Exam

Since the emergence of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. At present, members of which group are most affected by new cases of HIV? A. Male-to-male sexual contact B. Heterosexual contact C. Male-to-male sexual contact with injection drug use D. People 25 to 29 years of age

ANS: A Rationale: In the United States from 2012 to 2016, male-to-male sexual contact accounted for approximately 67% of new cases, male-to-male contact with injection use 3%, heterosexual contact 24%, and people 25 to 29 years of age 32.9%.

A psychiatric-mental health nurse is caring for a client whose sister and niece were recently killed in a motor vehicle accident. The client is making arrangements for the funerals, and the nurse knows that the client has insight into current stressors. What process is occurring with this client? A. The mediating process is occurring. B. The client is experiencing an expected level of denial. C. The client's awareness of stress makes it more acute. D. The client is emotionally overwhelmed.

ANS: A Rationale: After recognizing a stressor, a person consciously or unconsciously reacts to manage the situation. This is termed the mediating process. Nothing in the scenario indicates the client is either in denial or feeling overwhelmed. Awareness of stress does not necessarily exacerbate it.

The nurse is admitting a client to the medical unit after the client has been transferred from the emergency department. What is the nurse's priority action at this time? A. Meeting the urgent needs of the client B. Checking the admitting health care provider's prescriptions C. Obtaining a baseline set of vital signs D. Allowing the family to be with the client

ANS: A Rationale: Among the nurse's functions in health care delivery, identifying the client's urgent needs and working in concert with the client to address them is most important. The other nursing functions are important, but they are not the most important functions.

The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client suspected of having heart failure. The presence of which sound would tend to confirm the suspicion for heart failure? A. An S3 heart sound B. Pleural friction rub C. Faint breath sounds D. A heart murmur

ANS: A Rationale: An S3 heart sound is a sign that the heart is beginning to fail and that increased blood volume fills the ventricle with each beat. Heart failure does not normally cause a pleural friction rub or murmurs. Changes in breath sounds occur, such as the emergence of crackles or wheezes, but faint breath sounds are less characteristic of heart failure.

The nurse is providing care for a client who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. Which client would have this type of reaction? A. A client with an anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting B. A client with a skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape C. A client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis D. A client with rheumatoid arthritis

ANS: A Rationale: Anaphylactic (type I) hypersensitivity is an immediate reaction mediated by immunoglobulin E antibodies and requires previous exposure to the specific antigen. Skin reactions are more commonly type IV, and myasthenia gravis is thought to be a type II reaction. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

While on spring break, a 22-year-old client was taken to the hospital for heat stroke and alcohol poisoning. The client is worried and states that a biopsy was taken and showed "some kind of benign condition." Which response by the nurse would be best? A. "I understand that you are worried. Benign conditions are noncancerous, but let's look at your chart to see your results." B. "You have every right to be upset; a benign condition means you may have cancerous cells. Let me call your health care provider to talk to you." C. "Are you sure a biopsy was done? Your admitting diagnosis would not prompt that kind of procedure." D. "Do not worry; if something was wrong, your primary health care provider would have told you and started treatment."

ANS: A Rationale: As a therapeutic listener, it is important to acknowledge the client's feelings and try to provide a resolution. Benign conditions are defined as noncancerous, and any treatment ordered would have been known by nursing. There is no reason to doubt the client's word regarding the biopsy, and, in any case, the nurse can confirm that the biopsy was performed by reviewing the client's chart. The client's admitting diagnosis could have promoted this test. Heat stroke and alcohol poisoning could enhance the body's inability to regulate internal temperatures and increase skin damage. The primary care provider may not have had time yet to discuss the details of the finding or to have initiated any treatment necessary. Also, this response does not provide the explanation of what "benign" means.

A client has just had an arthroscopy performed to assess a knee injury. What nursing intervention should the nurse perform following this procedure? A. Wrap the joint in a compression dressing. B. Perform passive range of motion exercises. C. Maintain the knee in flexion for up to 30 minutes. D. Apply heat to the knee.

