Exam 3 EAQ's

Which statement about prevention of short-lived attacks of neurologic deficits in multiple sclerosis is accurate? A. These are completely irreversible. B. Sunbathing in hot weather is helpful. C. Calcium intake should be increased with meals. D. Emotional and physical stress should be avoided.

Emotional and physical stress should be avoided.

Which characteristics would be typical of macrocytic anemia? Select all that apply. Increased folate levels Large red blood cell size Presence of megaloblasts Large erythrocyte nucleus Decreased erythrocyte thickness

Large red blood cell size Presence of megaloblasts

Which type of dementia is associated with Parkinson disease? Vascular dementia Lewy body dementia Frontotemporal dementia Creutzfeldt-Jakob dementia

Lewy body dementia

health care provider (HCP) is teaching a health class about primary factors responsible for the majority of cancers. Which information would the HCP include? Economic factors Psychological factors Overall systemic health Lifestyle/Environmental factors

Lifestyle/Environmental factors

The health care provider (HCP) would monitor for the development of which type of cancers in an individual who drinks alcohol excessively? Select all that apply. Liver Spleen Larynx Pharynx Oral cavity

Liver Larynx Pharynx Oral cavity

Which mechanism causes rigidity in Parkinson disease? Lewy body formation Excess cholinergic activity Lower motor neuron destruction Gamma-aminobutyric acid depletion

Excess cholinergic activity

Which pathophysiologic process would occur in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Rate of fibrinolysis is stimulated Clotting system is greatly reduced. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor is stimulated. Natural anticoagulants are greatly diminished.

Natural anticoagulants are greatly diminished.

A health care provider (HCP) is teaching a health class about risk factors for cancer. Which information from members of the class indicates successful teaching? Select all that apply. Obesity Sun exposure lonizing radiation Occupational exposures Dietary intake of fruits and vegetables

Obesity Sun exposure lonizing radiation Occupational exposures

Which condition would have bone spurs with damage to the articular cartilage of the synovial joints? Osteoporosis Osteoarthritis Osteomyelitis Osteomalacia

Osteoarthritis

Which condition would be classified as a systemic, inflammatory disease? Osteoarthritis Subluxation Rheumatoid arthritis Medial epicondylopathy

Rheumatoid arthritis

Which assessment findings are associated with Parkinson disease? Select all that apply. Rigidity Chorea Resting tremors Difficulty walking Postural abnormalities

Rigidity Resting tremors Difficulty walking Postural abnormalities

Which conditions would be associated with the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Select all that apply. Sepsis Major trauma Genetic defect Lung cancer Pregnancy complications

Sepsis Major trauma Lung cancer Pregnancy complications

Which statement would indicate a correct understanding about treatment options for osteoarthritis? "I should avoid taking glucosamine." "I will have joint stiffness for at least 1 to 2 hours." "I can take antiinflammatory drugs for the swelling." "I should gain weight to help with my condition."

"I can take antiinflammatory drugs for the swelling."

Which statement would indicate a correct understanding of treatment options for osteoarthritis? "I should use laser therapy on my knee." "Thank goodness I will never need surgery." "Thank goodness I have my brace to help me walk." "I should take acetaminophen since it is the most effective."

"Thank goodness I have my brace to help me walk."

Which scenario increases the risk for the sudden development of secondary parkinsonism? -The use of salt substitutes. -Taking a prescribed neuroleptic medication. -Taking an herbal supplement to treat depression. -Abruptly stopping taking a medication used to treat epilepsy.

-Taking a prescribed neuroleptic medication.

Which individual is at an increased risk for developing dementia and mental status changes? A 42-year-old who has a history of spinal shock A 58-year-old who has upper motor neuron syndrome A 65-year-old who has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome A 74-year-old who takes several medications to treat Parkinson disease

A 74-year-old who takes several medications to treat Parkinson disease

Which finding would indicate effective treatment for iron deficiency anemia? A. Splenomegaly is present. B. The serum ferritin level is increased. C. Blood was removed with phlebotomy. D. Fatigue and lethargy have rapidly increased.

