EXAM 3 MODULE 4 MED SURG
A patient's temperature has been 101° F (38.3° C) for several days. The patient's normal caloric intake to meet nutritional needs is 2000 calories per day. Knowing that the metabolic rate increases 7% for each Fahrenheit degree above 100° in body temperature, how many total calories should the patient receive each day?
ANS: 2140 calories
The nurse estimates the extent of a burn using the rule of nines for a patient who has been admitted with deep partial-thickness burns of the anterior trunk and the entire left arm. What percentage of the patient's total body surface area (TBSA) has been injured?
ANS: 27% When using the rule of nines, the anterior trunk is considered to cover 18% of the patient's body and each arm is 9%.
An 80-kg patient with burns over 30% of total body surface area (TBSA) is admitted to the burn unit. Using the Parkland formula of 4 mL/kg/%TBSA, what is the IV infusion rate (mL/hour) for lactated Ringer's solution that the nurse will administer during the first 8 hours?
ANS: 600 mL The Parkland formula states that patients should receive 4 mL/kg/%TBSA burned during the first 24 hours. Half of the total volume is given in the first 8 hours and then the last half is given over 16 hours: 4 ´ 80 ´ 30 = 9600 mL total volume; 9600/2 = 4800 mL in the first 8 hours; 4800 mL/8 hr = 600 mL/hr.
A patient who has an infected abdominal wound develops a temperature of 104° F (40° C). All the following interventions are included in the patient's plan of care. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D]). a. Administer IV antibiotics. b. Sponge patient with cool water. c. Perform wet-to-dry dressing change. d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol).
ANS: A, D, B, C The first action should be to administer the antibiotic because treating the infection that has caused the fever is the most important aspect of fever management. The next priority is to lower the high fever, so the nurse should administer acetaminophen to lower the temperature set point. A cool sponge bath should be done after the acetaminophen is given to lower the temperature further. The wet-to-dry dressing change will not have an immediate impact on the infection or fever and should be done last
In which order will the nurse take these actions when doing a dressing change for a partial-thickness burn wound on a patient's chest? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Apply sterile gauze dressing. b. Document wound appearance. c. Apply silver sulfadiazine cream. d. Administer IV fentanyl (Sublimaze). e. Clean wound with saline-soaked gauze.
ANS: D, E, C, A, B Because partial-thickness burns are very painful, the nurse's first action should be to administer pain medications. The wound will then be cleaned, antibacterial cream applied, and covered with a new sterile dressing. The last action should be to document the appearance of the wound
A patient arrives in the emergency department with facial and chest burns caused by a house fire. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's lung sounds. b. Determine the extent and depth of the burns. c. Infuse the ordered lactated Ringer's solution. d. Administer the ordered hydromorphone (Dilaudid).
ANS: A A patient with facial and chest burns is at risk for inhalation injury, and assessment of airway and breathing is the priority. The other actions will be completed after airway management is assured
Which patient is most appropriate for the burn unit charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the hospital medical unit? a. A 34-year-old patient who has a weight loss of 15% from admission and requires enteral feedings. b. A 67-year-old patient who has blebs under an autograft on the thigh and has an order for bleb aspiration c. A 46-year-old patient who has just come back to the unit after having a cultured epithelial autograft to the chest d. A 65-year-old patient who has twice-daily burn debridements and dressing changes to partial-thickness facial burns
ANS: A An RN from a medical unit would be familiar with malnutrition and with administration and evaluation of response to enteral feedings. The other patients require burn assessment and care that is more appropriate for staff who regularly care for burned patients
When performing a skin assessment, the nurse notes several angiomas on the chest of an older patient. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Assess the patient for evidence of liver disease. b. Discuss the adverse effects of sun exposure on the skin. c. Teach the patient about possible skin changes with aging. d. Suggest that the patient make an appointment with a dermatologist.
ANS: A Angiomas are a common occurrence as patients get older, but they may occur with systemic problems such as liver disease. The patient may want to see a dermatologist to have the angiomas removed, but this is not the initial action by the nurse. The nurse may need to teach the patient about the effects of aging on the skin and about the effects of sun exposure, but the initial action should be further assessment
The nurse working in the dermatology clinic assesses a young adult female patient who is taking isotretinoin (Accutane) to treat severe cystic acne. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a need for further questioning of the patient? a. The patient recently had an intrauterine device removed. b. The patient already has some acne scarring on her forehead. c. The patient has also used topical antibiotics to treat the acne. d. The patient has a strong family history of rheumatoid arthritis.
ANS: A Because isotretinoin is teratogenic, contraception is required for women who are using this medication. The nurse will need to determine whether the patient is using other birth control methods. More information about the other patient data may also be needed, but the other data do not indicate contraindications to isotretinoin use
A patient in the dermatology clinic has a thin, scaly erythematous plaque on the right cheek. Which action should the nurse take? a. Prepare the patient for a biopsy. b. Teach about the use of corticosteroid creams. c. Explain how to apply tretinoin (Retin-A) to the face. d. Discuss the need for topical application of antibiotics.
ANS: A Because the appearance of the lesion suggests actinic keratosis or possible squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), the appropriate treatment would be excision and biopsy. Over-the-counter (OTC) corticosteroids, topical antibiotics, and Retin-A would not be used for this lesion
Which integumentary assessment data from an older patient admitted with bacterial pneumonia is of most concern for the nurse? a. Reports a history of allergic rashes b. Scattered macular brown areas on extremities c. Skin brown and wrinkled, skin tenting on forearm d. Longitudinal nail bed ridges noted; sparse scalp hair
ANS: A Because the patient will be receiving antibiotics to treat the pneumonia, the nurse should be most concerned about her history of allergic rashes. The nurse needs to do further assessment of possible causes of the allergic rashes and whether she has ever had allergic reactions to any drugs, especially antibiotics. The assessment data in the other response would be normal for an older patient
When admitting a patient with stage III pressure ulcers on both heels, which information obtained by the nurse will have the most impact on wound healing? a. The patient takes insulin daily. b. The patient states that the ulcers are very painful. c. The patient has had the heel ulcers for the last 6 months. d. The patient has several old incisions that have formed keloids.