ANS: A Rationale: Interventions to perform following an arthroscopy include wrapping the joint in a compression dressing, extending and elevating the joint, and applying ice or cold packs. Passive ROM exercises, static flexion, and heat are not indicated.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of acute myelocytic leukemia (AML). Assessment of which factor most directly addresses the most common cause of death among clients with leukemia? A. Infection status B. Nutritional status C. Electrolyte levels D. Liver function

ANS: A Rationale: Because of the lack of mature and normal granulocytes that help fight infection, clients with leukemia are prone to infection. In clients with AML, death typically occurs from infection or bleeding. Symptoms of AML include weight loss, fever, night sweats, and fatigue, which would guide the nurse to monitor the client's nutrition and electrolytes. Gastrointestinal problems (nausea and vomiting) and electrolyte imbalances (hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia) may result from chemotherapy use. The liver is responsible for metabolism and metabolic detoxification, so monitoring liver function is important for the client who is receiving chemotherapy. These problems may contribute to and/or result in death but are not the most common cause.

The nurse is caring for a 71-year-old client who experienced a humeral fracture in a fall. The client is receiving an opioid for pain control. Which principle of pain management for an older adult should the nurse apply? A. Monitor for signs of drug toxicity. B. Assess for an increase in absorption of the drug. C. Monitor for a paradoxical increase in pain. D. Administer higher doses of opioids to relieve pain.

ANS: A Rationale: Because older adults have an increased sensitivity to co-analgesic agents and more comorbidities compared with younger people, the nurse should monitor for drug toxicity. Absorption of drugs is not increased in older adults, nor is there a paradoxical increase in pain. Higher doses of opioids should not be administered to older adults; rather, the dose should be reduced because they are more likely to have adverse effects.

A nurse is planning the care of an older adult client with osteomalacia. What action should the nurse recommend in order to promote vitamin D synthesis? A. Ensuring adequate exposure to sunlight B. Eating a low-purine diet C. Performing cardiovascular exercise while avoiding weight-bearing exercises D. Taking thyroid supplements as prescribed

ANS: A Rationale: Because sunlight is necessary for synthesizing vitamin D, clients should be encouraged to spend some time in the sun. A low-purine diet is not a relevant action, and thyroid supplements do not directly affect bone function. Action must be taken to prevent fractures, but weight-bearing exercise within safe parameters is not necessarily contraindicated.

The nurse, who is a member of the palliative care team, is assessing a client. The client reports saving client-controlled analgesics (PCA) until the pain is intense because pain control has been inadequate. What client education should the nurse give this client? A. Medication should be taken when pain levels are low so the pain is easier to reduce. B. Pain medication can be increased when the pain becomes intense. C. It is difficult to control chronic pain, so this is an inevitable part of the disease process. D. The client will likely benefit more from distraction than pharmacologic interventions.

ANS: A Rationale: Better pain control can be achieved with a preventive approach, reducing the amount of time clients are in pain. Low levels of pain are easier to reduce or control than intense levels of pain. Pain medication is used to prevent pain so pain medication is not increased when pain becomes intense. Chronic pain is treatable. Giving the client alternative methods to control pain is good, but it will not work if the client is in so much pain that they cannot implement reliable alternative methods.

A client with primary hypertension comes to the clinic reporting a gradual onset of blurry vision and decreased visual acuity over the past several weeks. The nurse is aware that these symptoms could be indicative of which condition? A. Retinal blood vessel damage B. Glaucoma C. Cranial nerve damage D. Hypertensive emergency

ANS: A Rationale: Blurred vision, spots in front of the eyes, and diminished visual acuity can mean retinal blood vessel damage indicative of damage elsewhere in the vascular system as a result of hypertension. Glaucoma and cranial nerve damage do not normally cause these symptoms. A hypertensive emergency would have a more rapid onset.

The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client recently admitted with a likely myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse understands that the client's heart is pumping an inadequate supply of oxygen to the tissues. The nurse knows the client is at an increased risk for MI due to which factor? A. Arrhythmias B. Elevated B-natriuretic peptide (BNP) C. Use of thrombolytics D. Dehydration

ANS: A Rationale: Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart's ability to pump blood is impaired and the supply of oxygen is inadequate for the heart and tissues. An elevated BNP is noted after an MI has occurred and does not increase risk. Use of thrombolytics decreases risk of developing blood clots. Dehydration does not lead to MI.

A client with heart failure has met with the primary care provider and begun treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. When the client begins treatment, the nurse would prioritize which assessment? A. Blood pressure B. Level of consciousness (LOC) C. Nausea D. Oxygen saturation

ANS: A Rationale: Clients receiving ACE inhibitors are monitored for hypotension, hyperkalemia (increased potassium in the blood), and alterations in renal function. ACE inhibitors donot typically cause alterations in LOC. Oxygen saturation must be monitored in clients with heart failure, but this is not particular to ACE inhibitor therapy. ACE inhibitors do not normally cause nausea.

