Exam 5 (Exam Cram)

Which of the following devices should a technician calibrate as part of an installation? A. Touchscreen B. Mouse C. Keyboard D. Video card

Answer: A. Some touchscreens require calibration to respond to input properly. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1" for more information. Incorrect answers: Keyboards and mice do not require this. Video cards are not calibrated, but monitors can be (in a variety of ways). Printers can be calibrated as well.

Which of the following voltages are normally supplied by a PSU's rails? (Select the two best answers.) A. 1.5 V B. 3.3 V C. 5 V D. 9 V

Answers: B and C. The voltages a power supply unit (PSU) typically supplies include 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V (as well as their negatives) to components in the computer. See the section titled "Power Supplies" in Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: 1.5 is a common voltage for DDR3 RAM and for AA and AAA batteries. 9 V is usually associated with batteries used by handheld devices such as power supply testers and multimeters. PSU's do not supply a 9 V rail or 1.5 V rail.

You just set up a printer in the company training room. The trainer wants to be able to print multiple copies of the training documentation for class. Which feature should be enabled on the printer? A. Duplexing B. Faxing C. Collating D. Scanning E. Print to PDF

Answer: C. The functionality that the trainer desires is collating. This prints the documentation as entire jobs (for example, page 1 through 10, then repeat) instead of printing all the required copies of page 1 before moving to page 2. This makes it easier on the trainer when it comes time to hand out documentation to students. Collating is usually enabled on today's printers, but if not, you would enable it in the printer properties in Windows or on the display of the printer. To test if it works, simply print out a document that has two or more pages and select 2 for the number of copies. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: Duplexing means that the printer will print to both sides of the paper. Faxing and scanning are options found commonly on multifunction printers, but they don't have anything to do with collating. There are several ways to print to a file, such as printing to PDF, which takes a document such as one created in Microsoft Word and converts it into a PDF. The physical printer isn't actually involved with this at all.

You are a technician for an accounting company. You have submitted a request for a new wireless access point. You receive and set up the new device and power it on, but the company router doesn't appear to recognize it. Which of the following statements best describes how to fix the problem? (Select the best answer.) A. You should perform an apt-get update. B. You should run Windows Update. C. You should perform an RPM update. D. You should install the firmware update.

Answer: D. Always check if there is a new firmware update available for your wireless access point or other networking device before configuring it and making it available for use. In the scenario, a protocol is probably not the correct version, so the router cannot see the wireless access point. In this case, updating the firmware is the right move. But always check your company policies before doing so. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: The apt-get command is used to install and update applications in Linux operating systems. Windows Update is the program used to update and patch Windows operating systems. A Red Hat Package Manager (RPM) update, now simply known as RPM Package Manager, is used to install software on Linux systems.

Your guest virtual machines get direct access to the hosting computer's network connection. What is another name for this? A. NAT B. Private virtual network C. Host-only networking D. Bridged networking

Answer: D. Bridged networking is when virtual machines can get direct access to the hosting computer's network connection and access other systems on the LAN and the Internet. You might also see this referred to as "external" or "public." See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization," for more information. Incorrect answers: Network address translation (NAT) is when the guest can access the external network, but not directly. Instead, the guests using NAT get IP addresses on a separate private IP network. Host-only networking creates a private virtual network for the guests, and they can communicate with each other, but not out to the external network or Internet.

Which of the following is the most common type of networking connector? A. RJ11 B. F-connector C. BNC D. RJ45

Answer: D. The RJ45 connector is the most common type of networking connector. It is used in twisted-pair networks. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: RJ11 is the connector used by landline-based phones (POTS connections) and DSL connections in households. The F-connector is a type of coaxial connector used for cable TV and cable Internet connections. BNC is another type of coaxial connector used in some video applications and in older networks.

Which of the following best describes why you might hear a loud clicking noise coming from a faulty hard drive? A. The hard drive has a bad spindle motor bearing. B. The solid-state read/write head is scratching the platter surface. C. The coil reversing the polarity is in an endless loop. D. The noise is created by the repeated motion of the read/write head arm located parallel to the platter.

Answer: D. The loud clicking noise coming from a faulty hard drive is usually due to repeated motion of the read/write head parallel to the platter. It could be that the armature (arm) or its corresponding actuator is faulty and is not moving correctly. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Incorrect answers: Remember that this is a problem associated with hard disk drives, meaning magnetic-based drives. It does not affect solid-sate drives (SSDs) because they do not use read/write heads. If a bearing in the motor was causing problems, then the arm might not move at all. If the coil was in an endless loop, there would be no activity or data would keep getting written to the same place; either way, you probably wouldn't hear anything.

Which of the following is an example of a MAC address? A. 10.1.1.255 B. 4410:FF11:AAB3::0012 C. https://dprocomputer.com D. 00-1C-C0-A1-55-21

Answer: D. The only answer listed that is an example of a MAC address is 00-1C-C0-A1-55-21. The MAC address is the address burned into the ROM chip of a network adapter that uniquely identifies it. This address is composed of six hexadecimal numbers, each between 00 and FF. The decimal equivalent of this is 0 through 255. The first three numbers are the OUI (organizationally unique identifier); 00-1C-C0 is an Intel OUI. The last three numbers are the individual address of the particular network adapter. You might also encounter MAC addresses separated by colons instead of hyphens. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: 10.1.1.255 is an IPv4 address. 4410:FF11:AAB3::0012 is a truncated IPv6 address. https://dprocomputer.com is a web address. It includes the protocol used (HTTPS) and the domain name (dprocomputer.com).

You are building a new PC and you notice that the motherboard has eight DIMM sockets that are labeled 0 through 7. Four of them are gray, and the other four are a darker shade of gray. Which of the following should be performed first? A. Install the memory into the gray slots. B. Install the memory into the dark-gray slots. C. Install the memory into slots 0 through 3. D. Fill all the slots with memory. E. Consult the motherboard documentation.

Answer: E. Always check the motherboard documentation before you begin installing components. You need to know what type of memory you should be using, what type of channel configuration (most likely dual- or quad-channel), and where the sticks of RAM should be installed depending on what configuration you will use. The motherboard documentation will have a table or matrix explaining all the different possibilities. A single motherboard might allow one stick of RAM, plus configurations for dual-channel, tri-channel, and quad-channel. You need to know what is allowed and plan for the right type of RAM before you purchase it. In this scenario there are eight slots in total (0-7). If you install the memory into all the gray slots, then you are probably setting the system up for a multichannel configuration, but you must get the correct RAM. Note that the colors of the slots can be different depending on the manufacturer; for example, they might be blue and black, and the first slots you should use are the blue ones. It all depends-always check documentation first! See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Installing the memory to the dark-gray slots might work, but it might not if those are the secondary slots for each channel. Going by the first four numbers might not be correct either, depending on the motherboard. In fact, a motherboard will often use the numbering system A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, C2, D1, D2, with each letter corresponding to a different channel. Filling all the slots might work, perhaps if you get quad-channel-compliant memory (and a lot of it), but it is not the recommended choice because it can be expensive and probably is not necessary. The main lesson here is that there are a lot of possibilities, depending on the motherboard, and depending on what you as the user wish to accomplish. So always RTM (read the manual) and plan your purchases wisely.

A computer you are working on randomly reboots. Which of the following should be checked first when troubleshooting the computer? (Select the two best answers.) A. Memory integrity B. Video card integrity C. CMOS battery D. PSU integrity E. Optical drive integrity

Answers: A and D. Check the memory and the power supply unit (PSU) first. Both of these can fail intermittently, causing random reboots. Try reseating and cleaning RAM (and replacing if necessary). Test the PSU with a PSU tester or multimeter and replace if necessary. The PSU can also cause the computer to quickly shut down immediately after it was started. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the video card fails, the computer simply won't display to the monitor. If the CMOS battery fails (or discharges), the time and date will reset to an earlier date (for example, to January 1, 20XX.) Other settings in the BIOS will be lost as well. If the optical drive fails, you won't be able to read CDs and DVDs, but the optical drive should not cause the computer to reboot.

You are planning a secure DMZ that will incorporate several servers, including a web server, an FTP server, and a mail server. Which inbound ports will need to be opened at the firewall so that the servers can securely communicate with users on the Internet? (Select the four best answers.) A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 53 E. 80 F. 110 G. 143 H. 443 I. 587 J. 995 K. 3389

Answers: B, H, I, and J. In the scenario, the secure DMZ needs to have several inbound ports open to the servers. To do this in a secure way, one possibility would be to use SFTP on port 22, HTTPS on port 443, SMTP on port 587 (for outbound mail), and POP3 on port 995 (for inbound mail). That meets the requirements for our secure FTP server, web server, and mail server. Besides SFTP-which rides on Secure Shell (SSH)-the rest of the secure solutions use SSL/TLS by default. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: While you can use any port and secure it with the appropriate protocols, there are default security port numbers that you will usually work with. For example, when configuring FTP you would use SFTP (port 22) or FTPS (ports 989/990), but not port 21, which is used with standard FTP. As for the rest of the incorrect answers: Port 23 is used with Telnet (considered insecure). Port 53 is used by DNS, which can be secured in a variety of ways, but the scenario does not require a DNS server. Port 80 is HTTP (which is rarely seen today). Port 110 is POP3 without security. Port 143 is IMAP without security. Port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). By the way, you probably won't get a question with 11 possible answers-I'm just trying to stress that you should know your ports and protocols!