ANS: A Chronic insulin use indicates diabetes, which can interfere with wound healing. The persistence of the ulcers over the last 6 months is a concern, but changes in care may be effective in promoting healing. Keloids are not disabling or painful, although the cosmetic effects may be distressing for some patients. Actions to reduce the patient's pain will be implemented, but pain does not directly affect wound healing
A patient who has diabetes is admitted for an exploratory laparotomy for abdominal pain. When planning interventions to promote wound healing, what is the nurse's highest priority? a. Maintaining the patient's blood glucose within a normal range b. Ensuring that the patient has an adequate dietary protein intake c. Giving antipyretics to keep the temperature less than 102° F (38.9° C) d. Redressing the surgical incision with a dry, sterile dressing twice daily
ANS: A Elevated blood glucose will have an impact on multiple factors involved in wound healing. Ensuring adequate nutrition also is important for the postoperative patient, but a higher priority is blood glucose control. A temperature of 102° F will not impact adversely on wound healing, although the nurse may administer antipyretics if the patient is uncomfortable. Application of a dry, sterile dressing daily may be ordered, but frequent dressing changes for a wound healing by primary intention is not necessary to promote wound healing
A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which action? a. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral feedings. b. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter. c. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day. d. Administer multiple vitamins and minerals in the IV solution.
ANS: A Enteral feedings can usually be initiated during the emergent phase at low rates and increased over 24 to 48 hours to the goal rate. During the emergent phase, the patient will be unable to eat enough calories to meet nutritional needs and may have a paralytic ileus that prevents adequate nutrient absorption. Vitamins and minerals may be administered during the emergent phase, but these will not assist in meeting the patient's caloric needs. Parenteral nutrition increases the infection risk, does not help preserve gastrointestinal function, and is not routinely used in burn patients
A patient arrives in the emergency department with a swollen ankle after an injury incurred while playing soccer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Elevate the ankle above heart level. b. Apply a warm moist pack to the ankle. c. Assess the ankle's range of motion (ROM). d. Assess whether the patient can bear weight on the affected ankle.
ANS: A Soft tissue injuries are treated with rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE). Elevation of the ankle will decrease tissue swelling. Moving the ankle through the ROM will increase swelling and risk further injury. Cold packs should be applied the first 24 hours to reduce swelling. The nurse should not ask the patient to move or bear weight on the swollen ankle because immobilization of the inflamed or injured area promotes healing by decreasing metabolic needs of the tissues
The charge nurse observes the following actions being taken by a new nurse on the burn unit. Which action by the new nurse would require an intervention by the charge nurse? a. The new nurse uses clean latex gloves when applying antibacterial cream to a burn wound. b. The new nurse obtains burn cultures when the patient has a temperature of 95.2° F (35.1° C). c. The new nurse administers PRN fentanyl (Sublimaze) IV to a patient 5 minutes before a dressing change. d. The new nurse calls the health care provider for a possible insulin order when a nondiabetic patient's serum glucose is elevated.
ANS: A Sterile gloves should be worn when applying medications or dressings to a burn. Hypothermia is an indicator of possible sepsis, and cultures are appropriate. Nondiabetic patients may require insulin because stress and high calorie intake may lead to temporary hyperglycemia. Fentanyl peaks 5 minutes after IV administration, and should be used just before and during dressing changes for pain management
A patient with circumferential burns of both legs develops a decrease in dorsalis pedis pulse strength and numbness in the toes. Which action should the nurse take? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Monitor the pulses every 2 hours. c. Elevate both legs above heart level with pillows. d. Encourage the patient to flex and extend the toes on both feet.
ANS: A The decrease in pulse in a patient with circumferential burns indicates decreased circulation to the legs and the need for an escharotomy. Monitoring the pulses is not an adequate response to the decrease in circulation. Elevating the legs or increasing toe movement will not improve the patient's circulation
A patient has an open surgical wound on the abdomen that contains deep pink granulation tissue. How would the nurse document this wound? a. Red wound b. Yellow wound c. Full-thickness wound d. Stage III pressure ulcer
ANS: A The description is consistent with a red wound. A stage III pressure ulcer would expose subcutaneous fat. A yellow wound would have creamy colored exudate. A full-thickness wound involves subcutaneous tissue, which is not indicated in the wound description
There is one opening in the schedule at the dermatology clinic, and 4 patients are seeking appointments today. Which patient will the nurse schedule for the available opening? a. 38-year old with a 7-mm nevus on the face that has recently become darker b. 62-year-old with multiple small, soft, pedunculated papules in both axillary areas c. 42-year-old with complaints of itching after using topical fluorouracil on the nose d. 50-year-old with concerns about skin redness after having a chemical peel 3 days ago
ANS: A The description of the lesion is consistent with possible malignant melanoma. This patient should be assessed as soon as possible by the health care provider. Itching is common after using topical fluorouracil and redness is an expected finding a few days after a chemical peel. Skin tags are common, benign lesions after midlife
A patient with an open leg wound has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 13, 500/µL and a band count of 11%. What action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain wound cultures. b. Start antibiotic therapy. c. Redress the wound with wet-to-dry dressings. d. Continue to monitor the wound for purulent drainage.
ANS: A The increase in WBC count with the increased bands (shift to the left) indicates that the patient probably has a bacterial infection, and the nurse should obtain wound cultures. Antibiotic therapy and/or dressing changes may be started, but cultures should be done first. The nurse will continue to monitor the wound, but additional actions are needed as well
The nurse caring for a patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface assesses that urine output has dramatically increased. Which action by the nurse would best ensure adequate kidney function? a. Continue to monitor the urine output. b. Monitor for increased white blood cells (WBCs). c. Assess that blisters and edema have subsided. d. Prepare the patient for discharge from the burn unit.
ANS: A The patient's urine output indicates that the patient is entering the acute phase of the burn injury and moving on from the emergent stage. At the end of the emergent phase, capillary permeability normalizes and the patient begins to diurese large amounts of urine with a low specific gravity. Although this may occur at about 48 hours, it may be longer in some patients. Blisters and edema begin to resolve, but this process requires more time. White blood cells may increase or decrease, based on the patient's immune status and any infectious processes. The WBC count does not indicate kidney function. The patient will likely remain in the burn unit during the acute stage of burn injury
The health care provider diagnoses impetigo in a patient who has crusty vesicopustular lesions on the lower face. Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Clean the infected areas with soap and water. b. Apply alcohol-based cleansers on the lesions. c. Avoid use of antibiotic ointments on the lesions. d. Use petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to soften crusty areas.
