride

Answer: d. 0.9% sodium chloride Solutions of 0.9% sodium chloride, as well as Lactated Ringer's solution, are used for fluid volume replacement. Sodium chloride, a crystalloid, is a physiologic isotonic solution that replaces lost volume in the blood stream and is the only solution to use when infusing blood products.

A nurse assesses a client after administering the first dose of a nitrate. The client reports a headache. What action would the nurse take? a. Initiate oxygen therapy. b. Hold the next dose. c. Instruct the client to drink water. d. Administer PRN acetaminophen.

Answer: d. Administer PRN acetaminophen. The vasodilating effects of nitrates frequently cause clients to have headaches during the initial period of therapy. The nurse would inform the client about this side effect and offer a mild analgesic, such as acetaminophen. The client's headache is not related to hypoxia or dehydration; therefore, applying oxygen and drinking water would not help. The client needs to take the medication as prescribed to prevent angina; the medication would not be held.

A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Decreased capillary refill b. Dyspnea c. Orthopnea d. Dependent edema

Answer: d. Dependent edema Blood return from the venous system to the right atrium is impaired by a weakened right heart. The subsequent systemic venous backup leads to development of dependent edema.

A client has progressed to Killip class III heart failure after a myocardial infarction. What does the nurse anticipate the client's care to include? a. Diuretics b. Nitrates c. Clopidogrel d. Dobutamine

Answer: d. Dobutamine The client in class III heart failure would benefit from a positive inotrope such as dobutamine. Clients in class I typically respond well to diuretics and nitrates so this client would already be on these medications. Clopidogrel is a platelet inhibitor that will be prescribed for anyone having acute coronary syndrome for at least 12 months.

The client diagnosed with pericarditis complaining of increased pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. b. Evaluate the client's urinary output. c. Assess the client for cardiac complications. d. Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer.

Answer: d. Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer. The nurse must assess the client to determine if the pain is expected secondary to pericarditis or if the pain is indicative of a complication that requires intervention from the health-care provider.

The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. Which are the most common signs/symptoms the nurse would expect to find when assessing the client? a. Pulsus paradoxus. b. Complaints of fatigue and arthralgias. c. Petechiae and splinter hemorrhages. d. Increased chest pain with inspiration.

Answer: d. Increased chest pain with inspiration. Chest pain is the most common symptom of pericarditis, usually has an abrupt onset, and is aggravated by respiratory movements (deep inspiration, coughing), changes in body position, and swallowing.

The client who has just had a percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty is in the recovery room. Which intervention should the Post Anesthesia Care Unit nurse implement? a. Assess the client's chest tube output. b. Monitor the client's chest dressing. c. Evaluate the client's endotracheal (ET) lip-line. d. Keep the client's affected leg straight.

Answer: d. Keep the client's affected leg straight. In this invasive procedure, performed in a cardiac catheterization laboratory, the client has a catheter inserted into the femoral artery. Therefore, the client must keep the leg straight to prevent hemorrhaging at the insertion site.

A nurse is assessing a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? a. Midsternal chest pain b. Thrill c. Pitting edema in lower extremities d. Lower back discomfort

Answer: d. Lower back discomfort Abdominal aortic aneurysm involves a widening, stretching, or ballooning of the aorta. Back and abdominal pain indicate that the aneurysm is extending downward and pressing on lumbar spinal nerve roots, causing pain.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is having a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) with stent placement. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate in the post-procedure plan of care? a. Instruct the client on a long-term cardiac conditioning program. b. Administer scheduled doses of acetaminophen. c. Check for peak laboratory markers of myocardial damage. d. Monitor for bleeding.

Answer: d. Monitor for bleeding. Bleeding is a post-procedure complication of PTCA because of the administration of heparin during the procedure and the removal of the femoral (or brachial) sheath. Manual pressure or a closure device is used to obtain hemostasis to the site. The client remains on bed rest until hemostasis is assured.

A new nurse is caring for a client with an abdominal aneurysm. What action by the new nurse requires the nurse's mentor to intervene? a. Assesses the client for back pain. b. Auscultates over abdominal bruit. c. Measures the abdominal girth. d. Palpates the abdomen in four quadrants.

Answer: d. Palpates the abdomen in four quadrants. Abdominal aneurysms should never be palpated as this increases the risk of rupture. The nurse mentoring the new nurse would intervene when the new nurse attempts to do this. The other actions are appropriate.

A nurse is assessing the peripheral vascular system of an older adult. What action by the nurse would cause the supervising nurse to intervene? a. Assessing blood pressure in both upper extremities b. Auscultating the carotid arteries for any bruits c. Classifying capillary filling of 4 seconds as normal d. Palpating both carotid arteries at the same time

Answer: d. Palpating both carotid arteries at the same time The nurse would not compress both carotid arteries at the same time to avoid brain ischemia. Blood pressure would be taken and compared in both arms. Prolonged capillary filling is considered to be greater than 5 seconds in an older adult, so classifying refill of 4 seconds as normal would not require intervention. Bruits would be auscultated.

The nurse is preparing to change a client's sternal dressing. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess vital signs. b. Don a mask and gown. c. Gather needed supplies. d. Perform hand hygiene.

Answer: d. Perform hand hygiene. To prevent a sternal wound infection, the nurse washes hands or performs hand hygiene as a priority and uses sterile technique when changing the dressing. Vital signs do not necessarily need to be assessed beforehand. A mask and gown are not needed. The nurse would gather needed supplies, but this is not the priority.

The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD) and angina. Which concept is priority? a. Sleep, rest, activity. b. Comfort. c. Oxygenation. d. Perfusion.

Answer: d. Perfusion The cardiac muscle is not perfused when there is a narrowing of the arteries caused by CAD or when an embolus or a thrombus occludes the artery. Adequate perfusion will supply oxygen to the cardiac muscle, allow for increased activity, and decrease pain.

A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of aplastic anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Plethoric appearance of facial skin b. Glossitis and weight loss c. Jaundice with an enlarged liver d. Petechiae and ecchymosis

Answer: d. Petechiae and ecchymosis The client who has aplastic anemia will have manifestations of petechiae and ecchymosis. Dyspnea on exertion also can be present. In aplastic anemia, all three major blood components (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) are reduced or absent, which is known as pancytopenia. Manifestations usually develop gradually.

A client undergoing hemodynamic monitoring after a myocardial infarction has a right atrial pressure of 0.5 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Level the transducer at the phlebostatic axis. b. Lay the client in the supine position. c. Prepare to administer diuretics. d. Prepare to administer a fluid bolus.

Answer: d. Prepare to administer a fluid bolus. Normal right atrial pressures are from 0 to 8 mm Hg. This pressure is at the extreme lower end, which indicates hypovolemia, so the nurse would prepare to administer a fluid bolus. The transducer would remain leveled at the phlebostatic axis. Positioning may or may not influence readings but a reading this low is definitive for volume depletion. Diuretics would be contraindicated.