Which of the following monitor types provide for the widest viewing angle along with rich colors and consistent backlighting? (Select the two best answers.) A. Plasma B. TN C. IPS D. LED E. CCFL

Answers: C and D. IPS (in-plane switching) monitor technology offers the widest viewing angle, and LED (light-emitting diode) monitors offer rich colors and consistent backlighting. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: Plasma screens do not perform as well in these respects. TN (twisted-nematic) monitors are less expensive monitors that do not have as good of a viewing angle as IPS. CCFL stands for cold-cathode fluorescent lamp, which is the backlight used in standard LCD monitors. LED is superior to plain LCD when it comes to backlighting and rich colors. Note: LED also performs the best (compared to the others listed) when it comes to use in an area with a lot of natural light.

You need to connect external peripherals to a typical PC. Which of the following connector types will allow you to do this? (Select the two best answers.) A. SATA B. SAS C. EIDE D. eSATA E. USB 3.0

Answers: D and E. External SATA (eSATA) is an SATA port that is meant for use with external devices. It is sometimes found as a port on the back of a PC or can be added with an adapter card. Of course, USB (3.0, 2.0, and so on) is another external port that is used to connect to audio and video equipment as well as external hard drives. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Normally, SATA (without the e preceding it) is used for internal devices, not external. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) is a type of hard drive technology, which is used more in servers and power workstations, not typical PCs. Enhanced IDE (EIDE, also known as Parallel ATA) is an older hard drive standard that you won't see often-unless you are recovering data!-and it is internal by default.

You have been tasked with installing Microsoft Office on a customer's computer. As you attempt to do so, you are told that Office cannot be installed directly to that computer. Which of the following types of computers are you working on? A. Thin client B. MacBook C. Tablet D. Thick client

Answer: A. A thin client is the best answer. That is typically a computer that has an embedded operating system (one that is stored on flash memory); it cannot have additional programs installed to it. Any programs that the thin client makes use of quite often come from a server. This isn't always the case (because there are varying levels of thin clients), but it is common. See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: Microsoft Office could be installed to any of the other computing systems listed in the answers. There is a version for macOS (for MacBooks), there is a version for some tablets, especially ones that run Microsoft OSes, and thick clients are essentially PCs, so Office can usually be installed to those as well.

A PC's network adapter has a link light that is lit, but the PC can't access internal network resources. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue? A. IP address conflict B. Incorrect gateway C. Packet collisions D. Slow transfer speed

Answer: A. An IP address conflict is a possible cause for the problem. This happens when two computers are assigned the same IP address (usually when at least one was configured statically). When this happens, the link light on the network adapter will still work as usual because the system has a physical link to a central connecting device such as a switch, and bits (and frames) of data are still being sent back and forth between that computer and that switch. It's the IP layer that is nonfunctional due to the IP conflict. See Chapter 22, "Troubleshooting Wired and Wireless Network Problems," for more information. Incorrect answers: The answer "incorrect gateway" is not correct because the scenario states that the PC cannot access internal network resources. A gateway deals with external network resources. Packet collisions only occur if the system has a valid IP connection. Slow transfer speed doesn't mean no transfer of data. Although slow transfer speeds could cause the system to take a while to connect, it should still connect at some point to internal network resources. You can tell if the system has sent or received data in the current session by going to the network icon in the Notification Area or by running a netstat -e command in the Command Prompt (in Windows); these will show packets that were transceived (transmitted and received).

Which of the following is the best option for storing 6153 MB of data on one disc? A. DVD-9 DL B. CD-R 48x C. DVD-5 SL D. RAID 5

Answer: A. DVD-9 DL is the best answer when it comes to saving 6153 MB (6 GB) of data. DL stands for dual-layer. DVD-9 has one side and two layers by default, allowing it to save up to 8.5 GB of data maximum. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: CD-R discs can only save 700 MB or so; the 48x simply tells you the write speed. DVD-5 SL discs are standard single-sided, single-layer DVDs that can save up to 4.7 GB. A RAID 5 array would definitely be able to hold the data, but it is not a "disc"; in fact, it is three or more drives-if those drives were magnetic-based, then it would be "disks." Either way, a lot of work is required to build that array, plus the question did not mention that fault tolerance was required.

A laptop's battery fails to charge. Which of the following should be checked first? A. DC-in jack B. AC-in jack C. CMOS battery D. AC circuit breaker

Answer: A. Of the listed answers, you should check the DC-in jack on the laptop. The very first thing you should do is check the basics; see if the power brick is connected to the AC outlet and to the DC-in jack and verify that the battery is connected properly. See Chapter 2, "Laptops, Part 2," for more information. Incorrect answers: Laptops don't have an AC-in jack-the power adapter takes care of converting AC power to DC power for the laptop to use. Of course, you should always check the laptop battery first, in the event that it is missing or not connected properly. Next, make sure the power adapter is plugged into the DC-in jack and that the jack is not damaged. A damaged DC-in jack can also cause the laptop to occasionally shut off. Users often damage the DC-in jack because they leave the power adapter plugged in while they are in transit. On most laptops, a new one has to be soldered on to the board. The CMOS battery is inside the laptop. It retains UEFI/BIOS settings and has nothing to do with charging the main laptop battery. The AC circuit breaker might have tripped, but is less likely than the previously listed reasons. Also, a good indication of a failed AC circuit is that all of the devices on that circuit would stop working.

There are four people who share a connection to a SOHO router that connects to the Internet. When a single user starts streaming media over the Internet, browsing slows down for the rest of the users. Which setting should be configured to alleviate the problem? A. QoS B. DSL C. WAN D. VPN

Answer: A. Quality of service (QoS) is the performance of user connections over the network, particularly connections to the Internet. On some small office/home office (SOHO) routers, this can be configured to allow for equal data transfers among all users, or it can be used to configure special traffic (such as streaming media) to transfer faster. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, which is a family of technologies used to transfer data over the Internet. WAN stands for wide area network-a network that spans a large geographic area and connects two or more LANs. VPN stands for virtual private network, which allows for secure (tunneled) connections over the Internet.

One of your co-workers has asked for a cable for an Apple mobile device that can charge it and transfer data to and from it. Which of the following connection types would meet the customer's requirements? A. Lightning B. Micro-USB C. Molex D. Mini-USB

Answer: A. The Lightning connector is a proprietary connector used by Apple mobile devices. It is the successor to the 30-pin connector. However, keep in mind that some Apple devices use USB-C. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: Apple devices do not use Micro-USB or Mini-USB, although adapters may be available depending on the device used. Micro-USB is common on Android-based devices. Molex is a power connection found inside PCs.

A customer of yours is opening an Internet café and wants to offer computers for the patrons to access the Internet. Which type of computer system should you recommend? A. Thin client B. Standard thick client C. Audio/video workstation D. Gaming PC E. HTPC

Answer: A. The best answer listed is thin client. A thin client is used for basic applications, and it meets the minimum requirements for a selected OS. It is usually a diskless workstation with limited CPU power. It gets its operating system from flash-based memory or from a server and doesn't have a hard drive. In addition, it resets itself every time it is restarted. This helps to protect against malware and decreases the chances of hardware failure. See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A standard thick client is generally a PC. Internet cafes do not need the power of a thick client, an audio/video workstation, a gaming PC, or an HTPC. By the way, HTPC stands for home theater PC-a kind of computer used to connect to television stations, play DVDs and Blu-rays, connect to streaming services, as well as work like a regular computer. The acronym is not in the CompTIA A+ bulleted objectives, but it is listed in the CompTIA A+ Acronyms list at the end of the objectives.

You just completed a CPU installation. However, when you turn on the computer, the POST sounds a series of beeps and the system won't boot. What is the most likely cause? A. The mouse is not plugged in. B. The operating system is corrupted. C. The CPU is not properly seated. D. The fan is running too fast.

Answer: A. The firewall is the device that prevents outside intrusion by blocking ports and protocols. In many networks it is the first line of defense. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A gateway is a device (usually a router) that allows multiple clients on one network access to another (for example, computers on the LAN that want to gain access to the Internet). A router connects two networks together. A bridge separates a LAN into two distinct network sections. An access point allows wireless connectivity to the network for Wi-Fi-enabled computers.

A workgroup of five PCs uses a shared printer. A customer says she cannot print to the printer but can access shares on another PC used for common files. The printer appears to be powered on. Which of the following would be the most likely cause? A. The PC is off the network. B. The printer needs to be restarted. C. The printer is low on toner. D. Device drivers are corrupted.