A client who has undergone valve replacement surgery is being prepared for discharge home. Because the client will be discharged with a prescription for warfarin, the nurse would educate the client about the need to take which action? A. Undergo regular testing of the International Normalized Ratio (INR). B. Sleep in a semi-Fowler position for the first 6 to 8 weeks to prevent emboli. C. Avoid foods that contain vitamin K. D. Take enteric-coated acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) on a daily basis.

ANS: A Rationale: Clients who take warfarin after valve replacement have individualized target INRs; usually between 2 and 3.5 for mitral valve replacement and 1.8 and 2.2 for aortic valve replacement. Natural sources of vitamin K do not normally need to be avoided and ASA is not indicated. Sleeping upright is unnecessary.

A client who is at high risk for developing intracardiac thrombi has been placed on long-term anticoagulation. Which aspect of the client's health history creates a heightened risk of intracardiac thrombi? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Infective endocarditis C. Recurrent pneumonia D. Recent surgery

ANS: A Rationale: Intracardiac thrombi are especially common in clients with atrial fibrillation, because the atria do not contract forcefully and blood flows slowly and turbulently, increasing the likelihood of thrombus formation. Endocarditis, pneumonia, and recent surgery do not normally cause an increased risk for intracardiac thrombi formation.

A pediatric nurse practitioner is caring for a 2-year-old client who has just been diagnosed with asthma. The nurse has provided the parents with information that includes potential causative agents for an asthmatic reaction. Which potential causative agent that may trigger an attack should the nurse describe? A. Household pets B. Inadequate sleep C. Psychosocial stress D. Bacteria

ANS: A Rationale: Common causative agents that may trigger an asthma attack are as follows: dust, dust mites, pets, soap, certain foods, molds, and pollens. Although some research links inadequate sleep to making asthma worse, it is not a common trigger for attacks. Psychosocial stress is anything that translates to a perceived threat to social status. Stress is listed as a trigger for asthma, but this type of stress is unlikely in a 2-year-old client. A viral, not bacterial, component is linked to asthma triggers.

The nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock following injuries from a motor vehicle accident. In addition to normal saline, which crystalloid fluid should the nurse prepare to administer? A. Lactated Ringer B. Albumin C. Dextran D. 3% NaCl

ANS: A Rationale: Crystalloids are electrolyte solutions used for the treatment of hypovolemic shock. Lactated Ringer and 0.9% sodium chloride are isotonic crystalloid fluids commonly used to manage hypovolemic shock. Dextran and albumin are colloids, but Dextran, even as a colloid, is not indicated for the treatment of hypovolemic shock. The 3% NaCl is a hypertonic solution and is not isotonic.

The nurse is caring for a client in intensive care unit whose condition is deteriorating. The nurse receives orders to initiate an infusion of dopamine. Which assessments and interventions should the nurse prioritize? A. Frequent monitoring of vital signs, monitoring the central line site, and providing accurate drug titration B. Reviewing medications, performing a focused cardiovascular assessment, and providing client education C. Reviewing the laboratory findings, monitoring urine output, and assessing for peripheral edema D. Routine monitoring of vital signs, monitoring the peripheral intravenous site, and providing early discharge instructions

ANS: A Rationale: Dopamine is a sympathomimetic agent that has varying vasoactive effects depending on the dosage. When vasoactive medications are given, vital signs must bemonitored frequently (at least every 15 minutes until stable, or more often if indicated), not "routinely." Vasoactive medications should be given through a central, not peripheral, venous line because infiltration and extravasation of some vasoactive medications can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing. High doses can cause vasoconstriction, which increases afterload and thus increases cardiac workload. Because this effect is undesirable in clients with cardiogenic shock, dopamine doses must be carefully titrated. Reviewing medications and laboratory findings, monitoring urine output, assessing for peripheral edema, performing a focused cardiovascular assessment, and providing client education are important nursing tasks, but they are not specific to the administration of IV vasoactive drugs.

