Exam 3

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1. A nurse is providing education about tetracycline [Sumycin]. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the administration of this medication? a. "I should not take this medication with milk or other dairy products." b. "I should not worry if I experience an acnelike rash with this medication." c. "I should take an antacid, such as Tums, if I experience gastrointestinal distress." d. "I should take this antibiotic with a calcium supplement to improve absorption."

A

3. A patient recently began receiving clindamycin [Cleocin] to treat an infection. After 8 days of treatment, the patient reports having 10 to 15 watery stools per day. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. The provider may increase the clindamycin dose to treat this infection. b. This is a known side effect of clindamycin, and the patient should consume extra fluids. c. The patient should stop taking the clindamycin now and contact the provider immediately. d. The patient should try taking Lomotil or a bulk laxative to minimize the diarrheal symptoms.

A

A 20-year-old female patient has suprapubic discomfort, pyuria, dysuria, and bacteriuria greater than 100,000/mL of urine. Which are the most likely diagnosis and treatment? a. Uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with short-course therapy b. Complicated lower urinary tract infection treatable with single-dose therapy c. Uncomplicated upper urinary tract infection requiring 14 days of oral antibiotics d. Complicated upper urinary tract infection requiring parenteral antibiotics

A

A patient is diagnosed with a lung infection caused by P. aeruginosa. The culture and sensitivity report shows sensitivity to all aminoglycosides. The nurse knows that the rate of resistance to gentamicin is common in this hospital. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication? a. Amikacin [Amikin] b. Gentamicin c. Paromomycin d. Tobramycin

A

A patient who has been receiving intravenous gentamicin for several days reports having had a headache for 2 days. The nurse will request an order to: a. discontinue the gentamicin. b. obtain a gentamicin trough before the next dose is given c. give an analgesic to control headache discomfort. d. obtain renal function tests to evaluate for potential nephrotoxicity.

A

A patient with a history of renal calculi has fever, flank pain, and bacteriuria. The nurse caring for this patient understands that it is important for the provider to: a. begin antibiotic therapy after urine culture and sensitivity results are available. b. give prophylactic antibiotics for 6 weeks after the acute infection has cleared. c. initiate immediate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics. d. refer the patient for intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.

A

A patient with a new-onset seizure disorder receives a prescription for phenobarbital. The patient reports being concerned about the sedative side effects of this drug. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Phenobarbital doses for seizures are nonsedating." b. "This is a short-acting barbiturate, so sedation wears off quickly." c. "Tolerance to the sedative effects will develop in a few weeks." d. "You may actually experience paradoxical effects of euphoria."

A

A patient with a urinary tract infection is given a prescription for TMP/SMZ. When reviewing the drug with the patient, the nurse learns that the patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus and consumes alcohol heavily. What will the nurse do? a. contact the provider to request a different antibiotic for this patient b. obtain frequent blood glucose determinations whole giving TMP/SMZ d. tell the patient to avoid excessive fluid intake while taking TMP/SMZ

A

A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a urinary tract infection, and the prescriber orders TMP/SMZ. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. The patient should check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ. b. patient with diabetes have an increased risk of an allergic reaction patients taking TMP/SMZ may need increased dose of glipzide d. the patient should stop taking glipizide while taking the TMP/SMZ

A

A pregnant patient with fever, flank pain, and chills has a history of two previous bladder infections before getting pregnant. She is allergic to several antibiotics. She reports having taken methenamine successfully in the past. What will the nurse tell her? a. "This agent is not effective against infections of the upper urinary tract." b. "This antiseptic agent is safe for use during pregnancy and has no drug resistance." c. "This drug is linked to many serious birth defects and is not recommended during pregnancy." d. "You will need to take this medication with meals to avoid gastric upset."

A

A prescriber has ordered cefoxitin for a patient who has an infection caused by a gram-negative bacteria. The nurse taking the medication history learns that the patient experienced a maculopapular rash when taking amoxicillin [Amoxil] several years earlier. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the cefoxitin and observe for any side effects. b. Give the cefoxitin and have epinephrine and respiratory support available. c. Request an order for a different, nonpenicillin, noncephalosporin antibiotic. d. Request an order to administer a skin test before giving the cefoxitin.

A

The nurse has been caring for a patient who has been taking antibiotics for 3 weeks. Upon assessing the patient, the nurse notices the individual has developed oral thrush. Which of the following describes the etiology of the thrush? a. Suprainfection b. Antibiotic resistance c. Nosocomial infection d. Community-acquired infection

A

Which patients are candidates for MAOIs? (Select all that apply.) a. Patients who have not responded to SSRIs and TCAs b. Patients with atypical depression c. Patients with bulimia nervosa d. Patients with hypotension e. Patients with postpartum depression

A, B, C

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are known to be effective for which disorders? (Select all that apply.) a. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. Panic disorder d. Post-traumatic stress disorder e. Social anxiety disorder

A, B, C, E

Which patients may receive gentamicin safely? (Select all that apply.) a. A 6-day-old newborn b. A 5-year-old child c. A pregnant woman d. A woman breast-feeding an infant e. An elderly patient with renal disease

A, B, D

Besides the cost of administering a given drug, which are considerations when a provider selects a cephalosporin to treat an infection? (Select all that apply.) a. Adverse effects b. Antimicrobial spectrum c. Brand name d. Manufacturer e. Pharmacokinetics

A, B, E

Which sedative-hypnotics are useful for both difficulty falling asleep and difficulty maintaining sleep? (Select all that apply.) a. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) b. Flurazepam c. Temazepam (Restoril) d. Triazolam (Halcion) e. Extended-release zolpidem (Ambien CR)

A, B, E

4. A patient is diagnosed with periodontal disease, and the provider orders oral doxycycline [Periostat]. The patient asks the purpose of the drug. What is the nurse's response? a. "It is used because of its anti-inflammatory effects." b. "It inhibits collagenase to protect connective tissue in the gums." c. "It reduces bleeding and the pocket depth of oral lesions." d. "It suppresses bacterial growth in the oral mucosa."