B. The serum ferritin level is increased.

A health care provider (HCP) is teaching adults at a wellness clinic about melanoma. Which statement from the adults indicates successful teaching? Select all that apply. A. "Individuals with fair skin are at risk for melanoma." B. "Melanoma is caused by occupational sun exposure." C. "Even in the early stages, melanoma is not curable." D. "The cause of melanoma involves only environmental factors." E. "Intermittent sun exposure is the most significant factor for developing melanoma."

A. "Individuals with fair skin are at risk for melanoma." E. "Intermittent sun exposure is the most significant factor for developing melanoma."

A health care provider (HCP) is teaching a health class about dietary factors that can increase the risk of colorectal cancer. The identification of which dietary factors indicates successful teaching? Select all that apply. A. Alcohol use B. High-fiber diet C. Hot beverages D. Processed meats E. High amounts of calcium

A. Alcohol use D. Processed meats

Which type of anemia would cause an individual to be severely deficient in red blood cells, platelets, and white blood cells? A. Aplastic B. Hemolvtic C. Sickle cell D. Sideroblastic

A. Aplastic

Which clinical manifestations would be expected in rhabdomyolysis? Select all that apply. A. Dark urine B. Weakness C. Muscle pain D. Decreased potassium E. Decreased creatine kinase

A. Dark urine B. Weakness C. Muscle pain

Which clinical manifestation would be typical in a closed fracture? A. Deformity B. Broken skin C. Visible bone D. Draining wound

A. Deformity

Which risk factors would be associated with osteoporosis? Select all that apply. A. Early menopause (natural or surgical) B. A sedentary smoker who drinks alcohol C. Exercised extensively during middle age D. Prolonged corticosteroid (prednisone) use E. Being outside in the sun for long periods of time

A. Early menopause (natural or surgical) B. A sedentary smoker who drinks alcohol D. Prolonged corticosteroid (prednisone) use

The increased intake of which dietary components reduce the risk of cancer? Select all that apply. A. Fiber B. Lycopene C. Cured meat D. Vitamin A E. Cruciferous vegetables

A. Fiber B. Lycopene D. Vitamin A E. Cruciferous vegetables

Which pathophysiologic process would trigger the acute inflammatory response of gout? A. Formation of crystals B. Formation of pannus C. Decrease of uric acid levels D. Decrease of muscle protein synthesis

A. Formation of crystals

Which dietary component would the health care provider (HCP) suggest when asked by an individual about foods to prevent cancer risk? A. Green tea B. Smoked sausage C. Omega-6 fatty acids D. Grilled, blackened foods

A. Green tea

Which clinical manifestations would typically occur with Paget disease? Select all that apply A. Headache B. Increased lacrimation C. Impaired motor function D. Decreased density of skull E. Altered mentation

A. Headache C. Impaired motor function E. Altered mentation

Which clinical manifestation would be observed in malignant hyperthermia? A. High fever B. Hypometabolism C. Sinus bradycardia D. Volkmann contracture

A. High fever

Which clinical manifestations would be expected with gout? Select all that apply. A. Hyperuricemia B. Deposits of tophi C. Increased blood clotting D. Formation of renal stones E. Inflammation of a single joint

A. Hyperuricemia B. Deposits of tophi D. Formation of renal stones E. Inflammation of a single joint

Which statement explains the development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis? A. Immunologic demyelination of axons in the central nervous system B. Receptor abnormalities at neuromuscular junctions and in the ganglia C. Degeneration of sensory and motor neurons in the peripheral nervous system D. Loss of y-aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmitter function in the spinal cord

A. Immunologic demyelination of axons in the central nervous system

Which characteristics place an individual at risk for developing melanoma? Select all that apply. A. Is fair skinned B. Has nevi and freckles C. Stands in the shade when outside D. Is exposed to chronic occupational sun E. Has intense intermittent recreational sun exposure

A. Is fair skinned B. Has nevi and freckles E. Has intense intermittent recreational sun exposure

Which clinical manifestations would be common in osteoarthritis? Select all that apply. A. Joint swelling B. Joint deformity C. Joint enlargement D. Pain that gets worse with movement E. Pain that is worse with rest

