Exam 3 Homework Microbiology

· They do not belong to any of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya). · They have a protein capsid surrounding their nucleic acid. · They cannot replicate on their own.

Both virophages and other viruses

Hfr strains have the F plasmid integrated into the chromosome.

1. How does an F+ cell differ from an Hfr cell? A. Hfr strains can no longer reproduce. B. Hfr strains have the F plasmid integrated into the chromosome. C. F+ cells have no plasmids. Hfr cells cannot perform conjugation

All of the listed responses are correct.

1. Plasmids are commonly used as cloning vectors because __________. A. they can replicate independently of the chromosome B. they are easily inserted into cells by transformation C. they can contain genes for antibiotic resistance used for plasmid selection d. All of the listed responses are correct.

· a gene shared by several species, inherited from a common ancestor · DNA from parent to offspring

1. The introductory passage describes how Vibrio cholerae bacteria can take up genes from their prey through horizontal gene transfer. Based on the introductory passage and the material in the chapter, classify the following examples of gene transfer as vertical gene transfer

B. Transfer V. cholerae that have been exposed for one week to prey lacking the resistance gene to medium with ampicillin. C. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on medium that does not contain ampicillin. G. Transfer V. cholerae that have been exposed for one week to prey with the resistance gene to medium with ampicillin. H. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey that have the resistance gene on medium that does not contain ampicillin.

1. The introductory passage explains that Vibrio cholerae bacteria may benefit from being able to obtain genes from their prey. What would be the best way to test whether they can benefit within one week of exposure to prey with a gene that confers resistance to ampicillin, an antibiotic that is commonly used in microbiology laboratories? Choose all of the steps that you should include. A. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey that have the resistance gene on medium that contains ampicillin. B. Transfer V. cholerae that have been exposed for one week to prey lacking the resistance gene to medium with ampicillin. C. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on medium that does not contain ampicillin. D. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are resistant to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on medium that does not contain ampicillin. E. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on medium that contains ampicillin. F. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are resistant to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey with the resistance gene on medium that does not contain ampicillin. G. Transfer V. cholerae that have been exposed for one week to prey with the resistance gene to medium with ampicillin. H. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey that have the resistance gene on medium that does not contain ampicillin. -

It acquires new, potentially beneficial genes from the Hfr strain.

1. What benefit does the F- strain receive from mating with an Hfr strain? A. It becomes an F+ cell. B. It acquires new, potentially beneficial genes from the Hfr strain. C. It picks up a fertility factor. It can now produce sex pili

The cells have a capsule.

1. What characteristic of the S strain allows it to evade the immune system of the mice? A. The cells have a capsule. B. They are resistant to heat. C. They are naturally competent. D. They are genetically engineered to be resistant to killing.

. 94 °C, 60 °C, 72 °C

1. What is the sequence of the temperatures of a typical PCR reaction? A. 94 °C, 60 °C, 72 °C B. 72 °C, 60 °C, 94 °C C. 72 °C, 94 °C, 60 °C D. 60 °C, 72 °C, 94 °C E. 94 °C, 72 °C, 60 °C

72 °C

1. What is the temperature used for the extension step? A. 60 °C B. 72 °C C. 94 °C

When an electrophoresis gel is run, small differences in the environment (e.g., the gel composition and current) can influence how far the fragments travel. Having a standard sample allows one to compare the test fragments with fragments of known size that have been run under the same conditions.

1. When a DNA gel is run, a standard sample with fragments of known size is often run in one well. Why is it important to use a standard sample? A. When an electrophoresis gel is run, small differences in the environment (e.g., the gel composition and current) can influence how far the fragments travel. Having a standard sample allows one to compare the test fragments with fragments of known size that have been run under the same conditions. B. The standard sample is used to make sure that the electrical current is working properly. C. The standard sample is used to demonstrate that the apparatus is working properly; it is a control. The standard sample helps to make the other samples more visible

They may obtain genes that help them to more effectively infect hosts and gain antibiotic resistance while also experiencing reduced competition for nutrients.