B

A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs) work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins: a. disinhibit transpeptidases. b. disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis. c. inhibit autolysins. d. inhibit host cell wall function.

B

A nurse is obtaining a health history from an older adult patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient reports chronic difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. The nurse knows that the best treatment for this patient will be: a. alternative medications. b. improved sleep hygiene. c. short-term barbiturates. d. triazolam [Halcion].

B

A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor ____ levels. a. peak b. peak and trough c. serum drug d. trough

B

A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer." b. "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation." c. "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid." d. "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."

B

A patient is receiving an intraperitoneal aminoglycoside during surgery. To reverse a serious side effect of this drug, the nurse may expect to administer which agent? a. Amphotericin B b. Calcium gluconate c. Neuromuscular b

B

A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient? a. Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin [Vancocin], to the patient's regimen b. Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole [Flagyl] c. Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement d. Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures

B

A patient will receive oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may have abdominal pain and nausea, but these are usually mild." b. "I should take this medication with food or milk to improve absorption." c. "I should stop taking the medication immediately if I experience heel pain." d. "I will need to use sunscreen every time I go outdoors."

B

A provider has indicated that a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) will be prescribed for a patient who is experiencing major depression. When conducting a pretreatment health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a recent history of alcohol abuse. Which SNRI would be contraindicated for this patient? a. Desvenlafaxine [Pristiq] b. Duloxetine [Cymbalta] c. Escitalopram [Lexapro] d. Venlafaxine [Effexor SR]

B

A woman complains of burning on urination and increased frequency. The patient has a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and is going out of town in 2 days. To treat the infection quickly, the nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order: a. aztreonam [Azactam]. b. fosfomycin [Monurol]. c. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]. d. vancomycin [Vancocin].

B

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with: a. allergic reaction. b. red man syndrome. c. rhabdomyolysis. d. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

B

A nurse is caring for a patient who takes an ACE inhibitor and an ARB medication who will begin taking TMP/SMZ to treat a urinary tract infection. Which serum electrolyte will the nurse expect to monitor closely? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Sodium

C

A nurse is preparing to administer intramuscular penicillin to a patient who is infected with T. pallidum and notes that the order is for sodium penicillin G. Which action is correct? a. Administer the drug as prescribed. b. Contact the provider to discuss administering the drug intravenously. c. Contact the provider to discuss changing the drug to benzathine penicillin G. d. Request an order for piperacillin instead of penicillin G.

C

A nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient receiving an aminoglycoside. The report reveals an anaerobic organism as the cause of infection. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to discuss an increased risk of aminoglycoside toxicity. b. Continue giving the aminoglycoside as ordered. c. Request an order for a different class of antibiotic. d. Suggest adding a penicillin to the patient's drug regimen.

C

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "TCAs block receptors for histamine, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine." b. "TCAs block the uptake of norepinephrine and 5-HT." c. "TCAs have many side effects, but none of them are serious." d. "TCAs have other uses than for depression."

C

A patient taking fluoxetine [Prozac] complains of decreased sexual interest. A prescriber orders a "drug holiday." What teaching by the nurse would best describe a drug holiday? a. "Cut the tablet in half anytime to reduce the dosage." b. "Discontinue the drug for 1 week." c. "Don't take the medication on Friday and Saturday." d. "Take the drug every other day."

C

A patient who has fibromyalgia is diagnosed with major depression. The provider orders a TCA. The nurse will teach this patient to: a. avoid foods containing tyrosine. b. consume alcohol in moderation. c. sit or lie down when feeling lightheaded. d. take the medication in the morning.

C

A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the nurse that job demands require staying up late and then getting up early for meetings. The nurse expects that the provider will prescribe which medication for this patient? a. Flurazepam b. Trazodone [Desyrel] c. Zaleplon [Sonata] d. Zolpidem [Ambien]

C

A patient whose spouse has died recently reports feeling down most of each day for the past 2 months. On further questioning, the nurse learns that the patient has quit participating in church and social activities, has difficulty falling asleep, and has lost 5 pounds. The patient reports feeling tired and confused all the time but does not have suicidal thoughts. What does the nurse suspect? a. Grief and sadness b. Hypomania c. Major depression d. Situational depression

C

A patient with a history of depression and suicidal ideation is taking fluoxetine [Prozac]. The patient reports difficulty maintaining sleep and is prescribed secobarbital [Seconal] as a sedative-hypnotic. The nurse preparing this patient for discharge from the hospital will: a. contact the provider to suggest an order for ramelteon [Rozerem]. b. instruct the patient to use alcohol in moderation. c. request an order to change to trazodone [Desyrel] for sleep. d. suggest that the patient try alternative remedies for sleep.

C

A patient with an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is being treated with piperacillin. The nurse providing care reviews the patient's laboratory reports and notes that the patient's blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels are elevated. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding an aminoglycoside. b. changing to penicillin G. c. reducing the dose of piperacillin. d. ordering nafcillin.

C

A woman who is nursing a newborn develops postpartum depression and her provider orders sertraline [Zoloft] to treat her symptoms. The patient is concerned about the safety of this medication for her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication? a. To stop nursing while taking the medication b. To expect symptoms of colic and poor weight gain in the baby c. That sertraline is safer than other antidepressants for nursing mothers d. To ask her provider about switching to fluoxetine [Prozac] instead

C

A young adult patient has been taking an antidepressant medication for several weeks and reports having increased thoughts of suicide. The nurse questions further and learns that the patient has attempted suicide more than once in the past. The patient identifies a concrete plan for committing suicide. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. changing the medication to another drug class. b. discontinuing the medication immediately. c. hospitalizing the patient for closer monitoring. d. requiring more frequent clinic visits for this patient.