Answer: A. The most likely listed cause is that the PC to which the printer is connected is currently off of the network. It would appear from this scenario that the printer is connected to a PC by way of USB and is shared at the PC itself, which is offline. If the customer can connect to other shares on other PCs, you know that that particular computer is functional on the network. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Note In this scenario, the user is accessing shared files from another PC. Remember that this is a shared printer. That means that the printer is connected to another PC on the network, not directly to the network. The answer "PC is off the network" means the PC that has the printer connected to it. The key here is that the customer can access shares on other PCs, indicating an issue with the computer that has the printer connected to it. Incorrect answers: The printer is on, and restarting a printer can fix some issues, but it will most likely return the printer to the same state it was in previously. The printer being low on toner should have no effect on whether it can be accessed. But a message would probably appear on one of the computer's screens stating that the toner cartridge should be changed soon. If device drivers are corrupted, the printer should still be accessible and might print, but it will probably print garbled information.

Which of the following should be reset during normal printer maintenance? A. Page count B. Job queue C. Print job cache D. Tray settings

Answer: A. The page count should be reset whenever you perform normal, scheduled printer maintenance. For example, a laser printer can print about 200,000 pages before it needs a scheduled maintenance. By resetting the page count after a successful maintenance, you will know when the next maintenance should occur. This is reset on the printer itself. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The job queue and cache should reset automatically; this is because you would normally turn the printer off before maintaining it. Any print queue located on a computer is not reset automatically, but jobs in the queue will probably have to be resent. The tray settings do not have to be reset.

Which of the following ports can be used for audio, video, and storage? A. Thunderbolt B. DisplayPort C. HDMI D. DVI

Answer: A. Thunderbolt is the only answer listed that can be used for audio, video, and storage. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: DisplayPort and HDMI can transfer audio and video data but are not used for storage. DVI is used for video only.

You have been tasked with resolving a shadowy image that is being printed from a network printer. What should you do? A. Replace the drum. B. Replace the fuser. C. Run a calibration. D. Replace the network cable.

Answer: A. Try replacing the drum. If this is within the toner cartridge (which it often is), then replace that as well. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the fuser needs replacing, you will probably see smeared text and images. If images or text are not straight or are colored incorrectly, you might need to calibrate the printer. If the network cable fails, the printer should not print at all from networked computers; however, a test page run locally at the printer should print just fine.

You need to make a patch cable to connect a computer to an RJ45 wall jack. Which of the following tools should be used to attach the RJ45 plugs to the patch cable? A. Crimper B. Punchdown tool C. Loopback plug D. Cable tester

Answer: A. Use an RJ45 crimper to crimp those RJ45 plugs on the ends of a patch cable. See Chapter 8, "Network Types and Networking Tools," for more information. Incorrect answers: Use a punchdown tool to terminate individual wires to the RJ45 wall jack and to patch panels. Use a loopback plug to test a network adapter by plugging it into the card's RJ45 port. Use a cable tester to test patch cables or longer LAN cable connections.

Which of the following cable types would most likely experience degraded video signal quality over long distances? A. VGA B. HDMI C. DVI D. DisplayPort

Answer: A. VGA is an older standard that outputs analog signals to a monitor. Of the listed answers, it is the most susceptible to signal degradation. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: HDMI, DVI, and DisplayPort are designed to work best sending digital signals and can send them over longer distances than analog cables (such as VGA). Digital is inherently better as far as distance and signal quality goes.

You need to run a diagnostic disc on a laptop running Windows. You modify the boot order in the UEFI/BIOS and set it to DVD first. However, the laptop still boots into Windows. What do you need to adjust to boot to the DVD? A. Secure Boot B. TPM C. UEFI/BIOS password D. Virtualization

Answer: A. You need to adjust the Secure Boot setting. Secure Boot uses encryption in conjunction with operating systems such as Windows to make sure that only that particular operating system will boot. In this scenario, to boot off of the DVD, you not only need to change the UEFI/BIOS boot order, but you most likely also need to disable Secure Boot. See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module (located on the motherboard), which is used to encrypt the entire hard drive. The UEFI/BIOS password most likely refers to the administrator password of the UEFI/BIOS. You already knew this password; otherwise, you would not have been able to modify the boot order. Virtualization refers to the ability for the CPU to work with virtual machine software (such as Windows Hyper-V). It has to be enabled for Hyper-V and other virtualization managers to work properly.

Which of the following LAN hosts would most likely provide the services needed to allow multiple clients access to cached Internet web pages? A. File server B. Proxy server C. Web server D. DNS server

Answer: B. A proxy server provides the services needed for multiple clients to access Internet web pages. It is a server that is normally located on the LAN, or the internal computer network, and as such is known as a LAN host or a network host. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration," for more information. Incorrect answers: A web server provides web pages, yes, but the web server is not normally on the LAN. Web servers normally exist on the Internet, or on an intranet, or in a DMZ, so they cannot be considered network hosts or LAN hosts. File servers simply store files for multiple clients to access; Word documents and Excel spreadsheets are examples. A DNS server is used to resolve hosts' domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. They are very common on the Internet, though they can exist on the LAN as well. However, they don't deal with cached web pages the way that a proxy server will.

Which of the following describes the function of a switch in a network? A. Converts a packet for transmission from one network to another network B. Transmits packets it receives to specific connections C. Broadcasts packets it receives to all connections D. Determines whether a packet belongs on an internal or an external network

Answer: B. A switch can be described as a network device that transmits packets it receives to specific connections. It does this by mapping systems' MAC addresses to physical ports on the switch. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A router would convert a packet for transmission from one network to another network. It also determines whether a packet belongs on an internal or an external network, though this process can be augmented by other devices. A hub broadcasts packets it receives to all connections.

Which of the following best describes the most likely reason for connecting a tone generator to an RJ45 cable drop? A. To confirm continuity of the conductors B. To locate the position of the cable on a patch panel C. To test the transmission quality of the connection D. To validate proper wiring of the network jack

Answer: B. A tone generator (part of a tone and probe kit) is often used to locate cables, especially if there are a bunch of them in a small area. In the scenario, the technician is connecting the tone generator to an RJ45 port, perhaps near a person's desk. Then the technician uses the probe (an inductive amplifier) to locate the other end of that cable at the patch panel either in a wiring closet or in the server room. See Chapter 8, "Network Types and Networking Tools," for more information. Incorrect answers: The other answers require a cable certifier. Although a cable certifier can often act as a tone generator, a tone generator is not a cable certifier-it can only generate a tone across the cable. Cable certifiers are used to confirm continuity, validate proper wiring, and test the transmission quality of a given connection.

You are tasked with fixing a laptop that is not booting. You have analyzed the system and can't see any system lights or display, and you can't hear any sounds when the Power button is pressed. Which of the following should be attempted first when troubleshooting the problem? A. Boot the system from a boot CD. B. Disconnect the AC and the battery and press and hold the Power button for several seconds. C. Remove hard drives and optical drives, RAM, and USB devices from the laptop. D. Connect an external monitor to the laptop to determine if the LCD has failed.

Answer: B. Although you could try several things, the best of the listed answers is to disconnect the AC connection and the battery and press and hold the Power button for several seconds. This effectively discharges the laptop (capacitors and such) and may also clear the BIOS, either one of which can fix the problem. Exactly what happens will depend on the model of laptop, and the length of time you will need to hold down the Power button will vary. Afterward, reconnect the battery and AC connection and continue troubleshooting from there if necessary. The key in this question is that you cannot hear or see anything happening. In most cases, something will happen, but in this case, the laptop may have had a voltage overload or other similar problem. Discharging it in this fashion can fix the problem, but you might have to reconfigure your BIOS. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: Booting the system to a disc will probably result in nothing. If you can't see or hear anything, you need to take stronger measures than that. Sometimes, removing drives and USB devices can help when troubleshooting, but again, in this scenario where you can see and hear nothing, it probably won't help. Connecting an external monitor is a good idea if you can see LED lights blinking when you press the Power button but get no main display. In this case, the result will probably be no image on both displays.

You are installing an IP-based camera system that connects directly to the network. To access the system remotely, which capability most likely requires configuration? A. QoS B. Port forwarding C. Static IPs D. VPN passthrough

Answer: B. Port forwarding is the best answer. For a person to remotely access the network and gain access to the system, you should forward a specific port from the router over to the system. This happens after the remote user has made a virtual private networking (VPN) connection to the network. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: QoS stands for quality of service, which can be configured to grant more connection performance to particular services, such as streaming media and Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP). Static IP addresses are used when you need to have a permanent identification for a server (or the entire network) that can be accessed by hosts on the Internet. Although this might be used in the scenario, it isn't necessary and doesn't need to be configured to access the camera system. VPN passthrough means that VPN traffic is allowed on routers that utilize network address translation (NAT). NAT is the technology that allows multiple clients on the LAN to share the router to access the Internet.