ANS: A The treatment for impetigo includes softening of the crusts with warm saline soaks and then soap-and-water removal. Alcohol-based cleansers and use of petroleum jelly are not recommended for impetigo. Antibiotic ointments, such as mupirocin (Bactroban), may be applied to the lesions
A patient with atopic dermatitis has been using a high-potency topical corticosteroid ointment for several weeks. The nurse should assess for which adverse effect? a. Thinning of the affected skin b. Alopecia of the affected areas c. Reddish-brown discoloration of the skin d. Dryness and scaling in the areas of treatment
ANS: A Thinning of the skin indicates that atrophy, a possible adverse effect of topical corticosteroids, is occurring. The health care provider should be notified so that the medication can be changed or tapered. Alopecia, red-brown discoloration, and dryness/scaling of the skin are not adverse effects of topical corticosteroid use
Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status b. A patient with full-thickness leg burns who has a dressing change scheduled c. A patient with abdominal burns who is complaining of level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain d. A patient with 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burns who is receiving IV fluids at 500 mL/hour
ANS: A This patient has evidence of lower airway injury and hypoxemia and should be assessed immediately to determine the need for oxygen or intubation. The other patients should also be assessed as rapidly as possible, but they do not have evidence of life-threatening complications
An employee spills industrial acids on both arms and legs at work. What is the priority action that the occupational health nurse at the facility should take? a. Remove nonadherent clothing and watch. b. Apply an alkaline solution to the affected area. c. Place cool compresses on the area of exposure. d. Cover the affected area with dry, sterile dressings.
ANS: A With chemical burns, the initial action is to remove the chemical from contact with the skin as quickly as possible. Remove nonadherent clothing, shoes, watches, jewelry, glasses, or contact lenses (if face was exposed). Flush chemical from wound and surrounding area with copious amounts of saline solution or water. Covering the affected area or placing cool compresses on the area will leave the chemical in contact with the skin. Application of an alkaline solution is not recommended
Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider when caring for a patient who is receiving negative pressure wound therapy? a. Low serum albumin level b. Serosanguineous drainage c. Deep red and moist wound bed d. Cobblestone appearance of wound
ANS: A With negative pressure therapy, serum protein levels may decrease, which will adversely affect wound healing. The other findings are expected with wound healing
A nurse is teaching a patient with contact dermatitis of the arms and legs about ways to decrease pruritus. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cool, wet cloths or dressings can be used to reduce itching. b. Take cool or tepid baths several times daily to decrease itching. c. Add oil to your bath water to aid in moisturizing the affected skin. d. Rub yourself dry with a towel after bathing to prevent skin maceration. e. Use of an over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamine can reduce scratching.
ANS: A, B, E Cool or tepid baths, cool dressings, and OTC antihistamines all help reduce pruritus and scratching. Adding oil to bath water is not recommended because of the increased risk for falls. The patient should use the towel to pat (not rub) the skin dry
Which activities can the nurse working in the outpatient clinic delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)? a. Administer patch testing to a patient with allergic dermatitis. b. Interview a new patient about chronic health problems and allergies. c. Apply a sterile dressing after the health care provider excises a mole. d. Teach a patient about site care after a punch biopsy of an upper arm lesion. e. Explain potassium hydroxide testing to a patient with a superficial skin infection.
ANS: A, C Skills such as administration of patch testing and sterile dressing technique are included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Obtaining a health history and patient education require more critical thinking and registered nurse (RN) level education and scope of practice
A 38-year-old female patient states that she is using topical fluorouracil to treat actinic keratoses on her face. Which additional assessment information will be most important for the nurse to obtain? a. History of sun exposure by the patient b. Method of birth control used by the patient c. Length of time the patient has used fluorouracil d. Appearance of the treated areas on the patient's face
ANS: B Because fluorouracil is teratogenic, it is essential that the patient use a reliable method of birth control. The other information is also important for the nurse to obtain, but lack of reliable birth control has the most potential for serious adverse medication effects
Which nursing action is a priority for a patient who has suffered a burn injury while working on an electrical power line? a. Obtain the blood pressure. b. Stabilize the cervical spine. c. Assess for the contact points. d. Check alertness and orientation.
ANS: B Cervical spine injuries are commonly associated with electrical burns. Therefore stabilization of the cervical spine takes precedence after airway management. The other actions are also included in the emergent care after electrical burns, but the most important action is to avoid spinal cord injury
The nurse assesses a circular, flat, reddened lesion about 5 cm in diameter on a middle-aged patient's ankle. How should the nurse determine if the lesion is related to intradermal bleeding? a. Elevate the patient's leg. b. Press firmly on the lesion. c. Check the temperature of the skin around the lesion. d. Palpate the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.
ANS: B If the lesion is caused by intradermal or subcutaneous bleeding or a nonvascular cause, the discoloration will remain when direct pressure is applied to the lesion. If the lesion is caused by blood vessel dilation, blanching will occur with direct pressure. The other assessments will assess circulation to the leg, but will not be helpful in determining the etiology of the lesion
A patient reports chronic itching of the ankles and continuously scratches the area. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect? a. Hypertrophied scars on both ankles b. Thickening of the skin around the ankles c. Yellowish-brown skin around both ankles d. Complete absence of melanin in both ankles
ANS: B Lichenification is likely to occur in areas where the patient scratches the skin frequently. Lichenification results in thickening of the skin with accentuated normal skin markings. Vitiligo is the complete absence of melanin in the skin. Keloids are hypertrophied scars. Yellowish-brown skin indicates jaundice. Vitiligo, keloids, and jaundice do not usually occur as a result of scratching the skin
The nurse is interviewing a patient with contact dermatitis. Which finding indicates a need for patient teaching? a. The patient applies corticosteroid cream to pruritic areas. b. The patient uses Neosporin ointment on minor cuts or abrasions. c. The patient adds oilated oatmeal (Aveeno) to the bath water every day. d. The patient takes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) at night if itching occurs.
ANS: B Neosporin can cause contact dermatitis. The other medications are being used appropriately by the patient
A teenaged male patient who wrestles in high school is examined by the nurse in the clinic. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of pediculosis? a. Ringlike rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp b. Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft c. Patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas d. Red, hivelike papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders
ANS: B Pediculosis is characterized by wheal-like lesions with parasites that attach eggs to the base of the hair shaft. The other descriptions are more characteristic of other types of skin disorders
The nurse assesses a patient's surgical wound on the first postoperative day and notes redness and warmth around the incision. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Obtain wound cultures. b. Document the assessment. c. Notify the health care provider. d. Assess the wound every 2 hours.