A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment would the nurse expect to find? a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 to 132/60 mm Hg. b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 to 14 breaths/min. c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96%. d. Pulse decreased from 100 to 80 beats/min.

Answer: d. Pulse decreased from 100 to 80 beats/min. Beta blockers block the stimulation of beta1 -adrenergic receptors. They block the sympathetic (fight-or-flight) response and decrease the heart rate (HR). The beta blocker will decrease HR and blood pressure, increasing ventricular filling time. It usually does not have effects on beta2-adrenergic receptor sites. Cardiac output may drop because of decreased HR, but slowing the rate may allow for better filling and better cardiac output.

The nurse enters the client's room and notes an unconscious client with an absence of respirations and no pulse or blood pressure. The concept of perfusion is identified by the nurse. Which should the nurse implement first? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Call a rapid response team (RRT). c. Determine the telemetry monitor reading. d. Push the Code Blue button.

Answer: d. Push the Code Blue button. The first action is to immediately notify the code team and initiate CPR per protocol.

Which intervention should the nurse implement when defibrillating a client who is in ventricular fibrillation? a. Defibrillate the client at 50, 100, and 200j b. Do not remove the oxygen source during defibrillation. c. Place petroleum jelly on the defibrillator pads. d. Shout "all clear" prior to defibrillating the client.

Answer: d. Shout "all clear" prior to defibrillating the client. If any member of the health-care team is touching the client or the bed during defibrillation, that person could possibly be shocked. Therefore, the nurse should shout "all clear."

A nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis who reports substernal precordial pain that radiates to the left side of the neck. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measure would the nurse implement? a. Apply an ice pack to the client's chest. b. Provide a neck rub, especially on the left side. c. Allow the client to lie in bed with the lights down. d. Sit the client up with a pillow to lean forward on.

Answer: d. Sit the client up with a pillow to lean forward on. Pain from acute pericarditis may worsen when the client lays supine. The nurse would position the client in a comfortable position, which usually is upright and leaning slightly forward. An ice pack and neck rub will not relieve this pain. Dimming the lights will also not help the pain.

A client is in the preoperative holding area prior to an emergency coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The client is yelling at family members and tells the doctor to "just get this over with" when asked to sign the consent form. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the family members to wait in the waiting area. b. Inform the client that this behavior is unacceptable. c. Stay out of the room to decrease the client's stress levels. d. Tell the client that anxiety is common and that you can help.

Answer: d. Tell the client that anxiety is common and that you can help. Preoperative fear and anxiety are common prior to cardiac surgery, especially in emergent situations. The client is exhibiting anxiety, and the nurse would reassure the client that fear is common and offer to help. The other actions will not reduce the client's anxiety.

The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to the client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. Which assessment data would cause the nurse to question administering this medication? a. The client's apical pulse is 64. b. The client's calcium level is elevated. c. The client's telemetry shows occasional PVCs. d. The client's blood pressure is 90/58.

Answer: d. The client's blood pressure is 90/58. The client's blood pressure is low, and a calcium channel blocker could cause the blood pressure to bottom out.

A client received tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) after a myocardial infarction and now is on an intravenous infusion of heparin. The client's spouse asks why the client needs this medication. What response by the nurse is best? a. "The t-PA didn't dissolve the entire coronary clot." b. "The heparin keeps that artery from getting blocked again." c. "Heparin keeps the blood as thin as possible for a longer time." d. "The heparin prevents a stroke from occurring as the t-PA wears off."

b. "The heparin keeps that artery from getting blocked again." After the original intracoronary clot has dissolved, large amounts of thrombin are released into the bloodstream, increasing the chance of the vessel reoccluding. The other statements are not accurate. Heparin is not a "blood thinner," although people may refer to it as such.

Sinus rythym with PVC

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Ventricular Tachycardia

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A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. What actions would the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. d. Insert a Foley catheter. e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic. f. Insert a central venous catheter.

Answer: a, b, c. a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. If the client has kidney disease, fluids may be given 12 to 24 hours before the procedure for renal protection. Hydration would continue after the procedure. The client would be assessed for allergies to iodine, including shellfish; the contrast medium used during the catheterization contains iodine. Baseline renal labs would be assessed. A Foley catheter and central venous catheter are not required for the procedure and would only increase the client's risk for infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are not administered prior to a cardiac catheterization.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Thrombophlebitis b. Stroke c. Pulmonary embolism d. Myocardial infarction e. Cardiac tamponade f. Dysrhythmias

Answer: a, c, e. a. Thrombophlebitis c. Pulmonary embolism e. Cardiac tamponade Complications from a right-sided heart catheterization include thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolism, and vagal response. Cardiac tamponade is a risk of both right- and left-sided heart catheterizations. Stroke, myocardial infarction, and dysrhythmias are complications of left-sided heart catheterizations.

A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L) b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL (1.3 mmol/L) c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L) d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL (5.8 mcmol/L) e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L)

Answer: a, c, e. a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L) c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L) e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L) A lipid panel is often used to screen for cardiovascular risk. Total cholesterol, triglycerides, and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are all high, indicating higher risk for cardiovascular disease. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is within the normal range for both males and females. Serum albumin is not assessed for atherosclerosis.

The client with coronary artery disease asks the nurse, "Why do I get chest pain?" Which statement would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. "Chest pain is caused by decreased oxygen to the heart muscle." b. "There is ischemia to the myocardium as a result of hypoxemia." c. "The heart muscle is unable to pump effectively to perfuse the body." d. "Chest pain occurs when the lungs cannot adequately oxygenate the blood."

Answer: a. "Chest pain is caused by decreased oxygen to the heart muscle." This is a correct statement presented in layman's terms. When the coronary arteries cannot supply adequate oxygen to the heart muscle, there is chest pain.

A nurse supervises an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement would the nurse provide to the UAP related to this procedure? a. "Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed." b. "Add gel to the electrodes prior to applying them." c. "Place the electrodes on the posterior chest." d. "Turn off oxygen prior to monitoring the client."

Answer: a. "Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed." To ensure the best signal transmission, the skin would be clean and hairs clipped. Electrodes would be placed on the anterior chest, and no additional gel is needed. Oxygen has no impact on electrocardiographic monitoring.

An emergency department nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure? a. "I get short of breath when I climb stairs." b. "I see halos floating around my head." c. "I have trouble remembering things." d. "I have lost weight over the past month."

Answer: a. "I get short of breath when I climb stairs." Dyspnea on exertion is an early manifestation of heart failure and is associated with an activity such as stair climbing. The other findings are not specific to early occurrence of heart failure.

A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Minimize or abstain from caffeine." b. "Lie on your side until the attack subsides." c. "Use your oxygen when you experience PACs." d. "Take amiodarone daily to prevent PACs."