While a client is receiving intravenous (IV) doxorubicin hydrochloride for the treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize which action? A. Stopping the administration of the drug immediately B. Notifying the client's healthcare provider C. Continuing the infusion but decreasing the rate D. Applying a warm compress to the infusion site

ANS: A Rationale: Doxorubicin hydrochloride is a chemotherapeutic vesicant that can cause severe tissue damage. The nurse should stop the administration of the drug immediately and then notify the client's health care provider. Ice can be applied to the site once the drug therapy has stopped.

The nurse is conducting client teaching about cholesterol levels. When discussing the client's elevated LDL and lowered HDL levels, the client shows an understanding of the significance of these levels by making what statement? A. "Increased LDL and decreased HDL increase my risk of coronary artery disease." B. "Increased LDL has the potential to decrease my risk of heart disease." C. "The decreased HDL level will increase the amount of cholesterol moved away from the artery walls." D. "The increased LDL will decrease the amount of cholesterol deposited on the artery walls."

ANS: A Rationale: Elevated LDL levels and decreased HDL levels are associated with a greater incidence of coronary artery disease.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just had an arthroscopy as an outpatient and is getting ready to go home. The nurse should teach the client to monitor closely for what postprocedure complication? A. Fever B. Crepitus C. Fasciculations D. Synovial fluid leakage

ANS: A Rationale: Following arthroscopy, the client and family are informed of complications to watch for, including fever. Synovial fluid leakage is unlikely and crepitus would not develop as a postprocedure complication. Fasciculations are muscle twitches and do not involve joint integrity or function.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone catheter ablation therapy. The nurse in the step-down unit should prioritize what assessment? A. Cardiac monitoring B. Monitoring the implanted device signal C. Pain assessment D. Monitoring the client's level of consciousness (LOC)

ANS: A Rationale: Following catheter ablation therapy, the client is closely monitored to ensure the dysrhythmia does not reemerge. This is a priority over monitoring of LOC and pain, although these are valid and important assessments. Ablation does not involve the implantation of a device.

A clinic nurse is caring for a client admitted with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The nurse has assessed that the client is experiencing a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most likely related to the onset of which complication? A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) encephalopathy B. B-cell lymphoma C. Kaposi sarcoma D. Wasting syndrome

ANS: A Rationale: HIV encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. B-cell lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and fatigue and weight loss are some typical signs and symptoms.

In an acute care setting, the nurse is assessing an unstable client. When prioritizing the client's care, the nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for hypovolemic shock in which of the following circumstances? A. Fluid volume circulating in the blood vessels decreases. B. There is an uncontrolled increase in cardiac output. C. Blood pressure regulation becomes irregular. D. The client experiences tachycardia and a bounding pulse.

ANS: A Rationale: Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume. Cardiac output is decreased, blood pressure decreases, and pulse is fast, but weak.

The nurse educator on an orthopedic trauma unit is reviewing the safe and effective use of traction with some recent nursing graduates. What principle should the educator promote? A. Knots in the rope should not be resting against pulleys. B. Weights should rest against the bed rails. C. The end of the limb in traction should be braced by the footboard of the bed. D. Skeletal traction may be removed for brief periods to facilitate the client's independence.

ANS: A Rationale: Knots in the rope should not rest against pulleys because this interferes with traction. Weights are used to apply the vector of force necessary to achieve effective traction and should hang freely at all times. To avoid interrupting traction, the limb in traction should not rest against anything. Skeletal traction is never interrupted.

A 45-year-old client was diagnosed with schizophrenia at the age of 20. The client is having trouble finding community-based services to help increase their quality of life. Which program would most benefit the client? A. Medicaid B. Tricare C. American Disabilities Act D. Medicare

ANS: A Rationale: Medicaid provides home and community-based services to people with disabilities to enable a better quality of life for them and their families. Tricare is health insurance for uniformed service members, retirees, and their families. The American Disabilities Act of 1990 is a civil law that prohibits discrimination based on a disability. Medicare is a federal health insurance program that is available to most people over 65, people with permanent kidney injury, and certain qualified people with disabilities.

The nurse is teaching a local community group about the importance of disease prevention. Why is the nurse justified in emphasizing disease prevention as a component of health promotion? A. Prevention is emphasized as the link between personal behavior and health. B. Most individuals die of preventable causes. C. International organizations emphasize prevention as the main criterion of health care. D. The external environment affects the outcome of most disease processes.

ANS: A Rationale: Most deaths are not classified as being preventable. HMO priorities do not underlie this emphasis. The external environment affects many disease processes, but the course of illness is primarily determined by factors intrinsic to the client.