ANS: B The incisional redness and warmth are indicators of the normal initial (inflammatory) stage of wound healing by primary intention. The nurse should document the wound appearance and continue to monitor the wound. Notification of the health care provider, assessment every 2 hours, and obtaining wound cultures are not indicated because the healing is progressing normally.
A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands. Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased and no wheezes are audible. What is the best action for the nurse to take? a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again. b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation. c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler's position and reassess breath sounds.
ANS: B The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest airway edema and the health care provider should be notified immediately, so that intubation can be done rapidly. Placing the patient in a more upright position or having the patient cough will not address the problem of airway edema. Continuing to monitor is inappropriate because immediate action should occur
A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position? a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort. b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers. c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head. d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.
ANS: B The right hand and arm should be elevated to reduce swelling and the fingers extended to avoid flexion contractures (even though this position may not be comfortable for the patient). The patient with burns of the ears should not use a pillow for the head because this will put pressure on the ears, and the pillow may stick to the ears. Patients with neck burns should not use a pillow because the head should be maintained in an extended position in order to avoid contractures
A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase 6 months after a severe face and neck burn tells the nurse, "I'm sorry that I'm still alive. My life will never be normal again." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Most people recover after a burn and feel satisfied with their lives." b. "It's true that your life may be different. What concerns you the most?" c. "It is really too early to know how much your life will be changed by the burn." d. "Why do you feel that way? You will be able to adapt as your recovery progresses."
ANS: B This response acknowledges the patient's feelings and asks for more assessment data that will help in developing an appropriate plan of care to assist the patient with the emotional response to the burn injury. The other statements are accurate, but do not acknowledge the anxiety and depression that the patient is expressing
While the patient's full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed, what is the best nursing action to prevent cross contamination? a. Use sterile gloves when removing old dressings. b. Wear gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all care of the patient. c. Administer IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds. d. Turn the room temperature up to at least 70° F (20° C) during dressing changes.
ANS: B Use of gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all patient care will decrease the possibility of wound contamination for a patient whose burns are not covered. When removing contaminated dressings and washing the dirty wound, use nonsterile, disposable gloves. The room temperature should be kept at approximately 85° F for patients with open burn wounds to prevent shivering. Systemic antibiotics are not well absorbed into deep burns because of the lack of circulation
When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes that the skin is dry, pale, hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth? a. First-degree skin destruction b. Full-thickness skin destruction c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction
ANS: B With full-thickness skin destruction, the appearance is pale and dry or leathery and the area is painless because of the associated nerve destruction. Erythema, swelling, and blisters point to a deep partial-thickness burn. With superficial partial-thickness burns, the area is red, but no blisters are present. First-degree burns exhibit erythema, blanching, and pain.
A patient with burns covering 40% total body surface area (TBSA) is in the acute phase of burn treatment. Which snack would be best for the nurse to offer to this patient? a. Bananas b. Orange gelatin c. Vanilla milkshake d. Whole grain bagel
ANS: C A patient with a burn injury needs high protein and calorie food intake, and the milkshake is the highest in these nutrients. The other choices are not as nutrient-dense as the milkshake. Gelatin is likely high in sugar. The bagel is a good carbohydrate choice, but low in protein. Bananas are a good source of potassium, but are not high in protein and calories
A patient from a long-term care facility is admitted to the hospital with a sacral pressure ulcer. The base of the wound is yellow and involves subcutaneous tissue. How should the nurse classify this pressure ulcer? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV
ANS: C A stage III pressure ulcer has full-thickness skin damage and extends into the subcutaneous tissue. A stage I pressure ulcer has intact skin with some observable damage such as redness or a boggy feel. Stage II pressure ulcers have partial-thickness skin loss. Stage IV pressure ulcers have full-thickness damage with tissue necrosis, extensive damage, or damage to bone, muscle, or supporting tissues
A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assess oral temperature. b. Check a potassium level. c. Place on cardiac monitor. d. Assess for pain at contact points.
ANS: C After an electrical burn, the patient is at risk for fatal dysrhythmias and should be placed on a cardiac monitor. Assessing the oral temperature is not as important as assessing for cardiac dysrhythmias. Checking the potassium level is important. However, it will take time before the laboratory results are back. The first intervention is to place the patient on a cardiac monitor and assess for dysrhythmias, so that they can be treated if occurring. A decreased or increased potassium level will alert the nurse to the possibility of dysrhythmias. The cardiac monitor will alert the nurse immediately of any dysrhythmias. Assessing for pain is important, but the patient can endure pain until the cardiac monitor is attached. Cardiac dysrhythmias can be lethal
A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current. What is the priority nursing assessment? a. Oral temperature b. Peripheral pulses c. Extremity movement d. Pupil reaction to light
ANS: C All patients with electrical burns should be considered at risk for cervical spine injury, and assessments of extremity movement will provide baseline data. The other assessment data are also necessary but not as essential as determining the cervical spine status
A patient in the dermatology clinic is scheduled for removal of a 15-mm multicolored and irregular mole from the upper back. The nurse should prepare the patient for which type of biopsy? a. Shave biopsy b. Punch biopsy c. Incisional biopsy d. Excisional biopsy
ANS: C An incisional biopsy would remove the entire mole and the tissue borders. The appearance of the mole indicates that it may be malignant. A shave biopsy would not remove the entire mole. The mole is too large to be removed with punch biopsy. Excisional biopsies are done for smaller lesions and where a good cosmetic effect is desired, such as on the face
After receiving a change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. The patient who has multiple black wounds on the feet and ankles b. The newly admitted patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer on the coccyx c. The patient who has been receiving chemotherapy and has a temperature of 102° F d. The patient who needs to be medicated with multiple analgesics before a scheduled dressing change
ANS: C Chemotherapy is an immunosuppressant. Even a low fever in an immunosuppressed patient is a sign of serious infection and should be treated immediately with cultures and rapid initiation of antibiotic therapy. The nurse should assess the other patients as soon as possible after assessing and implementing appropriate care for the immunosuppressed patient
The nurse instructs a patient about application of corticosteroid cream to an area of contact dermatitis on the right leg. Which patient action indicates that further teaching is needed? a. The patient takes a tepid bath before applying the cream. b. The patient spreads the cream using a downward motion. c. The patient applies a thick layer of the cream to the affected skin. d. The patient covers the area with a dressing after applying the cream.