Answer: a. "Minimize or abstain from caffeine." PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse would explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress. Lying on the side will not prevent or resolve PACs. Oxygen is not necessary. Although medications may be needed to control symptomatic dysrhythmias, for infrequent PACs, the client first would try lifestyle changes to control them.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction asks the nurse, "Why do I have to rest and take it easy? My chest doesn't hurt anymore." Which statement would be the nurse's best response? a. "Your heart is damaged and needs about four(4) to six (6) weeks to heal." b. "There is necrotic myocardial tissue that puts you at risk for dysrhythmias." c. "Your doctor has ordered bedrest. Therefore, you must stay in the bed." d. "Just because your chest doesn't hurt anymore doesn't mean you are out of danger."

Answer: a. "Your heart is damaged and needs about four(4) to six (6) weeks to heal." The heart tissue is dead, stress or activity may cause heart failure, and it does take about six (6) weeks for scar tissue to form.

The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant, to a client with a mechanical valve replacement. The client's INR is 2.7. Which action should the nurse implement? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Prepare to administer vitamin K (Aqua-Mephyton). c. Hold the medication and notify the HCP. d. Assess the client for abnormal bleeding.

Answer: a. Administer the medication as ordered. The therapeutic range for most clients' INR is 2 to 3, but for a client with a mechanical valve replacement it is 2 to 3.5. The medication should be given as ordered and not withheld.

The client is experiencing multifocal premature ventricular contractions. Which antidysrhythmic medication would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to order for this client? a. Amiodarone. b. Atropine. c. Digoxin. d. Adenosine.

Answer: a. Amiodarone. Amiodarone suppresses ventricular ectopy and is the drug of choice for ventricular dysrhythmias.

The client is admitted to the telemetry unit diagnosed with acute exacerbation of congestive heart failure (CHF). Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find when assessing this client? a. Apical pulse rate of 110 and 4+ pitting edema of feet. b. Thick white sputum and crackles that clear with cough. c. The client sleeping with no pillow and eupnea. d. Radial pulse rate of 90 and capillary refill time <3 seconds.

Answer: a. Apical pulse rate of 110 and 4+ pitting edema of feet. The client with CHF would exhibit tachycardia (apical pulse rate of 110), dependent edema, fatigue, third heart sounds, lung congestion, and change in mental status. The client with CHF usually has pink frothy sputum and crackles that do not clear with coughing. The client with CHF would report sleeping on at least two pillows, if not sleeping in an upright position, and labored breathing, not eupnea, which means normal breathing. In a client diagnosed with heart failure, the apical pulse, not the radial pulse, is the best place to assess the cardiac status. TEST-TAKING HINT: In option "3," the word "no" is an absolute term, and usually absolutes, such as "no," "never," "always," and "only," are incorrect because there is no room for any other possible answer. If the test taker is looking for abnormal data, then the test taker should exclude the options that have normal values in them, such as eupnea, pulse rate of 90, and capillary refill time (CRT) <3 seconds.

A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The EKG reading presents ventricular tachycardia. What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation. b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip. c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator.

Answer: a. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation. Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a potentially lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse would first assess if the client is alert, breathing, and has a pulse. If this client is pulseless, then the nurse would call a Code Blue and begin CPR. The treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia is defibrillation. If the client has a pulse, then cardioversion would be indicated. Amiodarone is an appropriate antidysrhythmic, but it is not the first action.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which should the nurse teach the client prior to discharge? a. Carry your nitroglycerin tablets in a brown bottle. b. Swallow a nitroglycerin tablet at the first sign of angina. c. If one nitroglycerin tablet does not work in 10 minutes, take another. d. Nitroglycerin tablets have a fruity odor if they are potent.

Answer: a. Carry your nitroglycerin tablets in a brown bottle. Nitroglycerin tablets are dispensed in small brown bottles to preserve the potency. The client should not change the tablets to another container.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction 5 days ago. The client has a sudden onset of shortness of breath and begins coughing frothy, pink sputum. The nurse auscultates loud, bubbly sounds on inspiration. Which of the following adventitious breath sounds should the nurse document? a. Coarse crackles b. Wheezes c. Rhonchi d. Friction rub

Answer: a. Coarse crackles A client who had a recent myocardial infarction is at risk for left-sided heart failure. Crackles are breath sounds caused by movement of air through airways partially or intermittently occluded with fluid and are associated with heart failure and frothy sputum. Crackling sounds are heard at the end of inspiration and are not cleared by coughing.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client's blood pressure is 140/88 mm Hg. What action would the nurse take first? a. Compare the results with previous blood pressure readings. b. Increase the intravenous fluid rate because these readings are low. c. Immediately notify the primary health care provider of the elevated blood pressure. d. Document the finding in the client's chart as the only action.

Answer: a. Compare the results with previous blood pressure readings. The most recent range for normal blood pressure is less than 140 mm Hg systolic and less than 90mm Hg diastolic. This client's blood pressure is at the upper range of acceptable, so the nurse would compare the client's current reading with those previously recorded before doing anything else. The reading is not low, so the nurse would not increase IV fluids, nor would the nurse necessarily notify the primary health care provider. Documentation is important, but the nurse first checks previous readings.

A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and has a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. Which additional assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min b. Cool, clammy skin c. Oxygen saturation of 90% d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min

Answer: a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min When a client experiences hypotension, baroreceptors in the aortic arch sense a pressure decrease in the vessels. The parasympathetic system responds by lessening the inhibitory effect on the sinoatrial node. This results in an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate. This tachycardia is an early response and is seen even when blood pressure is not critically low. An increased heart rate and respiratory rate will compensate for the low blood pressure and maintain oxygen saturation and perfusion. The client may not be able to compensate for long and decreased oxygenation and cool, clammy skin will occur later.

The client has chronic atrial fibrillation. Which discharge teaching should the nurse discuss with the client? a. Instruct the client to use a soft-bristle toothbrush. b. Discuss the importance of getting a monthly-partial thromboplastin time (PTT). c. Teach the client about signs of pacemakermalfunction. d. Explain to the client the procedure for synchronized cardioversion.

Answer: a. Instruct the client to use a soft-bristle toothbrush. A client with chronic atrial fibrillation will be taking an anticoagulant to help prevent clot formation. Therefore, the client is at risk for bleeding and should be instructed to use a soft-bristle toothbrush.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client with a cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information would be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge? a. Medication orders for home b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences

Answer: a. Medication orders for home The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information might be used to plan care, but not as the priority.

A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Midsternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave

Answer: a. Midsternal chest pain Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the client's myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain. Increased urinary output and mild orthostatic hypotension are not life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require immediate intervention. The P wave touching the T wave indicates significant tachycardia and would be assessed to determine the underlying rhythm and cause; this is an important assessment but is not as critical as chest pain, which indicates cardiac cell death.

