Exam 6

An intern at a large mental health clinic decides to work at another agency and makes appointments to see several of her previous clients at her new place of employment. Her actions are: Select one: A. commendable since it makes it possible for the clients to have continuity in therapy. B. ethical as long as adequate supervision is available at the agency. C. unethical because she has previously worked with the clients. D. unethical because the clients are already receiving services from the clinic.

. CORRECT This response is most in line with Standard 10.04. By going ahead and making the appointments, the intern is not taking steps to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict and is not consulting with the other service providers.

In terms of sexual orientation, most men who receive a diagnosis of Transvestic Disorder identify themselves as: Select one: A. solely or predominantly heterosexual. B. solely or predominantly homosexual. C. unequivocally bisexual. D. unequivocally asexual.

Answer A is correct: According to the DSM-5 the majority of men with Transvestic Disorder identify themselves as heterosexual, although some have occasional sexual relations with other men, especially when cross-dressed.

An adult with traumatic brain injury is likely to obtain the lowest scores on which of the following WAIS-IV subtests? Select one: A. Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation B. Block Design, Visual Puzzles, and Picture Completion C. Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing D. Vocabulary, Similarities, and Information

Answer A is correct: The WAIS-IV Technical Manual provides score profiles for various clinical groups. It indicates that individuals in several clinical groups -- e.g., traumatic brain injury, mild Alzheimer's dementia, and ADHD -- obtained the lowest score on the Processing Speed Index, which consists of the Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation subtests.

The Working Memory Index of the WAIS-IV consists of which of the following subtests? Select one: A. Digit Span, Arithmetic, and Letter-Number Sequencing B. Vocabulary, Similarities, Information, and Comprehension C. Symbol Search, Coding, and Cancellation D. Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Visual Puzzles, Figure Weights, and Picture Completion

Answer A is correct: The WAIS-IV provides scores on four Indexes -- Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed. These are the subtests of the Working Memory Index.

Which of the following is true about sleep terrors and sleepwalking? Select one: A. Both occur during REM sleep. B. Both are usually followed by amnesia for the event. C. Both are associated with an impaired homeostatic sleep drive. D. Both are accompanied by difficulty awakening in the morning with morning confusion.

Answer B is correct: In the DSM-5, sleep terrors and sleepwalking are types of Non-Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Arousal Disorder. Both types occur during non-REM sleep and are characterized by amnesia for the episode.

To use two or more categorical variables to predict status on a single categorical variable, you would use which of the following? Select one: A. path analysis B. logit analysis C. multiple regression analysis D. canonical correlation analysis

Answer B is correct: Logit analysis is the appropriate multivariate technique in this situation. If you're familiar with the multivariate techniques described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question through the process of elimination.

When using the DSM-5, level of severity of Intellectual Disability is based on: Select one: A. The individual's score on a standardized intelligence test. B. The individual's adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains. C. The degree of discrepancy between the individual's cognitive and adaptive functioning. D. The degree of discrepancy between the individual's IQ and academic achievement.

Answer B is correct: The DSM-5 distinguishes between four levels of severity for Intellectual Disability - mild, moderate, severe, and profound - and bases them on level of adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.

A researcher wants to compare the effects of four different prevention programs on willingness to use safe-sex practices for sexually active male and female adolescents. Participants will be randomly assigned to one of the four programs and six months later will be asked to indicate if they engaged in safe sex all of the time, some of the time, or never. The appropriate statistical test for analyzing the obtained data is which of the following? Select one: A. one-way ANOVA B. two-way ANOVA C. multiple-sample chi-square test D. single-sample chi-square test

Answer C is correct: This study has two independent variables (prevention program and gender) and one dependent variable (safe-sex practices). While the dependent variable is actually measured on an ordinal scale, no ordinal tests are listed in the responses. It is always possible to treat an ordinal variable as a nominal one but it is not acceptable to treat it as an interval or ratio variable. Of the tests listed in the answer, the multiple-sample chi-square is the best choice.

Augustine, age 5, is in foster care and enrolled in a therapeutic nursery school. He and his older sister were removed from their home after they were found wandering in the park asking people for food and their parents were both found to have a drug problem. While observing Augustine at school, you notice that he impulsively approaches strangers, tends to be overly familiar with people he has just met, and quickly becomes attached to any adult who pays attention to him. Before assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of ______________ to Augustine, you will want to confirm that his symptoms are attributable to ______________. Select one: A. Reactive Attachment Disorder, disinhibited type; developmental delays B. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder; developmental delays C. Reactive Attachment Disorder, disinhibited type; early neglect or deprivation D. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder; early neglect or deprivation

Answer D is correct: Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder involves a pattern of culturally inappropriate and overly familiar behavior with unfamiliar people with evidence that the behavior is related to the experience of extremely insufficient care.

A Type I error occurs when, on the basis of a study's results, a researcher: Select one: A. retains a false null hypothesis. B. rejects a false null hypothesis. C. retains a true null hypothesis. D. rejects a true null hypothesis.

Answer D is correct: For the exam, you want to be familiar with Type I and Type II errors so that you can answer questions like this one. The Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials includes a decision outcome table that might help you memorize the difference between these errors.

To determine if there is a statistically significant pattern in the effect of time on memory for a list of nonsense syllables, you have subjects memorize a list of 15 syllables and then test their memory at 15-minute intervals for the next two hours. The best technique for analyzing the data you have collected is: Select one: A. multiple regression. B. factorial ANOVA. C. orthogonal analysis. D. trend analysis.

Answer D is correct: In this situation, you want to determine if there is a pattern (or "trend") in forgetting the list of nonsense syllables. Of the techniques listed, only trend analysis (a type of analysis of variance that is used when the IV is quantitative) would be useful for determining if there is a pattern or trend in subjects' memory for the list of nonsense syllables over time.

A psychology intern administers tests to clients of a mental health clinic, but her supervisor scores the tests and interprets their results. When preparing the psychological report, the supervisor does not indicate that the intern administered the tests. This is: Select one: A. ethical as long as the client was informed that the examiner is a psychology intern and was given the supervisors name. B. ethical since the supervisor is ultimately responsible for the accuracy of the psychological report. C. unethical since the intern should not be administering psychological tests. D. unethical since the intern should be listed as the examiner in the report.

Answer D is correct: This issue is not directly addressed in the Ethics Code or the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing. Therefore, to answer this question, you must consider which response is most consistent with the "spirit" of these documents. This response is most consistent with the provisions of the APA guidelines. See, for example, Standard 5.01(b) of the Ethics Code, which prohibits psychologists from making misleading statements, and Standard 6.06, which requires psychologists to provide accurate information to payors and funding sources.

When using the DSM-5, a clinician would code which of the following to indicate that a client has symptoms that do not meet the diagnostic criteria for a specific disorder but does not want to specify the reason why? Select one: A. [Disorder] not otherwise specified B. [Disorder] provisional C. other specified disorder D. unspecified disorder

Answer D is correct: When using the DSM-5, diagnostic uncertainty about a client's diagnosis is indicated by coding one of the following: Other specified disorder is coded when the clinician wants to indicate the reason why the client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis (e.g., "other specified depressive disorder, recurrent brief depression"); and unspecified disorder is coded when the clinician does not want to indicate the reason why the client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis (e.g., unspecified depressive disorder).

The parent of a one-year-old says her daughter shows signs of understanding some of what is said to her. However, the girl is still babbling and the closest she has come to a word is "dadada." You: Select one: A. advise the parent that this is within the range of normal language development. B. tell the parent that most children don't speak their first words until 16 or 17 months of age. C. refer the parent and her daughter to a speech pathologist for an evaluation of the child's language ability. D. consider the possibility of a diagnosis of Expressive Language Disorder.

At 12 months of age, children still babble, although their babbling consists primarily of identical sound sequences ("dadada"). While many children have spoken their first words by this age, it is not uncommon for first words to appear in subsequent months. a. CORRECT The child's language development is "on track."

Implicit memory is involved in: Select one: A. remembering where you were on your last birthday. B. buttoning your shirt when you get dressed in the morning. C. solving a simple arithmetic problem "in your head." D. studying for the licensing exam.

B. buttoning your shirt when you get dressed in the morning.

If a health care provider is faced with a conflict between state law and the HIPAA requirements: Select one: A. state law would preempt the HIPAA requirements. B. the health care provider should respond based on the best interests of the client. C. the HIPAA requirement would preempt state law when it provides the client with greater privacy protection or control over access to his/her records. D. the health care provider has the discretion to resolve the issue in any appropriate manner.

The HIPAA Privacy Rule provides a Federal floor of privacy protections for individuals' individually identifiable health information where that information is held by a covered entity or by a business associate of the covered entity. State laws that are contrary to the Privacy Rule are preempted by the Federal requirements, unless a specific exception applies. These exceptions include if the State law (1) relates to the privacy of individually identifiable health information and provides greater privacy protections or privacy rights with respect to such information, (2) provides for the reporting of disease or injury, child abuse, birth, or death, or for public health surveillance, investigation, or intervention, or (3) requires certain health plan reporting, such as for management or financial audits. In these circumstances, a covered entity is not required to comply with a contrary provision of the Privacy Rule

An evaluator wants to assess the benefits received by client participation in a program. Which approach to program evaluation should they use? Select one: A. Goals-based B. Process-based C. Outcomes-based D. Assistance-based

The correct answer is C. Outcomes-based program evaluation focuses on identifying and evaluating the benefits gained by participation in a program, and is typically used for evaluation of non-profit programs. Goals-based evaluations focus on how well the program is achieving set objectives, so answer A is incorrect. Process-based evaluations regard the effectiveness of the programs systems and structures, so answer B is incorrect. Answer D, assistance-based, is not an approach to program evaluation and thus is incorrect.

Which of the following are related to the psychology of oppression? Select one: A. Strength, learning, knowledge, and cultural individuality. B. Perceptions, willpower, self-surrender, and power status. C. Apathy, individualism, loss of identity, and group think. D. Motivation, emotions, ambitions, and ideals.

The correct answer is D. The psychology of oppression consists of: motivation, agency, perception, emotions, ambitions, ideals, reasoning, memory, aesthetics, and morals that accept the oppressive social system, desire it, identify with it, take it for granted as normal and even as ideal, take pleasure in it, defend it, and reject alternatives to it. Answers A, B and C are incorrect as none of these are related to the psychology of oppression other than perception.

Which of the following statements is true about the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition (SB5)? Select one: A. The Full Scale IQ, Verbal IQ, Nonverbal IQ, and Cognitive Indexes have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 16. B. The test is appropriate only for individuals ages 5 through 65. C. It provides scores on four factor indexes -- Working Memory, Verbal Comprehension, Processing Speed, and Perceptual Reasoning. D. Its development was based on a hierarchical model of intelligence that begins with a global "g" factor.

The correct answer is: Its development was based on a hierarchical model of intelligence that begins with a global "g" factor.

Autocorrelation" is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs? Select one: A. Solomon four-group B. repeated measures C. between groups D. double-blind

The correct answer is: repeated measures

Diana Baumrind (1971) and her colleagues describe parenting styles in terms of two dimensions - demandingness and responsiveness. For example, the authoritative style is characterized by: Select one: A. high demandingness, high responsiveness. B. high demandingness, low responsiveness. C. low demandingness, high responsiveness. D. low demandingness, low responsiveness.

a. CORRECT A combination of high demandingness and high responsiveness is characteristic of authoritative parents. Note, however, that the demands of authoritative parents are reasonable and involve setting and enforcing appropriate limits.

In terms of incremental validity, which of the following situations most supports the use of a new predictor? Select one: A. moderate base rate with many applicants and few job openings B. low base rate with many applicants and few job openings C. moderate base rate with few applicants and many job openings D. low base rate with few applicants and many job openings

a. CORRECT A moderate base rate suggests that there's room for improvement and, therefore, that a new predictor is likely to increase decision-making accuracy. Also, the situation is optimal when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio).

Dr. Stanley Stat conducts a meta-analysis of the research on the effects of a behavioral treatment for ADHD for adults and obtains an average effect size (Cohen's d) of .50. Based on these results, he concludes that the effect size for adults is twice the effect size previously reported in a meta-analysis of the research on the effects of this treatment for adolescents. Apparently, the reported effect size for adolescents was: Select one: A. .25. B. .70. C. 1.0. D. -.50.

a. CORRECT A standard deviation of .50 is twice the size of a standard deviation of .25.

A graduate student is extremely anxious about a lecture he has to give to undergraduate students the next morning. To reduce his anxiety, he drinks two beers. According to Steele and Joseph (1990), the student's anxiety will actually increase in this situation if he: Select one: A. relaxes and "does nothing." B. performs a simple task. C. performs a moderately demanding task. D. performs a very demanding task.

a. CORRECT According to Steele and Joseph, alcohol creates a "myopia" in that it restricts the drinker's attention to the most salient aspect of the situation and reduces attention to other, less salient aspects. Consequently, if an intoxicated person engages in a distracting task, he/she will worry less about the anxiety-arousing stimulus (e.g., giving a lecture). Conversely, if the person does not engage in a distracting task, he/she will focus on the anxiety-arousing stimulus and actually become more anxious about it.

When conducting Seligman's Positive Psychotherapy (PPT), a client is asked to keep a daily journal in which he/she lists: Select one: A. three good things that happened each day. B. three good and three bad things that happened each day. C. his/her thoughts about the good and bad things that happened each day. D. at least one positive activity that he/she will engage in the following day.

a. CORRECT Although Positive Psychotherapy does not entirely ignore negative events, as its name implies, it focuses primarily on positive events.