1. When horizontal gene transfer occurs, an organism can obtain genes that may help it to survive and reproduce (increasing its fitness). Which of the following are some potential benefits to Vibrio cholerae bacteria of obtaining genes from their prey? A. They may obtain virulence genes, genes that allow them to use new metabolic pathways, and genes that prevent them from accidentally picking up DNA in the future. All of these things are beneficial. B. They may obtain genes that help them to more effectively infect hosts and gain antibiotic resistance while also experiencing reduced competition for nutrients. C. They may obtain genes that prevent them from accidentally picking up DNA in the future. D. They may obtain virulence genes and metabolic genes but are unlikely to benefit in other ways.

Yes, it produces temporary merodiploid cells between the time the genetic material enters the cell and the time that recombination occurs.

1. When new genetic material enters a bacterial cell through conjugation, transformation, or transduction, a merodiploid cell can be formed. Does this happen with the V. cholerae bacteria? Hint 1. What is a merodiploid cell? A merodiploid cell is a partially diploid cell. The cell contains a chromosome and some additional DNA, meaning that it has two copies of some genes but not all. Hint 2. How are merodiploid cells formed? Merodiploid cells are formed whenever there is a complete chromosome and some additional DNA. This can commonly occur with conjugation and with other types of gene transfer. New genetic material enters the cell, making the cell partially diploid until the new genetic material breaks down or undergoes recombination. A. No, it cannot produce merodiploid cells because bacterial cells must always be haploid. B. No, it cannot produce merodiploid cells because merodiploid cells can be produced only when entire genomes enter cells. C. Yes, it produces temporary merodiploid cells between the time the genetic material enters the cell and the time that recombination occurs. D. Yes, it produces permanent merodiploid cells because the newly introduced DNA has a replication origin. E. Yes, it can, but only very briefly because the new genetic material is integrated back into the chromosome instead of undergoing recombination

Ability to synthesize sex pili, presence of a fertility factor, and ability to mate with an F- cell.

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of an F+ cell? A. Ability to synthesize sex pili B. Ability to synthesize sex pili, presence of a fertility factor, and ability to mate with an F- cell. C. Ability to mate with an F- cell D. Presence of a fertility factor

Conjugation is typically disrupted before the fertility factor can be transferred.

1. Why does conjugation between an Hfr strain and an F- strain not result in two Hfr strains? A. Conjugation is typically disrupted before the fertility factor can be transferred. B. Hfr strains lack fertility factor. C. The transferred genes typically recombine with the recipient chromosome. D. The cell membranes between the two strands never fuse together.

can take up DNA from their surrounding environment and integrate it into their own chromosomes by recombination.

1Competent cells are cells that A. can take up DNA from their surrounding environment and integrate it into their own chromosomes by recombination. B. are killed by heat. C. are also considered "rough-strain" based on colony phenotype. D. have the ability to produce capsules.

can alter nitrogenous bases of DNA, resulting in incorrect base pairing.

A nucleotide-altering chemical A. can be incorporated into the DNA, to cause a mispairing of bases. B. can slip in between stacked bases, causing bulges in the DNA structure. C. can alter nitrogenous bases of DNA, resulting in incorrect base pairing. D. can cause double-stranded breaks in the DNA.

ssRNA

A retrovirus has a genome that consists of __________. A. ssDNA B. dsDNA C. dsRNA D. ssRNA

The protein will be truncated so much that it is unlikely to function normally.

A single base substitution happens to cause a nonsense mutation early in the gene for a protein. What will be the result? A. The protein will be truncated so much that it is unlikely to function normally. B. The protein will be truncated a small amount, but is likely to function normally. C. The protein will be truncated a great deal, but is likely to function normally. D. The protein will be truncated a small amount, but is unlikely to function normally

contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome.

A transducing phage A. is a lysogenic bacteriophage. B. has a viral coat made of host proteins. C. cannot infect new host cells. D. contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome.

· Transduction may involve a virulent phage. · It is accomplished by transducing particles.

Both Generalized transduction & Specialized transduction

Conjugation does not result in the formation of new offspring.

Bacterial conjugation is often referred to as bacterial sex. Why is this term inaccurate? A. It does not require two cells to occur. B. Conjugation does not result in the formation of new offspring. C. Bacteria are neither male nor female. D. Sex is a phenomenon only seen in animals.