The nurse is functioning in the role of medication nurse during a code. Which should the nurse implement when administering amiodarone for ventricular tachycardia? a. Mix the medication in 100 mL of fluid and administer rapidly. b. Push the amiodarone directly into the nearest IV port and raise the arm. c. Question the physician's order because it is not ACLS recommended. d. Administer via an IV pump based on mg/kg/min.

Answer: a. Mix the medication in 100 mL of fluid and administer rapidly Amiodarone is administered during a code rapidly after being mixed in 100 mL of fluid.

The client diagnosed with an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) has developed 2+ edema bilaterally of the lower extremities and has crackles in all lung fields. Which should the nurse implement first? a. Notify the health care provider (HCP). b. Assess what the client ate at the last meal. c. Request a STAT 12 lead electrocardiogram. d. Administer furosemide IVP.

Answer: a. Notify the health care provider (HCP). "Has developed" indicates a new issue; the nurse should notify the HCP of the assessment findings, which indicate that the client has developed heart failure.

The intensive care department nurse is assessing the client who is 12 hours post-myocardial infarction. The nurse assesses an S3 heart sound. Which intervention should the nurse implement? a. Notify the health-care provider immediately. b. Elevate the head of the client's bed. c. Document this as a normal and expected finding. d. Administer morphine intravenously.

Answer: a. Notify the health-care provider immediately. An S3 indicates left ventricular failure and should be reported to the health-care provider. It is a potential life-threatening complication of a myocardial infarction.

A nurse is reviewing a client's repeat laboratory results 4 hr after administering fresh frozen plasma (FFP). Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review? a. Prothrombin time b. WBC count c. Platelet count d. Hematocrit

Answer: a. Prothrombin time The nurse should review the client's prothrombin time after the administration of FFP, which is plasma rich in clotting factors. FFP is administered to treat acute clotting disorders. The desired effect is a decrease in the prothrombin time.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a demand pacemaker inserted with the rate set at 72/min. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Telemetry monitoring shows QRS complexes occurring at a rate of 74/min with no pacing spikes. b. The client is experiencing premature ventricular complexes at 12/min. c. Telemetry monitoring shows pacing spikes with no QRS complexes. d. The client is experiencing hiccups.

Answer: a. Telemetry monitoring shows QRS complexes occurring at a rate of 74/min with no pacing spikes. The nurse should not expect pacer spikes when the client's pulse is greater than the set rate of 72/min, because the client's intrinsic rate overrides the set rate of the pacemaker.

The nurse has received shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease complaining of severe indigestion. b. The client diagnosed with congestive heart failure who has 3+ pitting edema. c. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation whose apical rate is 110 and irregular. d. The client diagnosed with sinus bradycardia who is complaining of being constipated.

Answer: a. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease complaining of severe indigestion. A complaint of indigestion could be cardiac chest pain. The nurse should assess this client because of the diagnosis of CAD and the word "severe" in the option.

The nurse on the telemetry unit has just received the a.m. shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. The client diagnosed with myocardial infarction who has an audible S3 heart sound. b. The client diagnosed with congestive heart failure who has 4+ sacral pitting edema. c. The client diagnosed with pneumonia who has a pulse oximeter reading of 94%. d. The client with chronic renal failure who has an elevated creatinine level.

Answer: a. The client diagnosed with myocardial infarction who has an audible S3 heart sound. An S3 heart sound indicates left ventricular failure, and the nurse must assess this client first because it is an emergency situation. The nurse would expect a client with CHF to have sacral edema of 4+; the client with an S3 would be in a more life-threatening situation. 3. A pulse oximeter reading of greater than 93% is considered normal. 4. An elevated creatinine level is expected in a client diagnosed with chronic renal failure. TEST-TAKING HINT: Because the nurse will be assessing each client, the test taker must determine which client is a priority.

The nurse identifies the concept of tissue perfusion as a client problem. Which is an antecedent of tissue perfusion? a. The client has a history of coronary artery disease (CAD). b. The client has a history of diabetes insipidus (DI). c. The client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). d. The client has a history of multiple fractures from a motor-vehicle accident.

Answer: a. The client has a history of coronary artery disease (CAD). CAD narrows the arteries of the heart, causing the tissues not to be perfused, especially when an embolus or a thrombus occurs.

A nurse is assessing a client who has late-stage heart failure and is experiencing fluid volume overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Weight gain 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 1 day b. Pitting edema +1 c. Client report of nocturnal cough d. B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) level of 100 pg/mL

Answer: a. Weight gain 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 1 day. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 1 day alerts the nurse that the client is retaining fluid and is at risk of fluid volume overload. This is an indication that the client's heart failure is worsening.

An emergency department nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Fatigue despite adequate rest c. Indigestion d. Abdominal pain e. Shortness of breath

Answer: b, c, e. b. Fatigue despite adequate rest c. Indigestion e. Shortness of breath Women may not have chest pain with myocardial infarction, but may feel discomfort or indigestion. They often present with a triad of symptoms—indigestion or feeling of abdominal fullness, feeling of chronic fatigue despite adequate rest, and feeling unable to catch their breath. Frequently, women are not diagnosed and therefore are not treated adequately. Hypertension and abdominal pain are not associated with acute coronary syndrome.

A nurse prepares a client for a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram. What actions would the nurse take when preparing this client for the procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the primary health care provider to place a central venous access device. b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. c. Administer the client's prescribed beta blocker. d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure. e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.

Answer: b, d, e. b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure. e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination. Clients receiving a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram will need peripheral venous access and continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. The client must be NPO 3-to-6 hours prior to the procedure. Education about dobutamine, which will be administered during the procedure, would be performed. Beta blockers are often held prior to the procedure as they lower the heart rate and may result in inaccurate results.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) c. Warmth and redness at the site d. Expanding groin hematoma e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor f. Oxygen saturation 93% on room air

Answer: b, d, e. b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) d. Expanding groin hematoma e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor After a cardiac catheterization, the nurse monitors vital signs, entry site, cardiac function, and distal circulation. The potassium is very low which can lead to dysrhythmias. An expanding hematoma signifies bleeding. Rhythm changes on the monitor are a known complication. These findings would require prompt action. The client's blood pressure is slightly elevated but does not need immediate action. Warmth and redness at the site would indicate an infection, but this would not be present in the first few hours. The oxygen saturation is slightly low but not critical and there is no baseline to compare it to.

A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification would the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. "Make certain that your bath water is warm." b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement." c. "Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day." d. "Avoid strenuous exercise such as running."

Answer: b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement." Bearing down strenuously during a bowel movement is one type of Valsalva maneuver, which stimulates the vagus nerve and results in slowing of the heart rate. Such a response is not desirable in a person who has bradycardia. The other instructions are not appropriate for this condition.