Alcohol-Induced Sleep Disorder most often involves which of the following symptoms? Select one: A. increased wakefulness, restless sleep, and vivid dreams B. abnormal physiological and behavioral symptoms during sleep C. excessively long nocturnal sleep and excessive sleepiness during the day D. difficulty falling and staying asleep with a reduction in REM (dream) sleep

a. CORRECT Although alcohol initially produces sleepiness, this is followed by insomnia, restless sleep, and increased REM sleep, often with vivid, anxiety-laden dreams.

mother is most likely to accurately recall which of the following about her child? Select one: A. birth weight B. ages when first crawled and walked alone C. height at certain ages D. age when read first word

a. CORRECT Although mothers may remember specific information such as grades, height, etc., they most consistently and accurately remember their children's birth weights. b

Members of an outpatient therapy group are likely to rank which of Yalom's therapeutic factors as most important? Select one: A. interpersonal input, catharsis, cohesiveness, and self-understanding B. self-understanding, universality, identification, and instillation of hope C. family re-enactment, catharsis, altruism, and interpersonal input D. interpersonal input, interpersonal output, universality, and identification

a. CORRECT Although the results vary somewhat from study to study, these four factors are usually the most highly rated ones by group therapy members.

The diagnosis of a spinal cord injury generally relies on which of the following? Select one: A. X-ray and MRI or CT B. X-ray and CPAP C. actigraphy and MRI or CT D. actigraphy and PET or SPECT

a. CORRECT An X-ray is often the initial assessment and is used to identify fractures or other injuries to the spine. An MRI or CT is then used to obtain information on injury to the soft tissues of the spine.

A female client says she frequently misperceives things and this has made her anxious about leaving home. For example, she often thinks she sees small animals at work when, in fact, the "animals" are actually inanimate objects such as books, coffee mugs, and office supplies. The woman's misperceptions are best described as: Select one: A. illusions. B. delusions. C. hallucinations. D. depersonalization

a. CORRECT An illusion is a misperception of reality (e.g., misperceiving a coffee mug as a rodent).

There is evidence that, as a group, Asians have unique responses to psychotropic medications in terms of both therapeutic and side effects. Specifically, in comparison to Caucasian patients, Asian patients often: Select one: A. require lower doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects and experience more severe side effects from the same dose. B. require lower doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects but experience less severe side effects from the same dose. C. require higher doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects but experience more severe side effects from the same dose. D. require higher doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects and experience less severe side effects from the same dose.

a. CORRECT As a group, Asians are more sensitive to psychotropic drugs in terms of both therapeutic and side effects. For this reason, the experts generally agree that the best course of action, when starting an Asian patient on a new drug, is to begin with a lower dosage than is recommended for Caucasian patients. See e.g., K. M. Lin and F. Cheung, Mental health issues for Asian Americans, Psychiatric Services, 50(6), 774-780, 1999.

Calculation of the utility of a training program in terms of dollar value includes which of the following? Select one: A. T x d x C B. T - d x C C. T x C - d D. T + C + d

a. CORRECT As shown above, T x d x C is part of the formula for calculating utility.

As defined by Beck, "schemas" are: Select one: A. cognitive structures. B. logical errors. C. innate predispositions. D. automatic interpretations.

a. CORRECT Beck believes that cognitive schemas are the product of biological and environmental phenomena and develop early in life.

Berkowitz (1971) added which of the following to the original frustration-aggression hypothesis? Select one: A. the role of aggressive cues B. the impact of the model's attractiveness C. the role of the individual's level of frustration tolerance D. the likelihood that aggressive behavior will be rewarded or punished

a. CORRECT Berkowitz extended the original theory by proposing that unjustified frustration leads to anger and that this anger is most likely to elicit aggression in the presence of aggressive cues.

Which of the following approaches in family therapy encourages the therapist to develop a "therapeutic triangle" with family members? Select one: A. extended family systems therapy B. communication/interaction family therapy C. adaptive family therapy D. strategic family therapy

a. CORRECT Bowen's extended family systems therapy encourages the therapist to become a member in a therapeutic triangle with two family members (usually the spouses/partners).

n electrolyte imbalance is a possible complication of Bulimia Nervosa. The danger of this complication lies in the fact that it can lead to: Select one: A. cardiac arrhythmia and arrest. B. blood dyscracias. C. permanent memory loss. D. dehydration.

a. CORRECT Electrolyte imbalances caused by vomiting and the use of laxatives and diuretics can have serious consequences, including, in extreme cases, cardiac arrhythmia and arrest

A screening test designed to identify individuals with traumatic brain injury identifies a number of individuals as having brain injury when, in fact, they do not. These individuals are: Select one: A. false positives. B. true positives. C. false negatives. D. true negatives.

a. CORRECT False positives are individuals identified by the screening test as having brain injury when, in fact, they do not.

In treating a client, a practitioner of Reality Therapy would most likely be interested in which of the following? Select one: A. the client's sense of responsibility and needs for power, freedom, and belongingness B. the client's cognitive distortions (e.g., selective inattention, misperceptions) C. the nature of the client's ego state pathology D. the client's level of "response-ability"

a. CORRECT For practitioners of Reality Therapy, behavior is motivated primary by biological and psychological needs (e.g., needs for belongingness, power, and freedom). The ability to fulfill one's needs in a way that doesn't deprive others of the ability to do the same (i.e., in a responsible way) is the goal of therapy.

Longitudinal research by John M. Gottman (1994) has linked criticism, defensiveness, contempt, and stonewalling to a high risk for: Select one: A. divorce in the first seven years following marriage. B. child abuse. C. delinquency in girls in early adolescence. D. acting out behaviors by boys following the divorce of their parents.

a. CORRECT Gottman and his colleagues (1994) have conducted longitudinal research investigating the interactions between married couples that predict divorce. They have found that the combination of criticism, defensiveness, contempt, and stonewalling (which they refer to as the "four horseman of the Apocalypse") is associated with a high risk for early divorce, while the suppression of both positive and negative affect predicts later divorce.

For some patients with type 2 diabetes, acute hyperglycemia can produce: Select one: A. substantial mood and cognitive changes. B. substantial mood changes only. C. substantial cognitive changes only. D. neither substantial mood nor substantial cognitive changes.

a. CORRECT Hyperglycemia refers to elevated blood glucose levels. There is evidence that, for some patients with type 2 diabetes, acute hyperglycemia produces substantial impairments in speed of information processing, working memory, and some aspects of attention as well as decreased happiness and alertness and increased agitation. [A. J. Sommerfield, I. J. Deary, and B. M. Frier, Acute hyperglycemia alters mood state and impairs cognitive performance in people with type 2 diabetes,

With regard to information revealed by a client in the context of the client-therapist relationship, who is the "holder of the privilege"? Select one: A. the client B. the therapist C. the court D. both the client and the therapist

a. CORRECT In all states, the client is ordinarily the holder of the privilege, which means that it is up to the client to decide whether to exercise or waive the privilege.

For children with ADHD, the most common side effect of methylphenidate (Ritalin) is: Select one: A. appetite loss. B. dizziness. C. pruritus. D. headache.

a. CORRECT In children, loss of appetite, abdominal pain, insomnia, and tachycardia are the most common side effects of Ritalin.

In the context of factor analysis, "specificity" refers to: Select one: A. the proportion of variability in a test that has not been explained by the factor analysis. B. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by a single factor. C. the proportion of variability in a test that has been explained by all of the identified factors. D. the proportion of variability in a test that is attributable to measurement error

a. CORRECT In factor analysis, a test's specificity is the variability that is due to factors that are specific to the test and not measured by any other test included in the analysis -- i.e., variability that is not accounted for by the identified factors.

Dr. Blue, a psychologist, is hired by a company to administer tests for the purpose of evaluating current employees to determine if they should be considered for promotion. In this situation: Select one: A. an informed consent from examinees should be obtained. B. an informed consent is not required since the employer is Dr. Blue's "client." C. an informed consent from examinees is not required, although they should be reminded about the limits of confidentiality. D. it is up to Dr. Blue to decide whether any information about the test should be given to examinees.

a. CORRECT In most situations, psychologists obtain informed consents prior to testing from the person being evaluated or his/her legal guardian. Although there are exceptions in certain employment situations, this response is the best of those given.

Research by Kaye, Gendall, and Strober (1998) suggests that food restriction associated with Anorexia Nervosa reduces __________ levels. Select one: A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. dopamine D. glutamate

a. CORRECT Kaye proposes that high levels of serotonin cause anxiety and that starvation reduces tryptophan, which then reduces brain levels of serotonin and temporarily relieves anxiety. See, e.g., W Kay et al., Serotonin neuronal function and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in anorexia and bulimia, Biological Psychiatry, 44(9), 825-838, 1998.

The primary function of the psychology licensing board is best described by which of the following? Select one: A. establishment of minimal standards of competence B. limitation of access to the profession C. protection of the public through the collection of fees for licensure D. the establishment, monitoring, and enforcement of ethical principles

a. CORRECT Licensing boards establish and monitor entry-level qualifications required to offer services to the public for a fee under the title "psychologist"; by doing so, the boards helps ensure competence.

Lawler's (1973) model of facet satisfaction: Select one: A. is similar to equity theory and assumes that job satisfaction is affected by comparisons of one's own inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of others. B. is similar to need hierarchy theory and assumes that job satisfaction is related to the fulfillment of one's most prepotent needs. C. is similar to two factor theory and views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as independent factors. D. is similar to goal setting theory and proposes that participation in the setting of work objectives is crucial for job satisfaction.

a. CORRECT Like equity theory, Lawler's model predicts that workers compare their own input/outcome ratios to the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. When the ratios are the same, the worker is satisfied; when the worker's own ratio is larger than that of comparable others, the worker may feel guilt or other discomfort; and when the worker's ratio is less than that of comparable others, he/she is dissatisfied.

The presence of which of the following symptoms would suggest a diagnosis of Conduct Disorder rather than a diagnosis of Oppositional Defiant Disorder? Select one: A. frequent lying and running away from home B. low frustration tolerance and temper outbursts C. drug use D. onset of symptoms after age 12

a. CORRECT Lying and running away are characteristic of Conduct Disorder. Behaviors associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder are less severe and include negativism, defiance, and hostility.

Research on the effects of divorce on the parent-child relationship has generally shown that, during the initial period following divorce, the relationship between the custodial parent and his/her child often changes. Specifically, during this period, the custodial mother most often: Select one: A. provides harsher but more inconsistent punishment. B. becomes overindulgent and overpermissive. C. spends more time with her child. D. is more concerned about the effectiveness of her parenting skills.

a. CORRECT Mothers, immediately after divorce, are often more punitive but their punishments are commonly inconsistent.

In Piaget's model of cognitive development, which stage is associated with the development of object permanence? Select one: A. sensorimotor stage B. preoperational stage C. concrete operational stage D. formal operational stage

a. CORRECT Object permanence is an accomplishment associated with the sensorimotor stage. Basic skills are developed during this stage.

A partial seizure is characterized by: Select one: A. a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain with or without a loss of consciousness. B. a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain without a loss of consciousness. C. a focal onset in one hemisphere of the brain with a loss of consciousness. D. a simultaneous onset in both hemispheres of the brain without a loss of consciousness.

a. CORRECT Partial seizures begin in one hemisphere and affect movement and sensations beginning on one side of the body. Simple partial seizures do not affect consciousness, while complex partial seizures do alter consciousness.

Research on parenting styles suggests that parents who are _____________ are most likely to have adolescents who are high in academic achievement. Select one: A. high in both demandingness and warmth B. high in demandingness but low in warmth C. low in demandingness and warmth D. low in demandingness but high in warmth

a. CORRECT Research by Baumrind and others has confirmed that an authoritative parenting style (i.e., a style characterized by a high degree of warmth and demandingess) is most predictive of academic success in adolescence.

From the perspective of Prochaska and DiClemente's (1984) transtheoretical model of change, the failures of treatment programs for cigarette smoking are often due to the fact that: Select one: A. the majority of smokers are not ready to change. B. cigarette-smoking is self-reinforcing and difficult to extinguish. C. nicotine addiction has a genetic component. D. interventions do not address the environmental cues that trigger relapse.

a. CORRECT Research by Prochaska and colleagues has shown that a majority of individuals with addictions are in the precontemplation or contemplation stage and, therefore, are ambivalent about change. For these individuals, most interventions will be unsuccessful.

When a test has high sensitivity, this means that there is a: Select one: A. low chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives. B. low chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives. C. high chance of false negatives and high chance of false positives. D. high chance of false negatives and low chance of false positives.

a. CORRECT Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with the condition who are correctly identified by the test and is calculated by dividing the true positives by the true positives plus false negatives. When the sensitivity is high, this means that most of the people with the disorder will be identified as having the disorder by the test (i.e., there will be few false negatives) but that there will be some people without the disorder who will also be identified as having the disorder (i.e., there will be some false positives).

Dr. Bill sets his clients' fees on the basis of a "sliding scale" that is based on their current income. This practice is: Select one: A. acceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code. B. unacceptable but not explicitly mentioned in the Ethics Code. C. explicitly recommended in the Ethics Code. D. explicitly prohibited in the Ethics Code.

a. CORRECT Sliding scale fees are generally considered acceptable as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client.

Social loafing is most likely to occur when members of a team are less productive than individual members would have been working alone because: Select one: A. they believe their lack of effort will not be recognized by others. B. they experience a diminished sense of self-awareness while in the presence of others. C. the mere presence of others produces a level of arousal that interferes with productivity. D. they experience an enhancement of pre-existing tendencies.

a. CORRECT Social loafing is the tendency of people to exert less effort when working as a member of a group than they would exert when working alone. It has been attributed to the belief that one's effort (or lack of effort) will not be recognized or that group outcomes do not depend on one's effort.