ANS: C Creams and ointments should be applied in a thin layer to avoid wasting the medication. The other actions by the patient indicate that the teaching has been successful
A dark-skinned patient has been admitted to the hospital with chronic heart failure. How would the nurse best assess this patient for cyanosis? a. Assess the skin color of the earlobes. b. Apply pressure to the palms of the hands. c. Check the lips and oral mucous membranes. d. Examine capillary refill time of the nail beds.
ANS: C Cyanosis in dark-skinned individuals is more easily seen in the mucous membranes. Earlobe color may change in light-skinned individuals, but this change in skin color is difficult to detect on darker skin. Application of pressure to the palms of the hands and nail bed assessment would check for adequate circulation but not for skin color
The nurse prepares to obtain a culture from a patient who has a possible fungal infection on the foot. Which items should the nurse gather for this procedure? a. Sterile gloves b. Patch test instruments c. Cotton-tipped applicators d. Local anesthetic, syringe, and intradermal needle
ANS: C Fungal cultures are obtained by swabbing the affected area of the skin with cotton-tipped applicators. Sterile gloves are not needed because it is not a sterile procedure. Local injection is not needed because the swabbing is not usually painful. The patch test is done to determine whether a patient is allergic to specific testing material, not for obtaining fungal specimens
A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids? a. 350 mL/hour b. 523 mL/hour c. 938 mL/hour d. 1250 mL/hour
ANS: C Half of the fluid replacement using the Parkland formula is administered in the first 8 hours and the other half over the next 16 hours. In this case, the patient should receive half of the initial rate, or 938 mL/hr
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a patient who had a large burn 48 hours ago. Which result requires priority action by the nurse? a. Hematocrit 53% b. Serum sodium 147 mEq/L c. Serum potassium 6.1 mEq/L d. Blood urea nitrogen 37 mg/dL
ANS: C Hyperkalemia can lead to fatal dysrhythmias and indicates that the patient requires cardiac monitoring and immediate treatment to lower the potassium level. The other laboratory values are also abnormal and require changes in treatment, but they are not as immediately life threatening as the elevated potassium level
The nurse notes the presence of white lesions that resemble milk curds in the back of a patient's throat. Which question by the nurse is appropriate at this time? a. "Do you have a productive cough?" b. "How often do you brush your teeth?" c. "Are you taking any medications at present?" d. "Have you ever had an oral herpes infection?"
ANS: C The appearance of the lesions is consistent with an oral candidiasis (thrush) infection, which can occur in patients who are taking medications such as immunosuppressants or antibiotics. Candidiasis is not associated with poor oral hygiene or lower respiratory infections. The lesions do not look like an oral herpes infection
A patient is undergoing psoralen plus ultraviolet A light (PUVA) therapy for treatment of psoriasis. What action should the nurse take to prevent adverse effects from this procedure? a. Cleanse the skin carefully with an antiseptic soap. b. Shield any unaffected areas with lead-lined drapes. c. Have the patient use protective eyewear while receiving PUVA. d. Apply petroleum jelly to the areas surrounding the psoriatic lesions.
ANS: C The eyes should be shielded from UV light (UVL) during and after PUVA therapy to prevent the development of cataracts. The patient should be taught about the effects of UVL on unaffected skin, but lead-lined drapes, use of antiseptic soap, and petroleum jelly are not used to prevent skin damage
When examining an older patient in the home, the home health nurse notices irregular patterns of bruising at different stages of healing on the patient's body. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discourage the use of throw rugs throughout the house. b. Ensure the patient has a pair of shoes with non-slip soles. c. Talk with the patient alone and ask about what caused the bruising. d. Notify the health care provider so that x-rays can be ordered as soon as possible.
ANS: C The nurse should note irregular patterns of bruising, especially in the shapes of hands or fingers, in different stages of resolution. These may be indications of other health problems or abuse, and should be further investigated. It is important that the nurse interview the patient alone because, if mistreatment is occurring, the patient may not disclose it in the presence of the person who may be the abuser. Throw rugs and shoes with slippery surfaces may contribute to falls. X-rays may be needed if the patient has fallen recently and also has complaints of pain or decreased mobility. However, the nurse's first nursing action is to further assess the patient
When assessing a new patient at the outpatient clinic, the nurse notes dry, scaly skin; thin hair; and thick, brittle nails. What is the nurse's best action? a. Instruct the patient about the importance of nutrition in skin health. b. Make a referral to a podiatrist so that the nails can be safely trimmed. c. Consult with the health care provider about the need for further diagnostic testing. d. Teach the patient about using moisturizing creams and lotions to decrease dry skin.
ANS: C The patient has clinical manifestations that could be caused by systemic problems such as malnutrition or hypothyroidism, so further diagnostic evaluation is indicated. Patient teaching about nutrition, addressing the patient's dry skin, and referral to a podiatrist may also be needed, but the priority is to rule out underlying disease that may be causing these manifestations
A patient with a systemic bacterial infection feels cold and has a shaking chill. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect next? a. Skin flushing b. Muscle cramps c. Rising body temperature d. Decreasing blood pressure
ANS: C The patient's complaints of feeling cold and shivering indicate that the hypothalamic set point for temperature has been increased and the temperature is increasing. Because associated peripheral vasoconstriction and sympathetic nervous system stimulation will occur, skin flushing and hypotension are not expected. Muscle cramps are not expected with chills and shivering or with a rising temperature
On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb 18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which action will the nurse anticipate taking now? a. Monitor urine output every 4 hours. b. Continue to monitor the laboratory results. c. Increase the rate of the ordered IV solution. d. Type and crossmatch for a blood transfusion.