A user working at a PC is experiencing screen flicker. Of the following, what should you reconfigure? (Select the best answer.) A. CCFL B. Refresh rate C. Resolution D. Switch from HDMI to DVI

Answer: B. If the PC's display is experiencing screen flicker then it could be due to an improperly configured refresh rate. Usually, monitors and operating systems will auto-configure a setting such as this, but not always-for example, if you are using a less common operating system or a more advanced application. The refresh rate is the number of times the display is drawn on the screen per second. A common amount is 60 Hz, but perhaps the user is working with an editing program or game that requires a higher refresh rate, and the monitor supports it, but it is not configured properly, either in the OS or in the application. Or perhaps it is an older system that is more prone to refresh rate issues. As you can see, there are a lot of possibilities when it comes to video. See Chapter 20, "Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The cold-cathode fluorescent bulb (CCFL) is the backlight for LCD screens. You wouldn't reconfigure it, but you might have to replace it if the display starts blinking or shuts off completely. Keep in mind that many displays are LED based today and do not use a CCFL. A different resolution shouldn't cause screen flicker on a flat-panel display-it would either show the different resolution, no resolution, or possibly a distorted image. Resolution issues are more common with CRT monitors. Screen flicker could be caused by a loose connection, regardless of the connection used. But switching from one video port type to another probably won't help fix the actual problem.

The power supply fan and case fans spin, but there is no power to other devices. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this? A. Failed hard drive B. Improper connectivity C. Drive not recognized D. Failed RAM .

Answer: B. If the power supply fan and the case fans are spinning but there is no power to other devices, the chances are that the main 24-pin power connection was not made from the power supply to the motherboard. In this scenario, the case fans would have been connected by way of Molex power connectors directly to the power supply. Although it's usually better to connect case fans to the motherboard, if they were connected to the motherboard, they would not spin, because the motherboard is not receiving power. If this scenario was to occur, no other devices would get power, including the CPU, RAM, motherboard, hard drives, optical drives, and so on. Incorrect answers: If the hard drive fails, the operating system will fail to boot up. If the hard drive cannot be repaired, it will have to be removed (often with a Phillips-head screwdriver) and replaced. If the drive is not recognized, again, the OS will not boot. It would have to be reconnected properly, configured in the UEFI/BIOS, or partitioned and formatted properly in Windows, depending on the specific situation. Failed RAM could cause a boot failure and will definitely be registered by the POST, but it doesn't necessarily mean that the RAM (or any other device) is not receiving power.

You are attempting to load an operating system from a USB flash drive at computer startup. Which of the following settings should you modify in the BIOS? A. Enable a BIOS password B. Boot sequence C. Enable TPM D. Disable TPM

Answer: B. Most of the time a computer's BIOS (or UEFI) will be configured to boot to the hard drive first. To boot from a USB flash drive, or optical disc, or other removable media, you might need to change the boot sequence, otherwise known as the boot order or boot priority, and place the removable media first. However, if the drive is brand new and blank, you might be able to still boot from the removable media, even if it is not first on the list. This will depend on the system, but essentially, the BIOS will see that the drive is blank and move on to the next boot media on the list. Keep in mind that you might boot to removable media with an operating system for other reasons than installing the OS (for example, recovering an existing system). Incorrect answers: Enabling a password is not necessary, but there should be a password. If there is, you will need to know it in order to access the BIOS. If not, you should create one while you are there. TPM (Trusted Platform Module) deals with the encryption of data on the hard drive and should be enabled or disabled before an operating system is installed; it won't have any bearing on the boot sequence.

One of your customers has signed up for a mobile pay service to be used on a first-generation smartphone. However, the smartphone does not work at any location that supports mobile pay service. Which of the following is missing from the customer's smartphone? A. IMSI B. NFC C. RFID D. Bluetooth

Answer: B. Near field communication (NFC) is missing from the smartphone. Older (first generation) smartphones do not have NFC. Always check the minimum requirements of any software or service that you are planning to use with a smartphone, tablet, or other computer. Make sure that the mobile device in question meets the minimum requirements. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1" for more information. Incorrect answers: IMSI stands for International Mobile Subscriber Identity and is a unique 64-bit field used to identify the user of a cellular network. By the way, don't confuse IMSI with IMEI. IMEI stands for International Mobile Station Equipment Identity, which identifies the phone. RFID stands for radio-frequency identification, a technology that uses tags and radio-frequency scanning to identify those tags. Bluetooth is a technology primarily used to allow for peripherals' access to a computer, such as using a Bluetooth headset with a smartphone.

Which connector is necessary to supply power to a graphics expansion card? (Select the best answer.) A. 8-pin EATX12V B. PCIe 6-pin C. 24-pin ATX D. SATA 15-pin

Answer: B. PCIe 6-pin is the best answer. 8-pin PCIe power connectors are also common, but don't confuse them with 8-pin CPU power connectors. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: Though there are 8-pin 12 V connectors for PCIe, the EATX12V 8-pin connector is used for CPUs. 24-pin ATX refers to the main power connection from the PSU to the motherboard. SATA power connectors are 15-pin and are used for hard drives and optical drives.

You replaced a bad internal WLAN card in a Windows laptop. You completed the installation and verified that the new WLAN card is listed in the Device Manager as enabled. What should you do next to actually use the card? A. Type the security passphrase. B. Update the firmware of the WLAN card. C. Configure encryption on the router. D. Add the SSID of the network to the connection.

Answer: D. The next thing you need to do is connect to a wireless network, the first step of which will be to scan for network names (SSIDs) or to add them manually. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: You won't type the security passphrase until you connect to a wireless network. Updating the firmware and/or drivers for the WLAN card (Wi-Fi adapter) should be done as part of the installation of that card. If the router is set up to accept wireless connections, encryption should have already been configured on that router as well.

You are working in a command line and see the following results: dprocomputer.com = 216.97.236.245 Which of the following server types has most likely helped supply this information to you? A. DHCP server B. DNS server C. Authentication server D. Syslog server E. Print server

Answer: B. The Domain Name System (DNS) server is the server that is in charge of resolving domain names (such as davidlprowse.com) to their corresponding IP addresses (such as 216.97.236.245). So, in other words, it provides mapping of user-friendly names to network resources. The DNS server can supply this information to you when you make use of various commands in the command-line such as ping, tracert, nslookup, and dig. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration," for more information. Incorrect answers: A DHCP server takes care of handing out IP addresses to client computers automatically. An authentication server-such as a domain controller running LDAP-is in charge of verifying the identity of users who attempt to log in. A Syslog server is used to gather the logs from network devices and present the information in a manageable way to an admin's workstation. Though you could probably find out the name resolution within the log details, it wouldn't be done in the command line and it wouldn't be presented in the manner that it was in the question. A print server is a computer that is in charge of one or more printers on the network.

You need to describe RAID to a nontechnical customer. Which of the following represents the best way describe RAID? A. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks. B. RAID utilizes multiple disks to increase performance and/or enable protection from data loss. C. RAID is a dynamic disk management system. D. RAID uses striping to reduce the amount of hard drive write time and utilizes parity bits to reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive.

Answer: B. The best answer is "RAID utilizes multiple disks to increase performance and/or enable protection from data loss." RAID 0 and 5 can be used to increase read performance, while RAID 1, 5, and 10 can be used to enable protection from data loss. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Telling a customer that RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent (or Inexpensive) Disks is technical jargon that you should try to avoid. RAID is not a dynamic disk management system. However, in Microsoft operating systems, you need to set disks to dynamic in the Disk Management utility if you wish to add them to RAID arrays. Regardless, this is more information that the customer does not need to know. Finally, the statement "RAID uses striping to reduce the amount of hard drive write time and utilizes parity bits to reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive" is not altogether correct. RAID can also be mirroring. In addition, not all versions of RAID can use parity bits to reconstruct data from a failed hard drive. RAID 0, 1, and 10 do not. However, RAID 5 and 6 do. Remember that the customer needs to know how the technology will make their business more efficient; he or she does not need to know the technical details or jargon.

You are part of a team that has decided to make use of a cloud provider for some of your organization's technology needs. Your top priority is to offload some of your networking, storage, and VM hosting to the cloud. Which of the following services best suits your needs? A. SaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. DBaaS

Answer: B. The best answer listed is infrastructure as a service (IaaS). This allows for networking services (also known as NaaS), storage, load balancing, routing, VM hosting, and more. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization," for more information. Incorrect answers: Software as a service (SaaS) provides common applications to clients over the Internet. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides software solutions such as the ability to develop and test applications within the cloud. Database as a service (DBaaS)-or cloud database-is where the creator of the database does not have to install or support the database software or server; instead, it is provided by a cloud service. The acronym DBaaS is not in the CompTIA A+ bulleted objectives, but it is listed in the CompTIA A+ Acronym list, where you will also find data as a service (DaaS) and network as a service (NaaS).

Which of the following printer technologies uses piezoelectric pressure pads to produce small bubbles that are moved to the paper? A. Laser B. Inkjet C. Thermal D. Impact

Answer: B. The inkjet printer uses piezoelectric pressure pads to produce small bubbles that are moved to the paper. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The laser printer applies toner to the paper in the electrophotographic imaging process. A thermal printer uses heat to create text and images on specially coated paper. Impact printers use a print head to hammer the letters through a ribbon and on to the paper.