A therapist relying on a solution-focused family therapy approach would be most interested in which of the following? Select one: A. miracle and scaling questions B. boundary disturbances C. joining and mimesis D. schism and skew

a. CORRECT Solution-focused therapists use various types of questions to identify solutions to a client's problems. The miracle question involves asking what the individual would notice first if, as the result of a miracle, his/her problem is suddenly gone. Scaling questions are used to determine how a client currently feels.

In his theory of career development, Donald Super uses which of the following to pictorially depict the various roles that a person participates in during the course of his/her life? Select one: A. rainbow B. arch C. ladder D. web

a. CORRECT Super's Life Career Rainbow illustrates the various roles people play (e.g., student, parent, worker) and how these roles correspond to a person's life stages.

An aerospace corporation uses the procedure known as multiple cutoff in its employee selection process. As a result, which of the following is most likely to occur? Select one: A. An applicant who obtains very high scores on tests of mathematical and mechanical intelligence will not be hired because he fails a test of verbal intelligence by several points. B. An applicant who scores low on a test of verbal intelligence obtains very high scores on tests of mechanical and mathematical intelligence, so he is hired as an airline mechanic. C. An applicant's score on tests of verbal, mathematical, and mechanical intelligence place him in the lowest of fifteen criterion groups, so he is not hired. D. An applicant's score on a test of mechanical intelligence compares favorably to the scores of successful employees, so he is hired as an airline mechanic.

a. CORRECT The applicant in this case was not hired because he did not pass all of the tests used for prediction. As noted above, when multiple cutoff is used, all of the predictor tests must be passed.

When using in vivo exposure with response prevention: Select one: A. the CS is presented repeatedly without the US. B. the US is presented repeatedly without the CS. C. the CS and US are alternately presented. D. the CS and US are presented simultaneously.

a. CORRECT The assumption underlying the use of in vivo exposure as a treatment for anxiety is that anxiety is a classically-conditioned response in which the anxiety-arousing stimulus (the conditioned stimulus) attained its anxiety-arousing properties by being paired in the past with a stimulus that naturally produced anxiety (the unconditioned stimulus). In vivo exposure involves extinguishing the classically conditioned anxiety response by repeatedly exposing the person to the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US).

When using structural equation modeling, the "fit" between the proposed causal model and the obtained data can be evaluated using the chi-square test for goodness-of-fit. However, one problem with using the chi-square test for this purpose is that: Select one: A. it is very sensitive to the sample size. B. it is very insensitive to the sample size. C. it is difficult to interpret when there are more than three predictors. D. it is difficult to interpret when there are more than three criteria.

a. CORRECT The chi-square test is very sensitive to sample size, with large samples producing statistically significant results even when there is a small difference between the proposed model and the obtained data. Because the goal in using the chi-square test in this situation is to NOT obtain a significant difference (i.e., you want the data to fit the model), a large sample can be problematic.

Freud argued that the "work of the mental apparatus is directed toward keeping the quantity of excitation low." If the mental apparatus is unsuccessful in doing so, the result is likely to be which of the following? Select one: A. anxiety B. ego decompensation C. psychosis D. object-cathexis

a. CORRECT The function of the ego's defense mechanisms, for example, is to keep the conflicts that produce anxiety out of consciousness.

Research on the comorbidity of the eating disorders suggests that the rates of OCD, Social Phobia, and Specific Phobia are: Select one: A. higher in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa than in other individuals and that the onset of the anxiety disorder is most often prior to the onset of the eating disorder. B. higher in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa or Bulimia Nervosa than in other individuals and the onset of the anxiety disorder is most often simultaneous with the onset of the eating disorder. C. higher in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa or Bulimia Nervosa than in other individuals and the onset of the anxiety disorder is most often after the onset of the eating disorder. D. similar in individuals with Anorexia Nervosa or Bulimia Nervosa as the rates for other individuals and the onset is most often simultaneous with the onset of the eating disorder.

a. CORRECT The majority of studies have found that the onset of the anxiety disorder precedes the onset of the eating disorder. See, e.g., W. H. Kaye et al., Comorbidity of anxiety disorders with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, American Journal of Psychiatry, 161, 2215-2221, 2004.

As the result of head trauma, a young man experiences damage to the primary motor cortex in the left cerebral hemisphere. This is most likely to have which of the following effects? Select one: A. loss of voluntary movement in his right hand and fingers B. loss of voluntary movement in his left hand and fingers C. loss of involuntary movement on the right side of his body D. loss of involuntary movement on the left side of his body

a. CORRECT The motor cortex is involved in the regulation of voluntary movements, and damage to this area is most likely to affect voluntary movements in distal parts (e.g., hands and fingers) of the opposite side of the body.

During the first few sessions with a male client, you learn that he has trouble maintaining friendships and is disturbed by this since he doesn't like being alone, has frequent mood shifts, gets very angry about even minor irritations, isn't sure what he wants to do with his life, and has had three different jobs in the past two years. Based on this information, the best diagnosis is: Select one: A. Borderline Personality Disorder. B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder. C. Histrionic Personality Disorder. D. Schizoid Personality Disorder.

a. CORRECT The pattern of instability in mood, relationships, and occupation is characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder.

With regard to empathy in childhood and adolescence, the research has generally found that: Select one: A. females exhibit higher levels of empathy than do males but that females and males both benefit from empathy modeling and training. B. females exhibit higher levels of empathy than do males and that males do not benefit from empathy modeling and training. C. females and males exhibit similar levels of empathy but that females benefit more from empathy modeling and training. D. males exhibit higher levels of empathy than do females but that females benefit more from empathy modeling and training.

a. CORRECT There is evidence that the gender difference in empathy is due, at least in part, to differences in childrearing practices and that, when males and females are exposed to similar empathy modeling and training, the gender gap in empathy decreases. See, e.g., L. A. Haynes and A. W. Avery, Training adolescents in self-disclosure and empathy skills, Journal of Community Psychology, 26(6), 526-530, 1979

A 12-month old baby who has been classified as "insecure/ambivalent" is reunited with his mother in Ainsworth's "Strange Situation." Most likely, this baby will: Select one: A. hit or push his mother when she approaches and continue to cry after she picks him up. B. run away from his mother when she approaches but then cling to her when she picks him up. C. greet his mother but try to avoid her when she attempts to pick him up. D. ignore his mother intially but welcome her attempts to pick him up.

a. CORRECT These behaviors are characteristic of children with a insecure/ambivalent pattern.

A researcher conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as "stimulus generalization" would most likely do which of the following after establishing a conditioned response in her participants? Select one: A. Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS. B. Repeatedly present the CS after a neutral stimulus. C. Repeatedly present the CS without the US. D. Pair presentation of the CS with a second US.

a. CORRECT This procedure would be used to determine the extent of stimulus generalization following classical conditioning.

A researcher conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as "stimulus generalization" would most likely do which of the following after establishing a conditioned response in her participants? Select one: A. Present new stimuli that are similar in varying degrees to the CS. B. Repeatedly present the CS after a neutral stimulus. C. Repeatedly present the CS without the US. D. Pair presentation of the CS with a second US.

a. CORRECT This procedure would be used to determine the extent of stimulus generalization following classical conditioning.

Dr. Chang evaluates the relationship between a child's behavior and rejection of the child by peers by observing the behavior of children previously classified as rejected or non-rejected in free-play situations over several days. During each observation period, Dr. Chang observes the first child on a list for 10 seconds and then records the child's behavior, observes the next child on the list for 10 seconds and records his/her behavior, and so on until all children have been observed. Dr. Chang is using which of the following strategies?

a. CORRECT Time sampling involves observing an individual or group of individuals during prespecified periods of time and, at the end of each observation, recording whether or not the target behavior(s) occurred. Time sampling is usually categorized as a type of interval recording.

_________ is most often used to initially diagnose a cerebral contusion because it is usually available in medical settings, is cost effective, and can be performed quickly. Select one: A. MRI B. CT C. SPECT D. PET

b. CORRECT A CT scan is most commonly used to initially detect a contusion for the reasons stated in this question. See, e.g., B. Lee and A. Newberg, Neuroimagining in traumatic brain imaging, NeuroRx, 2(2), 372-383, 2005.

In organizations, quality circles (QCs): Select one: A. consist of workers who make work-related decisions that were previously made by management. B. consist of workers who make suggestions to management about solutions to work-related problems. C. include a designated internal change agent who is responsible for initiating, guiding, and evaluating a change effort. D. include an external change agent who helps employees adapt to change.

b. CORRECT A feature that distinguishes QCs from other types of work teams is that members of QCs do not make final decisions about solutions to problems but, instead, recommend their solutions to management.

The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) has been implicated in the control of circadian rhythms. The SCN is located in the: Select one: A. thalamus. B. hypothalamus. C. amygdala. D. caudate nucleus

b. CORRECT A good rule of thumb is, "when in doubt, go with the hypothalamus." Although very small in size, the hypothalamus is involved in a variety of important functions including control of circadian rhythms.

When the results of test developer's validity study confirm that her new measure of an attribute correlates highly with an established measure of the same attribute and does not correlate highly with established measures of unrelated attributes, the test developer has evidence of her test's: Select one: A. content validity. B. construct validity. C. internal validity. D. external validity.

b. CORRECT A test has construct validity when it measures the construct (trait or attribute) it was designed to measure. It is established by gathering evidence by, for example, determining if the test has adequate convergent and divergent validity: A test has convergent validity when its scores have high correlations with scores on measures of the same and related constructs, and it has divergent validity when its scores have low correlations with scores on measures of unrelated constructs.

Vestibule training would be most useful: Select one: A. for teaching basic skills to unskilled workers. B. when on-the-job training would be too dangerous. C. when training costs must be kept to a minimum. D. for teaching complex cognitive skills.

b. CORRECT A vestibule is especially useful when on-the-job training would be too dangerous.

According to Cross (2001), an African American adult in which of the following stages of identity development is likely to say that racial discrimination is not a contributor to his problems and that he prefers to see a White therapist? Select one: A. disintegration B. pre-encounter C. emersion D. pseudo-independence

b. CORRECT According to Cross, race has low salience for individuals in the pre-encounter phase. People in this stage are likely to deny the impact of racial oppression and prefer a White therapist.

Weber's law explains why: Select one: A. you perceive objects that are close together as a single stimulus or unity. B. you can be heard when you whisper in a very quiet room but must shout to be heard in a very loud, noisy room. C. you perform better in the presence of others on simple tasks but worse in the presence of others on difficult or complex tasks. D. you feel less pain after banging your elbow when you vigorously rub your elbow or apply heat to it.

b. CORRECT According to Weber's law, the "just-noticeable difference" in a stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus. It explains why a whisper is audible in a quiet room but not in a very noisy room.

The National Campaign on Teen Pregnancy (Kirby, 2001) concluded that which of the following has the strongest evidence of success for reducing teen pregnancy rates? Select one: A. abstinence-only programs B. service learning programs C. school condom distribution programs D. community-wide programs and initiatives

b. CORRECT According to the NCTP, there is now evidence that some programs do, in fact, reduce pregnancy rates. These include service learning programs (e.g., Teen Outreach and Reach for Health Community Service Learning) and comprehensive multi-modal programs (i.e., the Children's Aid Society-Carrera Program). Other authors have similarly concluded that multimodel programs that address a variety of developmental issues (including sexual behaviors) are most effective. Other programs - e.g., abstinence-only, school condom distribution, and community-wide programs - have not been found to have a substantial impact on pregnancy rates [Kirby, C. (2001). Emerging answers: Research findings on programs to reduce teen pregnancy. Summary. Retrieved August 11, 2002 from: www.teenpregnancy.org.]

Vygotsky proposed that which of the following creates a "zone of proximal development" for young children? Select one: A. unconditional positive regard B. make-believe play C. attachment D. extended family

b. CORRECT Although Vygotsky focused primarily on adults and more competent peers as providers of support ("scaffolding") in the zone of proximate development, he also viewed make-believe (symbolic) play as a support system that allows children to act and think in more cognitively complex ways.

According to the APA'sGeneral Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services,the term "psychological services" applies to all of the following except: Select one: A. administration and scoring of psychological tests. B. teaching psychology at a university. C. supervising delivery of psychological services. D. conducting psychotherapy in private practice.

b. CORRECT As noted above, this activity is not defined as a psychological service.

At __________ months of age, infants begin to search for a hidden object but reach for the object in the last place they found it even when they have seen the object moved to another location. Select one: A. 4 to 8 B. 8 to 12 C. 12 to 18 D. 18 to 24

b. CORRECT At about eight months of age, children first provide evidence that they know that objects exist when they are out of view. However, they commit the A-not-B error, which continues to about 12 months of age.

Fairburn's (2008) CBT-E (cognitive-behavioral therapy - enhanced) adds which of the following to traditional cognitive-behavioral therapy for individuals with Bulimia Nervosa? Select one: A. interventions aimed at boundary disturbances B. interventions aimed at interpersonal relationships C. interventions that foster insight into the cause of the disorder D. interventions derived from Rogerian therapy

b. CORRECT C. G. Fairburn's CBT-E incorporates interventions that target perfectionism, low self-esteem, interpersonal factors, and emotional factors (Cognitive behavior therapy and eating disorders, New York, Guilford Publ., 2008).

The expression of some of our traits is restricted by our genetic make-up. In other words, for these traits, genotype restricts phenotype to a small number of outcomes. This is referred to as: Select one: A. equilibration. B. canalization. C. niche-picking. D. epigenesis.

b. CORRECT Canalization occurs when phenotype is restricted by genotype to a small number of developmental outcomes.

According to Donald Super, "career maturity" refers to: Select one: A. the final stage of career development. B. the ability to accomplish the tasks of each stage of career development. C. the ability to make realistic career choices. D. the acquisition of skills needed to successfully perform one's chosen job.

b. CORRECT Career maturity refers to successful accomplishment of the tasks of each stage of career development.