C

Which patients should be given antibiotics prophylactically? a. children who attend day care with other children who have strep throat b. children undergoing chemotherapy who have mild neutropenia c. patients with certain congenital heart defects at risk for bacterial endocarditis d. patients with compound fractures undergoing surgical repair e. postoperative patient who have undergone emergency cesarean sections

C, D

Which are benefits of using a combination of two or more antibiotics? (Select all that apply.) a. Reduced cost b. Reduced risk of superinfection c. Reduced toxicity d. Reduced resistance e. Reduced risk in severe infection

C, D, E

15. A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection? a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin [Cleocin] c. Linezolid [Zyvox] d. Vancomycin

D

A nurse preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to a patient notes that the dose is half the usual dose for an adult. The nurse suspects that this is because this patient has a history of: a. antibiotic resistance. b. interpatient variation. c. liver disease. d. renal disease.

D

A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response? A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically." B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat." C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic." D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."

D

A patient has a localized skin infection, which is most likely caused by a gram-positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available, the nurse will expect the provider to order a ____ spectrum _____ agent. A) broad; systemic B) broad; topical C) narrow; systemic D) narrow; topical

D

A patient has a skin infection and the culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What is an appropriate treatment for this patient? a. Cefaclor b. Cefazolin c. Cefotaxime d. Ceftaroline

D

A patient is diagnosed with major depression with severe symptoms and begins taking an antidepressant medication. Three weeks after beginning therapy, the patient tells the nurse that the drug is not working. The nurse will counsel this patient to ask the provider about: a. adding a second medication to complement this drug. b. changing the medication to one in a different drug class. c. increasing the dose of this medication. d. using nondrug therapies to augment the medication.

D

A patient who has cystic fibrosis has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection and the provider has ordered aztreonam [Cayston]. What will the nurse teach this patient about administration of this drug? a. Administer the drug intramuscularly twice daily. b. Give a daily dose every day for 28 days and then stop. c. Inhale the powdered drug as ordered three times each day. d. Use the nebulizer to administer the drug three times daily.

D

A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Alprazolam [Xanax] b. Buspirone [Buspar] c. Deep brain stimulation d. Fluoxetine [Paxil]

D

A patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal is given a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that this drug is effective because: a. the alcohol does not interact with the benzodiazepine. b. the benzodiazepine potentiates alcohol withdrawal symptoms. c. the benzodiazepine relieves muscle spasms and spasticity. d. the patient has a cross-dependence to the benzodiazepine.

D

The nurse is caring for a patient who will begin receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat pyelonephritis. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of myasthenia gravis. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Administer the ciprofloxacin and monitor the patient for signs of muscle weakness. b. Ask the provider whether the ciprofloxacin can be given orally. c. Request an order for concurrent administration of metronidazole [Flagyl]. d. Suggest that the provider order a different antibiotic for this patient.

D

The nurse is discussing upper and lower UTIs. She correctly states that most UTIs can be treated at home, except for a. acute cystitis. b. acute urethritis. c. complicated urinary tract infection. d. severe pyelonephritis

D

Which patient with a urinary tract infection will require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics? a. A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5°F, dysuria, and bacteriuria b. A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever c. A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection d. An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter

D

A first-time parent of a 6-week-old infant tells the nurse that she feels anxious and sad, cries a lot, and has difficulty sleeping. What will the nurse do? a. Ask her to complete the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale. b. Reassure her that the "baby blues" are normal after childbirth. c. Suggest that she get more sleep and try to increase her activity. d. Suggest that she talk to her provider about using an SSRI.

A

A neonate is born to a patient who reports taking venlafaxine [Effexor XR]. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant for: a. irritability, tremor, and respiratory distress. b. poor appetite and disturbed sleeping patterns. c. serotonin syndrome. d. sustained mydriasis.

A

A patient has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection that is sensitive to aminoglycosides, and the prescriber orders gentamicin. The patient tells the nurse that a friend received amikacin [Amikin] for a similar infection and wonders why amikacin was not ordered. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Amikacin is given when infectious agents are resistant to other aminoglycosides." b. "Amikacin is more vulnerable to inactivation by bacterial enzymes." c. "Amikacin is a narrow-spectrum drug and will probably not work for this infection." d. "Gentamicin is less toxic to the ears and the kidneys."

A

A patient has a positive urine culture 1 week after completion of a 3-day course of antibiotics. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will: a. begin a 2-week course of antibiotics. b. evaluate for a structural abnormality of the urinary tract. c. initiate long-term prophylaxis with low-dose antibiotics. d. treat the patient with intravenous antibiotics.

A

A patient who has been taking an SSRI tells the nurse that the drug has caused reduced sexual performance, weight gain, and sedation. The nurse will suggest that the patient ask the provider about using which drug? a. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) b. Imipramine (Tofranil) c. Isocarboxazid (Marplan) d. Trazodone (Oleptro)

A

A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. add metronidazole [Flagyl]. b. increase the dose of ciprofloxacin. c. restrict dairy products. d. switch to gemifloxacin.

A

A nursing student wants to know the differences between hospital-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (HA-MRSA) and community-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). Which statements about CA-MRSA are true? (Select all that apply.) a. 20% to 30% of the general population are colonized with CA-MRSA. b. Boils caused by CA-MRSA can be treated without antibiotics. c. CA-MRSA is less dangerous than HA-MRSA. d. CA-MRSA does not cause necrotizing fasciitis. e. CA-MRSA is transmitted by airborne droplets.