Which of the following types of printers requires a maintenance kit that contains a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers? A. Thermal B. Laser C. Inkjet D. Impact

Answer: B. The laser printer is the one that is most associated with maintenance kits. Common components of a laser printer maintenance kit include a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," for more information. Incorrect answers: Common components of a thermal printer include the feed assembly and heating element. The inkjet printer normally includes the ink cartridge, print head, roller, feeder, duplexing assembly, carriage, and belt. An impact printer's components include the print head, ribbon, and tractor feed.

Which of the following is an advantage of UDP over TCP? A. It uses flow control. B. It transfers packets faster. C. It uses connection handshakes. D. It is connection based.

Answer: B. The main advantage of UDP (User Datagram Protocol) over TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is that it can transfer data packets faster. Because it is a connectionless protocol, it doesn't require the synchronization or sequencing that TCP does. This makes it a faster option for streaming services, VoIP, and so on. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: UDP does not have an option for flow control. Also, it does not use a handshaking process. (TCP uses the three-way handshake: SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK.) As mentioned, UDP is connectionless, whereas TCP is connection based. However, even though UDP can transmit packets faster, you will find that TCP is used for most services and applications you will deal with. Prowse David L.. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) and Core 2 (220-1002) Exam Cram (p. 606). Pearson Education. Kindle Edition.

You are tasked with fixing a client's PC that hasn't booted after the latest test of the building's backup generator. As you analyze the computer, you notice that once it is powered on there is no display or beep codes. After 15 seconds, the fans inside the computer start spinning faster and making more noise. The computer was working fine before the test, and you verify that no one has opened the computer. Which of the following is most likely the problem? A. The RAM was damaged by ESD. B. The motherboard was damaged by the power test. C. The hard drive was erased due to the power test. D. The power supply was damaged and is nonfunctional.

Answer: B. The most likely answer (of the listed answers) is that the motherboard was damaged by the power test. This causes a failure to power-on self-test (POST) and causes the fans to function improperly. There was probably some kind of surge or spike of electricity, which could have overloaded the motherboard in a variety of ways. Perhaps a capacitor burst, or maybe one of the circuits burned out. You might be able to repair it, but chances are you will need to replace the motherboard. You should notify your manager or your building facilities about the issue. Also, to protect systems from this kind of problem in the future, consider upgrading the surge suppressor, installing a new one, or using a line conditioner or uninterruptible power supply, or UPS (depending on the type of system). See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: If no one opened the computer, then it is unlikely that the RAM was damaged by electrostatic discharge (ESD). Internal components are usually only affected by ESD when someone handles them improperly. You don't know yet, but the hard drive could have data corruption or become erased due to a power surge. But that isn't the cause of the problem in the scenario; it is simply another potential result. It's another reason to have good protective power equipment to plug the computer into. If the power supply was damaged and was nonfunctional, then the fans wouldn't spin at all. However, the power supply might also be partially damaged. You will need to do a lot of testing of the computer to make sure it is fully functional before putting it back into its normal work environment.

Look at the following list of wires. What wiring standard is being used here? 1. White/orange, 2. Orange, 3. White/green, 4. Blue, 5. White/blue, 6. Green, 7. White/brown, 8. Brown A. RJ45 B. T568B C. T568A D. TIA

Answer: B. White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown is the correct wiring sequence for the T568B wiring standard. You might also see this shown as: WO, O, WG, B, WB, G, WBr, Br. It's the same thing, just abbreviated. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: The T568A standard, which switches the orange and green pins, is the older standard that was replaced by T568B. But to stay within electrical code and municipal guidelines, use the wiring scheme defined by the T568B standard on each end for straight-through cables. To create a crossover cable, use T568B on one end and T568A on the other. RJ45 is a type of plug (or jack) that network cards, switches, and network jacks use. TIA stands for Telecommunications Industry Association-they developed the T568 standards, and other wiring standards.

You are attempting to install Hyper-V on a Windows computer. However, you receive an error that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following CPU characteristics should be checked? A. Number of cores B. Virtualization support C. Hyper-Threading D. Cache size

Answer: B. You need to check whether the CPU has virtualization support enabled in the BIOS/UEFI. If this is not enabled, Windows will not allow the installation of Hyper-V to continue. You may receive an error message, or Windows will simply have a grayed-out area where you want to select Hyper-V in Programs and Features. See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: The number of cores, Hyper-Threading, and cache size will not cause an error in Windows. However, you should make sure that your system meets the minimum requirements to run Hyper-V. In most cases, if the system can run Windows, then it should be able to run Hyper-V.

A user with an inkjet printer states that all color printouts are missing red ink. The printer has cartridges for each of the CMYK colors and the user has recently replaced the magenta cartridge. Which of the following steps should be performed next? A. Verify that the printer cables are connected. B. Perform printer head cleaning. C. Purchase a maintenance kit. D. Use different weighted paper.

Answer: B. You should clean the print head! Most printers come with an on-screen utility that will do this or you can manually clean the print head (delicately!). Similar to this, printers might need to be calibrated if colors are slightly off. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," and Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the printer cables weren't connected, the printer wouldn't print anything at all. Maintenance kits are used more often for laser printers and are unnecessary in this case. The weight of the paper will not affect what colors are printed by an inkjet printer.

You are responding to a server issue reported to you by the accounting department. A particular mapped network drive has high latency. When you go to the server room, you identify the problem as one of the drives in a RAID array. Which of the following best describes how to fix the problem? A. You should reseat the faulty drive. B. You should replace the faulty drive. C. You should reinstall the RAID driver. D. You should replace the RAID controller.

Answer: B. You should replace the faulty drive. If one of the drives is performing below expectations due to high latency, then it might be because the drive is about to fail. You should back up the data, replace the drive, and restore the data (either from mirror, parity, or tape backup, as the case may be) to the array as soon as possible. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Incorrect answers: Reseating the drive probably won't fix the problem. You might reseat a drive immediately after installation if it isn't responding properly. But if it has been working properly for a time, then this isn't a valid solution. Reinstalling the RAID driver would require that you take the entire array down (which might be necessary anyway) but is not something to try first due to the fact that it will require a lot of time and configuration (not to mention the downtime associated with the task). Replacing the RAID controller should be far down the troubleshooting list. If only one drive has failed (or is causing latency in this case), then it probably isn't the controller. Remember, hard drives will fail. It's just a matter of time, and it will normally happen before a controller fails.

Which of the following is a possible symptom of a damaged video display? A. Disconnected punchdown B. Low RF signal C. Dead pixel D. Computer repeatedly boots to Safe Mode

Answer: C. A dead pixel on a video display is a possible symptom of a damaged monitor screen. Sometimes dead pixels can be repaired with third-party software programs, but more often than not, the dead pixel indicates a damaged display. Another common display issue is when artifacts show up on the screen. This could be due to a damaged display or an incorrect video setting (such as resolution). See Chapter 20, "Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A disconnected punchdown at a punchblock, patch panel, or RJ45 jack can cause a disruption in wired network data transfer, just as a low radio frequency (RF) signal can cause a loss in wireless network data transfer, but these will not affect the video display. If there is a problem with a wired connection, a punchdown tool will be required to rewire the network connection. Generally, the best method is to remove the cable's individual wires, cut it, strip the plastic jacket with a wire stripped, and re-terminate the individual wires. If a computer repeatedly boots into Safe Mode, there might be a driver issue, malware issue, or other OS problem, and though the system will boot in VGA resolution (640×480), that doesn't mean there is damage to the video display.

A user boots a computer and a message is displayed that reads "Alert! Cover previously removed." Which of the following was configured in the UEFI/BIOS to cause this alert? A. Date and time settings B. Boot sequence C. Intrusion detection D. Virtualization support

Answer: C. If the intrusion detection setting is enabled in the UEFI/BIOS, and the computer was opened, the system will display a message and log what happened. This is a security feature on most of today's motherboards. See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: Configuring the date and time settings would not result in a message. The boot sequence deals with the list of drives that the system will attempt to boot from in order. Virtualization support allows the system to use CPUs that take advantage of Intel and AMD virtualization extensions.

Your office printer was working earlier in the day but is no longer printing any documents. Preexisting workstations are manually configured to print to the printer directly over the network. You begin troubleshooting the problem and determine that the printer is still visible when browsing the network directory. You also verify, at the physical printer, that the printer can print test pages successfully. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem? A. The print spooler was restarted. B. Two users sent print jobs at the same time, which caused a collision. C. The printer's IP address has changed. D. The message "perform printer maintenance" is displayed on the printer's display panel.

Answer: C. In this scenario, it is possible that the printer's IP address has been changed, and it is the best choice of the listed answers. The workstations were manually configured (most likely via IP address), which means that an IP address change on the printer would cause any print jobs from those workstations to fail. The IP address could have been configured manually by another tech, or if it was set to DHCP, the printer might have received a new address from the DHCP server. Because of this exact scenario, it is always a good idea to configure a static IP address at the printer itself (within the LCD display). Remember, in the scenario the printer can be seen in the network directory, which usually searches by printer name as opposed to printer IP address. Also, test pages are printing successfully. All these are clues that point to a potential IP problem. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," for more information. Incorrect answers: Restarting the print spooler service is a troubleshooting technique used when the spooler service is hung up for some reason. It generally doesn't cause problems but can fix a lot of spooling issues. Two print jobs can't be sent at the same time-collisions are a concept related to networking. It is possible that packets or frames can collide, but not the print jobs. The print jobs are placed into a queue either at the printer or at the print server. The need to perform printer maintenance doesn't usually cause print failures, but if you see that message, you should attend to it right away.