A bacterial plasmid

Based on the animation, what is transferred during bacterial conjugation? A. A bacterial plasmid B. RNA C. A conjugation pilus D. A bacterial chromosome

It must have a capsid and a nucleic acid, which can be double-stranded or single-stranded, circular or linear, and DNA or RNA. Virophages are therefore a type of virus.

Based on your understanding of the chapter material and the information in the passage, which of the following best defines something as a virus? Are virophages a type of virus or something different? A. It must have a capsid and a linear nucleic acid that encodes replication enzymes. Virophages are therefore not a type of virus. B. It must have a capsid and a nucleic acid, which can be double-stranded or single-stranded, circular or linear, and DNA or RNA. Virophages are therefore a type of virus. C. It must have a capsid and double-stranded or single-stranded DNA. Virophages are therefore a type of virus. D. It must have an envelope, capsid, and nucleic acid, which can be double-stranded or single-stranded, and DNA or RNA. Virophages are therefore not a type of virus. E. It must have a capsid and single-stranded nucleic acid. Virophages are therefore not a type of virus. It must have a capsid and linear nucleic acid. Virophages are therefore a type of virus

The cells would not stay in contact long enough for the entire Hfr genome to be transferred.

During conjugation, if an Hfr cell is mated with an F- cell, why will the F- cell remain F-? A. The cells would not stay in contact long enough for the entire Hfr genome to be transferred. B. The donor cell is not an F+ cell; it is Hfr. C. The recipient will not remain F-; it will become Hfr because of the donor cell genome. D. The recipient will not remain F-; it will become F+.

· Any part of the host genome can be transferred. · A relatively low percentage of cells exposed undergo transduction.

Generalized transduction

All of the listed responses are correct.

Genetically engineered vaccines can be created by __________. A. adding virulence genes from a pathogen to a non-virulent organism B. removing virulence genes from a pathogen C. purifying a specific subunit of a pathogen D. All of the listed responses are correct.

They require a host in order to reproduce.

How are viruses different from cells? A. They do not contain enzymes. B. They require a host in order to reproduce. C. They do not contain genetic material. D. They do not contain protein.

Complex transposons code for additional genetic elements, such as antibiotic resistance genes; simple transposons only code for the transposase gene essential for the tranposon itself.

How do complex transposons differ from simple transposons? A. Complex transposons code for transposase; simple transposons do not. B. Complex transposons are found in multiple locations in the target DNA; simple transposons are found only in one location. C. Complex transposons code for additional genetic elements, such as antibiotic resistance genes; simple transposons only code for the transposase gene essential for the tranposon itself.

The high heat of the denaturation step breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands.

How do the strands separate during PCR? A. The high heat of the denaturation step breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands. B. The primers separate the strands during the annealing step. C. The cycling of the temperatures breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands. The DNA polymerase breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands

Generalized transduction is initiated during lytic cycle of a virulent bacteriophage; specialized transduction is initiated during the lysogenic cycle of a temperate bacteriophage.

How is generalized transduction different from specialized transduction? A. Generalized transduction is initiated by a lysogenic bacteriophage; specialized transduction is initiated by a lytic phage. B. Generalized transduction is initiated during lytic cycle of a virulent bacteriophage; specialized transduction is initiated during the lysogenic cycle of a temperate bacteriophage. C. Specialized transduction uses animal viruses instead of bacteriophage. D. Only one specific host gene is transferred in both specialized transduction and generalized transduction.

The entire viral particle can penetrate an animal cell, while only the viral genome can penetrate a bacterial cell.

How is penetration different in animal viruses as compared to bacterial viruses? A. The entire viral particle can penetrate an animal cell, while only the viral genome can penetrate a bacterial cell. B. The viral genome can penetrate an animal cell, while the entire viral particle penetrates a bacterial cell. C. There is no difference; only the viral genome penetrates both cell types. D. There is no difference; the entire viral particle penetrates both cell types.

The host cell dies during the lytic stage.

How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell? A. The viral DNA may integrate into the host genome during the lytic stage. B. The host cell is allowed to live during the lytic stage. C. The host cell dies during the lytic stage. D. The host cell can only divide during the lytic stage.

They differ in their genotype and in their phenotype.