A, B, C

The nurse is teaching a pharmacology refresher course to a group of nurses. A student asks what host factors affect the choice of agents in antimicrobial therapy. The nurse will tell the students that such host factors include what? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Gender c. Immune system status d. Infection site e. Weight

A, C, D

Tetracyclines are considered first-line drugs for which disorder(s)? (Select all that apply.) a. Chlamydia trachomatis cervicitis b. Clostridium difficile diarrhea c. Lyme disease d. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococus aureus skin infections e. Typhus fever

A, C, E

19. A patient with severe community-acquired pneumonia has been prescribed telithromycin [Ketek]. Which aspect of the patient's medical history is of concern to the nurse? a. Anemia b. Myasthenia gravis c. Renal disease d. Strep. pneumoniae infection

B

A nursing student asks a nurse to clarify the differences between the mechanisms of spontaneous mutation and conjugation in acquired resistance of microbes. What will the nurse say? a. conjugation result in a gradual increase in resistance b. conjugation results in random changes in the microbe's DNA c. spontaneous mutation leads to resistance to only one antimicrobial agent d. spontaneous mutation can transfer DNA from one organism to another

C

A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV. c. Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin. d. Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.

C

A patient reports having occasional periods of tremors, palpitations, nausea, and a sense of fear, which usually dissipate within 30 minutes. To treat this condition, the nurse anticipates the provider will prescribe a drug in which drug class? a. Benzodiazepines b. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors d. Tricyclic antidepressants

C

A patient is admitted to the unit for treatment for an infection. The patient receives IV amikacin [Amikin] twice a day. When planning for obtaining a peak aminoglycoside level, when should the nurse see that the blood is drawn? a. 30 minutes after the IV infusion is complete b. 1 hour after the IV infusion is complete c. 1 hour before administration of the IV infusion d. A peak level is not indicated with twice-daily dosing.

A

A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do? a. Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin. b. Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly. c. Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload. d. Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.

A

A patient who is taking gentamicin and a cephalosporin for a postoperative infection requests medication for mild postsurgical pain. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following medications? a. Acetaminophen b. Aspirin c. Ibuprofen d. Morphine

A

Before giving methenamine [Hiprex] to a patient, it is important for the nurse to review the patient's history for evidence of which problem? a. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine b. History of reactions to antibiotic agents c. Possibility of pregnancy d. Previous resistance to antiseptic agents

A

Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.) a. Bacitracin b. Daptomycin c. Ofloxacin d. Polymyxin B e. Rifampin

A, D

A nurse teaches a patient about sulfonamides. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. I need to drink extra fluids while on this medication b. I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone. c. I need to use sunscreen when taking this drug d.I should call my provider if I develop a rash while taking this drug

B

A patient who has been taking gentamicin for 5 days reports a headache and dizziness. What will the nurse do? a. Request an order for a gentamicin peak level. b. Suspect ototoxicity and notify the prescriber. c. Tell the patient to ask for help with ambulation. d. Tell the patient to report any tinnitus.

B

A patient who takes the loop diuretic ethacrynic acid is given intravenous gentamicin for an infection. After several days of treatment with gentamicin, the nurse reviews the patient's most recent laboratory results and notes a gentamicin trough of 2.1 mcg/mL and normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. The nurse will question the patient about: a. gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. b. headache, dizziness, or vertigo. c. presence of rash. d. urine output.

B

Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)? (Select all that apply.) a. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Treponema pallidum

B, D, E

5. To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children, tetracyclines should not be given: a. to children once the permanent teeth have developed. b. to patients taking calcium supplements. c. to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation. d. with dairy products or antacids.

C

A 30-year-old male patient reports having two to four urinary tract infections a year. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient? a. "Make sure you void after intercourse and drink extra fluids to stay well hydrated." b. "We will treat each infection as a separate infection and treat with short-course therapy." c. "You will need to take a low dose of medication for 6 months to prevent infections." d. "You will need to take antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks each time you have an infection."

C

A patient in the emergency department is given intravenous diazepam [Valium] for seizures. When the seizures stop, the nurse notes that the patient is lethargic and confused and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following? a. Flumazenil [Romazicon] b. Gastric lavage c. Respiratory support d. Toxicology testing

C

A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin [Amoxil] as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin. b. Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time. c. Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk. d. Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.

C

A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who say that they were at a party where alcohol and a mix of barbiturates and benzodiazepines were all available. They tell the nurse that the patient was among the first to arrive at the party, which started several hours ago. The patient is nonresponsive and has pinpoint pupils and respirations of 6 breaths per minute. After oxygen has been administered, the nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention? a. A central nervous system stimulant and IV fluids b. Activated charcoal and flumazenil [Romazicon] c. Maintaining adequate oxygenation to the brain d. Naloxone [Narcan] and a cathartic

C

A patient is receiving tobramycin 3 times daily. The provider has ordered a trough level with the 8:00 AM dose. The nurse will ensure that the level is drawn at what time? a. 4:00 AM b. 7:00 AM c. 7:45 AM d. 8:45 AM

C

A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills, severe flank pain, dysuria, and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F, a pulse of 92 beats per minute, respirations of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of: a. acute cystitis. b. urinary tract infection. c. pyelonephritis. d. prostatitis.