A nurse is providing teaching about lifestyle changes to a client who had a myocardial infarction and has a new prescription for a beta blocker. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I should eat foods high in saturated fat." b. "Before taking my medication, I will count my radial pulse rate." c. "I will exercise once per week for an hour at the health club." d. "I will stop taking my medication when my blood pressure is within a normal range."

Answer: b. "Before taking my medication, I will count my radial pulse rate." A beta blocker will induce bradycardia. The client should take her pulse rate for 1 min before self-administration.

Which statement by the client diagnosed with coronary artery disease indicates that the client understands the discharge teaching concerning diet? a. "I will not eat more than six (6) eggs a week." b. "I should bake or grill any meats I eat." c. "I will drink eight (8) ounces of whole milk a day." d. "I should not eat any type of pork products."

Answer: b. "I should bake or grill any meats I eat." The American Heart Association recommends a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet for a client with coronary artery disease. The client should avoid any fried foods, especially meats, and bake, broil, or grill any meat.

After teaching a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I would wear a snug-fitting shirt over the ICD." b. "I will avoid sources of strong electromagnetic fields." c. "I would participate in a strenuous exercise program." d. "Now I can discontinue my antidysrhythmic medication."

Answer: b. "I will avoid sources of strong electromagnetic fields." The client being discharged with an ICD is instructed to avoid strong sources of electromagnetic fields, such as devices emitting microwaves (not microwave ovens); transformers; radio, television, and radar transmitters; large electrical generators; metal detectors, including handheld security devices at airports; antitheft devices; arc welding equipment; and sources of 60-cycle (Hz) interference. Also avoid leaning directly over the alternator of a running motor of a car or boat. Clients would avoid tight clothing, which could cause irritation over the ICD generator. The client would be encouraged to exercise but would not engage in strenuous activities that cause the heart rate to meet or exceed the ICD cutoff point because the ICD can discharge inappropriately. The client would continue all prescribed medications.

A nurse obtains the health history of a client who is newly admitted to the medical unit. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the presence of edema? a. "I wake up to go to the bathroom at night." b. "My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day.". c. "I seem to be feeling more anxious lately." d. "I drink at least eight glasses of water a day."

Answer: b. "My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day.". Weight gain can result from fluid accumulation in the interstitial spaces. This is known as edema. The nurse would note whether the client feels that his or her shoes or rings are tight, and would observe, when present, an indentation around the leg where the socks end. The other answers do not describe edema.

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet." b. "You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients." c. "A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet." d. "If you exercise more frequently, you won't need to change your diet."

Answer: b. "You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients." Clients at risk for cardiovascular diseases should follow the American Heart Association guidelines to combat obesity and improve cardiac health. The nurse would encourage the client to eat vegetables, fruits, unrefined whole-grain products, and fat-free dairy products while losing weight. High-protein food items are often high in fat and calories. Although the nutritionist can assist with client education, the nurse would include nutrition education and assist the client to make healthy decisions. Exercising and eating nutrient-rich foods are both important components in reducing cardiovascular risk.

A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily. b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery. c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy. d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Answer: b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease. Other risk factors include hypertension (HTN), previous ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA) or other thromboembolic event, diabetes mellitus, heart failure, obesity, hyperthyroidism, chronic kidney disease, excessive alcohol use, and mitral valve disease. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation.

The client is in complete heart block. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Prepare to insert a pacemaker. b. Administer atropine, an antidysrhythmic. c. Obtain a STAT electrocardiogram (ECG). d. Notify the health-care provider.

Answer: b. Administer atropine, an antidysrhythmic. Atropine will decrease vagal stimulation and increase the heart rate. Therefore, it is the first intervention.

The client is one (1) day postoperative coronary artery bypass surgery. The client complains of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Medicate the client with intravenous morphine. b. Assess the client's chest dressing and vital signs. c. Encourage the client to turn from side to side. d. Check the client's telemetry monitor.

Answer: b. Assess the client's chest dressing and vital signs. The nurse must always assess the client to determine if the chest pain that is occurring is expected postoperatively or if it is a complication of the surgery.

A nurse cares for a client with an intravenous temporary pacemaker for bradycardia. The nurse observes the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS complex on the client's electrocardiogram. What action would the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous diltiazem. b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. d. Assess capillary refill and temperature.

Answer: b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. In temporary pacing, the wires are threaded onto the epicardial surface of the heart and exit through the chest wall. The pacemaker spike would be followed immediately by a QRS complex. Pacing spikes seen without subsequent QRS complexes imply loss of capture. If there is no capture, then there is no ventricular depolarization and contraction. The nurse would assess for cardiac output via vital signs and level of consciousness. The other interventions would not determine if the client is tolerating the loss of capture.

The charge nurse is making assignments for clients on a cardiac unit. Which client should the charge nurse assign to a new graduate nurse? a. The 44-year-old client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. b. The 65-year-old client admitted with unstable angina. c. The 75-year-old client scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. d. The 50-year-old client complaining of chest pain.

Answer: c. The 75-year-old client scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. A new graduate should be able to complete a pre-procedure checklist and get this client to the catheterization laboratory.

A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as atrial flutter? a. P waves occurring at 0.16 seconds before each QRS complex b. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min c. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min d. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern

Answer: b. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min The nurse should interpret this finding as atrial flutter, which indicates a lack of conduction between the atria and ventricles. The additional atrial beats are not conducting.

Along with persistent, crushing chest pain, which signs/symptoms would make the nurse suspect that the client is experiencing a myocardial infarction? a. Midepigastric pain and pyrosis. b. Diaphoresis and cool, clammy skin. c. Intermittent claudication and pallor. d. Jugular vein distention and dependent edema.

Answer: b. Diaphoresis and cool, clammy skin. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a systemic reaction to the MI. The body vasoconstricts to shunt blood from the periphery to the trunk of the body; this, in turn, leads to cold, clammy skin.

The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. A nursing diagnosis of "decreased cardiac output related to inability of the heart to pump effectively" is written. Which short-term goal would be best for the client? a. Be able to ambulate in the hall by date of discharge. b. Have an audible S1 and S2 with no S3 heard by end of shift. c. Turn, cough, and deep breathe every two (2) hours. d. Have a pulse oximeter reading of 98% by day two (2) of care.

Answer: b. Have an audible S1 and S2 with no S3 heard by end of shift. Audible S1 and S2 sounds are normal for a heart with adequate output. An audible S3 sound might indicate left ventricular failure which could be life threatening. Ambulating in the hall by day of discharge would be a more appropriate goal for an activity-intolerance nursing diagnosis. Turning the patient is a nursing intervention, not a short-term goal for the patient. A pulse oximeter reading would be a goal for impaired gas exchange, not for cardiac output. TEST-TAKING HINT: When reading a nursing diagnosis or problem, the test taker must be sure that the answer selected addresses the problem. An answer option may be appropriate care for the disease process but may not fit with the problem or etiology. Remember, when given an etiology in a nursing diagnosis, the answer will be doing something about the problem (etiology).