Your organization subscribed to a cloud service and is paying monthly for a group of services. The organization is then billed incrementally when it exceeds the monthly amount. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent? A. Rapid elasticity B. On-demand C. Measured services D. Resource pooling

Answer: C. Measured services is when the provider monitors services rendered; this allows the provider (and the customer) to analyze the rate of resource usage. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization," for more information. Incorrect answers: Rapid elasticity is when a provider offers a scalable cloud-based network that can grow as the organization needs it to. On-demand is the ability for customers to gain access to resources 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Resource pooling is when servers and infrastructure are grouped together for multiple customers to share.

Which protocol is relied upon most by Active Directory? (Select the best answer.) A. SMB B. HTTP C. LDAP D. WINS

Answer: C. Of the listed answers, the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is relied upon most by Active Directory. LDAP deals with directory lists (such as the users within a Microsoft Active Directory domain) or the users' e-mail addresses listed within a Microsoft Exchange server. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol that allows shared access to files; it is important to any computer running Windows, not just computers that are in charge of, or connect to, a Microsoft Active Directory domain. SMB is also known as the Common Internet File System (CIFS.) HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol, used to transfer data from a web server to a client computer's web browser. WINS stands for Windows Internet Naming Service, a name resolution technology that converts NetBIOS names to IP addresses. It is somewhat deprecated and is not commonly used; its successor is the Domain Name System (DNS.)

Which of the following devices should be configured to block specific ports on the network? A. Firewall B. Gateway C. Router D. Bridge E. Access point

Answer: C. Of the listed answers, the most likely cause is that the CPU needs to be reseated. This will result in a series of beeps from the power-on self-test (POST) as the BIOS searches for the CPU and can't find it. If a computer was being built in this scenario, then it's also possible that the RAM was not seated properly, or there is some RAM compatibility issue. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: No other answer choice would cause the POST to issue a series of beeps. The mouse would not, but a lack of a keyboard would result in beeps. (Always make sure the keyboard is securely connected!) Also, the POST doesn't look for operating system corruption; it is relegated to hardware only. But it can display messages such as "no operating system found" or a similar message if the hard drive is missing, not formatted, or not in the correct location in the BIOS boot order. "The fan is running too fast" is subjective; regardless, its maximum speed is usually governed by the BIOS, and shouldn't affect how the system boots.

You replace a failed hard drive with a new one. You then boot to a special preinstallation environment disc so that you can install a custom operating system build that is meant for deployment to the network. The hard drive is recognized in the UEFI/BIOS, but once you have booted to the preinstallation environment, the hard drive is not recognized, the process fails, and the drive can't be imaged. Which of the following statements best describes the most likely problem? A. The PC's power supply cannot provide enough power for the new drive. B. The boot media has failed and needs to be replaced. C. The hard drive has not been partitioned correctly. D. The hard drive must be configured in the UEFI/BIOS.

Answer: C. Of the listed answers, the most likely problem is that the hard drive has not been partitioned correctly. In this scenario, the point of the preinstallation environment (PE)-which is often located on removable media such as a USB flash drive or boot disc-is to boot the system and partition the hard drive, readying it for the image to be obtained over the network. If the drive is not partitioned properly, the process will fail because the image will expect to be installed to a specific partition. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Note In some scenarios, a drive can be fully unpartitioned, and you can have the image install properly. This depends on several factors, including the local system hardware, what type of network installation is being done, and what software is being used for the imaging process. Incorrect answers: Hard drives don't vary much from one to the next in regard to power, so the power supply should provide plenty of power. If it didn't, then you wouldn't see the drive in the UEFI/BIOS. The boot media has not failed; in the scenario it says that you have accessed the preinstallation environment. That is only possible if the PE boot media was booted to successfully. Today, it is uncommon for the drive to be configured in the BIOS or UEFI (unless it is part of a RAID array, which is controlled by the motherboard). Normally, the drive is either seen or not. If not, you might need to perform a flash of the BIOS or UEFI.

You are planning to build a computer that will be used at trade shows on several different continents. Part of your planning includes specifications such as maximum RAM and a typical video card, CPU, and storage drive. Which of the following specifications is the most important for you to consider when you select a power supply unit? A. Efficiency B. 12 V rail amperage C. Input voltage D. Number of SATA connectors

Answer: C. One of your most important considerations should be the input voltage. For example, in the United States (and some other countries) this is 120 volts. However, in many other countries it is 240 volts. (These are also represented as 115 V and 230 V.) It's better to avoid voltage converters if at all possible, so you will need a power supply unit (PSU) that can handle both. That means one of two things: 1. An auto-selecting PSU, or 2. A PSU with a voltage switch. The former is preferable, so that the person setting up the computer at trade shows does not need to remember to check the switch. However, keep in mind that you might still need an adapter for the actual three-prong connection used in other countries. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: The efficiency rating tells you how effectively the PSU uses energy. For example, the 80 Plus program promotes energy efficiency of more than 80 percent. While this is important for most computers-because we all want to conserve energy, right?-it is not as important for this particular system, because the PC will be relying on power that is provided by the trade show venues. Rail amperage is important for resource-intensive computers such as gaming PCs, design systems, and so on, where an individual rail (such as the 12 V) can overheat if driven too hard. Of course, we don't want our devices (such as GPUs) to draw too much current from the PSU (which generally can max out at about 30 amps or so); however, the system is using typical components, so current should not be a factor. As long as the PSU meets the wattage requirements, it should be okay. Maximizing the RAM shouldn't cause the computer to go beyond the maximum current or wattage (as long as we don't overclock it! And even then it is unlikely.) Almost all PSUs come with several SATA power connectors, and we are only using one hard drive, so that should not be a factor either.

One of the desktop computers at a customer site is randomly rebooting several times per day. You have checked for overheating issues, but everything seems okay with the case fans, CPU fan, and power supply. What should you check for next? A. The integrated network adapter has the latest drivers. B. The hard drive is defragmented. C. The motherboard for signs of swollen capacitors. D. The RAM to confirm it is of the right type.

Answer: C. The best answer listed is to check the motherboard for swollen capacitors. A swollen (or distended) capacitor could cause the system to reboot intermittently. The capacitor (or entire motherboard) needs to be replaced. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: It is unlikely that the network adapter or fragmented hard drive would cause the system to sporadically reboot, but you should check for the latest drivers and firmware for the network adapter anyway and analyze whether the hard drive has been defragmented of late (especially for magnetic disks). RAM could cause the system to periodically reboot, mainly if the RAM is overheating. (RAM heat sinks could fix that.) But the wrong type of RAM will usually result in a POST failure instead.

Which of the following components can be considered the "brains" of a computer? A. RAM B. Hard drive C. CPU D. Motherboard

Answer: C. The central processing unit (CPU), otherwise known as the processor, is often considered to be the "brains" of the computer because it performs the bulk of the calculations for the system. See Chapter 12, "CPUs," for more information. Incorrect answers: Random access memory (RAM) stores calculated data over the short term-it is often called volatile memory because its contents are lost when the computer is shut down. A hard drive stores data over the long term-it is often called nonvolatile memory, or simply "storage," because it retains data when the computer is shut down. The motherboard is the central connecting point for all components and connections within the computer, including the CPU, RAM, and hard drive.

A workstation fails to boot. The POST found an error, and the computer beeps twice. This happens again and again. Which of the following is the most likely issue? A. Power supply failure B. Video adapter failure C. Memory failure D. CPU failure

Answer: C. The most likely cause is a memory failure. Two beeps often means a problem with memory. Of course, this will depend on the type of BIOS or UEFI. For example, two beeps in some Dell systems means that no memory has been detected, causing a RAM failure. Two short beeps in AMI BIOS systems means a memory parity error. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the power supply were to fail, the system wouldn't even POST because the motherboard didn't receive power. If the video adapter failed, you would get a different set of beeps. For example, in Award BIOS systems, one long and two short beeps (or three short beeps) means some kind of video error. In some Dell systems, six beeps means a video card failure. Read the motherboard documentation to find out what the beep codes mean exactly. If the CPU fails, the system will not boot or power-on self-test (POST).