ANS: C The patient's laboratory data show hemoconcentration, which may lead to a decrease in blood flow to the microcirculation unless fluid intake is increased. Because the hematocrit and hemoglobin are elevated, a transfusion is inappropriate, although transfusions may be needed after the emergent phase once the patient's fluid balance has been restored. On admission to a burn unit, the urine output would be monitored more often than every 4 hours; likely every1 hour
A patient's 4 ´ 3-cm leg wound has a 0.4 cm black area in the center of the wound surrounded by yellow-green semiliquid material. Which dressing should the nurse apply to the wound? a. Dry gauze dressing (Kerlix) b. Nonadherent dressing (Xeroform) c. Hydrocolloid dressing (DuoDerm) d. Transparent film dressing (Tegaderm)
ANS: C The wound requires debridement of the necrotic areas and absorption of the yellow-green slough. A hydrocolloid dressing such as DuoDerm would accomplish these goals. Transparent film dressings are used for red wounds or approximated surgical incisions. Dry dressings will not debride the necrotic areas. Nonadherent dressings will not absorb wound drainage or debride the wound
Which information will the nurse include when teaching an older patient about skin care? a. Dry the skin thoroughly before applying lotions. b. Bathe and wash hair daily with soap and shampoo. c. Use warm water and a moisturizing soap when bathing. d. Use antibacterial soaps when bathing to avoid infection.
ANS: C Warm water and moisturizing soap will avoid overdrying the skin. Because older patients have dryer skin, daily bathing and shampooing are not necessary and may dry the skin unnecessarily. Antibacterial soaps are not necessary. Lotions should be applied while the skin is still damp to seal moisture in
A patient who has burns on the arms, legs, and chest from a house fire has become agitated and restless 8 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay at the bedside and reassure the patient. b. Administer the ordered morphine sulfate IV. c. Assess orientation and level of consciousness. d. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation.
ANS: D Agitation in a patient who may have suffered inhalation injury might indicate hypoxia, and this should be assessed by the nurse first. Administration of morphine may be indicated if the nurse determines that the agitation is caused by pain. Assessing level of consciousness and orientation is also appropriate but not as essential as determining whether the patient is hypoxemic. Reassurance is not helpful to reduce agitation in a hypoxemic patient
An older adult patient with a squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) on the lower arm has a Mohs procedure in the dermatology clinic. Which nursing action will be included in the postoperative plan of care? a. Describe the use of topical fluorouracil on the incision. b. Teach how to use sterile technique to clean the suture line. c. Schedule daily appointments for wet-to-dry dressing changes. d. Teach about the use of cold packs to reduce bruising and swelling.
ANS: D Application of cold packs to the incision after the surgery will help decrease bruising and swelling at the site. Since the Mohs procedure results in complete excision of the lesion, topical fluorouracil is not needed after surgery. After the Mohs procedure the edges of the wound can be left open to heal or the edges can be approximated and sutured together. The suture line can be cleaned with tap water. No debridement with wet-to-dry dressings is indicated
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient in the rehabilitation phase after a burn injury to the right arm and chest? a. Keep the right arm in a position of comfort. b. Avoid the use of sustained-release narcotics. c. Teach about the purpose of tetanus immunization. d. Apply water-based cream to burned areas frequently.
ANS: D Application of water-based emollients will moisturize new skin and decrease flakiness and itching. To avoid contractures, the joints of the right arm should be positioned in an extended position, which is not the position of comfort. Patients may need to continue the use of opioids during rehabilitation. Tetanus immunization would have been given during the emergent phase of the burn injury
A nurse develops a teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma (BCC). Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Treatment plans include watchful waiting. b. Screening for metastasis will be important. c. Low dose systemic chemotherapy is used to treat BCC. d. Minimizing sun exposure will reduce risk for future BCC.
ANS: D BCC is frequently associated with sun exposure and preventive measures should be taken for future sun exposure. BCC spreads locally, and does not metastasize to distant tissues. Since BCC can cause local tissue destruction, treatment is indicated. Local (not systemic) chemotherapy may be used to treat BCC
A patient has the following risk factors for melanoma. Which risk factor should the nurse assign as the priority focus of patient teaching? a. The patient has multiple dysplastic nevi. b. The patient is fair-skinned and has blue eyes. c. The patient's mother died of a malignant melanoma. d. The patient uses a tanning booth throughout the winter.
ANS: D Because the only risk factor that the patient can change is the use of a tanning booth, the nurse should focus teaching about melanoma prevention on this factor. The other factors also will contribute to increased risk for melanoma
What is the best method to prevent the spread of infection when the nurse is changing the dressing over a wound infected with Staphylococcus aureus? a. Change the dressing using sterile gloves. b. Soak the dressing in sterile normal saline. c. Apply antibiotic ointment over the wound. d. Wash hands and properly dispose of soiled dressings.
ANS: D Careful hand washing and the safe disposal of soiled dressings are the best means of preventing the spread of skin problems. Sterile glove and sterile saline use during wound care will not necessarily prevent spread of infection. Applying antibiotic ointment will treat the bacteria but not necessarily prevent the spread of infection
The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with furunculosis. Which nursing action could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Applying antibiotic cream to the groin. b. Obtaining cultures from ruptured lesions. c. Evaluating the patient's personal hygiene. d. Cleaning the skin with antimicrobial soap.
ANS: D Cleaning the skin is within the education and scope of practice for UAP. Administration of medication, obtaining cultures, and evaluation are higher-level skills that require the education and scope of practice of licensed nursing personnel
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking corticosteroids for 11 months. Which nursing action is most likely to detect early signs of infection in this patient? a. Monitor white blood cell count. b. Check the skin for areas of redness. c. Check the temperature every 2 hours. d. Ask about fatigue or feelings of malaise.
ANS: D Common clinical manifestations of inflammation and infection are frequently not present when patients receive immunosuppressive medications. The earliest manifestation of an infection may be "just not feeling well."
Esomeprazole (Nexium) is prescribed for a patient who incurred extensive burn injuries 5 days ago. Which nursing assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the medication? a. Bowel sounds b. Stool frequency c. Abdominal distention d. Stools for occult blood
ANS: D H2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors are given to prevent Curling's ulcer in the patient who has suffered burn injuries. Proton pump inhibitors usually do not affect bowel sounds, stool frequency, or appetite
The nurse could delegate care of which patient to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. The patient who has increased tenderness and swelling around a leg wound b. The patient who was just admitted after suturing of a full-thickness arm wound c. The patient who needs teaching about home care for a draining abdominal wound d. The patient who requires a hydrocolloid dressing change for a stage III sacral ulcer
ANS: D LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include sterile dressing changes for stable patients. Initial wound assessments, patient teaching, and evaluation for possible poor wound healing or infection should be done by the registered nurse (RN).