A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention would the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery? a. Administration of IV furosemide b. Initiation of an external pacemaker c. Assistance with endotracheal intubation d. Placement of central venous access

Answer: b. Initiation of an external pacemaker The RCA supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, inferior portion of the left ventricle, and atrioventricular (AV) node. It also supplies the sinoatrial node in 50% of people. If the client totally occludes the RCA, the AV node would not function and the client would go into heart block, so emergency pacing would be available for the client. Furosemide, intubation, and central venous access will not address the primary complication of RCA occlusion, which is AV node (and possibly SA node) malfunction.

The client diagnosed with congestive heart failure is complaining of leg cramps at night. Which nursing interventions should be implemented? a. Check the client for peripheral edema and make sure the client takes a diuretic early in the day. b. Monitor the client's potassium level and assess the client's intake of bananas and orange juice. c. Determine if the client has gained weight and instruct the client to keep the legs elevated. d. Instruct the client to ambulate frequently and perform calf-muscle stretching exercises daily.

Answer: b. Monitor the client's potassium level and assess the client's intake of bananas and orange juice. The most probable cause of the leg cramping is potassium excretion as a result of diuretic medication. Bananas and orange juice are foods that are high in potassium. The client with peripheral edema will experience calf tightness but would not have leg cramping, which is the result of low potassium levels. The timing of the diuretic will not change the side effect of leg cramping resulting from low potassium levels. Weight gain is monitored in clients with CHF, and elevating the legs would decrease peripheral edema by increasing the rate of return to the central circulation, but these interventions would not help with leg cramps. Ambulating frequently and performing leg-stretching exercises will not be effective in alleviating the leg cramps.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart. The client's health history includes a previous myocardial infarction and pacemaker implantation. What action would the nurse take? a. Schedule an electrocardiogram just before the MRI. b. Notify the primary health care provider before scheduling the MRI. c. Request lab for cardiac enzymes from the primary health care provider. d. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake the day before the MRI.

Answer: b. Notify the primary health care provider before scheduling the MRI. The magnetic fields of the MRI can deactivate the pacemaker. The nurse would call the primary health care provider and report that the client has a pacemaker so that he or she can order other diagnostic tests. The client does not need an electrocardiogram, cardiac enzymes, or increased fluids. Some newer MRI scanners have eliminated the possibility of complications due to implants, but the nurse needs to notify the primary health care provider.

A nurse is caring for a client who has hemophilia. The client reports pain and swelling in a joint following an injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Obtain blood samples to test platelet function. b. Prepare for replacement of the missing clotting factor. c. Administer aspirin for the client's pain. d. Place the bleeding joint in the dependent position.

Answer: b. Prepare for replacement of the missing clotting factor. Hemophilia is a hereditary bleeding disorder in which blood clots slowly and abnormal bleeding occurs. It is caused by a deficiency in the most common clotting factor, factor VIII (hemophilia A). Aggressive factor replacement is initiated to prevent hemarthrosis that can result in long-term loss of range of motion in repeatedly affected joints.

A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation would alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity

Answer: b. Speech alterations Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance.

The health-care provider has ordered an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which discharge instructions should the nurse include? a. Instruct the client to take a cough suppressant if a cough develops. b. Teach the client how to prevent orthostatic hypotension. c. Encourage the client to eat bananas to increase potassium level. d. Explain the importance of taking the medication with food.

Answer: b. Teach the client how to prevent orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension may occur with ACE inhibitors as a result of vasodilation. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to rise slowly and sit on the side of the bed until equilibrium is restored. If a cough develops, the client should notify the health-care provider because this is an adverse reaction and the HCP will discontinue the medication. ACE inhibitors may cause the client to retain potassium; therefore, the client should not increase potassium intake. An ACE inhibitor should be taken one (1) hour before meals or two (2) hours after a meal to increase absorption of the medication.

The nurse is preparing to administer a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which assessment data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication? a. The client has a BP of 110/70. b. The client has an apical pulse of 56. c. The client is complaining of a headache. d. The client's potassium level is 4.5 mEq/L.

Answer: b. The client has an apical pulse of 56. A beta blocker decreases sympathetic stimulation to the heart, thereby decreasing the heart rate. An apical rate less than 60 indicates a lower-than-normal heart rate and should make the nurse question administering this medication because it will further decrease the heart rate.

The charge nurse is making shift assignments. Which client would be most appropriate for the charge nurse to assign to a new graduate who just completed orientation to the medical floor? a. The client admitted for diagnostic tests to rule out valvular heart disease.2 b. The client three (3) days post-myocardial infarction being discharged tomorrow. c. The client exhibiting supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) on telemetry. d. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation who has an INR of five (5).

Answer: b. The client three (3) days post-myocardial infarction being discharged tomorrow. Because this client is being discharged, it would be an appropriate assignment for the new graduate.

A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. What action would the nurse take prior to the cardioversion? a. Administer intravenous adenosine. b. Turn off oxygen therapy. c. Ensure that a tongue blade is available. d. Position the client on the left side.

Answer: b. Turn off oxygen therapy. For safety during cardioversion, the nurse would turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire. The other interventions are not appropriate for a cardioversion. The client would be placed in a supine position.

A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication would the nurse expect to find on this client's medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition? a. Sotalol b. Warfarin c. Atropine d. Lidocaine

Answer: b. Warfarin Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin. Sotalol, atropine, and lidocaine are not appropriate for preventing this complication.

The nurse asks a client who has experienced ventricular dysrhythmias about substance abuse. The client asks, "Why do you want to know if I use cocaine?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Substance abuse puts clients at risk for many health issues." b. "The hospital requires that I ask you about cocaine use." c. "Clients who use cocaine are at risk for fatal dysrhythmias." d. "We can provide services for cessation of substance abuse."

Answer: c. "Clients who use cocaine are at risk for fatal dysrhythmias." Clients who use cocaine or illicit inhalants are particularly at risk for potentially fatal dysrhythmias. The other responses do not adequately address the client's question.

A nurse prepares a client for cardiac catheterization. The client states, "I am afraid I might die." What is the nurse's best response? a. "This is a routine test and the risk of death is very low." b. "Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to test?" c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the test." d. "What support systems do you have to assist you?"

Answer: c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the test." The nurse would discuss the client's feelings and concerns related to the cardiac catheterization. The nurse would not provide false hope or push the client's concerns off on the chaplain. The nurse would address support systems after addressing the client's current issue.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, "I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it." b. "The primary health care provider has prescribed an antacid every morning." c. "What do you understand about what happened to you?" d. "When did you start experiencing this indigestion?"