In a culture of bacteria, there are some individuals that are unable to synthesize histidine. What is the best and most likely description of how these individuals differ from the other bacteria in the culture? A. They differ in their genotype but not in their phenotype. B. They differ in their genotype and in their phenotype. C. They don't differ in genotype or phenotype. D. They differ in their phenotype but not in their genotype.

Assembly

In which stage does formation of mature viruses occur? A. Assembly B. Biosynthesis C. Release D. Attachment Penetration

Penetration

In which stage is the viral DNA introduced into the cell? A. Attachment B. Biosynthesis C. Release D. Assembly E. Penetration

a prophage

Lysogenic viral DNA integrating into the host genome is referred to as A. lysogeny. B. lytic. C. induction. D. a prophage

lysogenic

Megaviruses have a particular life cycle in which new viral particles are produced, and then the host cell lyses, although virophages can compete with them for replication enzymes. Viruses have many types of life cycles and can go through phases during which they are actively replicating and destructive to the host cell or dormant within the host cell. These life cycles differ in different types of viruses, so the cycle of megaviruses differs from those of bacteria and animals. During which part of the bacteriophage life cycle will the viral genome be replicated in synchrony with the host cell? A. lysogenic B. transformation C. latent infection D. lytic E. persistent infection

stay healthy, because their immune systems can kill this strain easily.

Mice that are injected with only the R strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae A. become sick for prolonged periods of time. B. stay healthy, because their immune systems can kill this strain easily. are killed, because R strain cells are deadly.

increase the likelihood of mutations in DNA.

Mutagens A. come in two basic forms: ionizing and nonionizing radiation. B. are the sole cause of mutations in DNA. C. increase the likelihood of mutations in DNA. D. decrease the likelihood of mutations in DNA.

· It involves a pilus.

Neither Generalized transduction nor Specialized transduction

· They generate energy through mitochondria. · They use their own ribosomes to make proteins.

Neither virophages nor other viruses

· The genetic information of can be in the form of DNA or RNA.

Non-virophage viruses only ·

All of the listed responses are correct.

Transcription in a virus that has an RNA genome is more complex than in a DNA-based virus because __________. A. the virus must make an RNA complement from its RNA genome, and the host cell does not have the machinery for this process B. the virus must carry its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase C. the viral genome must encode for RNA-dependent RNA polymerase All of the listed responses are correct.

The largest problem is that the count may underestimate the total number of viral particles, as not all virions may be able to cause infection.

Plaque assays are often used to estimate the number of virions in a sample of a particular volume (the titer). The count is given as plaque-forming units. Which of the following is NOT generally a concern that must be considered in evaluating the results of plaque assays? A. The largest problem is that single viruses may create multiple plaques, resulting in overestimates of the number of viruses present. B. The plaques must be clearly visible in order to be counted accurately; this technique cannot be used with viruses that do not cause clear cellular damage. C. The plaques must be at a density that can be counted on the plate; high and low densities may result in inaccurate counts. D. The largest problem is that the count may underestimate the total number of viral particles, as not all virions may be able to cause infection.

Because they cut only at specific sequences in DNA, they are useful in cutting harmful DNA (such as viral DNA) without harming the organism that produces them (which can protect those sequences in its own DNA).

Restriction endonucleases are found in nature. They are extremely useful for genetic engineering. Why do organisms produce them? A. Organisms produce them as a way of allowing new genetic material to be inserted. B. Because they cut only at specific sequences in DNA, they are useful in cutting harmful DNA (such as viral DNA) without harming the organism that produces them (which can protect those sequences in its own DNA). C. They are part of the viral life cycle and help in the assembly of new viruses. D. They are involved in DNA replication in prokaryotes.

. These bacteria may be able to adapt rapidly to a new environment (e.g., an environment with an antibiotic).