Your new client, Elwood E., age 28, says that, for as long as he can remember, he has had trouble finishing projects because of his tendency to repeatedly check for mistakes and desire to achieve perfection in whatever he does. He says that, because of these tendencies, he received several "incompletes" when he was in college and was fired from his last job. Elwood also reports that he has constant thoughts and impulses that he knows are inappropriate, that make him very anxious, but that he cannot control. He says he's afraid he's going to hurt one of his family members by forgetting to turn off the stove or by accidentally leaving a door or window unlocked at night and that, for this reason, he spends a great deal of time checking and rechecking the stove, doors, and windows. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis or diagnoses for Elwood is/are: Select one: A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Generalized Anxiety Disorder. B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder. C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder and Impulse Control Disorder NOS. D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder only.

b. CORRECT Elwood's preoccupation with perfection and orderliness and the duration of these symptoms ("for as long as he can remember") are characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder. Elwood also has obsessions and compulsions which are not characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder but are symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

An existential therapist is most likely to describe "existential anxiety" as: Select one: A. the result of unresolved intrapsychic conflicts. B. a potential stimulus for growth. C. the result of a boundary disturbance. D. a manifestation of incongruence between self and experience.

b. CORRECT For existential therapists, neurotic anxiety is out of proportion to the situation and can be immobilizing. In contrast, normal (existential) anxiety can serve as a source of motivation to change.

In adults, the early motor symptoms of Huntington's disease most often involve: Select one: A. tingling, numbness, and weakness in one limb. B. repetitive movements in the extremities and face. C. slowness and poverty of movement. D. difficulty swallowing and speaking.

b. CORRECT For many adults, early motor symptoms include rapid, repetitive, involuntary movements in the extremities and face - e.g., "piano-playing" movements of the fingers and facial grimaces.

The most commonly-prescribed drugs for Tourette's syndrome are drugs that: Select one: A. increase dopamine levels. B. block dopamine transmission. C. increase acetylcholine levels. D. block acetylcholine transmission.

b. CORRECT Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug that exerts its effects by blocking the transmission of dopamine. It has been found effective for alleviating the symptoms of Tourette's syndrome in about 70% of patients.

Harry Harlow's research confirmed the importance of which of the following in the development of attachment in infant monkeys? Select one: A. oral gratification B. tactile comfort C. interactional synchrony D. pheromones

b. CORRECT Harlow and his colleagues found that infant monkeys preferred physical contact with a soft terrycloth surrogate mother to contact with a hard wire surrogate that provided food. They concluded that these results indicate that contact (tactile) comfort is most critical for attachment.

he traditional Hawaiian practice of ho'oponopono is best described as a: Select one: A. primary prevention. B. family intervention. C. type of individual psychotherapy. D. method for promoting relaxation.

b. CORRECT Ho'oponopono ("setting it right") is a traditional Hawaiian spiritual healing ritual for restoring harmony among family members by resolving a current conflict or other interpersonal problem. It is a structured process that is led by a senior family member or other respected elder and incorporates prayer, discussions aimed at identifying and resolving the problem, and a closing ceremony.

Which of the following individuals has proposed that organizational culture acts, at least in part, as a defense mechanism that helps organizational members avoid uncertainty and anxiety? Select one: A. Herbert Simon B. Edgar Schein C. Leon Festinger D. Geert Hofstede

b. CORRECT In his book Organizational Culture and Leadership (1992), Schein describes the basic assumptions that underlie an organization's culture as cognitive defense mechanisms. Additional information about Schein's work on organizational culture is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materails.

When factors in a factor matrix are "oblique," this means that: Select one: A. the correlation coefficient for any two factors is equal to zero. B. the correlation coefficient for any two factors is greater than zero. C. the identified factors explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores. D. the identified factors do not explain a statistically significant amount of variability in test scores.

b. CORRECT In the context of factor analysis, oblique means "correlated."

In discussing a depressed client, a therapist says the client's problems are due to the fact that she did not experience normal grief following the death of her mother three years ago. He says that the focus of treatment will be on helping the client go through the grieving process and restore her interests and friendships so that she can overcome her loss. Apparently, this therapist is a practitioner of: Select one: A. rational-emotive therapy. B. interpersonal therapy. C. object-relations therapy. D. reality therapy.

b. CORRECT Interpersonal therapy (IPT) defines four key problem areas presented by depressed patients: grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transition, and interpersonal deficits. These areas are the primary targets of therapy.

During the first session with a client, you learn that he has a history of offenses that you find difficult to deal with and feel, therefore, that you would not like working with him. As an ethical psychologist you should: Select one: A. disregard your personal preferences and accept the young man into therapy. B. refer the young man to another professional. C. accept the young man into therapy but seek supervision. D. tell the young man that you cannot accept him into therapy.

b. CORRECT It is not a violation of the Ethics Code to NOT accept a client into treatment when the psychologist feels that he/she would be unable to form a therapeutic relationship with the client -- and, to do so, would be consistent with Ethics Code Standard 3.04 (Avoiding Harm). Therefore, the best (and most ethical) course of action in this situation is to refer the client to another professional (see Standard 2.06).

Arthur Jensen's (1998) research on sources of variability in IQ indicated that the average IQ difference within families (as measured by the difference in IQs of full siblings living together) is _____ points. Select one: A. 4 B. 11 C. 18 D. 26

b. CORRECT Jensen found that the average IQ difference between siblings in the same family was 11 points, while the average difference in IQs of the same person tested on two occasions a week apart was 4 points. (A. R. Jensen, The g factor: The science of mental ability, Westport, CT, Praeger, 1998.)

Research on the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy with older adults has found that it is: Select one: A. less effective than cognitive-behavioral therapy for younger adults and, consequently, is generally contraindicated. B. usually most effective when it is conducted at a slower pace and at higher levels of abstraction. C. usually most effective when it is short- (versus long) term and conducted at lower levels of abstraction. D. usually most effective when it focuses on replacing negative cognitions with positive ones and on the present rather than on the past.

b. CORRECT Knight and Satre note that older adults generally benefit most from cognitive-behavior therapies when therapy is presented at a slower pace and is conducted at an abstract level (i.e., at a level that focuses on schemas and relationship scripts rather than on simple cognitions).

Lithium is most effective for: Select one: A. Bipolar Disorder with rapid cycling. B. classic Bipolar Disorder. C. Bipolar Disorder with prominent anxiety symptoms. D. Bipolar Disorder with prominent depressive symptoms.

b. CORRECT Lithium is still considered the best choice for classic Bipolar Disorder, while carbamazepine may be more effective for rapid cycling and for dysphoric mania (mania with prominent anxiety or depressive symptoms). Additional information about these drugs is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.

A patient who has been taking antipsychotic medication for a lengthy period of time is being slowly taken off the drug due to the development of tardive dyskinesia. Soon after the drug is completely stopped, the patient exhibits an increase in the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. This: Select one: A. means that the patient should never have been given antipsychotic medication in the first place. B. is common, and the initial increase in symptoms will likely be followed by a reduction. C. suggests that the symptoms are not due to the antipsychotic medication but, instead, to unrelated brain pathology. D. indicates that the patient will not benefit from withdrawal of the drug.

b. CORRECT Many patients show a temporary increase in symptoms of tardive dyskinesia when an antipsychotic drug is withdrawn. However, over time, the symptoms gradually reduce in severity.

In general, peer pressure reaches its peak in intensity during: Select one: A. preadolescence (ages 10 to 13). B. early adolescence (ages 13 to 15). C. middle adolescence (ages 15 to 17). D. late adolescence (ages 17 to 19).

b. CORRECT Peer pressure increases during preadolescence, peaks during early adolescence (ages 13 to 15), and then gradually declines.

Secondary reinforcers are: Select one: A. stimuli that increase a behavior through their accidental pairing with that behavior. B. stimuli that gain their reinforcing value through their association with an unconditioned reinforcer. C. high-frequency behaviors that are used to reinforce low-frequency behaviors. D. reinforcers that are removed (rather than applied) following a behavior.

b. CORRECT Primary (unconditioned) reinforcers are inherently reinforcing, while secondary (conditioned) reinforcers acquire their reinforcing value through their association with one or more primary reinforcers. Money is an example of a secondary reinforcer.

Dr. Bascom, a newly-licensed psychologist, has been hired by a community mental health center. Several months after beginning her job, Dr. Bascom starts treating a college student who experiences severe test anxiety. Although Dr. Bascom took a graduate course in behavior therapy and has had some clinical experience with behavioral techniques, she has never worked with anyone with test anxiety. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Bascom should: Select one: A. review the literature on test anxiety before beginning treatment. B. seek consultation from an experienced colleague and continue working with the client. C. refer the student to another psychologist who has experience in treating test anxiety. D. continue to see the student since she has adequate experience in behavioral techniques.

b. CORRECT Seeking consultation is probably the best course of action in this situation since Dr. Bascom does have experience and training with behavioral techniques. Such a course of action is consistent with Standard 2.01(a), which states that psychologists provide services involving new techniques "based on their education, training, supervised experience, consultation, study, or professional experience."

Self-monitoring is used in cognitive-behavioral therapies: Select one: A. to facilitate diagnosis. B. as both an assessment tool and an intervention. C. to foster feelings of self-efficacy. D. to explore the underlying meaning of events.

b. CORRECT Self-monitoring has been found useful not only as an assessment technique but also as an intervention because it tends to alter the target behavior in the desired direction.

The aspect of memory that is capable of storing a very large amount of information for a very brief period of time is referred to as ________ memory. Select one: A. short-term B. sensory C. primary D. secondary

b. CORRECT Sensory memory contains information collected from all senses but retains that info

Studies comparing bilingual and monolingual children on measures of inhibitory control and cognitive flexibility have generally found that: Select one: A. monolingual children outperform bilingual children on both measures. B. bilingual children outperform monolingual children on both measures. C. monolingual children outperform bilingual children on a measure of inhibitory control but bilingual children outperform monolingual children on a measure of cognitive flexibility. D. bilingual children outperform monolingual children on a measure of inhibitory control but monolingual children outperform bilingual children on a measure of cognitive flexibility.

b. CORRECT Several studies have found that bilingual children do better than monolingual children on measures of inhibitory control and cognitive flexibility. See, e.g., N. Akhtar and J. A. Menjivar, Cognitive and linguistic correlates of early exposure to more than one language, in J. B. Benson (Ed.), Advances in child development and behavior (pp. 41-78), London, Academic Press, 2012.

Sherif et al.'s (1961) "Robber's Cave" study is considered important because of the information it provided on: Select one: A. social facilitation and inhibition. B. competition and cooperation. C. bystander apathy. D. conformity to group norms.

b. CORRECT Sherif and his colleagues found that introducing a superordinate goal that could be accomplished only when members of two groups cooperated was the most effective way for reducing intergroup competition and hostility.

A psychologist investigating short-term memory shows the letter "T" to each research subject for a brief period and, after removing the letter, asks the subject what he or she has seen. The psychologist finds that many subjects report seeing the wrong letter, with the most common error of recall being which of the following letters? Select one: A. L B. D C. S D. F

b. CORRECT Studies similar to the one described in this question have found that errors in short-term memory usually involve a confusion of letters that sound alike, thereby supporting the theory that information is stored acoustically in short-term memory. Of the letters listed in the responses, only "D" sounds like "T".

According to the Health Belief Model, health behavior is related to: Select one: A. a combination of information, motivation, and behavioral skills. B. perceived severity, perceived susceptibility, and perceived benefits. C. habit. D. intentions and perceived norms.

b. CORRECT The Health Belief Model is based on the premise that perceived severity of consequences, perceived susceptibility to consequences, and perceived benefits of preventive behavior all contribute to health behavior.

You conduct an item analysis of the items you plan to include in a new test of computer knowledge. You obtain a p value of .85 for item #47. This indicates that this item: Select one: A. is difficult. B. is easy. C. has poor discrimination. D. has good discrimination.

b. CORRECT The closer the p value is to 1.0, the easier the item since this means that a large proportion of examinees answered the item correctly.

Some research suggests that racial identity has a greater impact than race itself on the therapeutic process. For instance, studies on African American therapy clients suggest they are most likely to prefer an African American therapist when they are in which stage of identity development? Select one: A. pre-encounter B. immersion C. internalization D. autonomy

b. CORRECT The first half of the immersion-emersion phase is characterized by immersion in African American (ethnic) culture. Not surprisingly, people in this phase usually prefer a therapist of their own ethnicity.

From the perspective of structural family therapy, triangulation, parent-child coalition, and detouring are: Select one: A. methods for establishing clearer boundaries. B. methods for maintaining homeostasis. C. types of positive feedback. D. attempts to increase intimacy.

b. CORRECT The function of these three processes is to reduce conflict or stress and thereby maintain the status quo.

The Bonferroni test helps control the experimentwise error rate by: Select one: A. controlling the total number of comparisons that can be made. B. reducing the level of significance for each comparison. C. permitting individual comparisons only after the omnibus test has produced significant results. D. requiring that all comparisons be conducted as two-tailed tests.

b. CORRECT The greater the number of planned comparisons, the greater the likelihood that a Type I error will be made. The Bonferroni test controls this possibility by reducing the level of alpha for each comparison.

The best way to keep two sets of six digits in working memory is to: Select one: A. visualize the digits in a string. B. convert the 12 digits to "chunks." C. connect each digit with a visual image. D. repeat the digits first forward and then backward several times.

b. CORRECT The number of digits exceeds the number of units that can be held in short-term memory. Therefore, it would be necessary to "chunk" the digits into a smaller number of units; e.g., four chunks of three digits each.