Answer: c. "What do you understand about what happened to you?" Clients who experience myocardial infarction often respond with denial, which is a defense mechanism. The nurse would ask the client what he or she thinks happened, or what the illness means to him or her. The other responses do not address the client's misconception about recent pain and the cause of that pain.

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease? a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma. b. A 32-year-old man with colorectal cancer. c. A 65-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus. d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who takes bisphosphonates.

Answer: c. A 65-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus. Of the options, the client with diabetes has a two- to four-fold increase in risk for death due to cardiovascular disease. Advancing age also increases risk, but not as much. Asthma, colorectal cancer, and bisphosphonate therapy do not increase the risk for cardiovascular disease.

A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min. What action would the nurse take first? a. Document the finding in the chart. b. Initiate external pacing. c. Assess the client's medications. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

Answer: c. Assess the client's medications. Pacemaker cells in the conduction system decrease in number as a person ages, potentially resulting in bradycardia. However, the nurse would first check the medication reconciliation for medications that might cause such a drop in heart rate, and then would inform the primary health care provider. Documentation is important, but it is not the first action. The heart rate is not low enough for atropine or an external pacemaker to be needed unless the client is symptomatic, which is not apparent.

A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. What action would the nurse take next? a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site. b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids. c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. d. Document the finding as "left pedal pulse of +1/4."

Answer: c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. Loss of a pulse distal to an angiography entry site is serious, indicating a possible arterial obstruction. The left pulse would be compared with the right, and pulses would be compared with previous assessments, especially before the procedure. Assessing color (pale, cyanosis) and temperature (cool, cold) will identify a decrease in circulation. Once all peripheral and vascular assessment data are acquired, the primary health care provider would be notified. Simply documenting the findings is inappropriate. The leg would be positioned below the level of the heart to increase blood flow to the distal portion of the leg. Increasing intravenous fluids will not address the client's problem.

The client who has had a myocardial infarction is admitted to the telemetry unit from intensive care. Which referral would be most appropriate for the client? a. Social worker. b. Physical therapy. c. Cardiac rehabilitation. d. Occupational therapy.

Answer: c. Cardiac rehabilitation. Cardiac rehabilitation is the most appropriate referral. The client can start rehabilitation in the hospital and then attend an outpatient cardiac rehabilitation clinic, which includes progressive exercise, diet teaching, and classes on modifying risk factors.

The nurse is discussing the importance of exercise with the client diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which intervention should the nurse implement? a. Perform isometric exercises daily. b. Walk for 15 minutes three (3) times a week. c. Do not walk outside if it is less than 40 ̊F. d. Wear open-toed shoes when ambulating.

Answer: c. Do not walk outside if it is less than 40 ̊F. When it is cold outside, vasoconstriction occurs, and this will decrease oxygen to the heart muscle. Therefore, the client should not exercise when it is cold outside.

A nurse assesses female client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect? a. Excruciating pain on inspiration b. Left lateral chest wall pain c. Fatigue and shortness of breath d. Numbness and tingling of the arm

Answer: c. Fatigue and shortness of breath In women, fatigue, shortness of breath, and indigestion may be the major symptoms of myocardial infarction caused by poor cardiac output. Chest pain is the classic symptom of myocardial infarction and can be present in women. Pain on inspiration may be related to a pleuropulmonary cause. Numbness and tingling of the arm could also be related to the myocardial infarction, but are not known to be specific symptoms for women having and MI.

A telemetry nurse assesses a client who has a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment would the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability

Answer: c. Level of consciousness A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse would assess for level of consciousness, dizziness, confusion, syncope, chest pain, shortness of breath. Although the other assessments would be completed, the nurse would assess the client's neurologic status next.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction is on bedrest. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is encouraging the client to move the legs. Which action should the nurse implement? a. Instruct the UAP to stop encouraging the leg movements. b. Report this behavior to the charge nurse as soon as possible. c. Praise the UAP for encouraging the client to move the legs. d. Take no action concerning the UAP's behavior.

Answer: c. Praise the UAP for encouraging the client to move the legs. The nurse should praise and encourage UAPs to participate in the client's care. Clients on bedrest are at risk for deep vein thrombosis, and moving the legs will help prevent this from occurring.

A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What intervention would the nurse implement to address this client's concerns? a. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 L per nasal cannula. b. Provide the client with a sleeping pill to stimulate rest. c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. d. Ask assistive personnel (AP) to help bathe the client.

Answer: c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse would schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue. The other interventions will not assist the client with performing self-care activities and there is no indication for oxygen.

A nurse administers prescribed adenosine to a client. Which response would the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis

Answer: c. Short period of asystole Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia with long pauses, nausea, or vomiting. Adenosine has no impact on intraocular pressure nor does it cause increased heart rate or hypertensive crisis.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a left-sided cardiac catheterization. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? a. Urinary output less than intake b. Bruising at the insertion site c. Slurred speech and confusion d. Discomfort in the left leg

Answer: c. Slurred speech and confusion A left-sided cardiac catheterization specifically increases the risk for a cerebral vascular accident. A change in neurologic status needs to be acted on immediately. Discomfort and bruising are not unexpected at the site. Urinary output less than intake may or may not be significant.

The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which signs/symptoms would indicate that the medical treatment has been effective? a. The client's peripheral pitting edema has gone from 3+ to 4+. b. The client is able to take the radial pulse accurately. c. The client is able to perform ADLs without dyspnea. d. The client has minimal jugular vein distention.

Answer: c. The client is able to perform ADLs without dyspnea. Being able to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) without shortness of breath (dyspnea) would indicate the client's condition is improving. The client's heart is a more effective pump and can oxygenate the body better without increasing fluid in the lungs. Pitting edema changing from 3+ to 4+ indicates a worsening of the CHF. The client's ability to take the radial pulse would evaluate teaching, not medical treatment. Any jugular vein distention indicates that the right side of the heart is failing, which would not indicate effective medical treatment. TEST-TAKING HINT: When asked to determine whether treatment is effective, the test taker must know the signs and symptoms of the disease being treated. An improvement in the signs and symptoms indicates effective treatment.

The charge nurse is making shift assignments for the medical floor. Which client should be assigned to the most experienced registered nurse? a. The client diagnosed with congestive heart failure who is being discharged in the morning. b. The client who is having frequent incontinent liquid bowel movements and vomiting. c. The client with an apical pulse rate of 116, a respiratory rate of 26, and a blood pressure of 94/62. d. The client who is complaining of chest pain with inspiration and a nonproductive cough.