You are troubleshooting a laptop that has a problem with the cursor. When working on Word documents, the cursor jumps around the display. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Improper screen calibration B. Faulty software C. Touchpad settings D. Unsigned device drivers

Answer: C. The problem is most likely due to the touchpad settings (or calibration). The sensitivity might be too high, causing the cursor to jump quickly across the display. Another possibility is that the user's sleeve (or part of their arm or hand) is dragging across the touchpad. As a quick fix, you can disable the touchpad, often from a function key on the keyboard of the laptop (or in the Device Manager), until it is configured to the user's liking. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: Touchpad calibration is separate from screen calibration, which should not cause a problem with the cursor. Faulty software is a pretty vague answer. It's possible that third-party software that is used to configure the touchpad is where the issue lies, but more accurately, this would still be the touchpad settings. You don't know if the laptop uses Windows to configure the sensitivity of the touchpad, so the answer is not accurate enough. If a driver is unsigned, then Windows will ask for an administrator's permission to go ahead with the installation. If you can't provide the admin username and password (or you are not logged in as an admin), then the installation will fail. So, the driver either installs or it doesn't, but that has no bearing on the settings or calibration of the touchpad.

Which of the following cables is prone to EMI? A. Fiber optic B. STP C. UTP D. Multimode

Answer: C. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is prone to electromagnetic interference (EMI). See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: Fiber optic cable is not prone to EMI because it uses light as the medium instead of electricity. Multimode cable is a type of fiber optic. STP stands for shielded twisted pair, and as the name indicates, it incorporates an aluminum shield around the wires in order to prevent EMI.

A user calls you and tells you that his computer won't boot and that there is a faint smell of something burning. Which tool should be used to identify the problem? A. Loopback plug B. Cable tester C. PSU tester D. ESD strap

Answer: C. User a power supply unit (PSU) tester to check if the power supply is malfunctioning. If you ever smell something burning, even if it is a faint smell, turn off the power to any associated computers or devices and disconnect them from the AC outlet. then test the affected PSU. Sometimes there is a burn-in period when it comes to new PSUs, and there might be a very faint smell for the first 24 to 48 hours. This is possible if the PSU was newly installed, but you should still test and monitor the PSU until the smell goes away. However, if the computer was working previously and suddenly doesn't work anymore, and you smell something burning, then you should most likely replace the PSU after testing it. Only test the PSU in your lab, and make sure you have all the necessary fire prevention tools and technologies available to you. Incorrect answers: A loopback plug is used to test a switch port or the RJ45 port on a computer. There are many cable testers, but the term is often associated with network cabling, such as cable certifiers for Category 6 (Cat 6) cable. The ESD strap, or more accurately antistatic strap, is used to protect components from electrostatic discharge(ESD)

You just installed a barcode reader. Which of the following should you do to configure the reader? A. Use the Device Manager to enable the IR port. B. Adjust jumper switches. C. Enable the reader in the BIOS. D. Scan in program codes.

Answer: D. After installing a barcode reader, you should start scanning various test barcodes in order to calibrate and configure the reader. Many reader devices will come with a physical book that has printed test codes used to calibrate the device. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: The infrared (IR) port should work automatically on a barcode reader; there is no reason to enable it. Barcode readers do not usually have jumper switches. Also, these are usually plug-and-play devices that do not need to be enabled in the BIOS.

Which of the following is the module format used by a laptop's DDR4 SODIMMs? A. 200-pin B. 204-pin C. 240-pin D. 260-pin

Answer: D. DDR4 SODIMMs use the 260-pin module format. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: As far as SODIMM technology goes, DDR1 and DDR2 use the 200-pin module format and DDR3 is 204-pin. 240-pin is used by full-size desktop DDR3.

65. Which of the following memory technologies enables protection against random inconsistencies when storing data? A. Quad-channel B. Parity C. Dual-channel D. ECC E. RAID 5

Answer: D. ECC stands for error correcting code. ECC memory can detect and correct common types of data corruption. It is often used in servers. It is not typically installed to desktops but might be used if data corruption cannot be tolerated. It provides for error correction, and therefore protection while storing data in RAM. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Quad-channel means that the RAM can send data over four 64-bit channels at the same time-four sticks of RAM are required to take advantage of that. Parity support in RAM means that the memory can detect errors, but not correct them the way ECC does. Dual-channel RAM uses two 64-bit data channels at the same. RAID 5 is not a memory technology; rather it is a redundant hard drive array technology. While RAID 5 does use parity, it is not the same type of parity that RAM might use. Note You may have heard of unbuffered and buffered memory. While these terms are not in the A objectives, as a tech, you should know what they mean: Unbuffered memory is standard RAM that you would install to a typical PC. Buffered memory (also known as registered memory) places less electrical load on the memory controller, making a system that has a lot of sticks of RAM more stable. It is sometimes found in servers.

Which of the following protocols is used to perform file sharing between Apple computers running macOS and PCs running Windows on a LAN? A. RDP B. SSH C. POP3 D. SMB

Answer: D. SMB (Server Message Block) can be used to facilitate file sharing between Windows computers and computers running macOS. It is sometimes referred to as its older name CIFS (Common Internet File System). If SMB is for some reason unavailable on the Mac-based systems, then they will attempt to use the Apple File Protocol (AFP). See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: RDP is the Remote Desktop Protocol, used to view or take control of remote computers from a central workstation. SSH is Secure Shell, a protocol used to make secure connections to other systems; it replaces protocols such as Telnet. POP3 is the Post Office Protocol (version 3) used with downloading e-mail.

A desktop computer (named workstation22) can't connect to the network. A network card was purchased without documentation or driver discs. Which of the following is the best way to install the network card driver? A. Purchase the disc online and install. B. Run Windows Update to install the drivers. C. From the desktop computer (workstation22), download and install the drivers. D. Copy the driver to a flash drive and install.

Answer: D. You will need to go to another computer, download the driver from the manufacturer's website, copy that to a flash drive, and bring it back to the affected computer. See Chapter 22, "Troubleshooting Wired and Wireless Network Problems," for more information. Incorrect answers: If you have access to another computer, it would be silly to wait for a disc from the manufacturer. And any manufacturer that charges for drivers (or a driver disc) should be ashamed, as should the user who actually purchases the disc! You can't run Windows Update or download drivers from the computer in question because the computer has no network connection; and remember, Windows Update is used to download Microsoft drivers, not other vendors' drivers.

On your server, two drives of a RAID 5 array have failed. What should you do? A. Replace one of the drives and run RAID repair. B. Replace the failed drives and format the RAID array using the quick option. C. Replace one of the failed drives and repair the RAID array using system utilities. D. Replace the failed drives and restore the data from tape backup to the repaired RAID array.

Answer: D. You will need to replace both failed drives (which causes a total RAID 5 array failure, by the way) and restore the entire set of data from tape backup. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Incorrect answers: In a RAID 5 array, one drive can fail and you can still recover from the issue without tape backup (using the RAID parity information), but no more than one can fail. If more than one fails-as in the question's scenario-then you need to restore all data from a previous backup. However, in RAID 6, two drives can fail and it can still recover. Formatting the RAID array is a good idea if you have to recover from backup but not a good idea otherwise because it will make the current data inaccessible. However, the term "quick option" is a Windows term, implying that the RAID array was created in Windows, and is therefore a software-based array. It is recommended that you create hardware-based arrays that connect to a RAID adapter card (or RAID-enabled motherboard). In a hardware-based system such as this, you could repair the array with the system utilities, but again, in this scenario (RAID 5) only if one drive has failed.

John is a PC technician for an organization that has a computer network with 12 computers. Each contains vital information, so each uses static IP addresses (on the 192.168.50.0 network). John just finished troubleshooting a Windows computer that could not access the network. He ascertained (correctly) that the computer needed a new network card. He purchased a plug-and-play card and physically installed the card. He then turned on the computer, noting that the network card's LED link was lit and that there was activity. He then rebooted the computer to Windows and then documented the whole process. Later, his boss tells him that the user is complaining that she cannot access the Internet. Which step of the A+ troubleshooting methodology did John forget to perform? A. Identify the problem. B. Establish a theory of probable cause. C. Test the theory to determine cause. D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. E. Verify full system functionality. F. Document findings, actions and outcomes.

Answer: E. John forgot to verify full system functionality. As I've said many times during the course of the book, always test! And by "test" I mean verify functionality-make sure it works-not "test the theory." With a default installation of a plug-and-play network card, the card will, by default, be set to obtain an IP address automatically. If the computers need to be configured for static IP addresses, this will most likely cause a problem. There might not even be a device or server that is handing out IP addresses on the network. If that is the case, the Windows computer would attempt to self-assign an IP address (an APIPA address starting with 169.254). If that happens, the computer will most definitely not be able to communicate with the gateway-or the Internet, for that matter. And even if there is a DHCP server on the network, the chances are very slim that it is handing out addresses on the 192.168.50.0 network. Most SOHO routers will hand out addresses on the 192.168.0.0 or 192.168.1.0 networks, and that is only if DHCP is enabled. John should have logged in to Windows, ran a ping test, tried to connect to websites with one or more browsers, and so on. Verifying full functionality is very important. Always remember to test every repair thoroughly. See Chapter 17, "Computer Troubleshooting 101," for more information. Incorrect answers: All the steps of the A+ troubleshooting methodology are listed in the answers. John performed each step except for verifying full system functionality.