Some bacteria have unusually high mutation rates. Is there an adaptive reason why they might have such high mutation rates? A. The high mutation rate may result from a high recombination rate, meaning that there is a great deal of horizontal gene exchange creating a great deal of diversity. B. The high mutation rate may be associated with a more rapid metabolism and life cycle, allowing the bacteria to reproduce more rapidly. C. The bacteria may have a deleterious mutation that causes such a high mutation rate. D. These bacteria may be able to adapt rapidly to a new environment (e.g., an environment with an antibiotic).

a virus that contains RNA with the same nucleotide sequence as the functional mRNA that its host cell will translate to produce viral products

Some viruses have plus sense RNA genomes. Which of the following could describe one of those viruses? A. a virus that has single-stranded DNA with the complementary nucleotide sequence to the functional mRNA that its host cell will translate to produce viral products B. a virus that contains RNA with the same nucleotide sequence as the functional mRNA that its host cell will translate to produce viral products C. a virus that has single-stranded DNA with the same nucleotide sequence as the functional mRNA that its host cell will translate to produce viral products D. a virus that contains RNA with the complementary nucleotide sequence to the functional mRNA that its host cells will translate to produce viral products

· Transduction must involve a temperate phage. · It is not necessary for phages to be defective for transduction. · Only specific regions of DNA may be transduced. · Transduced DNA is integrated into the host as part of a prophage.

Specialized transduction

Biosynthesis

The host DNA is usually degraded during which stage? A. Biosynthesis B. Release C. Penetration D. Assembly E. Attachment

· transposition (by transposable elements) · a gene that is different in two related species as a result of a mutated ancestral gene

The introductory passage describes how Vibrio cholerae bacteria can take up genes from their prey through horizontal gene transfer. Based on the introductory passage and the material in the chapter, classify the following examples of gene transfer as neither

· DNA from mature organism to mature organism · Conjugation · Transformation · Transduction · DNA from virus to mature organism

The introductory passage describes how Vibrio cholerae bacteria can take up genes from their prey through horizontal gene transfer. Based on the introductory passage and the material in the chapter, classify the following examples of gene transfer as horizontal gene transfer

Transformation

The introductory passage describes the way in which Vibrio cholerae bacteria obtain genes from their prey. Based on the information in the introductory passage and in the chapter, what type of gene transfer is this? A. transformation B. conjugation C. transduction D. binary fission

An attachment receptor on the host cell surface that is recognized by the virus is mutated.

The introductory passage discusses the way that virophages interfere with the ability of megaviruses to reproduce and the possible selective benefits of this. However, there are many ways that cells attempt to survive attacks by viruses. According to the chapter, what is another way that cells have evolved to avoid viral infection? A. A mutation in the host blocks translation at the ribosome. B. An attachment receptor on the host cell surface that is recognized by the virus is mutated. C. Cells undergo a phenomenon called circular permutation, in which the same set of genes is arranged differently in each individual. D. The host develops enzymes that cleave the restriction endonucleases of the virus.

nonionizing radiation.

Thymine dimers result from A. nucleoside analogs. B. mistakes by DNA polymerase. C. ionizing radiation. D. nonionizing radiation.

1. The virus attaches to the host cell, which can be mediated by cell surface receptors. 2. Penetration of nucleic acids into the host cell and the capsid is discarded. 3. Host cell enzymes and replication machinery are used to synthesize new viral genetic and capsid material. 4. Newly synthesized viral genomes and capsids are assembled into complete viral particles. 5. The host cell lyses, releasing the newly assembled virus particles.

Virophages interfere with the life cycle of megaviruses by competing with them for replication enzymes, causing defective megaviruses to be produced. When the life cycle occurs correctly, what are the steps?

· They lack the genes for proteins needed to replicate themselves. · They are always smaller than Bacteria and Archaea.

Virophages only

It is copied every time the host DNA replicates.

What is the fate of the prophage during the lysogenic stage? A. It is packaged into viral proteins and maintained until the host is exposed to an environmental stress. B. It is copied every time the host DNA replicates. C. It is degraded by the activity of host defense enzymes. D. It is released from the cell by lysing the cell.

To package and protect the viral genome

What is the function of the structural elements of a virus? A. To provide a source of energy for the virus B. To package and protect the viral genome C. To use all of the cell proteins

The machine that controls the heat of the reaction, cycling between the different temperatures of the different steps during PCR

What is thermocycler? A. The machine that controls the heat of the reaction, cycling between the different temperatures of the different steps during PCR B. The process of cycling through the different temperatures of a PCR reaction 30 times C. The special DNA polymerase, used in a PCR reaction, that can tolerate the high temperatures D. The name for the DNA primers used in a PCR reaction

Transduction transfers DNA from the chromosome of one cell to another.