The "risky shift phenomenon" is a potential problem when: Select one: A. employees are low in both motivation and ability. B. employees work together to derive a work-related decision. C. a subjective rating scale is used to evaluate employee performance. D. a controversial message is delivered by a highly credible communicator.

b. CORRECT The risky shift is the tendency for decisions made by a group to be less conservative (more risky) than the decisions made by individuals working alone. For additional information on the risky shift and related phenomena, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the AATBS written study materials.

Research on the impact of cultural identification on substance abuse among Native American youth has found that the risk for abuse is: Select one: A. lowest for those who are acculturated into the non-Native American (mainstream) culture. B. lowest for those who can adapt to both Native American and non-Native American cultures. C. highest for those who strongly identify with the Native American culture and reject the non-Native American culture. D. highest for those who do not strongly identify with either the Native American or non-Native American culture.

b. CORRECT The studies have shown that either strong identification with one's own Native American tribe or a bicultural identity is associated with a lower risk for substance use than a strong identification with the mainstream culture only. See, e.g., E. R. Oetting, F. Beauvais, and J. Velarde, Marijuana use by reservation Native American youth, Listening Post (Indian Health Service), 4, 25-28, 1982.

Of the 6 to 10% of adults over 65 who have dementia, what percent have Alzheimer's disease? Select one: A. 85 to 95 B. 65 to 75 C. 40 to 50 D. 20 to 35

b. CORRECT The studies indicate that, of adults over 65 with dementia, between two-thirds to three-fourths have Alzheimer's disease. See, e.g., H. C. Hendrie, Epidemiology of dementia and Alzheimer's disease, American Journal of Geriatric Psychiatry, 6(2 Suppl. 1), S3-18, 1998.

The clinical course of AIDS dementia complex (ADC) is described in the literature in terms of six stages. For example, a person with AIDS who has unequivocal evidence of functional, intellectual, or motor impairment but is able to perform all but the most demanding aspects of activities of daily living and can walk without assistance is in which of the following stages? Select one: A. Stage 0.5 (equivocal/subclinical) B. Stage 1 (mild) C. Stage 2 (moderate) D. Stage 3 (severe)

b. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of Stage 1.

Visual agnosia is best conceptualized as: Select one: A. visual "not caring." B. visual "not knowing." C. visual repression. D. visual blindness.

b. CORRECT The term "agnosia" is derived from the Greek word "agnostos," which means "unknown, unknowable, not knowing."

he most effective intervention for cigarette smoking combines nicotine replacement therapy with: Select one: A. antidepressants and bibliotherapy. B. support from a clinician and skills training. C. covert sensitization and relapse prevention. D. stimulus control and habit reversal training.

b. CORRECT There is evidence that NRT is most effective in terms of long-term effects when it is combined with guidance and support from a mental health professional and skills training that focuses on ways for avoiding and dealing with relapse.

Kurt Lewin (1951) described the process of organizational change as involving three stages. These stages are: Select one: A. plan, act, and evaluate. B. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. C. entry, planning, and action. D. collecting data, providing feedback, and implementing/developing action plans.

b. CORRECT This answer correctly identifies Lewin's three stages.

With regard to power in the client-therapist relationship, a feminist therapist would most likely: Select one: A. recognize that her power stems primarily from her ability to serve as a role-model. B. acknowledge the power differential inherent in the relationship but view it as a temporary condition. C. initially foster her position of power so as to maximize her influence. D. regard power a "non-issue" because feminist therapists consider the therapeutic relationship to be egalitarian.

b. CORRECT This issue is addressed by M. A. Douglas in her chapter entitled "The Role of Power in Feminist Therapy: A Reformulation" [in L. B. Rosewater and L. E. A. Walker (Eds.), Handbook of feminist therapy: Woman's issues in psychotherapy, New York: Springer, 1985]. According to Douglas, the power differential inherent in the therapeutic relationship should, first of all, be acknowledged. It should also be viewed as temporary since the goal of therapy will be to terminate the relationship and/or to readjust the relationship so that it is more egalitarian. Douglas stresses the importance of minimizing the power differential inherent in the therapeutic relationship.

As defined by Aaron Beck, automatic thoughts are: Select one: A. more accessible and less stable than voluntary thoughts. B. spontaneously triggered by a specific circumstance and accompanied by an emotional reaction. C. systematic errors in reasoning that are evident during times of psychological distress. D. always irrational.

b. CORRECT This response is consistent with Beck's definition of automatic thoughts.

woman is told that she has a serious illness for which there is no cure and that it is likely that she will die within six months. From the perspective of Kubler-Ross' stages that dying people pass through, you would expect the woman's first reaction to finding out about her prognosis to be: Select one: A. Why me? B. The test results must be inaccurate. C. I must be being punished for something I did. D. I hate my life anyway, so what difference does it make?

b. CORRECT This statement best reflects denial, the usual initial response to learning of one's impending death.

Tolman's research with rats in mazes confirmed that: Select one: A. noncontingent reinforcement can lead to superstitious behavior. B. reinforcement is not necessary for learning to occur. C. observational learning occurs in non-human animals. D. learning is constrained by biological predispositions.

b. CORRECT Tolman's research indicated that learning of a new behavior (but not necessarily performance of that behavior) occurs without reinforcement. Specifically, his studies of rats in mazes demonstrated that rats formed cognitive maps of the maze even without reinforcement.

The most consistent evidence for neurogenesis in human adults has been provided for which of the following areas of the brain? Select one: A. reticular formation B. hippocampus C. medulla oblongata D. hypothalamus

b. CORRECT Until relatively recently, it was believed that humans do not experience neurogenesis following the postnatal period. However, there is now consistent evidence that neurogenesis continues throughout the lifespan in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb. (See, e.g., P. S. Erikkson et al., Neurogenesis in the adult human hippocampus, Nature Medicine, 4, 1313-1317, 1998.) While there have been some reports of postnatal neurogenesis in the caudate nucleus, amygdala, neocortex, and substantia nigra, these findings have not been consistently replicated.

A supervisor administers a test on the material covered in a training program to employees who have just completed the program in order to assess its effectiveness. Six months later, the same supervisor rates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two sets of scores. She obtains a correlation coefficient of .65. Most likely, the magnitude of the coefficient has been biased by which of the following? Select one: A. shrinkage B. criterion contamination C. a contrast effect D. demand characteristics

b. CORRECT When knowledge of a person's performance on the predictor affects how he/she is rated on the criterion, criterion contamination has occurred and is likely to inflate the criterion-related validity coefficient. A coefficient of .65 is relatively high and may reflect criterion contamination.

When conducting a functional behavioral assessment, a behavior's function is described in terms of: Select one: A. the skills required to perform it. B. the criteria used to measure it. C. its antecedents and consequences. D. its physical characteristics.

c. CORRECT A functional behavioral assessment involves determining the environmental factors (antecedents and consequences) that contribute to its occurrence.

According to Bem's (1972) self-perception theory: Select one: A. our attitudes and behaviors are unrelated. B. our emotions shape (cause) our attitudes and behaviors. C. we infer our attitudes from our behaviors. D. we rely on our attitudes to choose a behavior

c. CORRECT According to Bem, people infer their own attitudes and emotions from their behaviors

Lewin's field theory predicts that: Select one: A. human behavior is due more to physical than to psychological factors. B. a leader's power is directly affected by the characteristics of the task and environment. C. human behavior is a function of both the person and his/her environment. D. a group can be no more effective than its least effective member.

c. CORRECT According to Lewin's field theory, behavior is a function of the person and the environment. He expressed this relationship with the following formula: B = f(P, E).

A client taking Parnate, an MAO-inhibitor, should be warned against eating all of the following except: Select one: A. yogurt. B. soy sauce. C. cottage cheese. D. over-ripe avocados.

c. CORRECT Although cheese should generally be avoided, it is aged and ripe cheeses that are a problem. Cottage cheese and cream cheese are usually acceptable. (The other foods listed contain tyramine and must be avoided.)

Which of the following statements is most consistent with the current understanding of postconcussional syndrome (PCS)? Select one: A. The more severe the head trauma, the more severe and the longer the duration of the symptoms of PCS. B. Most patients who develop PCS never fully recover from the motor and other physical symptoms of the disorder. C. The symptoms of PCS are often due to a combination of organic and psychological factors. D. In most cases, PCS is purely psychological in nature and motivated by a desire for financial compensation.

c. CORRECT Although the etiology of PCS continues to be debated, the experts generally agree that it has both physiological and psychological origins. Psychological factors that contribute to PCS include the individual's subjective interpretation of the injury, premorbid personality characteristics, desire for secondary gain, and access to social support. See, e.g., L. M. Ryan and D. M. Warden, Post concussion syndrome, International Review of Psychiatry, 15(4), 310-316, 2003.

Increasing age is LEAST likely to have which of the following effects on a man's sexual response cycle? Select one: A. The time to achieve an erection will increase. B. Complete penile erection may not occur until just prior to orgasm. C. The resolution phase and refractory period will both increase. D. All of the above occur.

c. CORRECT Although the refractory period begins to increase in the 30s or 40s (and may last for several hours by age 60), the resolution phase actually decreases, with loss of erection following orgasm being quite rapid.

Anosognosia is best described as an impairment in: Select one: A. coordination and balance. B. speech. C. self-awareness. D. visual perception.

c. CORRECT Anosognosia is defined as a deficit in self-awareness and, more specifically, awareness of one's own symptoms.

A(n) __________ would be most likely to agree that the basic structure of memory, attention, and other aspects of cognition are similar throughout the lifespan and that increasing complexity of these abilities during childhood are due to increases in capacity and efficiency. Select one: A. Piagetian B. Vygotskian C. information processing theorist D. ecological systems theorist

c. CORRECT As an example, according to information processing theorists (e.g., Case, 1985; Fischer, 1980), increases in abstract reasoning during adolescence are due to increases in the underlying capacities to attend to information and to hold information in memory.

When working with a client belonging to an ethnic minority group, a White therapist interprets the client's reluctance to disclose personal information as a sign of paranoia. According to Ridley (2005), this therapist is exhibiting which of the following? Select one: A. marginalization B. overidentification C. color blindness D. cultural ambivalence

c. CORRECT As defined by Ridley, color blindness refers to a therapist's "illusion that minority clients are no different than non-minority clients" (p.67). He notes that "color blind" therapists tend to overlook the effects of racism and discrimination and, consequently, view deviations from White middle-class norms as pathological.

A manager engaged in long-range planning for his company is fairly confident about the strategic plan he has developed for the future but has some reservations about its acceptability. In this situation, the approach-avoidance conflict model predicts that, as it gets closer to the time to implement the plan: Select one: A. the positive aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the negative aspects decrease. B. the negative aspects of the plan will increase in strength for the manager while the positive aspects decrease. C. the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both increase in strength for the manager, but the negative aspects will increase more. D. the positive and negative aspects of the plan will both decrease in strength for the manager, but the positive aspects will decrease more.

c. CORRECT As distance from the goal decreases, the strength of both the "approach gradient" and the "avoidance gradient" increases. However, the strength of the avoidance gradient increases more rapidly, meaning that, as you get closer to the goal, the more likely that you will choose to avoid it.

Which of the following is true about the standard error of the mean? Select one: A. It increases as the standard deviation decreases. B. It is not affected by the size of the standard deviation. C. It decreases as sample size increases. D. It decreases as the number of samples increases.

c. CORRECT As sample size increases, the standard error decreases.

Research by Baker and Green (2005) found that, when compared to older adults with chronic pain, younger adults with chronic pain tend to report: Select one: A. more pain intensity but fewer symptoms of depression. B. less pain intensity and fewer symptoms of depression. C. more pain intensity and more symptoms of depression. D. less pain intensity but more symptoms of depression.

c. CORRECT Baker and Green found that, among White and Black adults with chronic pain, adults under 50 reported more depressive symptoms, greater pain intensity, and more problems coping with pain than did those age 50 and over.

When applying Bandura's social learning theory to training in the workplace, you would use which of the following techniques? Select one: A. vestibule training B. job rotation C. behavioral modeling D. miniature job training

c. CORRECT Bandura's social learning theory suggests that behavioral modeling would be an effective job training technique.

The research has found that individual therapy, group therapy, and family therapy are effective treatments for Bulimia Nervosa. With regard to individual therapy, the research has shown that: Select one: A. behavior therapy is superior to either cognitive-behavior therapy or interpersonal therapy in terms of both short- and long-term effects. B. cognitive-behavior therapy is superior to either behavior therapy or interpersonal therapy in terms of both short-term and long-term effects. C. cognitive-behavior therapy is superior to either interpersonal therapy or behavior therapy in terms of short-term effects, but cognitive-behavior therapy and interpersonal therapy are about equally effective in terms of long-term effects. D. behavior therapy, cognitive-behavior therapy, and interpersonal therapy are about equally effective in terms of short-term effects, but cognitive-behavior therapy is superior in terms of long-term effects.

c. CORRECT C. G. Fairburn et al. (Psychotherapy and bulimia nervosa: Long-term effects in interpersonal therapy, behavior therapy, and cognitive-behavior therapy, Archives of General Psychiatry, 50, 419-428, 1993), for example, compared behavior therapy, cognitive-behavior therapy, and interpersonal therapy and found cognitive-behavior therapy to be superior in terms of short-term effects. However, a long-term follow-up revealed that cognitive-behavior therapy and interpersonal therapy had similar effects on both eating behaviors and attitudes toward weight and shape.

The primary motor cortex in the left hemisphere controls movement on the __________ side of the body. Select one: A. rostral B. caudal C. contralateral D. ipsilateral

c. CORRECT Contralateral means "located on the opposite side of the body." Most functions of the body are controlled by the opposite side of the brain - e.g., voluntary motor movements on the right side of the body are controlled by motor centers in the left side of the brain.