When placing a mobile device into airplane mode, which of the following features are typically disabled? (Select the two best answers.) A. Wireless B. Cellular data C. Multitouch capability D. Data encryption E. Camera

Answers: A and B. Cellular connections are disabled when a mobile device enters airplane mode, and any other wireless connections as well, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, GPS, and NFC. However, on some devices, some of these other wireless technologies can be turned on individually after the device has been placed in airplane mode. See Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 2," for more information. Incorrect answers: The display's multitouch capabilities will work as normal, but web browsers, e-mail programs, and other apps that require Internet access will appear not to function properly when tapped on and navigated through-because, indeed, they are not functioning at all due to airplane mode. Data encryption will still function, though you won't be able to send that encrypted data anywhere. The camera will work, but posting images and video to a remote source will not function.

You are troubleshooting a printer. Which of the following are common symptoms of printer failure or other printer issues? (Select the two best answers.) A. Vertical lines on the page B. Num Lock indicator lights are on C. Unable to install the printer to the OS D. Failure to document cable and screw locations E. Failure to organize parts

Answers: A and C. Some common symptoms of printer trouble include vertical lines on the page, which would indicate a print drum issue, likely fixed by a toner cartridge replacement or inkjet cartridge calibration. Also, problems installing the printer to an operating system are a symptom of printer trouble. If the printer has failed, the OS will have difficulty seeing it and the printer will have to be repaired before the printer and print driver can be installed to the client computer's OS. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers." Incorrect answers: Num Lock (Number Lock) indicator lights are displayed on laptop and PC keyboards. If a laptop's Num Lock indicator light is on, it will probably be difficult for a user to log in to the system. Instead of the user typing the regular password, a mixture of unwanted letters and numbers will be typed, causing the login to fail. Of course, this is not a common symptom of printer failure but could be the cause for a failed login. Failure to document cable and screw locations and the failure to organize parts could make reassembly of a printer or laptop difficult. These failures could possibly even be reasons why the printer or laptop fails, but they wouldn't be symptoms of the problem. When troubleshooting, be sure to understand the difference between a symptom of a problem and a cause of a problem. And of course, think carefully about the best solution to the problem!

One of your co-workers has opened a trouble ticket concerning paper jams on a laser printer. The paper jams have become more frequent of late. You decide to attempt to re-create the problem and then check the printer log for more information. Which of the following are the most likely solutions to the problem? (Select the two best answers.) A. Clean and inspect the entire paper path. B. Clean the fuser roller and verify fuser operation. C. Clean and replace the paper out sensor. D. Use a printer maintenance kit to replace parts. E. Replace the paper exit assembly switch. F. Clean and inspect the print drum.

Answers: A and D. You should clean and inspect the entire paper path first. This costs nothing; plus, by clearing out any papers within the path, you will often solve the problem, at least temporarily, if not permanently. Also, use the corresponding printer maintenance kit to replace worn parts. The parts from these kits should be installed every 100,000 to 200,000 pages printed (depending on the printer). Older worn parts can often lead to paper jamming, and is the most likely answer, especially if the problem has been getting worse of late. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," for more information. Incorrect answers: Paper jams don't usually occur in the fusing assembly, but it is a possibility. Of course, you should wait 10 to 15 minutes for the fuser to cool before cleaning or replacing it. (Don't forget to make sure the printer is turned off and unplugged.) Replacing other components such as sensors and switches (if they exist) is less common. It is also uncommon to clean and inspect the print drum; instead, you would simply replace the toner cartridge. However, this concerns problems such as streaking, marks, and ghosting more than it does paper jams.

Of the following, which components are the most important in a virtualization server? (Select the two best answers.) A. Maximum memory B. High-end sound card C. High-end video card D. Dual-rail 1000w PSU E. Quad-core CPU

Answers: A and E. A virtualization computer (especially a virtualization server) requires memory and a powerful multicore CPU above all else. Because virtual machines require a lot of raw resources, maximum memory and maximum-core CPUs are the most important items for virtualization workstations. See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: High-end sound cards and video cards are typical in gaming computers and audio/video editing workstations. High-end video cards are also common in CAD/CAM computers (which, by the way, also require a lot of RAM and CPU power.) A dual-rail PSU is one that has two amperage outputs instead of just one; this is common in today's PSUs. 1000 watts is quite a high amount and is required by computers with a lot of powerful components, such as gaming computers.

Which of the following computer components connect directly to the CPU or northbridge? A. Video card B. Hard drive C. Audio D. Fan E. RAM

Answers: A and E. The video card and RAM are situated in such a way so that they can connect quickly to the CPU or to the northbridge. On newer Intel systems, the northbridge is actually part of the CPU. The video card connects by way of PCI Express ×16 or ×4 slots. The RAM connects via the address bus. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," and Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: The hard drive and audio connect to the southbridge; in newer Intel systems, they connect directly to the single chip within the chipset (which is still referred to as a southbridge.) Fans are physically connected to the motherboard; any functionality is controlled by the UEFI/BIOS.

You are tasked with building a high-end gaming PC and need to select the right power supply. Which features should you be looking for? (Select the three best answers.) A. Large number of connectors B. 20-pin power connector C. 24-pin power connector D. Mini-ITX form factor E. Dual 12 V rails F. 400 watts

Answers: A, C, and E. You should be looking for a high number of connectors because gaming PCs will often have multiple video cards, hard drives, and so on. You should also look for a 24-pin main power connector as opposed to a 20-pin. Finally, look for a multirail system. This distributes the power used (and gaming PCs use a lot of power) and avoids overheating on the rails. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: The 20-pin main power connector is the older ATX style that is not often used today. Mini-ITX is good for smaller computing systems, but the form factor simply doesn't allow for the space necessary for most gaming PCs. 400 watts is not nearly enough power for a high-end gaming PC; the number will be double that or more.

A monitor's on-screen display (OSD) indicates that the proper video source has been selected, yet no image is displayed. Which of the following are the most likely causes? (Select the two best answers.) A. The monitor's brightness setting is too low. B. The monitor's backlight has failed. C. There is no device sending video. D. The source cable has been disconnected. E. The monitor's contrast setting is too high.

Answers: C and D. The most likely answers here are that there is no device sending video (such as a video card) or that the source cable has been disconnected (for example, from the computer's video card to the monitor). Always check the connections on both ends, and make sure that the computer (the video source) is on and booting properly. See Chapter 20, "Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The brightness and contrast settings are not likely to cause a no-image issue. On most monitors you can reduce the brightness to zero but still see the image on the screen. Likewise, you can increase the contrast to 100 (or whatever maximum number is used) and still see the image on the screen. It is not possible for the monitor's backlight to have failed because you can see in the OSD that the proper video source has been selected. The OSD would not be visible (or would only be barely visible with a flashlight) if the backlight had failed. Again, it is much more likely that there is a connectivity or source video problem. Always check the connections first!

Which of the following should be used when building a high-end graphics workstation for CAD applications? (Select the two best answers.) A. An IDE drive B. More than four accessible USB 3.0 ports C. Main memory of 16 GB or more D. A 32-bit OS for the large amount of expected drive I/O E. A PCIe video card with a large amount of memory

Answers: C and E. The most important components in a CAD workstation are maximized RAM, high-end video, and an SSD (as well as a good multicore CPU). See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: IDE drives are not seen much anymore, because they are an older technology that is not nearly as fast as SATA. It is more likely that the system will use internal SATA 3.0 drives, or NVMe-based drives (or perhaps SATA Express drives). The USB ports are not as important on a CAD workstation. More likely, the system will run a 64-bit OS, not 32-bit.

You are setting up a network for a small office with 30 computers and one server. The server will be used as a file sharing device, a print server, and will act as the domain controller. What kind of addresses should you assign to the server? (Select the two best answers.) A. DHCP B. MAC C. Static IP D. Dynamic IP E. Subnet mask

Answers: C and E. Unless a company has a lot of servers, then the servers will usually be assigned static IP addresses, as opposed to being dynamically assigned those IP addresses by a DHCP server. When you manually configure the TCP/IP properties of a computer you are required to enter the IP address and a subnet mask; for example, IP: 192.168.1.100 and subnet mask: 255.255.255.0. Often times, you will also configure a gateway address and a DNS server address, though they might not be required. The great thing about the static IP address is that you know what it is because you assigned it; you can enter it into your network documentation knowing that it will not change. DHCP-assigned addressed can change from time to time, depending on how the DHCP scope was configured. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration," for more information. Note There is one glaring issue in this question's scenario. Ever heard of the phrase "putting too many eggs in one basket"? That's exactly what is happening here. The server is doing everything: it's a domain controller, a file server, a print server, and who know what else. While small companies sometimes have to make do with the resources at hand, it would be wise to separate one or more of these services and place them on a second server. Incorrect answers: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)-as a rule of thumb-is not used for servers in a small company. Dynamic IPs are handed out by the DHCP server to client computers. The MAC address is the hexadecimal address that is programmed into the firmware of the network adapter at the manufacturing plant; it is not (normally) set by the administrator. A File Transfer Protocol (FTP) address is rather vague-does that mean an IP address or a name? Either way, the scenario didn't mention anything about FTP.