C

A patient who is taking immunosuppressants develops a urinary tract infection. The causative organism is sensitive to sulfonamides and to another, more expensive antibiotic. The prescriber orders the more expensive antibiotic. The nursing student assigned to this patient asks the nurse why the more expensive antibiotic is being used. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. immunosuppressed patient are folate deficient b. patient who are immunosuppressed are more likely to develop resistance c. sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work d. sulfonamides are intensify the effects of immunosuppression

C

A patient with second-degree burns is treated with silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]. A nursing student asks the nurse about the differences between silver sulfadiazine and mafenide [Sulfamylon], because the two are similar products, and both contain sulfonamides. What does the nurse tell the student about silver sulfadiazine? a. It causes increased pain when the medication is applied. b. It has a broader spectrum of antimicrobial sensitivity. c. It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver. d. It suppresses renal excretion of acid, causing acidosis.

C

The parent of a 5-year-old child who has had four urinary tract infections in the past year asks the nurse why the provider doesn't just order an antibiotic for the child's current symptoms of low-grade fever, flank pain, and dysuria since these are similar symptoms as before. Which is the most important reason given by the nurse? a. "Your child may need to be hospitalized for treatment." b. "Your child may need a urine culture before and after treatment." c. "Your child may need tests to assess for urinary tract abnormalities." d. "Your child may need additional medications, such as urinary tract antiseptics."

C

A nurse is caring for an African American patient who has been admitted to the unit for long-term antibiotic therapy with sulfonamides. The patient develops fever, pallor, and jaundice. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient has developed: a. Stevens-Johnson syndrome. b. kernicterus. c. hepatotoxicity. d. hemolytic anemia.

D

A nurse is discussing microbial resistance among sulfonamides and trimethoprim with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Bacterial resistance to trimethoprim is relatively uncommon." b. "Resistance among gonococci, streptococci, and meningococci to sulfonamides is high." c. "Resistance to both agents can occur by spontaneous mutation of organisms." d. "Resistance to sulfonamides is less than resistance to trimethoprim."

D

A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam [Restoril] because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam: a. does not depress the central nervous system. b. shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses. c. mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter. d. potentiates endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) producing a finite CNS depression.

D

A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin calls the nurse to report several side effects. Which side effect of this drug causes the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication? a. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting b. Brown-colored urine c. Drowsiness d. Tingling of the fingers

D

A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) [Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later, the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for: a. birth defects. b. hypoglycemia. c. rash. d. kernicterus.

D

A young, nonpregnant female patient with a history of a previous urinary tract infection is experiencing dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, and suprapubic pain of 3 days' duration. She is afebrile. A urine culture is positive for more than 100,000/mL of urine. The nurse caring for this patient knows that which treatment is most effective? a. A 14-day course of amoxicillin with clavulanic acid [Augmentin] b. A 7-day course of ciprofloxacin [Cipro] c. A single dose of fosfomycin [Monurol] d. A 3-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]

D

An older male patient comes to the clinic with complaints of chills, malaise, myalgia, localized pain, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. The nurse would most likely suspect that the patient has: a. acute cystitis. b. urinary tract infection. c. pyelonephritis. d. prostatitis.

D

8. A hospitalized patient who is taking demeclocycline [Declomycin] reports increased urination, fatigue, and thirst. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to report potential toxic side effects. b. Notify the provider to discuss changing the medication to doxycycline. c. Perform bedside glucometer testing to evaluate the serum glucose level. d. Provide extra fluids and reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.

D

14. Which side effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] causes the most concern and may warrant discontinuation of the drug? a. Diarrhea b. Headache c. Nausea d. Vomiting

A

A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic? a. Daptomycin [Cubicin] b. Levofloxacin [Levaquin] c. Norfloxacin [Noroxin] d. Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

A

9. A 6-week-old infant who has not yet received immunizations develops a severe cough. While awaiting nasopharyngeal culture results, the nurse will expect to administer which antibiotic? a. Clindamycin [Cleocin] b. Doxycycline [Vibramycin] c. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate d. Penicillin G

C

A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered? a. Amikacin [Amikin] b. Kanamycin [Kantrex] c. Neomycin [Neomycin] d. Paromomycin [Humatin]

C

A nurse is explaining to nursing students why a cephalosporin is used in conjunction with an aminoglycoside for a patient with an infection. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Cephalosporins enhance the actions of aminoglycosides by weakening bacterial cell walls." b. "Cephalosporins prevent neuromuscular blockade associated with aminoglycosides." c. "Cephalosporins prolong the postantibiotic effects of the aminoglycosides so doses can be decreased." d. "Cephalosporins reduce bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides."

A

A patient is receiving gentamicin once daily. A nursing student asks the nurse how the drug can be effective if given only once a day. The nurse explains drug dosing schedules for aminoglycosides. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Gentamicin has a longer half-life than other aminoglycosides." b. "Large doses given once daily yield higher peak levels." c. "The postantibiotic effect lasts for several hours." d. "There is less risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity with large daily doses."

A

A patient is receiving tobramycin three times daily. A tobramycin peak level is 4.5 and the trough is 1.2. What will the nurse do? a. Give the next dose as ordered. b. Hold the next dose and notify the provider. c. Monitor the patient for signs of nephrotoxicity. d. Tell the patient to report tinnitus.

A

A patient is to undergo orthopedic surgery, and the prescriber will order a cephalosporin to be given preoperatively as prophylaxis against infection. The nurse expects the provider to order which cephalosporin? a. First-generation cephalosporin b. Second-generation cephalosporin c. Third-generation cephalosporin d. Fourth-generation cephalosporin

A

A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ (Bactrim). When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to: a. drink 8-10 glasses of water a day b. eat food that are high in potassium c. take medication with food d. take folic acid supplements

A

A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment? a. Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy. b. Avoid dairy products while taking this drug. c. Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs. d. Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain

A

A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the medication as prescribed. b. Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses. c. Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider. d. Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.