According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all other aspects, is characteristic of the __________ stage. Select one: A. preconventional B. conventional C. preoperational D. concrete operational

c. CORRECT During the preoperational stage, several limitations (including centration) underlie the child's inability to conserve.

According to Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, the resistance and immersion stage is characterized by: Select one: A. a preference for the dominant group and resistance to being considered a member of a minority group. B. conflicting attitudes toward both the dominant group and one's own group. C. rejection of the dominant group and preference for one's own group. D. active participation in efforts to promote social change that will benefit one's group.

c. CORRECT During the resistance and immersion stage, the individual actively resists the dominant cultural group and becomes immersed in his/her own culture.

A mother of a newborn is most likely to say that, based on the nature of her baby's cry, she can tell if her baby is: Select one: A. hungry, tired, or uncomfortable. B. hungry, thirsty, or tired. C. hungry, angry, or in pain. D. hungry, lonely, or irritable.

c. CORRECT Even very young infants seem to be able to communicate that they are either hungry, angry or in pain by the nature of their cries.

Research using brain imaging techniques has confirmed that repeated exposure to alcohol during prenatal development is most likely to negatively impact the: Select one: A. hypothalamus, thalamus, and parietal lobes. B. medulla, thalamus, and temporal lobes. C. basal ganglia, hippocampus, and frontal lobes. D. brainstem, amygdala, and frontal lobes.

c. CORRECT FAS is characterized by a combination of behavioral and cognitive symptoms including an intellectual disability, impaired attention and memory, hyperactivity, impaired motor coordination, impulsivity, and poor judgment. The areas of the brain listed in this answer mediate some of these functions and are often adversely affected by prenatal exposure to alcohol. Other areas that are commonly affected include the corpus callosum, cerebellum, and hypothalamus.

When using the split-half method to estimate the reliability of a 100-item speed test: Select one: A. the split of the test into halves should be done in a random way. B. the test should be split so that the first 50 items are grouped together and the second 50 items are grouped together. C. the resulting reliability coefficient will overestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items. D. the resulting reliability coefficient will underestimate the reliability of the test if the split is made on the basis of odd- versus even-numbered items.

c. CORRECT For the exam, be sure to remember that split-half and other forms of internal consistency reliability overestimate the reliability of a speed test.

Phallic is to initiative vs. guilt as latency is to: Select one: A. autonomy vs. shame and doubt. B. identity vs. role confusion. C. industry vs. inferiority. D. generativity vs. stagnation.

c. CORRECT Freud's phallic and Erikson's initiative vs. guilt stages occur at about ages 3 to 6, while Freud's latency and Erikson's industry vs. inferiority stages occur at about ages 6 to 12.

A client you have been seeing for eight months says he wants to quit therapy. He feels that the original problems he came to therapy for have all been resolved. You disagree and feel that there is good reason for the man to continue seeing you. You should: Select one: A. get the client to agree to a few more sessions. B. discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate. C. discuss his reasons for wanting to terminate and your reasons for thinking he should continue. D. let him terminate but let him know he can come back if he desires.

c. CORRECT If you believe it would not be good for the client to quit at this time, you should discuss this with him. If he still wants to leave, then you'd want to assure him that he can come back and/or give him appropriate referrals.

A man who smokes two packs a day says he has decided to stop smoking the day after his birthday, which is two weeks away. According to Prochaska and DiClemente (1992), this man is in which of the following stages of the change process? Select one: A. precontemplation B. contemplation C. preparation D. action

c. CORRECT In the preparation stage, the person has a clear intent to take action in the near future.

For gay and lesbian adolescents, the primary presenting problem at social service agencies is: Select one: A. suicidal ideation. B. drug or alcohol abuse. C. social and emotional isolation. D. academic problems.

c. CORRECT Isolation is frequently cited as a primary problem for gay and lesbian adolescents, and one study found it to be the single-most frequent presenting problem (A. D. Martin and E. S. Hetrick, The stigmatization of the gay and lesbian adolescent, Journal of Homosexuality, 15(1-2), 163-183, 1988).

A licensed psychologist who is working in an isolated rural community finds that some of his clients have problems that are beyond his training and expertise. The psychologist should: Select one: A. continue seeing the clients only if there is no other psychologist available. B. use only those interventions he feels competent to use in treating the clients. C. obtain appropriate consultation by phone. D. refuse to see the clients until he receives adequate training.

c. CORRECT It is perfectly acceptable for psychologists to acquire new skills during the course of their practice as long as they obtain adequate training, supervision, or consultation. Of course, consultation might not be sufficient in certain situations, but, of the responses given, this is the best choice. Note that nothing in the Code suggests that consultation must be in-person.

For Kohler and other Gestalt psychologists, learning is the result of which of the following? Select one: A. the development of mental models B. the formation of associations between stimuli and responses C. the perception of relationships among elements of the problem D. observation and imitation of the behavior of others

c. CORRECT Kohler described insight as a type of relational thinking - i.e., the sudden understanding of relationships among elements of the problem situation.

Longitudinal studies of individuals who receive a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder in adolescence or early adulthood indicate that these individuals often exhibit a reduction or remission in symptoms over time. However, recovery varies for type of symptom, with _________ symptoms showing the least amount of improvement with increasing age. Select one: A. impulsive B. interpersonal C. affective D. cognitive

c. CORRECT Longitudinal studies have found that, by middle age or sooner, most individuals with BPD no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder. The resolution of symptoms varies, however: For example, in a six-year prospective study of 290 patients with BPD, Zanarini et al. found that impulsive symptoms resolved most quickly, affective symptoms were the most chronic, and cognitive and interpersonal symptoms were intermediate in terms of resolution (M. C. Zanarini, F. R. Frankenburg, J. Hennen, and K. R. Silk, The longitudinal course of borderline pathology: 6-year prospective follow-up of the phenomenology of borderline personality disorder, American Journal of Psychiatry, 160, 274-283, 2003).

Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) is considered an effective intervention for severe depression that has not been responsive to other treatments or is accompanied by a high suicide risk. However, ECT also often produces adverse side effects including: Select one: A. patchy anterograde amnesia. B. temporary retrograde amnesia. C. patchy anterograde amnesia and temporary retrograde amnesia. D. permanent retrograde amnesia.

c. CORRECT Memory loss most often involves patchy anterograde amnesia for three to six months post-ECT and retrograde amnesia for events that occurred within several months prior to ECT. In most cases memories of past events eventually return.

Sue and his colleagues (2007) distinguish between three forms of racial microaggression. As described by these investigators, __________ is occurring when a White person says to an African-American individual, "When I look at you, I don't see color" or "There's only one race, the human race." Select one: A. microassault B. microinsult C. microinvalidation D. microinequity

c. CORRECT Microinvalidation refers to "verbal comments or behaviors that exclude, negate, or nullify the psychological thoughts, feelings, or experiential reality of a person of color" (p. 278). "Color blindness" is a type of microinvalidation.

Scoring and interpretation of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) usually involves considering which of the following? Select one: A. form quality and content B. emotional control/lability C. needs and press D. general and specific attitudes

c. CORRECT Most scoring and interpretation systems for the TAT rely on Murray's concepts of needs (internal determinants of behavior), press (environmental determinants of behavior), and thema (interactions between needs and press).

With regard to the termination of professional services, the Ethics Code requires psychologists to: Select one: A. offer to help the client locate alternative services. B. take actions that protect the best interests of the client. C. provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative services. D. take action that is consistent with the reason(s) for the termination.

c. CORRECT None of the responses given is wrong but this one comes closest to the actual language of the Ethics Code and, therefore, is the best answer.

A client says she is upset because her doctor has suggested she undergo tests for a possible hyperactive thyroid. She says she believes that doctors are always looking for excuses to perform unnecessary procedures in order to make more money. You should: Select one: A. read up on hyperthyroidism so that you can give her an informed opinion. B. have her sign a release of information and contact her physician. C. refer her to an endocrinologist to discuss the purpose of the tests. D. explore the source of her hostility toward doctors.

c. CORRECT Of the choices offered, a referral to an endocrinologist most directly meets the woman's needs and addresses the issue of the psychologist's competence, which is the ethical issue that underlies this question. An endocrinologist is qualified to discuss the tests with the woman.

Developmental research has most consistently linked prolonged emotional stress in an expectant mother to which of the following? Select one: A. sudden infant death syndrome B. suppressed immune system in the newborn C. increased crying and irritability in the newborn D. decreased activity levels in the newborn

c. CORRECT Of the responses given, increased crying and irritability in the newborn have been most consistently linked to severe or prolonged stress in the expectant mother.

A first-grade student frequently misbehaves in class. Whenever he does so, his teacher has him stand in the corner for ten minutes. During that time, he often turns around and makes faces at his classmates, and they respond by laughing and talking to him. The boy's misbehavior is being maintained by which of the following? Select one: A. habituation B. satiation C. positive reinforcement D. negative reinforcement

c. CORRECT Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of a stimulus that is applied following the behavior. In this situation, the boy's misbehavior is being maintained by the attention of his peers.

According to the overjustification hypothesis: Select one: A. external rewards increase intrinsic interest. B. intrinsic interest decreases the valuation of external rewards. C. external rewards decrease intrinsic interest. D. intrinsic interest increases the valuation of external rewards.

c. CORRECT Results of research demonstrating this phenomenon have been interpreted in terms of Bem's self-perception theory, which proposes that people make attributions about their own attitudes and feelings by observing their own behaviors. This theory implies that a person observing herself doing something for an external reward would conclude that the external reward, and not intrinsic interest, is the cause of her behavior.

For the treatment of migraine headaches: Select one: A. autogenic training is more effective than thermal biofeedback. B. thermal biofeedback is more effective than autogenic training. C. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is more effective than either treatment alone. D. thermal biofeedback plus autogenic training is no more effective than either treatment alone.

c. CORRECT Several studies have found that this combination of treatments is the best approach for migraine headaches.

__________ predicts that the decision to remain or leave a relationship depends on the relative costs and rewards of that relationship. Select one: A. Social comparison theory B. Self-verification theory C. Social exchange theory D. Gain-loss theory

c. CORRECT Social exchange theory predicts that we're more likely to stay in a relationship when the rewards of the relationship exceed its costs.

If a psychology licensure candidate is believed to have cheated on the psychology licensing exam, he/she will: Select one: A. be allowed to re-take the exam but will be monitored during the process. B. be barred from re-taking the exam for a period of no less than three years. C. be given an opportunity to provide evidence to the licensing board why his/her test score should not be cancelled. D. be required by the Ethics Committee to appear at a formal hearing on the matter within six months.

c. CORRECT Standard 8.11 of the Standards states that, in cases of misconduct by a test taker (e.g., suspected cheating), the test taker should be notified and "given a timely opportunity to provide evidence that the score should not be cancelled or withheld." In addition, Standard 8.13 states that, in this situation, the test taker is entitled to "some form of procedural due process protection." In other words, the test taker must be given an opportunity to respond to the charge and be provided with information about the procedures that will be followed before any action against him/her is taken.

A therapist is most likely to say that which of the following is the most stressful type of client behavior? Select one: A. threats of a malpractice suit B. demands for time and attention C. suicidal statements D. a lack of gratitude

c. CORRECT Surveys of therapists have revealed that suicidal ideation and threats are considered the most stress-producing client behaviors.

Dr. Agape uses a dismantling strategy to identify the "active ingredient" of systematic desensitization. He is most likely to find that which of the following is the critical component? Select one: A. stimulus control B. reciprocal inhibition C. extinction D. behavior rehearsal

c. CORRECT Systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of reciprocal inhibition. However, studies using the dismantling strategy have found that its effects are due to repeated exposure to the CS without the US (i.e., to classical extinction).

In the assessment of cognitive abilities with a standardized test, you would most likely "test the limits": Select one: A. before administering the test using standardized procedures. B. as an alternative to administering the test using standardized procedures. C. after administering the test using standardized procedures. D. whenever it seems appropriate to do so.

c. CORRECT Testing the limits is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized conditions. It is used to obtain additional information about an examinee and may involve providing cues or asking questions.

Which of the following is specifically excluded as a "disability" in the Americans with Disabilities Act? Select one: A. HIV/AIDS B. learning disabilities C. transvestism D. diabetes

c. CORRECT The ADA lists several conditions that do NOT qualify as disabilities. These include transvestism, exhibitionism, gender identity disorder not resulting from a physical impairment, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, and use of illegal drugs.

he results of the Seattle Longitudinal Study found that: Select one: A. Measures of crystallized and fluid intelligence both begin to show substantial age-related declines in the mid- to late-40s. B. Measures of crystallized intelligence show earlier age-related declines than measures of fluid intelligence. C. Measures of perceptual speed and numeric ability begin to show age-related declines sooner than measures of vocabulary and verbal memory. D. Measures of inductive reasoning, spatial orientation, and verbal memory begin to show age-relaed declines in the mid- to late-20s.

c. CORRECT The Seattle Longitudinal Study (which used a cross-sequential design that combined cross-sectional and longitudinal methodologies) found that, overall, intelligence remains relatively stable until the late 60s. However, of the mental abilities, perceptual speed and numeric ability are the first to decline.

For a claim of malpractice: Select one: A. the therapist must have had malevolent intentions and there must be a causal connection between the therapist's acts and the harm suffered by the client. B. the therapist must have had malevolent intentions and/or there must be some harm to the client as a result of the therapist's acts. C. the therapist may or may not have had malevolent intentions but there must be a causal connection between the therapist's acts and the harm suffered by the client. D. the therapist must have violated normal "standards of practice" or must have had malevolent intentions.

c. CORRECT The psychologist's actions do not have to be malevolent but there must be evidence that the psychologist's actions are the cause of the harm suffered by the client.