A. Joint swelling B. Joint deformity C. Joint enlargement D. Pain that gets worse with movement

Which clinical manifestations would be associated with osteoporosis? Select all that apply. A. Kyphosis B. Decreased height C. Frequent infections D. Femoral neck fracture E. Increased bone density

A. Kyphosis B. Decreased height D. Femoral neck fracture

Which characteristics would be associated with pernicious anemia? Select all that apply. A. Lack of vitamin B 12 B. Dietary folate deficiency C. Normal hemoglobin concentration D. Reduced hemoglobin concentration E. Small abnormally shaped erythrocytes F. Large abnormally shaped erythrocytes

A. Lack of vitamin B 12 C. Normal hemoglobin concentration F. Large abnormally shaped erythrocytes

Which finding would be the primary pathophysiologic feature of osteoarthritis? A. Loss of articular cartilage B. Thinning of the joint capsule C. Increase of synovial fluid in the joint D. Stress fractures at the end of the bone

A. Loss of articular cartilage

The health care provider (HCP) is teaching an adult class about cigarette smoking and the risk of cancer. Which types of cancer would the CP include in the session? Select all that apply. A. Lung B. Liver C. Kidney D. Prostate E. Stomach

A. Lung B. Liver C. Kidney E. Stomach

A health care provider (HCP) is teaching a health class about risk factors for cancer. Which information from members of the class indicates successful teaching? Select all that apply. A. Obesity B. Sun exposure C. lonizing radiation D. Occupational exposures E. Dietary intake of fruits and vegetables

A. Obesity B. Sun exposure C. lonizing radiation D. Occupational exposures

Which risk factors for females would be common for osteoporosis? Select all that apply. A. Obesity B. Ovarian cysts C. Endometriosis D. Early menarche E. Early menopause

A. Obesity E. Early menopause

Which environmental factors may contribute to the development of lung cancer in an individual who has never used tobacco products? Select all that apply. A. Occupational exposure to paints B. Occupational exposure to sunlight C. Occupational exposure to asbestos D. Routine exposure to dental radiography E. History of hepatitis B in young adulthood

A. Occupational exposure to paints C. Occupational exposure to asbestos

A. male infected with human papillomavirus type 16 would most likely develop which type of cancer? A. Penile B. Ovary C. Breast D. Prostate

A. Penile

Which risk factors would a health care provider (HCP) tell individuals to avoid to reduce their risk of lung cancer? Select all that apply. A. Radon B. Arsenic C. Asbestos D. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation E. Environmental tobacco smoke

A. Radon B. Arsenic C. Asbestos E. Environmental tobacco smoke

Which risk factors would a health care provider (HCP) tell individuals to avoid to reduce their risk of lung cancer? Select all that apply. A. Radon B. Arsenic C. Asbestos D.Ultraviolet (UV) radiation E. Environmental tobacco smoke

A. Radon B. Arsenic C. Asbestos E. Environmental tobacco smoke

Which risk factors would be common in the development of osteoarthritis? Select all that apply. A. Steroids B. Hemophilia C. Ballet dancing D. Low calcium intake E. Weight below healthy range

A. Steroids B. Hemophilia C. Ballet dancing

Which pathophysiologic process would occur with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? A. T cell abnormalities B. lgE-mediated antibodies C. Slower aging of telomeres D. Immune complex nonbinding

A. T cell abnormalities

Which factor would be a risk for developing osteoporosis? A. Thin build B. Dark skinned C. Large stature D. Increased calcium intake

A. Thin build

Which information would the health care provider (HP) include when teaching a community health class about the effects of tobacco smoking? Select all that apply. A. This activity is carcinogenic. B. It is more common among men than women. C. Older adults have the highest percentage of smokers. D. Smokers die 13 to 14 years earlier than nonsmokers. E. Middle class adults smoke more than other socioeconomic levels.

A. This activity is carcinogenic. B. It is more common among men than women. D. Smokers die 13 to 14 years earlier than nonsmokers.