A

A patient who is receiving a final dose of intravenous (IV) cephalosporin begins to complain of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes signs of redness at the IV insertion site and along the vein. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Apply warm packs to the arm, and infuse the medication at a slower rate. b. Continue the infusion while elevating the arm. c. Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly. d. Request central venous access.

C

A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ, 160/800 mg orally, twice daily. Before administering the third dose, the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash, a temperature of 103°F, and a heart rate of 100 beats per minute. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication. b. Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash. c. Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms. d. Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.

C

A pregnant female patient with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, urinary urgency and frequency, and a low-grade fever is allergic to sulfa, ciprofloxacin, and amoxicillin. The nurse knows that the best alternative for treating this urinary tract infection is with: a. cephalexin [Keflex]. b. fosfomycin [Monurol]. c. methenamine [Hiprex]. d. nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin].

C

A nurse is obtaining a drug history from a patient about to receive sulfadiazine. The nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin, glipizide, and a thiazide diuretic. Based on this assessment, the nurse will expect the provider to: a. change the antibiotic to TMP/SMZ. b. increase the dose of the glipizide. c. monitor the patient's electrolytes closely. d. monitor the patient's coagulation levels.

D

Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis? a. Cefaclor b. Cefazolin c. Cefoxitin d. Cefotaxime

D

A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient? a. Whether any antihypertensive medications are used b. Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice c. To list all foods eaten that day d. Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI

C

18. A child has been receiving chloramphenicol for a Neisseria meningitidis central nervous system (CNS) infection. The nurse administers the dose and subsequently notes that the child has vomited and appears dusky and gray in color. The child's abdomen is distended. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider for an order to obtain a chloramphenicol level. b. Notify the provider that the child's meningitis is worsening. c. Recognize this as initial signs of a C. difficile infection. d. Stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider.

D

A patient who has been taking alprazolam [Xanax] to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) reports recently stopping the medication after symptoms have improved but reports having feelings of panic and paranoia. Which initial action by the nurse is correct? a. Ask the patient if the medication was stopped abruptly. b. Instruct the patient to resume taking the alprazolam. c. Notify the provider that the patient is experiencing a relapse. d. Suggest that the patient discuss taking buspirone [Buspar] with the provider.

A

An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to: a. divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart. b. take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects. c. take the medication once daily in the late afternoon. d. take the medication once daily in the morning.

A

During an admission history, a patient reports a frequent need to return to a room multiple times to make sure an iron or other appliance is unplugged. What does the nurse understand about this patient's behavior? a. It helps the patient reduce anxiety about causing a fire. b. It usually is treated with alprazolam [Xanax]. c. It seems perfectly normal to the patient. d. It will best respond to deep brain stimulation.

A

A patient is brought to the emergency department after taking a handful of TCA pills. The nurse will expect to provide what when caring for this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Cardiac monitoring b. Cholinesterase inhibitors c. Gastric lavage and activated charcoal d. Sedative medications e. Procainamide

A, B, C

Which infection(s) may be treated with linezolid [Zyvox])? (Select all that apply.) a. Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) that is penicillin sensitive b. Nosocomial pneumonia caused by methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) c. Pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma avium d. Superficial methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infections (MRSA) e. Vancomycin-resistant infections

A, B, E

A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin? (Select all that apply.) a. It causes significant renal impairment. b. It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections. c. It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events. d. It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria. e. It is not effective against MRSA infections.

B, C

A patient is diagnosed with anxiety after describing symptoms of tension, poor concentration, and difficulty sleeping that have persisted for over 6 months. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient? a. Alprazolam [Xanax] b. Amitriptyline [Elavil] c. Buspirone [Buspar] d. Paroxetine [Paxil]

C

A child with otitis media has had three ear infections in the past year. The child has just completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin [Amoxil] with no improvement. The parent asks the nurse why this drug is not working, because it has worked in the past. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. "Amoxicillin is too narrow in spectrum." b. "The bacteria have developed a three-layer cell envelope." c. "The bacteria have developed penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) that have a low affinity for penicillins." d. "The bacteria have synthesized penicillinase."

D

A nurse is preparing to administer oral ofloxacin to a patient. While taking the patient's medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin and theophylline. The correct action by the nurse is to request an order to: a. reduce the dose of ofloxacin. b. increase the dose of ofloxacin. c. increase the dose of theophylline. d. monitor coagulation levels.

D

10. A child with an upper respiratory infection caused by B. pertussis is receiving erythromycin ethylsuccinate. After 2 days of treatment, the parent asks the nurse why the child's symptoms have not improved. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Erythromycin eliminates the bacteria that causes the infection, but not the toxin that causes the symptoms." b. "We may need to add penicillin or another antibiotic to increase the antimicrobial spectrum." c. "We will need to review the culture sensitivity information to see whether a different antibiotic is indicated." d. "Your child may have developed a suprainfection that we need to culture and treat."

A

12. A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin taking clarithromycin ER [Biaxin XL] to treat an Helicobacter pylori infection. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may experience distorted taste when taking this medication." b. "I should take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days." c. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach." d. "This medication does not interact with other drugs."

A

2. A pregnant adolescent patient asks the nurse whether she should continue to take her prescription for tetracycline [Sumycin] to clear up her acne. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Tetracycline can be harmful to the baby's teeth and should be avoided." b. "Tetracycline is safe to take during pregnancy." c. "Tetracycline may cause allergic reactions in pregnant women." d. "Tetracycline will prevent asymptomatic urinary tract infections."

A

A 65-year-old patient who receives glucocorticoids for arthritis is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The prescriber has ordered intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. Before administering the third dose of this drug, the nurse reviews the bacterial culture report and notes that the causative organism is Escherichia coli. The bacterial sensitivity report is pending. The patient complains of right ankle pain. What will the nurse do? a. Withhold the dose of ciprofloxacin and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms. b. Instruct the patient to exercise the right foot and ankle to minimize the pain. c. Question the patient about the consumption of milk and any other dairy products. d. Request an order to increase this patient's dose of glucocorticoids.