A nurse is teaching an client about the risk factors for hypertension. Which factors should the nurse explain as risk factors for primary hypertension? A. Obesity and high intake of sodium and saturated fat B. Diabetes and use of oral contraceptives C. Metabolic syndrome and smoking D. Renal disease and coarctation of the aorta

ANS: A Rationale: Obesity, stress, high intake of sodium or saturated fat, and family history are all risk factors for primary hypertension. Diabetes and oral contraceptives are risk factors for secondary hypertension. Metabolic syndrome, smoking, renal disease, and coarctation of the aorta are causes of secondary hypertension.

A client requires ongoing treatment and infection-control precautions because of an inherited deficit in immune function. The nurse should recognize that this client most likely has which type of immune disorder? A. A primary immune deficiency B. A gammopathy C. An autoimmune disorder D. A rheumatic disorder

ANS: A Rationale: Primary immune deficiency results from improper development of immune cells or tissues. These disorders are usually congenital or inherited. Autoimmune disorders are less likely to have a genetic component, though some have a genetic component. Overproduction of immunoglobulins is the hallmark of gammopathies. Rheumatic disorders do not normally involve impaired immune function.

A client admitted to the medical unit with heart failure is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema. How should the nurse best position the client? A. In a high Fowler position B. On the left side-lying position C. In a flat, supine position D. In the Trendelenburg position

ANS: A Rationale: Proper positioning can help reduce venous return to the heart. The client is positioned upright. If the client is unable to sit with the lower extremities dependent, the client may be placed in an upright position in bed. The supine and Trendelenburg positions will not reduce venous return, lower the output of the right ventricle, or decrease lung congestion. Similarly, side-lying position does not promote circulation.

The critical care nurse is caring for a client with a pulmonary artery pressure monitoring system. In addition to assessing left ventricular function, what is an additional function of a pulmonary artery pressure monitoring system? A. To assess the client's response to fluid and drug administration B. To obtain specimens for arterial blood gas measurements C. To dislodge pulmonary emboli D. To diagnose the etiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: A Rationale: Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is an important tool used in critical care for assessing left ventricular function (cardiac output), diagnosing the etiology of shock, and evaluating the client's response to medical interventions, such as fluid administration and vasoactive medications. Pulmonary artery monitoring is preferred over central venous pressure monitoring for the client with heart failure. Arterial catheters are useful when arterial blood gas measurements and blood samples need to be obtained frequently. Neither intervention is used to clear pulmonary emboli.

The school nurse is presenting a class on smoking cessation at the local high school. A participant in the class asks the nurse about the risk of lung cancer in those who smoke. What response related to risk for lung cancer in smokers is most accurate? A. "The younger you are when you start smoking, the higher your risk of lung cancer." B. "The risk for lung cancer never decreases once you have smoked, which is why smokers need annual chest x-rays." C. "The risk for lung cancer is determined mostly by what type of cigarettes you smoke." D. "The risk for lung cancer depends primarily on the other risk factors for cancer that you have."

ANS: A Rationale: Risk is determined by the pack-year history (number of packs of cigarettes used each day, multiplied by the number of years smoked), the age of initiation of smoking, the depth of inhalation, and the tar and nicotine levels in the cigarettes smoked. The younger a person is when he or she starts smoking, the greater the risk of developing lung cancer. Risk declines after smoking cessation. The type of cigarettes is a significant variable, but this is not the most important factor.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with stage 3 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After assessing the client's gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be the priority? A. Acute abdominal pain B. Diarrhea C. Bowel incontinence D. Constipation

ANS: B Rationale: Diarrhea is a problem in many clients with HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. As such, this nursing diagnosis is more likely than abdominal pain, incontinence, or constipation, though none of these diagnoses is guaranteed not to apply.

A client with secondary hypertension has come into the clinic for a routine check-up. When comparing this client's diagnosis to primary hypertension, the nurse recognizes that secondary hypertension: A. has a specific cause. B. has a more gradual onset than primary hypertension. C. does not normally cause target organ damage. D. does not normally respond to antihypertensive drug therapy.

ANS: A Rationale: Secondary hypertension has a specific identified cause. A cause could include narrowing of the renal arteries, renal parenchymal disease, hyperaldosteronism, certain medications, pregnancy, and coarctation of the aorta. Secondary hypertension does respond to antihypertensive drug therapy and can cause target organ damage if left untreated.