When using the survey feedback method in an organization, the purpose of the feedback is to: Select one: A. inform individual employees about their individual areas of strength and weakness. B. inform employees about their progress toward meeting organizational goals. C. provide employees with information about the organization's strengths and weaknesses. D. provide managers with information about employees' strengths and weaknesses.

c. CORRECT The rationale underlying the use of survey feedback is that, for organizational change to be effective, employees must be aware of the organization's current strengths and weaknesses. The technique entails collecting information about the organization (especially its problems) and providing that information to employees who then work together to identify solutions to the problems.

Research investigating the impact of early attachment has most consistently linked the ________ attachment pattern to aggressive behavior problems in childhood. Select one: A. ambivalent B. organized avoidant C. disorganized D. disorganized secure

c. CORRECT The research has most consistently linked aggression to the disorganized attachment pattern. See, e.g., K. Lyons-Ruth, Attachment relationships among children with aggressive behavior problems: The role of early disorganized attachment patterns, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 64(1), 64-73, 1996.

You would be concerned about a selection test's differential validity for males and females when you discover that: Select one: A. the Y-intercept for the regression line is higher for males than for females. B. the X-intercept for the regression line is higher for males than for females. C. the slope of the regression lines for males and females are different. D. females consistently obtain lower scores than males on the predictor.

c. CORRECT The slope of the regression line is directly related to the magnitude of the validity coefficient. If the slopes differ for males and females, this indicates that the validity coefficients are different for males and females.

To determine the degree of association between two continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients? Select one: A. eta B. biserial C. tetrachoric D. contingency

c. CORRECT The tetrachoric correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between two normally distributed continuous variables that have been artificially dichotomized. For example, it would be used to assess the degree of association between treatment outcome and symptom severity, when both variables were originally measured on a continuous scale but were then dichotomized so that outcome is categorized as either successful or unsuccessful and symptom severity is categorized as either mild or severe.

You agree to see an adolescent in therapy. Before you begin therapy, the parents tell you they will want information about how their son is progressing. As an ethical psychologist, you should: Select one: A. tell the boy you'll have to tell his parents everything. B. tell the boy's parents that you can't tell them anything. C. agree in advance with all parties what, if anything, will be revealed to the parents. D. proceed with caution.

c. CORRECT This course of action best meets the psychologist's ethical and legal obligations. An advance agreement safeguards the interests of the adolescent, who would be made aware of the types of information which may not be kept confidential.

You receive a voicemail from a well-respected licensed psychologist in your community who is currently seeing one of your former clients. She says that she has obtained the client's consent and wants you to forward the client's record to her. You should: Select one: A. forward a photocopy (not the original) of the record to her. B. forward only information that you feel is relevant and not obsolete. C. contact the client to obtain a release directly from him. D. wait until you hear directly from the client before taking any action.

c. CORRECT This is the best option of those given. You would want to verify that the client has signed a release and discuss the release and its potential consequences with him before providing the psychologist with the requested information.

Hypnagogic hallucinations are: Select one: A. misperceptions of real stimuli. B. sensations perceived in the wrong sensory modality. C. false perceptions that occur when falling asleep. D. false perceptions associated with hallucinogenic use.

c. CORRECT This is the definition of hypnagogic hallucinations.

You are working as a school psychologist. A teacher asks you to evaluate one of her students. After talking with the teacher and the student, you begin to suspect that the teacher is the one with the problem. As an ethical psychologist, you would: Select one: A. file a formal report with the School Board. B. discuss the problem with the child's parents immediately. C. talk to the teacher about your suspicions. D. report the teacher to the local ethics committee.

c. CORRECT This is the most "conservative" of the responses given and most consistent with the "spirit" of the Ethics Code, which requires psychologists to attempt to informally resolve problems first rather than immediately contacting the ethics committee or other authority.

The function of the state licensing boards is probably best described as: Select one: A. ensuring that psychologists provide clients with effective services. B. ensuring that only competent psychologists become and remain licensed. C. setting entry-level qualifications for licensure and monitoring the conduct of licensed psychologists. D. defining the services that can be legitimately provided by licensed psychologists.

c. CORRECT This is the most accurate description of the function of the licensing boards.

A psychologist is asked to evaluate a prisoner for the purpose of making a recommendation about the prisoner's readiness for parole. To be consistent with ethical guidelines, the psychologist should: Select one: A. refuse to do the evaluation since making a recommendation in this situation is prohibited. B. conduct the evaluation but base his recommendation on the results of standardized tests only. C. conduct the evaluation as long as the prisoner has been told the purpose of the evaluation and has been warned about the limits on confidentiality. D. conduct the evaluation after obtaining a consent from the prisoner's legal representative and report the results without making a recommendation.

c. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.03(a) of the Ethics Code and Paragraph 6.03 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (APA, 2012).

Which of the following would NOT be useful for increasing a test's reliability coefficient? Select one: A. increasing the sample variance B. ensuring that the average p value is close to .50 C. increasing the heterogeneity of the content domain D. increasing the number of items from 50 to 100

c. CORRECT This would have the effect of decreasing the reliability coefficient, especially the coefficient of internal consistency.

Transformational leaders: Select one: A. appeal to the self-interest of their followers. B. help followers recognize that their goals are compatible with the organization's goals. C. induce followers to transcend self-interest for the sake of the organization. D. redefine the organization's goals to better coincide with the self-interest of followers.

c. CORRECT Transformational leaders motivate workers to achieve transcendental goals that go beyond each worker's immediate self-interests.

Administering Ritalin to a child to confirm or rule out a diagnosis of ADHD is: Select one: A. contraindicated since Ritalin increases activity levels and reduces attention in normal children. B. not useful because only a minority of children with ADHD respond to Ritalin. C. not useful since the effects of Ritalin are similar for children with and without ADHD. D. useful, especially in cases where the child's symptoms are highly variable.

c. CORRECT Using a drug is usually not the best strategy for confirming or ruling out a diagnosis. It is not useful in ADHD because, as noted above, individuals with or without the disorder have a similar response to the drug.

The "paired comparison" technique is: Select one: A. a method of job analysis. B. a method of job evaluation. C. a relative measure of job performance. D. an absolute measure of job performance.

c. CORRECT When using the paired comparison technique, all employees are compared to each other in pairs for each dimension of job performance.

A psychologist working for the criminal justice system is asked by the court to evaluate a young man accused of committing a felony. She is told by an attorney who has attempted to interview the man that he has difficulty attending to general directives and that his perceptions of time, place, and people appear to be confused. The psychologist will be required to testify in court regarding her assessment of the young man. In terms of confidentiality, the psychologist is: Select one: A. legally bound to maintain confidentiality unless she obtains a written release from the young mans attorney. B. legally bound to maintain confidentiality unless she obtains a written release from the young man. C. not legally bound to maintain confidentiality but ethically required to inform the young man of the limits of confidentiality. D. not legally bound to maintain confidentiality or ethically required to discuss the limits of confidentiality due to the nature of the case.

c. CORRECT When working within the criminal justice system, a psychologist is serving both the offender and the criminal justice system. In such situations, a psychologist is not legally bound to maintain confidentiality; however, in accordance with Standard 4.02, the psychologist should inform the offender of the limits of confidentiality.

A client you have been seeing in therapy for three months tells you that her former therapist made repeated sexual advances toward her. She tells you that she does not want you to say anything about it to anyone and that she just wants to "get over it." As an ethical psychologist, you should: Select one: A. inform the client that you are ethically obligated to make a report to the state licensing board. B. convince the client that she should make a report to the appropriate authorities. C. tell the client that you will maintain confidentiality. D. tell the client that you must file a complaint with APA but that you will not reveal her name.

c. CORRECT You would not want to make a report unless you had permission from the client.

The impact of social roles on behavior was demonstrated by: Select one: A. Berkowitz's research on the frustration-aggression hypothesis. B. Latane and Darley's research on bystander apathy. C. Zimbardo's prison study. D. Sherif's Robber's Cave study.

c. CORRECT Zimbardo's (1972) prison study demonatrated that, under certain conditions, people will behave in uncharacteristically irrational and unacceptable ways that are consistent with assigned social roles

Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) multi-component model of working memory includes all of the following components except: Select one: A. a phonological loop. B. a visuo-spatial sketchpad. C. a central executive. D. a semantic-abstract processor

d. CORRECT A semantic-abstract processor was not identified by Baddeley and Hitch as a component of working memory.

According to Albert Bandura, modeling (observational learning): Select one: A. teaches new behaviors. B. disinhibits and facilitates behaviors already in one's repertoire. C. provides cues as to the appropriateness of a particular behavior. D. all of the above.

d. CORRECT According to Bandura, modeling serves a number of functions including the ones listed in responses a, b, and c. (And, if you think about it, this makes sense: We learn a lot from observing others.)

Equity theory predicts that a husband will feel best about his marriage if: Select one: A. he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their relationship. B. he perceives that he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their relationship. C. in terms of their relationship, his give/receive ratio is the same as or greater than the give/receive ratio of his wife. D. in terms of their relationship, he perceives that his give/receive ratio is the same as the give/receive ratio of his wife.

d. CORRECT According to equity theory, a person compares his/her input/outcome ratio to that of others. If he/she perceives the ratios to be similar, this has positive effects on satisfaction and motivation.

As defined by Alfred Adler, __________ refers to a person's goals and the ways in which he or she attempts to achieve those goals. Select one: A. homeostasis B. success identity C. self-actualization D. style of life

d. CORRECT Adler believed that each person has a unique set of goals and ways for achieving goals, which he referred to as the person's style of life. According to Adler, a person's style of life is fairly well established by 4 or 5 years of age.

Difficulty in repeating words just spoken by another person and recalling the name of a familiar object are characteristic symptoms of: Select one: A. Wernicke's aphasia only. B. Wernicke's and conduction aphasia only. C. Wernicke's and Broca's aphasia only. D. Wernicke's, Broca's, and conduction aphasia.

d. CORRECT All three types of aphasia involve the two symptoms listed in the question (difficulty in repeating words and recalling the names of familiar objects). Note that conduction aphasia is due to damage to nerve fibers that connect Broca's area to Wernicke's area.

Procedural memory is to declarative memory as: Select one: A. echoic is to iconic. B. fact is to experience. C. explicit is to implicit. D. skill is to fact.

d. CORRECT As its name implies, procedural memory contains memories for procedures - that is, perceptual, cognitive, and motor skills. Declarative memory (which is subdivided into semantic and episodic memory) contains memories for facts and events.

In the 1979 case of Larry P. v. Riles, the judge ruled that IQ tests could no longer be used to: Select one: A. make hiring and other employment decisions. B. make college admission decisions. C. determine if older African American adults should be assigned a legal guardian. D. determine if African American children should be placed in special education classes.

d. CORRECT As noted above, Judge Peckham concluded that standard IQ tests should not be used to assess African American children because their use resulted in too many of these children being placed in "dead-end" (special education) classes

For a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, an individual has to exhibit which of the following? Select one: A. purging following binge eating for at least one month B. binge eating for at least two months C. lack of control over eating plus either purging or excessive exercise for at least two months D. binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months

d. CORRECT As noted above, this is consistent with the diagnostic criteria for this disorder.

When using __________, examinees who obtain scores that fall within a specified range of scores are considered to have received identical scores. Select one: A. top-down selection B. within-group norming C. separate cutoff scores D. banding

d. CORRECT Banding is being used, for example, when a band is defined as 91 to 100 points and examinees who receive scores of 91, 95, and 99 are treated the same

Brousseau and Driver's (1994) notion of "career concept" refers to an individual's: Select one: A. work-related values. B. career-related identity. C. work-related personality characteristics. D. career decisions.

d. CORRECT Career concept refers to an individual's career decisions, which vary along three dimensions: frequency of job change; direction of change; and type of change in job content. Brousseau and Driver distinguish between four career concepts - steady state, linear, spiral, and transitory. See, e.g., K. R. Brousseau and M. J. Driver, Enhancing informed choice: A career-concepts approach to career advisement, Selections, Spring, 24-31, 1994.

When using the technique known as "covert sensitization," the client: Select one: A. is consistently reinforced for engaging in behaviors other than the target (undesirable) behavior during a prespecified period of time. B. imagines a person other than him/herself engaging in variety of alternative (desirable) behaviors. C. repeatedly engages in the target (undesirable) behavior while reinforcement is consistently withheld. D. imagines he/she is engaging in the target (undesirable) behavior and then imagines an aversive consequence for doing so.

d. CORRECT Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning in imagination (versus in vivo) in order to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior.

As a consequence of head trauma caused by a serious car accident, a middle-aged woman experiences a loss of sensation for touch, temperature, and pain in her left hand. Most likely the damage responsible for this deficit is in her right ________ lobe. Select one: A. frontal B. temporal C. occipital D. parietal

d. CORRECT Cutaneous sensation is mediated by the somatosensory cortex, which is located in the parietal lobe

Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by an intellectual disability and extreme obesity. It is caused by which of the following chromosomal abnormalities? Select one: A. an extra chromosome B. a missing chromosome C. a chromosomal translocation D. a chromosomal deletion

d. CORRECT Deletion occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Prader-Willi syndrome and cru-du-chat are two disorders caused by a chromosomal deletion.

According to Super's lifespan model of career development, a major task of the ________ stage is to update one's skills through training. Select one: A. growth B. disengagement C. exploration D. maintenance

d. CORRECT During the maintenance stage, the primary tasks are staying competitive with younger workers by obtaining necessary training and developing plans for retirement.