Which clinical manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis would be illustrated by the image? A. Ulnar drift B. Radial drift C. Palmar drift D. Inversional drift

A. Ulnar drift

Which treatment option would be recommended for rhabdomyolysis? Restrict fluids Increase myoglobin levels Administer rapid intravenous hydration Encourage excessive exercise regimen

Administer rapid intravenous hydration

Which assessment finding would support the medical diagnosis of Parkinson disease? Chorea Akinesia Hypertension Waddling gait

Akinesia

A health care provider (HCP) is teaching a health class about dietary factors that can increase the risk of colorectal cancer. The identification of which dietary factors indicates successful teaching? Select all that apply. Alcohol use High-fiber diet Hot beverages Processed meats High amounts of calciur@

Alcohol use Processed meats

Which medications are associated with development of drug-induced parkinsonism? Select all that apply. Antifungal drugs Antiemetic drugs Antibiotic medications Antihypertensive medications Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Antiemetic drugs Antihypertensive medications

Which condition would have manifestations of diffuse pain, fatigue, and increased sensitivity to touch without signs of inflammation in a 40-year-old female? A. Contracture B. Fibromyalgia C. Disuse atrophy D. Stress-induced muscle tension

B. Fibromyalgia

An individual diagnosed with a brain contusion is being evaluated for neurologic deficits after recent trauma. Observation reflects transient loss of consciousness with a brief decrease in heart rate and blood pressure that has since normalized. The individual's eyes open spontaneously; the individual responds verbally, but the words don't make much sense; and the individual withdraws from painful stimuli. Documentation of these findings would indicate a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) result of? A. 10 B. 11 C. 13 D. 15

B. 11

Which physiologic processes would occur with indirect healing of a fracture? Select all that apply. A. Scar tissue is formed. B. Callus formation occurs. C. Solid bone is remodeled. D. New bone is eventually formed. E. Adjacent bone cortices are in direct contact.

B. Callus formation occurs. C. Solid bone is remodeled. D. New bone is eventually formed.

Which pathophysiologic process would be typical of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Excessive wear and tear and microtrauma damaging articular cartilage B. Immune cell accumulation in pannus and destruction of articular cartilage C. Cysts developing in subchondral bone and creating fissures in articular cartilage D. Free radicals attaching to the synovial membrane and tunneling into articular cartilage

B. Immune cell accumulation in pannus and destruction of articular cartilage

Which pathophysiologic processes would occur in rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply. A. Infection B. Joint deformity C. Inflammation D. Immune response E. Pannus formation

B. Joint deformity C. Inflammation D. Immune response E. Pannus formation

Which clinical manifestations would be typical for osteoarthritis in the hands? Select all that apply. A. Ulnar drift B. Joint swelling C. Joint stiffness D. Joint tenderness E. Heberden nodes F. Subcutaneous nodules

B. Joint swelling C. Joint stiffness D. Joint tenderness E. Heberden nodes

Which information would the health care provider share with a woman who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30.1 kg/m 2 regarding the risk for cancer? Select all that apply. A. High BMI is rarely associated with greater cancer risk. B. Lowering the degree of obesity will lower cancer risk. C. Sex hormones are one of the major factors in obesity and cancer. D. The mechanisms of obesity-associated cancer risk are clearly understood and follow similar pathologic pathways with all tumor types. E. Possible mechanisms explaining obesity's correlation to increased cancer incidence include insulin like growth factor 1 axis.

B. Lowering the degree of obesity will lower cancer risk. C. Sex hormones are one of the major factors in obesity and cancer. E. Possible mechanisms explaining obesity's correlation to increased cancer incidence include insulin like growth factor 1 axis.

Which information would be beneficial for the health care provider (HCP) to share with a 20-year-old female regarding protection against human papillomavirus(HPV)-induced cancers? Select all that apply. A. Condoms will provide necessary protection against HPV. B. Proper oral hygiene will decrease the risk of HPV-associated cancers. C. Smoking has been implicated as a risk factor for acquiring high-risk HPV cancers. D. Vaccines are recommended for males and females between the ages of 11 and 26. E. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV is required for the development of invasive cervical cancer.