The nurse will perform which action when doing a wet-to-dry dressing change on a patient's stage III sacral pressure ulcer? a. Soak the old dressings with sterile saline 30 minutes before removing them. b. Pour sterile saline onto the new dry dressings after the wound has been packed. c. Apply antimicrobial ointment before repacking the wound with moist dressings. d. Administer the ordered PRN hydrocodone (Lortab) 30 minutes before the dressing change.
ANS: D Mechanical debridement with wet-to-dry dressings is painful, and patients should receive pain medications before the dressing change begins. The new dressings are moistened with saline before being applied to the wound. Soaking the old dressings before removing them will eliminate the wound debridement that is the purpose of this type of dressing. Application of antimicrobial ointments is not indicated for a wet-to-dry dressing
A young adult patient who is receiving antibiotics for an infected leg wound has a temperature of 101.8° F (38.7° C). Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Apply a cooling blanket. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Give the prescribed PRN aspirin (Ascriptin) 650 mg. d. Check the patient's oral temperature again in 4 hours.
ANS: D Mild to moderate temperature elevations (less than 103° F) do not harm the young adult patient and may benefit host defense mechanisms. The nurse should continue to monitor the temperature. Antipyretics are not indicated unless the patient is complaining of fever-related symptoms. There is no need to notify the patient's health care provider or to use a cooling blanket for a moderate temperature elevation
The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record (MAR) on a patient with partial-thickness burns. Which medication is best for the nurse to administer before scheduled wound debridement? a. Ketorolac (Toradol) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Gabapentin (Neurontin) d. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
ANS: D Opioid pain medications are the best choice for pain control. The other medications are used as adjuvants to enhance the effects of opioids
The nurse assesses a patient who has just arrived in the postanesthesia recovery area (PACU) after a blepharoplasty. Which assessment data should be reported to the surgeon immediately? a. The patient complains of incisional pain. b. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/minute. c. The patient is unable to detect when the eyelids are touched. d. The skin around the incision is pale and cold when palpated.
ANS: D Pale, cool skin indicates a possible decrease in circulation, so the surgeon should be notified immediately. The other assessment data indicate a need for ongoing assessment or nursing action. A heart rate of 110 beats/minute may be related to the stress associated with surgery. Assessment of other vital signs and continued monitoring are appropriate. Because local anesthesia would be used for the procedure, numbness of the incisional area is expected immediately after surgery. The nurse should monitor for return of feeling
Which abnormality on the skin of an older patient is the priority to discuss immediately with the health care provider? a. Several dry, scaly patches on the face b. Numerous varicosities noted on both legs c. Dilation of small blood vessels on the face d. Petechiae present on the chest and abdomen
ANS: D Petechiae are caused by pinpoint hemorrhages and are associated with a variety of serious disorders such as meningitis and coagulopathies. The nurse should contact the patient's health care provider about this finding for further diagnostic follow-up. The other skin changes are associated with aging. Although the other changes will also require ongoing monitoring or intervention by the nurse, they do not indicate a need for urgent action
After the home health nurse teaches a patient's family member about how to care for a sacral pressure ulcer, which finding indicates that additional teaching is needed? a. The family member uses a lift sheet to reposition the patient. b. The family member uses clean tap water to clean the wound. c. The family member places contaminated dressings in a plastic grocery bag. d. The family member dries the wound using a hair dryer set on a low setting.
ANS: D Pressure ulcers need to be kept moist to facilitate wound healing. The other actions indicate a good understanding of pressure ulcer care
A new nurse performs a dressing change on a stage II left heel pressure ulcer. Which action by the new nurse indicates a need for further teaching about pressure ulcer care? a. The new nurse uses a hydrocolloid dressing (DuoDerm) to cover the ulcer. b. The new nurse inserts a sterile cotton-tipped applicator into the pressure ulcer. c. The new nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with sterile saline using a 30-mL syringe. d. The new nurse cleans the ulcer with a sterile dressing soaked in half-strength peroxide.
ANS: D Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with solutions that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate
During assessment of the patient's skin, the nurse observes a similar pattern of small, raised lesions on the left and right upper back areas. Which term should the nurse use to document these lesions? a. Confluent b. Zosteriform c. Generalized d. Symmetric
ANS: D The description of the lesions indicates that they are grouped. The other terms are inconsistent with the description of the lesions
A patient with an enlarging, irregular mole that is 7 mm in diameter is scheduled for outpatient treatment. The nurse should plan to prepare the patient for which procedure? a. Curettage b. Cryosurgery c. Punch biopsy d. Surgical excision
ANS: D The description of the mole is consistent with malignancy, so excision and biopsy are indicated. Curettage and cryosurgery are not used if malignancy is suspected. A punch biopsy would not be done for a lesion greater than 5 mm in diameter
A young male patient who is a paraplegic has a stage II sacral pressure ulcer and is being cared for at home by his mother. To prevent further tissue damage, what instructions are most important for the nurse to teach the mother? a. Change the patient's bedding frequently. b. Use a hydrocolloid dressing over the ulcer. c. Record the size and appearance of the ulcer weekly. d. Change the patient's position at least every 2 hours.
ANS: D The most important intervention is to avoid prolonged pressure on bony prominences by frequent repositioning. The other interventions may also be included in family teaching, but the most important instruction is to change the patient's position at least every 2 hours
A patient who has severe refractory psoriasis on the face, neck, and extremities is socially withdrawn because of the appearance of the lesions. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discuss the possibility of enrolling in a worker-retraining program. b. Encourage the patient to volunteer to work on community projects. c. Suggest that the patient use cosmetics to cover the psoriatic lesions. d. Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life.
ANS: D The nurse's initial actions should be to assess the impact of the disease on the patient's life and to allow the patient to verbalize feelings about the psoriasis. Depending on the assessment findings, other actions may be appropriate
A patient with atopic dermatitis has a new prescription for pimecrolimus (Elidel). After teaching the patient about the medication, which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed? a. "After I apply the medication, I can go ahead and get dressed as usual." b. "I will need to minimize my time in the sun while I am using the Elidel." c. "I will rub the medication gently onto the skin every morning and night." d. "If the medication burns when I apply it, I will wipe it off and call the doctor."