Answer: c. The client with an apical pulse rate of 116, a respiratory rate of 26, and a blood pressure of 94/62. This client is exhibiting signs/symptoms of shock, which makes this client the most unstable. An experienced nurse should care for this client. This client is stable because discharge is scheduled for the following day. Therefore, this client does not need to be assigned to the most experienced registered nurse. This client is more in need of custodial nursing care than care from the most experienced registered nurse. Therefore, the charge nurse could assign a less experienced nurse to this client. These complaints usually indicate muscular or pleuritic chest pain; cardiac chest pain does not fluctuate with inspiration.

A nurse is monitoring a client who had a myocardial infarction. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor in the first 24 hr? a. Infective endocarditis b. Pericarditis c. Ventricular dysrhythmias d. Pulmonary emboli

Answer: c. Ventricular dysrhythmias After a myocardial infarction, the electrical conduction system of the heart can be irritable and prone to dysrhythmias. Ischemic tissue caused by the infarction can also interfere with the normal conduction patterns of the heart's electrical system.

The male client is diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD) and is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching? a. "I should keep the tablets in the dark-colored bottle they came in." b. "If the tablets do not burn under my tongue, they are not effective." c. "I should keep the bottle with me in my pocket at all times." d. "If my chest pain is not gone with one tablet, I will go to the ER."

Answer: d. "If my chest pain is not gone with one tablet, I will go to the ER." The client should take one tablet every five (5) minutes and, if no relief occurs after the third tablet, have someone drive him to the emergency department or call 911.

A nurse cares for a client who has advanced cardiac disease and states, "I am having trouble breathing while I'm sleeping at night." What is the nurse's best "response? a. "I will consult your primary health care provider to prescribe a sleep study." b. "You become hypoxic while sleeping; oxygen therapy via nasal cannula will help." c. "A continuous positive airway pressure, or CPAP, breathing mask will help you breathe at night." d. "Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping."

Answer: d. "Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping." The client is experiencing orthopnea (shortness of breath while lying flat). The nurse would teach the client to elevate the head and chest with pillows or sleep in a recliner. A sleep study is not necessary to diagnose this client. Oxygen and CPAP will not help a client with orthopnea.

A nurse assesses a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment would the nurse complete as the priority prior to this procedure? a. Client's level of anxiety b. Ability to turn self in bed c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate d. Allergies to iodine-based agents

Answer: d. Allergies to iodine-based agents Before the procedure, the nurse would ascertain whether the client has an allergy to iodine-containing preparations, such as seafood or local anesthetics. The contrast medium used during the procedure is iodine based. This allergy can cause a life-threatening reaction, so it is a high priority. It is important for the nurse to assess anxiety, mobility, and baseline cardiac status, but allergies take priority for client safety.

The nurse enters the room of the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The client is lying in bed gasping for breath, is cool and clammy, and has buccal cyanosis. Which intervention would the nurse implement first? a. Sponge the client's forehead. b. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading. c. Take the client's vital signs. d. Assist the client to a sitting position.

Answer: d. Assist the client to a sitting position. The nurse must first put the client in a sitting position to decrease the workload of the heart by decreasing venous return and maximizing lung expansion. Then, the nurse could take vital signs and check the pulse oximeter and then sponge the client's forehead. Sponging the client's forehead would be appropriate, but it is not the first intervention. Obtaining a pulse oximeter reading would be appropriate, but it is not the first intervention. Taking the vital signs would be appropriate, but it is not the first intervention.

A nurse is completing an assessment for a client who has a history of unstable angina. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Chest pain is relieved soon after resting. b. Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain. c. Physical exertion does not precipitate chest pain. d. Chest pain lasts longer than 15 min.

Answer: d. Chest pain lasts longer than 15 min. The client who has unstable angina will have chest pain lasting longer than 15 min. This is due to the reduced blood flow in a coronary artery due to atherosclerotic plaque and thrombus formation causing partial arterial obstruction, or from an artery spasm.

An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client would the nurse plan to assess first? a. Client who describes pain as a dull ache. b. Client who reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration. c. Client who reports cramping substernal pain. d. Client who describes intense squeezing pressure across the chest.

Answer: d. Client who describes intense squeezing pressure across the chest. All clients who have chest pain would be assessed more thoroughly. To determine which client would be seen first, the nurse must understand common differences in pain descriptions. Intense stabbing and viselike (squeezing) substernal pain or pressure that spreads through the client 's chest, arms, jaw, back, or neck are indicatives of a myocardial infarction. The nurse would plan to see this client first to prevent cardiac cell death. A dull ache, pain that gets worse with inspiration, and cramping pain are not usually associated with myocardial infarction.

The client who is one (1) day postoperative coronary artery bypass surgery is exhibiting sinus tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement? a. Assess the apical heart rate for one (1) full minute. b. Notify the client's cardiac surgeon. c. Prepare the client for synchronized cardioversion. d. Determine if the client is having pain.

Answer: d. Determine if the client is having pain. Sinus tachycardia means the sinoatrial node is the pacemaker, but the rate is greater than 100 because of pain, anxiety, or fever. The nurse must determine the cause and treat appropriately. There is no specific medication for sinus tachycardia.

A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse to perform prior to defibrillating this client? a. Make sure that the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 J. d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed.

Answer: d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed. To avoid injury, the rescuer commands that all personnel clear contact with the client or the bed and ensures their compliance before delivery of the shock. Defibrillation is done in asynchronous mode. Equipment would not be tested before a client is defibrillated because this is an emergency procedure; equipment would be checked on a routine basis. Defibrillation takes priority over any medications.

The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for four clients on a telemetry unit. Which nursing task would be best for the nurse to delegate to the UAP? a. Assist the client to go down to the smoking area for a cigarette. b. Transport the client to the intensive care unit via a stretcher. c. Provide the client going home discharge-teaching instructions. d. Help position the client who is having a portable x-ray done.

Answer: d. Help position the client who is having a portable x-ray done. The UAP can assist the x-ray technician in positioning the client for the portable x-ray. This does not require judgment. Allowing the UAP to take a client down to smoke is not cost effective and is not supportive of the medical treatment regimen that discourages smoking. The client going to the ICU would be unstable, and the nurse should not delegate to a UAP any nursing task that involves an unstable client. The nurse cannot delegate teaching.

The nurse has written an outcome goal "demonstrates tolerance for increased activity" for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse implement to assist the client to achieve this outcome? 1. Measure intake and output. 2. Provide two (2)-g sodium diet. 3. Weigh client daily. 4. Plan for frequent rest periods.

Answer: d. Plan for frequent rest periods. Scheduling activities and rest periods allows the client to participate in his or her own care and addresses the desired outcome. Daily weighing monitors fluid volume status, not activity tolerance. Measuring the intake and output is an appropriate intervention to implement for a client with CHF, but it does not address getting the client to tolerate activity. Dietary sodium is restricted in clients with CHF, but this is an intervention for decreasing fluid volume, not for increasing tolerance for activity.