What is unique about transduction compared to normal bacteriophage infection? A. The bacteriophage does not erupt from an infected cell during transduction. B. The bacteriophage takes fragments of the cell with it during transduction. C. Transduction transfers DNA from the chromosome of one cell to another.

cassette mutagenesis

What method of mutagenesis would be best to determine if a gene is essential for a prokaryote? A. site-specific mutagenesis B. cassette mutagenesis C. knock-out mutagenesis D. gene disruption

The R strain picked up the S strain DNA, enabling it to produce a capsule.

What most likely explains the recovery of live S strain cells from a mouse injected with heat-killed S strain mixed with live R strain cells? A. The S strain was revived by the presence of the host's immune system. B. The R strain cells picked up the capsules from the S strain cells. C. The R strain picked up the S strain DNA, enabling it to produce a capsule. D. The S strain fused with the R strain, making it resistant.

The cells must come into contact with each other.

What must occur for bacterial conjugation to take place? A. Each cell must contain a plasmid. B. The cells must come into contact with each other. C. The cells must transfer RNA. One of the cells must be E. coli

The virus would not be able to infect new hosts.

What would be the fate of a lytic bacteriophage if the host cell died prior to the assembly stage? A. The virus would not be able to infect new hosts. B. The virus would infect new hosts. C. The cell could still be revived by the virus.

the DNA from the previous host can recombine with the new host chromosome.

When a transducing phage interacts with a new host cell, A. the new host cell will be lysed. B. it will cause the new cell to produce more transducing phage. C. the DNA from the previous host can recombine with the new host chromosome.

S strain cells are isolated from the blood of mice infected with heat-killed S strains and live R strains.

Which finding is most surprising from Griffith's experiments? A. S strains are able to escape phagocytosis. B. S strain cells are isolated from the blood of mice infected with heat-killed S strains and live R strains. C. R strain cells fail to produce a capsule. D. S strain cells kill the mice.

It can replace the base thymine, and can base pair with guanine rather than adenine.

Which of the following describes how 5-bromouracil might create a mutation? A. It causes double-stranded breaks of the DNA. B. It can replace the base thymine, and can base pair with guanine rather than adenine. C. It can form thymine dimers. D. It creates bulges in the DNA that must be repaired.

Exposure to UV light

Which of the following events might trigger induction of a temperate bacteriophage? A. Normal cell division of an infected cell B. Bacterial conjugation C. An infected cell entering the logarithmic phase of growth D. Exposure to UV light

Benzopyrene

Which of the following might result in a frameshift mutation? A. Benzopyrene B. 5-bromouracil C. Nitrous acid

Class IV ssRNA (+) viruses

Which of the following viral genomes could be directly translated to make proteins? A. Class V ssRNA (-) viruses B. Class III dsRNA viruses C. Class I dsDNA viruses D. Class IV ssRNA (+) viruses

Conjugation is a process of bacterial reproduction. m

Which statement about conjugation is false? A. coli is the model for bacterial conjugation. B. After conjugation, each cell involved has a copy of the shared DNA. C. Conjugation is a process of bacterial reproduction

Both simple and complex transposons

Which type of transposon would contain a gene for transposase? A. Simple transposons B. Neither simple nor complex transposons; the transposase enzyme is coded independently by the cell. C. Complex transposons D. Both simple and complex transposons

Retro

_________ viruses contain an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase called reverse transcriptase that is used generate a DNA intermediate.

double-stranded RNA single-stranded RNA .

______________________ and ________________________ viruses carry their own nucleic acid polymerases (called replicases) to replicate the viral genome with no DNA intermediate.

double stranded DNA

_______________________ viruses have processes of replication, transcription, and translation that are the most similar to those used by cells.

double-stranded DNA single-stranded DNA

________________________ and _________________________ viruses replicate using DNA polymerases, either their own or from those of the host.

double-stranded DNA

_____________________________ is the genetic material of virophages.

single-stranded DNA

___________________________viruses have replication that involves first generating a complementary DNA strand.

5. single-stranded RNA viruses have genome configurations that are either plus-sense or minus-sense.

__________________________viruses have genome configurations that are either plus-sense or minus-sense.