B. Proper oral hygiene will decrease the risk of HPV-associated cancers. C. Smoking has been implicated as a risk factor for acquiring high-risk HPV cancers. D. Vaccines are recommended for males and females between the ages of 11 and 26. E. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV is required for the development of invasive cervical cancer.

Which risk factor would be associated with osteoporosis? A. Nonsmoker B. Sedentary C. Dark skin D. Tall stature

B. Sedentary

Which primary alteration would occur in anemia? A. Lack of vitamin K leads to anemia. B. Tissue hypoxia is the underlying change. C. Virchow triad will direct bodily functioning. D. Malignant plasma cells infiltrate bone marrow.

B. Tissue hypoxia is the underlying change.

Which well-known risk factor would be associated with the development of osteoarthritis? A. Anorexia B. Trauma C. Thin build D. Nulliparity

B. Trauma

Which clinical manifestations would be observed in a fractured femur? Select all that apply. A. Chest pain B. Upper leg pain C. Low blood glucose D. Leg paralysis E. Swelling in the thigh

B. Upper leg pain E. Swelling in the thigh

Which cancer would the HCP monitor for in the individual described in the chart? History: Retired from 30 years working in textile industry Vitals: Stable with no abnormalaties Physical assessment: Doesn't feel well Losing weight

Bladder

Which therapy would be used to treat aplastic anemia? Blood transfusions Iron supplementation Erythropoietin administration Aspirin in low doses

Blood transfusions

Which clinical manifestations would be unique to iron deficiency anemia? Select all that apply. Shortness of breath Skin rash Fatigue Brittle, malformed nails Glossitis

Brittle, malformed nails Glossitis

A health care provider (HCP) is teaching a wellness class about the relationship of air pollution to cancer risk. Which statement from the class indicates successful teaching? Select all that apply. A. "The highest level of radon exposure comes from within homes." B. "Miners who do not smoke are not at increased risk for lung cancer." C. "Environmental tobacco smoke is classified as a human carcinogen." D. "Indoor air pollution is considered more carcinogenic than outdoor air pollution." E. "Indoor pollutants include nitrogen oxides, particulates, and sulfur dioxide."

C. "Environmental tobacco smoke is classified as a human carcinogen." D. "Indoor air pollution is considered more carcinogenic than outdoor air pollution."

Which age group would have the highest risk for bone tumors? A. Infants B. Children C. Adolescents D. Adults between ages 30 and 35 years

C. Adolescents

Which pathophysiologic process would cause joint inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis? A. Trauma B. Bacterial infection C. Autoimmune injury D. Congenital hypermobility

C. Autoimmune injury

Which types of cancer may be reduced with activity? Select all that apply. A. Oral B. Liver C. Colon D. Breast E. Kidney

C. Colon D. Breast

Which risk factor would be associated with the development of osteomyelitis? A. Severe muscle strain B. Widespread psoriasis C. Deep dog bite D. Obesity

C. Deep dog bite

Which risk factor would be associated with gout? A. Premenopausal B. Under the age of 30 C. High intake of red meat D. Occasional alcohol intake

C. High intake of red meat

Which pathophysiologic mechanism would occur in rhabdomyolysis? A. Delta lesions in the kidneys from crushing injuries B. Hematogenous osteomyelitis from sluggish blood flow C. Increased levels of serum creatine kinase (CK) with myoglobinuria D. Rearranged bundles of myofibrils to parallel the longitudinal axis

C. Increased levels of serum creatine kinase (CK) with myoglobinuria

Which pathophysiologic process would be typical in osteoarthritis? A. Widening of the joint space is attributable to cartilage loss and bone spurs. B. Proteoglycan content is increased in cartilage, affecting the strength of the cartilage. C. Interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor play a major role in cartilage degradation. D. Thickening of articular cartilage is a complex interaction of enzymes and matrix molecules.

C. Interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor play a major role in cartilage degradation.

Koilonychia would be a clinical manifestation for which condition? A. Thalassemia B. Hemolytic anemias C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Folate deficiency anemia

C. Iron deficiency anemia

Which anemia would result from a deficiency of intrinsic factor? A. Hemolytic B. Microcytic C. Pernicious D. Iron deficiency

C. Pernicious

Which type of anemia would be associated with the presence of macrocytic-normochromic erythrocytes? A. Sickle cell B. Hemolytic C. Pernicious D. Sideroblastic

C. Pernicious

Which pathophysiologic process of bone would be occurring in osteoporosis? A. Mass thickens B. Mass increases C. Reabsorption exceeds bone formation D. Formation exceeds bone reabsorption

C. Reabsorption exceeds bone formation

Which statement by an individual indicates an understanding about teaching received on diet and cancer? a. "Cancer risks for older adults are based primarily on current diet." B. "Eating a diet high in garlic increases colorectal cancer risk." C. "Adoption of the Western diet has decreased the rate of some cancers." D. "Evidence exists that nutritional factors are related to cancer development.

D. "Evidence exists that nutritional factors are related to cancer development.

Which information would the health care provider (HCP) include in a teaching session about alcohol and cancer risk? Select all that apply. A. Kidney cancer is a probable type of cancer caused by alcohol. B. Persons can drink no more than three alcoholic drinks for a "safe limit." C. There is a consistent relationship between alcohol and lung cancer. D. Alcohol consumption is strongly linked to breast and colorectal cancer. E. The combination of alcohol and smoking increases the risk of malignancy.

D. Alcohol consumption is strongly linked to breast and colorectal cancer. E. The combination of alcohol and smoking increases the risk of malignancy.

Which condition would be used to describe a consumptive thrombohemorrhagic disorder in the clinical setting? A. Leukemia B. Polycythemia vera C. Hereditary thrombophilia D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Which pathophysiologic mechanism would occur in osteomalacia? A. Increased osteoclast activity B. Crowded cells in the osteoid C. Breakdown of collagen in the bone matrix D. Inadequate mineralization in the osteoid

D. Inadequate mineralization in the osteoid

Which female would be at risk for developing osteoarthritis? A. Is 30 years old B. Swims weekly C. Takes glucosamine D. Is 65 pounds overweight

D. Is 65 pounds overweight

Which manifestation would be expected in rheumatoid arthritis? A. Weight gain B. Increased appetite C. Low body temperature D. Joint stiffness in the morning

D. Joint stiffness in the morning

Which classic clinical manifestations are associated with Parkinson disease? Select all that apply. Paralysis Flaccidity Dysarthria Dysphagia Bradykinesia Urinary incontinence

Dysarthria Dysphagia Bradykinesia

Which clinical manifestation will help establish a diagnosis for fibromyalgia? A. Tenderness in the groin area B. Pain located above the waist C. Tenderness in five of the 18 "trigger" points D. Pain that has lasted for 3 months or more

D. Pain that has lasted for 3 months or more

Which clinical manifestation would help confirm a diagnosis of lymphoblastic lymphoma? A. Presence of Bence Jones protein B. Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells C. Palpable nontender abdominal mass D. Painless enlarged lymph nodes in the neck

D. Painless enlarged lymph nodes in the neck

Which clinical manifestation would be observed in rheumatoid arthritis? A. Enlarged jaw B. Multiple abscesses C. Stiffness worse at night D. Swelling of symmetric joints

D. Swelling of symmetric joints

Which condition would have the following clinical manifestations: petechiae, easy bruising, bleeding gums, and a platelet count of 75,000/ul? A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Neutropenia D. Thrombocytopenia

D. Thrombocytopenia

Which pathophysiologic mechanism would occur in sideroblastic anemia? Lack of folic acid Defective porphyrin and heme synthesis Insufficient erythropoiesis that depresses stem cells Increased hemoglobin concentration

Defective porphyrin and heme synthesis

Which classic clinical manifestations are associated with Parkinson disease? Select all that apply. Paralysis Flaccidity Dysarthria Dysphagia Bradykinesia Urinary incontinence