A

A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order: a. amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin]. b. ampicillin. c. nafcillin. d. penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].

A

A nurse is discussing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student correctly identifies the basis for MRSA resistance? a. "MRSA bacteria have developed PBPs with a low affinity for penicillins." b. "MRSA bacteria produce penicillinases that render penicillin ineffective." c. "MRSA occurs because of host resistance to penicillins." d. "MRSA strains replicate faster than other Staphylococcus aureus strains."

A

A nurse is discussing the use of benzodiazepines as sedative-hypnotic agents with a group of nursing students. A student asks about the actions of these drugs in the central nervous system. The nurse makes which correct statement? a. "Benzodiazepines affect the hippocampus and the cerebral cortex to cause anterograde amnesia." b. "Benzodiazepines depress neuronal functions by acting at a single site in the brain." c. "Benzodiazepines induce muscle relaxation by acting on sites outside the central nervous system." d. "Benzodiazepines promote sleep through effects on the limbic system."

A

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition? a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) c. Panic disorder d. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the mechanism by which antimicrobial agents achieve selective toxicity. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? A) "Some agents disrupt the bacterial cell wall;" B) "Some agents act to block the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid." C) "Some agents cause phagocytosis of bacterial cells." D) "Some agents weaken the cell wall, causing cell wall lysis."

C

A nurse transcribes a new prescription for potassium penicillin G given intravenously (IV) every 8 hours and gentamicin given IV every 12 hours. Which is the best schedule for administering these drugs? a. Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1800 and 0600. b. Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1200 and 2400. c. Give the penicillin at 0600, 1400, and 2200; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 0600 and 1800. d. Give the penicillin every 8 hours; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] simultaneously with two of the penicillin doses

A

A patient describes feelings of anxiety and fear when speaking in front of an audience and is having difficulty at work because of an inability to present information at meetings three or four times each year. The patient is reluctant to take long-term medications. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment? a. Alprazolam [Xanax] as needed b. Cognitive behavioral therapy c. Paroxetine [Paxil] d. Psychotherapy

A

A patient has an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The prescriber has ordered piperacillin and amikacin, both to be given intravenously. What will the nurse do? a. Make sure to administer the drugs at different times using different IV tubing. b. Suggest giving larger doses of piperacillin and discontinuing the amikacin. c. Suggest that a fixed-dose combination of piperacillin and tazobactam [Zosyn] be used. d. Watch the patient closely for allergic reactions, because this risk is increased with this combination.

A

A patient takes temazepam [Restoril] for insomnia. The patient tells the nurse that a recent telephone bill lists several calls to friends that the patient does not remember making. What will the nurse do? a. Ask the patient about any alcohol consumption in conjunction with the benzodiazepine. b. Contact the prescriber to request an order for a benzodiazepine with a shorter duration. c. Reassure the patient that this is most likely caused by a paradoxical reaction to the benzodiazepine. d. Tell the patient that this is an example of anterograde amnesia, which is an expected effect of the benzodiazepine.

A

A patient with no known drug allergies is receiving amoxicillin [Amoxil] PO twice daily. Twenty minutes after being given a dose, the patient complains of shortness of breath. The patient's blood pressure is 100/58 mm Hg. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider and prepare to administer epinephrine. b. Notify the provider if the patient develops a rash. c. Request an order for a skin test to evaluate possible PCN allergy. d. Withhold the next dose until symptoms subside.

A

11. A patient is taking erythromycin ethylsuccinate for a chlamydial infection and develops vaginal candidiasis. The prescriber orders ketoconazole to treat the superinfection. What will the nurse do? a. Administer the erythromycin and the ketoconazole as ordered. b. Contact the provider to discuss changing to a different antifungal medication. c. Contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose of erythromycin. d. Contact the provider to suggest using erythromycin stearate.

B

17. A nurse is teaching a nursing student about dalfopristin/quinupristin [Synercid]. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "Patients should stop taking the drug if they experience joint and muscle pain." b. "Patients taking this drug should have blood tests performed frequently." c. "Patients who are allergic to penicillin should not take this drug." d. "This drug will be administered intravenously over a 30- to 60-minute period."

B

A child has received amoxicillin (Amoxil) for three previous ear infections, but a current otitis media episode is not responding to treatment. The nurse caring for this child suspects that resistance to the bacterial agent has occurred by which microbial mechanism? a. alteration of drug target molecules b. antagonist production c. drug inactivation d. reduction of drug concentration at the site of action

B

A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired of being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest? a. "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness." b. "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep." c. "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax." d. "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."

B

A patient has a viral sinus infection, and the provider tells the patient that antibiotics will not be prescribed. The patient wants to take an antibiotic and asks the nurse what possible harm could occur by taking an antibiotic. Which response by the nurse is correct? A) "Antibiotics are mutagenic and can produce changes that cause resistance," B) "Even normal flora can develop resistance and transfer this to pathogens." C) "Host cells become resistant to antibiotics with repeated use." D) "Patients who overuse antibiotics are more likely to have nosocomial infections."

B

A patient has been taking fluoxetine [Prozac] for 2 years and reports feeling cured of depression. The nurse learns that the patient is sleeping well, participates in usual activities, and feels upbeat and energetic most of the time. The patient's weight has returned to normal. The patient reports last having symptoms of depression at least 9 months ago. What will the nurse tell this patient? a. Indefinite drug therapy is necessary to maintain remission. b. Discuss gradual withdrawal of the medication with the provider. c. Stop the drug while remaining alert for the return of symptoms. d. Take a drug holiday to see whether symptoms recur.