When using protocol analysis to assess problem-solving in adolescents, a psychologist will ask each adolescent to: Select one: A. assemble a representative set of task assignments that the psychologist will review. B. report the first answer he/she thinks of when presented with a problem. C. describe how he/she determined the solution after working on a problem. D. think aloud while solving a problem.

d. CORRECT Having a person think-aloud while solving a problem, recording the person's verbalizations, and then analyzing the transcript of that recording are the procedures used in protocol analysis.

Employee X is thinking about filing a sexual harassment suit against her boss, Supervisor Y. He makes a habit of complimenting Employee X on how she looks, often with a "wolf whistle" and this makes Employee X feel very uncomfortable. Employee X decides to tell Supervisor Y that she finds his behavior offensive. Supervisor Y says he "means no harm" but that he'll stop if that's what she wants. This situation: Select one: A. represents a sexual harassment suit because Supervisor Y is in a position of authority. B. represents a sexual harassment suit because Supervisor Y's comments have created a hostile work environment for Employee X. C. represents a sexual harassment suit only if it is determined that a "reasonable woman" would find Supervisor Y's behavior offensive. D. does not represent a sexual harassment suit as long as Supervisor Y actually stops making comments about Employee X's appearance.

d. CORRECT If the harassment is not severe and the person stops when asked, it is unlikely that the act would be found to constitute sexual harassment.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Piaget's preoperational stage of development? Select one: A. magical thinking B. insight learning C. finalism D. decentration

d. CORRECT In the preoperational stage, children exhibit centration, or an inability to mentally hold two dimensions at the same time. Decentration occurs in the concrete operational stage and contributes to the ability to conserve.

Studies investigating anxiety over the lifespan suggest that, when compared to younger adults, older adults are: Select one: A. more likely to be misdiagnosed as having an anxiety disorder. B. much less likely to benefit from pharmacotherapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy. C. less likely to have comorbid symptoms of depression. D. more likely to believe their symptoms are due to physical health problems.

d. CORRECT Older adults are more likely than younger adults to attribute their anxiety symptoms to physical health problems and, as a result, to seek help from a medical (versus mental health) professional. See, e.g., M. A. Stanley and J. G. Beck, Anxiety disorders, Clinical Psychology Review, 2000, 20, 731-754.

Transformational leaders: Select one: A. are likely to have a "dark side." B. use their legitimate status to gain compliance. C. appeal to the self-interest of their followers. D. seek to empower their followers.

d. CORRECT One characteristic of transformational leaders is that they attempt to raise the level of consciousness, awareness, and commitment of their followers and to strengthen their ability to control their own destinies.

meta-analysis of the research on expressed emotion and relapse by Butzlaff and Hooley (1998) found that high levels of expressed emotion by family members: Select one: A. are predictive of relapse for patients with schizophrenia but not for patients with a mood or eating disorder. B. are predictive of relapse for patients with a mood disorder or schizophrenia but not for those with an eating disorder. C. are predictive of relapse for patients with an eating disorder or a mood disorder but not for patients with schizophrenia. D. may be somewhat more predictive of relapse for patients with a mood or eating disorder than for patients with schizophrenia.

d. CORRECT R. L. Butzlaff and J. M. Hooley looked at studies investigating the impact of expressed emotion on outcomes for schizophrenia, mood disorders, and eating disorders and found that high expressed emotion by family members was more strongly predictive of relapse for mood and eating disorders than for schizophrenia, although all effect sizes for all three were significant. Specifically, they obtained weighted mean effect sizes for mood disorders, eating disorders, and schizophrenia of, respectively, .39, .51, and .31. (Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, Archives of General Psychiatry 55, 547-552, 1998.)

Eric Erikson proposed that an adolescent who doesn't successfully resolve the psychosocial conflict of identity versus identity confusion due to uncertainty about his/her sexual identity is likely to exhibit which of the following maladaptive responses? Select one: A. compulsion B. inertia C. disdain D. repudiation

d. CORRECT Repudiation is the maladaptive outcome for inadequate resolution of the identity vs. identity confusion conflict.

A practitioner of Rogers's client-centered therapy would use the Q-sort technique to: Select one: A. facilitate identifying a client's diagnosis. B. help the client identify specific therapy goals. C. help identify solutions to a client's presenting problems. D. evaluate a clients progress in therapy.

d. CORRECT Rogers used the Q-sort technique to evaluate therapy progress by evaluating a client's degree of congruence between his/her self and ideal self. This involved having the client first sort the cards in terms of how well they describe the client's current self and then in terms of his/her ideal self. The more similar the two sorts, the greater the congruence between the self and ideal self.

To encourage college students to participate in her research study, Dr. LaPlace offers students free admittance to a popular four-hour workshop ("Finding a Meaningful Relationship and Keeping It") that is offered by a colleage of hers. This policy: Select one: A. is unacceptable since it is coercive and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code. B. is unacceptable since it represents a multiple relationship and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code. C. is unacceptable since it represents a "conflict of interest" and, therefore, violates the provisions of the Ethics Code. D. may be acceptable as long as Dr. LaPlace is careful to clarify any risks, obligations, and so on with the students.

d. CORRECT Standard 8.06(b) of the Code states that in offering professional services as an inducement to potential research participants, "psychologists clarify the nature of the services, as well as the risks, obligations, and limitations.

The psychoanalyst Adolph Stern provided the first organized clinical description of the borderline patient. Of the ten basic characteristics Stern delineated, which of the following did he consider to be the most primary? Select one: A. inhibited aggression B. fixation C. emotional dysregulation D. narcissism

d. CORRECT Stern considered the difficulties experienced by the borderline patient to be secondary to narcissism and viewed narcissism as arising from a serious disturbance in the early mother-child relationship. (Note that other psychoanalytically-oriented theorists have identified other factors as being primary: Kernberg, for example, emphasizes the role of excessive aggression.)

psychologist determines that, for a six-year child, Behavior A is more probable than Behavior B. The psychologist tells the parents to make the child's opportunity to engage in Behavior A contingent on Behavior B. The psychologist is using which of the following techniques? Select one: A. response cost B. shaping C. DRO D. Premack principle

d. CORRECT The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which the reinforcer is a frequently occurring behavior. If you allow yourself to talk on the phone to friends (or watch TV) only after studying for at least one hour, you are using the Premack Principle.

Which of the following information-processing strategies is characteristic of the reintegration status of Helms's (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model? Select one: A. suppression of information and ambivalence B. obliviousness and denial C. flexibility and complexity D. selective perception and negative out-group distortion

d. CORRECT The combination of selective perception and negative out-group distortion is characteristic of the reintegration status. A person in this stage attempts to resolve moral conflicts about racism by idealizing White society and denigrating members of minority groups.

Konrad Lorenz's (1957) research on "imprinting" in ducklings and goslings had the greatest impact on the study of ___________ in human infants. Select one: A. fear and aggression B. gender differences C. sociability D. attachment

d. CORRECT The ethologist Lorenz found that certain birds become attached (bonded) to the first moving object they encounter during the first few days following birth. This finding led to a search for a similar "critical period" for attachment in humans.

Shortly after a school psychologist begins working for a small rural school district, she finds that there are a number of children in a class for students with an Intellectual Disability who are emotionally disturbed but who appear to have an average or above average level of intelligence. The county has no class for emotionally disturbed children. The psychologist should: Select one: A. report the situation immediately to the psychology ethics committee in her state. B. report the situation immediately to the teacher's standards and practices commission in her state. C. threaten to quit if the children are not placed in a regular classroom. D. evaluate each student and recommend an appropriate action regardless of available options.

d. CORRECT The psychologist's first intervention should be to assess each child and make appropriate recommendations. If appropriate actions are not taken by the school, the psychologist will then want to consider other interventions (e.g., talking to the school board, consulting with the ethics committee).

Research on Helms's White Racial Identity Development Model has shown that White therapists are most effective in cross-cultural counseling situations when they are in which stage of identity development? Select one: A. the stage that matches the client's stage of identity development B. the stage that complements the client's stage of identity development C. the reintegration stage D. the autonomy stage

d. CORRECT The research on Helms's model has found that, the more advanced the White therapist's identity development, the greater his/her effectiveness when working with clients from culturally diverse groups.

Difficulties in concentration, forgetfulness, sensitivity to cold, unexplained weight gain, and constipation are symptomatic of: Select one: A. pernicious anemia. B. hyperadrenalism. C. hypoglycemia. D. hypothyroidism.

d. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are all associated with hypothyroidism.

The court offers a defendant the choice of jail or an in-patient alcohol treatment program after he is found guilty of driving while intoxicated. As the clinician who will be working with the man at the treatment center, you should keep in mind that: Select one: A. a waiver of confidentiality is not required because treatment has been court-ordered. B. a waiver of confidentiality is not required because the man gave up his right to confidentiality by committing the crime. C. a waiver of confidentiality is not required because the man gave up his right to confidentiality by choosing the treatment program instead of jail. D. a waiver of confidentiality is required and should be obtained before you release any information about the man's treatment to the court.

d. CORRECT The usual procedure is for the individual to sign a waiver of confidentiality when he/she chooses the treatment option. However, you would want to check to make sure this has occurred and, if not, you would want to obtain a signed waiver. See, e.g., L. C. Sobell and M. B. Sobell, Preserving client rights, New York: The Free Press, 1981.

A nine-year old child with Panic Disorder: Select one: A. has been misdiagnosed because Panic Disorder does not occur in preadolescent children. B. is most likely to manifest his disorder as crying, freezing, and clinging to his parents. C. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, and heart palpitations and saying that he "feels like he's going crazy." D. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, tachycardia, and school refusal.

d. CORRECT These are the symptoms listed for children aged 6 through 12 in M. L. Wolraich (ed.), The classification of child and adolescent mental diagnosis in primary care: Diagnostic and statistical manual for primary care (DSM-PC), Elk Grove Village, IL, American Academy of Pediatrics, 1996.

A worker whose job consists primarily of handling customer complaints will be happier if she blames the customer's problems on: Select one: A. external, stable, and global factors. B. internal, stable, and specific factors. C. external, unstable, and global factors. D. external, unstable, and specific factors.

d. CORRECT This is the best answer since external, unstable, specific attributions are the exact opposite of those associated with depression. It also seems logical that one will experience a better sense of self-efficacy if the problems of customers are controllable and changeable, which they would be if they are due to external, unstable, and specific factors.

The gradual decline in the intensity, frequency, or duration of a response to the repeated presentation of the same punishment or other stimulus is referred to as: Select one: A. satiation. B. inhibition. C. fading. D. habituation.

d. CORRECT This is the definition of habituation.

Dr. Tout, a psychologist, has been asked to serve as a fact witness by the plaintiff's attorney. The plaintiff was in a car accident three months ago and is claiming that he has suffered from persistent emotional problems as a result of the accident. He has been seeing Dr. Tout in therapy for these problems for several weeks. During her testimony in court, Dr. Tout is asked by the plaintiff's attorney whether, in her opinion, the patient's emotional difficulties are directly related to the accident. Dr. Tout should: Select one: A. comply with the request as long as she also presents any information regarding possible limitations of her opinion. B. comply with request only if her evaluation of the defendant has provided her with sufficient information for an informed opinion. C. comply with the request only if the defendant has waived his right to confidentiality. D. not comply with the request unless she is ordered to do so by the court.

d. CORRECT This issue is addressed by T. P. Remley in Preparing for court appearances, American Counseling Association, Alexandria, VA, 1991. Remley notes that a fact witness should not render an opinion at a hearing or trial and, if asked to give an opinion, should note that he/she is not in a position to do so because of potential bias, insufficient information on which to base an opinion, etc. (A psychologist may be required to give an opinion when ordered to do so by the court. However, even in this situation, the psychologist should qualify the opinion with a statement about its potential limitations.)

: Item response theory is considered a useful technique for constructing all of the following types of tests except: Select one: A. criterion-keyed tests. B. tailored (computerized) tests. C. diagnostic or employment screening tests. D. teacher-made (classroom) achievement tests.

d. CORRECT Use of item response theory for test construction requires constructing an "item response curve" for each item. To do so, a large sample of examinees is needed, which would probably not be available for classroom tests. The other types of tests listed have been identified as good candidates for item response theory.

A psychologist is hired by an industrial development corporation to administer tests to help select key personnel. After being hired, the psychologist learns that the corporation is interested in screening potential employees for "homosexual tendencies," and he is asked by company management to administer a projective test for the purpose of assessing sexual orientation. The psychologist should: Select one: A. administer the test to applicants only after obtaining signed informed consents from job applicants. B. administer the test and make recommendations but do not give management the actual test results. C. administer the test and give the results to management since it is not his responsibility to decide what information should be used in making employment decisions. D. refuse to administer the test and explain to management that it is inappropriate to utilize projective tests for this purpose.

d. CORRECT Use of projective tests for this purpose is unethical because (1) projective tests have not been validated as job selection tests and (2) homosexuality has not been shown to be related to job performance. Therefore, using a projective test in the selection process to identify homosexual tendencies violates ethical guidelines.

Which of the following is best conceptualized as a type of aversive counterconditioning? Select one: A. implosive therapy B. overcorrection C. response cost D. covert sensitization

d. CORRECT When using covert sensitization to eliminate an undesirable behavior, the individual imagines an unpleasant (aversive) consequence while imagining that he/she is engaging in the behavior.

Childhood-onset Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: Select one: A. is about equally common in boys and girls. B. is four times more common in girls than boys. C. is two times more common in girls than boys. D. is more common in boys than girls.

d. CORRECT While OCD is about equally common in male and female adults, because of its earlier onset in males, it is more common in male children than in female children.

A caller to a suicide helpline is most likely to be which of the following? Select one: A. an African-American male B. an African-American female C. a White male D. a White female

d. CORRECT Young White females are the most frequent callers to suicide helplines. This is not too surprising since whites make up the largest proportion of the population, and females are at a higher risk than males for both depression and a suicide attempt.