Dysarthria Dysphagia Bradykinesia

Which characteristics would be typical of compensated disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Select all that apply. Diffuse thrombosis Subacute bleeding Oozing from venipuncture sites Increased turnover of platelets and clotting factors Increased survival time for platelets and clotting factors

Diffuse thrombosis Subacute bleeding Increased turnover of platelets and clotting factors

The history of an individual with an intracranial aneurysm reveals no history of arteriosclerosis, trauma, or inflammation. Which other information may affect risk? Drug use Alcohol use Sexual activity Cigarette smoking

Drug use

Which are common causes of traumatic brain injury? Select all that apply. Falls Surgery Violence Sports-related events Transportation-related events

Falls Violence Sports-related events Transportation-related events

The increased intake of which dietary components reduce the risk of cancer? Select all that apply. Fiber Lycopene Cured meat Vitamin A Cruciferous vegetables

Fiber Lycopene Vitamin A Cruciferous vegetables

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) would cause which substance in the blood to elevate? Platelets Antithrombin III Coagulation inhibitors Fibrin degradation products

Fibrin degradation products

Which clinical manifestation is associated with Parkinson disease? Paralysis Hydrocephalus Flexed, forward leaning posture Increased intracranial pressure

Flexed, forward leaning posture

Which factor would increase the risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) the most? Acute leukemia Metastatic cancer Severe preeclampsia Gram-negative sepsis

Gram-negative sepsis

Which diagnostic test is used to evaluate for Parkinson disease? Muscle biopsy Electromyography History and physical Intracranial pressure measurement

History and physical

Which type of antibody would be associated with cold antibody hemolytic anemia? Immunoglobulin E (IgE) IgA IgG IgM

IgM

Which environmental/lifestyle factor would increase an individual's risk for cancer? Young age Active lifestyle Low body mass index Infection such as hepatitis B

Infection such as hepatitis B

Which clinical manifestation would be typical in polycythemia vera? Cyanotic fingers and toes Pale face Intense itching when taking a shower Decreased blood pressure

Intense itching when taking a shower

Which female would be at risk for developing osteoarthritis? Is 30 years old Swims weekly Takes glucosamine Is 65 pounds overweight

Is 65 pounds overweight

Which condition would be occurring when an individual with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) develops symmetric cyanosis of the fingers and toes? Jaundice Erythrocyte destruction Multisystem organ failure Macrovascular thrombosis

Macrovascular thrombosis

Which of the following are risk factors for cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs)? Select all that apply. Nonsmoker Polycythemia Lipoprotein-a Insulin resistance Hyperhomocysteinemia Nonrheumatic atrial fibrillation

Polycythemia Lipoprotein-a Insulin resistance Hyperhomocysteinemia Nonrheumatic atrial fibrillation

Which clinical manifestation would be observed in rheumatoid arthritis? Enlarged jaw Multiple abscesses Stiffness worse at night Swelling of symmetric joints

Swelling of symmetric joints

Which manifestations are consistent with an extrapyramidal motor syndrome? Select all that apply. Tremor Quadriplegia Cogwheel rigidity Normal tendon reflexes Hypertonia in extremities

Tremor Cogwheel rigidity Normal tendon reflexes

Which mechanism would be the common pathway for initiation and development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Diminished presence of fibrin split products Excessive organ hyperperfusion Widespread exposure to tissue factor Direct proteolytic deactivation of factor VII

Widespread exposure to tissue factor

Which information would the health care provider (HCP) include in a teaching session about alcohol and cancer risk? Select all that apply. a. Kidney cancer is a probable type of cancer caused by alcohol. b. Persons can drink no more than three alcoholic drinks for a "safe limit." c. There is a consistent relationship between alcohol and lung cancer. d. Alcohol consumption is strongly linked to breast and colorectal cancer. e. The combination of alcohol and smoking increases the risk of malignancy.

d. Alcohol consumption is strongly linked to breast and colorectal cancer. e. The combination of alcohol and smoking increases the risk of malignancy.