ANS: D The patient should be taught that transient burning at the application site is an expected effect of pimecrolimus and that the medication should be left in place. The other statements by the patient are accurate and indicate that patient teaching has been effective
A patient who was found unconscious in a burning house is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The nurse notes that the patient's skin color is bright red. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Insert two large-bore IV lines. b. Check the patient's orientation. c. Assess for singed nasal hair and dark oral mucous membranes. d. Place the patient on 100% oxygen using a non-rebreather mask.
ANS: D The patient's history and skin color suggest carbon monoxide poisoning, which should be treated by rapidly starting oxygen at 100%. The other actions can be taken after the action to correct gas exchange
The nurse notes darker skin pigmentation in the skinfolds of a middle-aged patient who has a body mass index of 40 kg/m2. What is the nurse's best action? a. Teach the patient about the treatment of fungal infection. b. Discuss the use of drying agents to minimize infection risk. c. Instruct the patient about the use of mild soap to clean skinfolds. d. Ask the patient about type 2 diabetes or if there is a family history of it.
ANS: D The presence of acanthosis nigricans in skinfolds suggests either having type 2 diabetes or being at an increased risk for it. The description of the patient's skin does not indicate problems with fungal infection, poor hygiene, or the need to dry the skinfolds better
Which information should the nurse include when teaching patients about decreasing the risk for sun damage to the skin? a. Use a sunscreen with an SPF of at least 8 to 10 for adequate protection. b. Water resistant sunscreens will provide good protection when swimming. c. Increase sun exposure by no more than 10 minutes a day to avoid skin damage. d. Try to stay out of the sun between the hours of 10 AM and 2 PM (regular time).
ANS: D The risk for skin damage from the sun is highest with exposure between 10 AM and 2 PM. No sunscreen is completely water resistant. Sunscreens classified as water resistant sunscreens still need to be reapplied after swimming. Sunscreen with an SPF of at least 15 is recommended for people at normal risk for skin cancer. Although gradually increasing sun exposure may decrease the risk for burning, the risk for skin cancer is not decreased
Eight hours after a thermal burn covering 50% of a patient's total body surface area (TBSA) the nurse assesses the patient. Which information would be a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure is 95/48 per arterial line. b. Serous exudate is leaking from the burns. c. Cardiac monitor shows a pulse rate of 108. d. Urine output is 20 mL per hour for the past 2 hours.
ANS: D The urine output should be at least 0.5 to 1.0 mL/kg/hr during the emergent phase, when the patient is at great risk for hypovolemic shock. The nurse should notify the health care provider because a higher IV fluid rate is needed. BP during the emergent phase should be greater than 90 systolic, and the pulse rate should be less than 120. Serous exudate from the burns is expected during the emergent phase
A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after having deep partial-thickness face and neck burns has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image. Which statement by the patient indicates that the problem is resolving? a. "I'm glad the scars are only temporary." b. "I will avoid using a pillow, so my neck will be OK." c. "I bet my boyfriend won't even want to look at me anymore." d. "Do you think dark beige makeup foundation would cover this scar on my cheek?"
ANS: D The willingness to use strategies to enhance appearance is an indication that the disturbed body image is resolving. Expressing feelings about the scars indicates a willingness to discuss appearance, but not resolution of the problem. Because deep partial-thickness burns leave permanent scars, a statement that the scars are temporary indicates denial rather than resolution of the problem. Avoiding using a pillow will help prevent contractures, but it does not address the problem of disturbed body image
The health care provider prescribes topical 5-FU for a patient with actinic keratosis on the left cheek. The nurse should include which statement in the patient's instructions? a. "5-FU will shrink the lesion so that less scarring occurs once the lesion is excised." b. "You may develop nausea and anorexia, but good nutrition is important during treatment." c. "You will need to avoid crowds because of the risk for infection caused by chemotherapy." d. "Your cheek area will be painful and develop eroded areas that will take weeks to heal."
ANS: D Topical 5-FU causes an initial reaction of erythema, itching, and erosion that lasts 4 weeks after application of the medication is stopped. The medication is topical, so there are no systemic effects such as increased infection risk, anorexia, or nausea
The nurse should plan to use a wet-to-dry dressing for which patient? a. A patient who has a pressure ulcer with pink granulation tissue b. A patient who has a surgical incision with pink, approximated edges c. A patient who has a full-thickness burn filled with dry, black material d. A patient who has a wound with purulent drainage and dry brown areas
ANS: D Wet-to-dry dressings are used when there is minimal eschar to be removed. A full-thickness wound filled with eschar will require interventions such as surgical debridement to remove the necrotic tissue. Wet-to-dry dressings are not needed on approximated surgical incisions. Wet-to-dry dressings are not used on uninfected granulating wounds because of the damage to the granulation tissue
During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion? a. Check skin turgor. b. Monitor daily weight. c. Assess mucous membranes. d. Measure hourly urine output.
ANS: D When fluid intake is adequate, the urine output will be at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour. The patient's weight is not useful in this situation because of the effects of third spacing and evaporative fluid loss. Mucous membrane assessment and skin turgor also may be used, but they are not as adequate in determining that fluid infusions are maintaining adequate perfusion
The nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who had abdominal surgery 3 days ago. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Blood glucose 136 mg/dL b. Oral temperature 101° F (38.3° C) c. Patient complaint of increased incisional pain d. Separation of the proximal wound edges by 1 cm
ANS: D Wound separation 3 days postoperatively indicates possible wound dehiscence and should be immediately reported to the health care provider. The other findings will also be reported but do not require intervention as rapidly
When taking the health history of an older adult, the nurse discovers that the patient has worked in the landscaping business for 40 years. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about how to self-assess for which clinical manifestations (select all that apply)? a. Vitiligo b. Alopecia c. Intertrigo d. Erythema e. Actinic keratosis
ANS: D, E A patient who has worked as a landscaper is at risk for skin lesions caused by sun exposure such as erythema and actinic keratosis. Vitiligo, alopecia, and intertrigo are not associated with excessive sun exposure
Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient who has just received a prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro) to treat a urinary tract infection? a. Use a sunscreen with a high SPF when exposed to the sun. b. Sun exposure may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. c. Photosensitivity may result in an artificial-looking tan appearance. d. Wear sunglasses to avoid eye damage while taking this medication.
The patient should stay out of the sun. If that is not possible, teach them to wear sunscreen when taking medications that can cause photosensitivity. The other statements are not accurate