B

An older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops bronchitis. The patient has a temperature of 39.5° C. The nurse will expect the provider to: A) obtain a sputum culture and wait for the results before prescribing an antibiotic. B) order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results. C) treat symptomatically, because antibiotics are usually ineffective against bronchitis. D) treat the patient with more than one antibiotic without obtaining cultures.

B

A nurse recognizes that the actions of benzodiazepines include which findings? (Select all that apply.) a. Sleep deprivation b. Relief of general anxiety c. Suppression of seizures and/or seizure activity d. Development of tardive dyskinesia e. Increase in muscle spasms

B, C

13. A patient received 500 mg of azithromycin [Zithromax] at 0800 as a first dose. What are the usual amount and time of the second dose of azithromycin? a. 250 mg at 2000 the same day b. 500 mg at 2000 the same day c. 250 mg at 0800 the next day d. 500 mg at 0800 the next day

C

16. A patient who has been taking linezolid [Zyvox] for 6 months develops vision problems. What will the nurse do? a. Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of this drug. b. Tell the patient that blindness is likely to occur with this drug. c. Tell the patient that this symptom is reversible when the drug is discontinued. d. Tell the patient to take tyramine supplements to minimize this effect.

C

6. A patient is to begin taking doxycycline to treat a rickettsial infection. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for teaching about this drug? a. "I should consult my provider before using laxatives or antacids while taking this drug." b. "I should not take a calcium supplement or consume dairy products with this drug." c. "I should take this drug with food to ensure more complete absorption." d. "If I get diarrhea, I should stop taking the drug and let my provider know immediately."

C

7. A patient who is taking doxycycline for a serious infection contacts the nurse to report anal itching. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss: a. adding an antihistamine to the patient's drug regimen. b. ordering liver function tests to test for hepatotoxicity. c. prescribing an antifungal drug to treat a superinfection. d. testing the patient for a C. difficile secondary infection.

C

A patient has been taking an SSRI antidepressant for major depression and reports having headaches and jaw pain. What will the nurse tell the patient? a. This represents an irreversible extrapyramidal side effect. b. Discuss discontinuing the antidepressant with the provider. c. Discuss these symptoms with a dentist. d. Try stress-relieving methods and relaxation techniques.

C

A patient has been taking high doses of clorazepate [Tranxene] for several months for an anxiety disorder. The nurse assessing the patient observes that the patient is agitated, euphoric, and anxious. What will the nurse do? a. Double-check the chart to make sure the last dose was given. b. Request an order for a longer-acting benzodiazepine. c. Suspect a possible paradoxical reaction to the clorazepate. d. Withhold the next dose until a drug level can be drawn.

C

A patient is receiving intravenous potassium penicillin G, 2 million units to be administered over 1 hour. At 1900, the nurse notes that the dose hung at 1830 has infused completely. What will the nurse do? a. Assess the skin at the infusion site for signs of tissue necrosis. b. Observe the patient closely for confusion and other neurotoxic effects. c. Request an order for serum electrolytes and cardiac monitoring. d. Watch the patient's actions and report any bizarre behaviors.

C

A recent campaign, initiated by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), to delay the emergence of antibiotic resistance in hospitals, has what as one of its objectives? a. allowing patient to stop antibiotics when symptoms subside b. allowing prescribers to develop their own prescribing guidelines c. increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics d. increased use of antibiotics among parents of young children

C

The nurse is caring for a patient on a medical-surgical unit who has been experiencing fever of unknown origin. The prescriber has ordered a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Which intervention is the priority? a. Administer the antibiotic immediately. b. Administer antipyretics as soon as possible. c. Obtain all cultures before the antibiotic is administered. d. Delay administration of the antibiotic until the culture results are available.

C

A hospitalized patient who is given one dose of flurazepam continues to show drowsiness the next day. A nursing student asks the nurse the reason for this, because the drug's half-life is only 2 to 3 hours. Which response by the nurse is correct? a. "Benzodiazepines commonly cause residual effects lasting into the day after the dose is given." b. "The patient is having a paradoxical reaction to this medication." c. "This patient must have developed a previous tolerance to benzodiazepines." d. "When this drug is metabolized, the resulting compound has longer-lasting effects."

D

A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice." b. "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia." c. "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks." d. "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."

D

A patient who has been taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression for several months tells the provider that the medication has not helped with symptoms. The provider plans to switch the patient to an SSRI. The nurse will teach this patient to: a. start taking the SSRI and stop the MAOI when symptoms improve. b. start taking the SSRI and then gradually withdraw the MAOI. c. stop taking the MAOI and wait 5 weeks before starting the SSRI. d. stop taking the MAOI 2 weeks before starting the SSRI.

D

A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to: a. consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria. b. stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin. c. take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both. d. take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.

D

A provider orders intravenous moxifloxacin [Avelox] for a patient who has sinusitis. Before administering the drug, the nurse will review this patient's chart for: a. a history of asthma. b. concurrent use of digoxin. c. concurrent use of warfarin. d. recent serum electrolyte levels.

D

An agitated, extremely anxious patient is brought to the emergency department. The prescriber orders a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that benzodiazepines are used in this clinical situation based on which principle? a. Benzodiazepines have a very short half-life. b. Physical dependence is not a risk when taking benzodiazepines. c. Benzodiazepines are known to cure generalized anxiety. d. Benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action.

D

The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin [Amoxil] and not ampicillin [Unasyn]. What will the nurse tell the parent? a. Amoxicillin is a broader spectrum antibiotic than ampicillin. b. Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases. c. Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions. d. Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin.

D


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