The nursing care plan for a client in traction specifies regular assessments for venous thromboembolism (VTE). When assessing a client's lower limbs, what sign or symptom is suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A. Increased warmth of the calf B. Decreased circumference of the calf C. Loss of sensation to the calf D. Pale-appearing calf

ANS: A Rationale: Signs of DVT include increased warmth, redness, swelling, and calf tenderness. These findings are promptly reported to the health care provider for definitive evaluation and therapy. Signs and symptoms of a DVT do not include a decreased circumference of the calf, a loss of sensation in the calf, or a pale-appearing calf.

A client has been diagnosed with a valvular disorder. The client tells the nurse that the client has read about numerous treatment options, including valvuloplasty. Which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to make regarding valvuloplasty? A. "For some clients, valvuloplasty can be done in a cardiac catheterization laboratory." B. "Valvuloplasty is a dangerous procedure, but it has excellent potential if it goes well." C. "Valvuloplasty is open heart surgery, but this is very safe these days and normally requires only an overnight hospital stay." D. "It's prudent to get a second opinion before deciding to have valvuloplasty."

ANS: A Rationale: Some valvuloplasty procedures do not require general anesthesia or cardiopulmonary bypass and can be performed in a cardiac catheterization laboratory or hybrid room. Open heart surgery is not required and the procedure does not carry exceptional risks that would designate it as being dangerous. Normally there is no need for the nurse to advocate for a second opinion.

The nurse is caring for a client at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the client. What is an example of a first-line measure to minimize atelectasis? A. Incentive spirometry B. Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB) C. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) D. Bronchoscopy

ANS: A Rationale: Strategies to prevent atelectasis, which include frequent turning, early ambulation, lung-volume expansion maneuvers (deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry), and coughing, serve as the first-line measures to minimize or treat atelectasis by improving ventilation. In clients who do not respond to first-line measures or who cannot perform deep-breathing exercises, other treatments such as positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), continuous or intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB), or bronchoscopy may be used.

The nurse walks into a client's room and finds the client sobbing uncontrollably. The client states, "I am so scared. I have never known anyone who goes into a hospital and comes out alive." On the client's care plan, the nurse reads that there is a preexisting nursing diagnosis of Ineffective Coping related to stress. What outcome is most appropriate to this client's care? A. Client will adopt coping mechanisms to reduce stress. B. Client will be stress-free for the duration of treatment. C. Client will avoid all stressful situations. D. Client will be treated with an antianxiety agent.

ANS: A Rationale: Stress management is directed toward reducing and controlling stress and improving coping. The outcome for this diagnosis is that the client needs to adopt coping mechanisms that are effective for dealing with stress, such as relaxation techniques. The other options are incorrect because it is unrealistic to expect a client to be stress-free; avoiding stressful situations and starting an antianxiety agent are not the best answers as outcomes for ineffective coping.

A client uses a wheelchair. The client wants to attend a church-sponsored support group for parents of children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. The client arrives at the church and realizes there are no ramps or elevators to the basement. What type of barrier did this client encounter? A. A structural barrier B. A barrier to health care C. An institutional barrier D. A transportation barrier

ANS: A Rationale: Structural barriers make certain facilities inaccessible. Examples of structural barriers include stairs, lack of ramps, narrow doorways that do not permit entry of a wheelchair, and restroom facilities that cannot be used by people with physical impairments. Institutional barriers are policies, guidelines, or procedures that place certain groups of people at a disadvantage. Transportation barriers are any physical objects that hinder the flow of people moving from one location to another. And health care barriers are described as anything that limits and/or restricts the use of health services.

A client has tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). While providing client teaching, which information should the nurse prioritize? A. The importance of adhering closely to the prescribed medication regimen B. The disease being a lifelong, chronic condition that will affect activities of daily living (ADLs) C. TB being self-limiting but taking up to 2 years to resolve D. The need to work closely with the occupational and physical therapists

ANS: A Rationale: Successful treatment of TB is highly dependent on careful adherence to the medication regimen. The disease is not self-limiting; occupational and physical therapy are not necessarily indicated. TB is curable.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving large volumes of crystalloid fluid to treat hypovolemic shock. In light of this intervention, for what sign or symptom should the nurse monitor? A. Hypothermia B. Bradycardia C. Coffee ground emesis D. Pain

ANS: A Rationale: Temperature should be monitored closely to ensure that rapid fluid resuscitation does not precipitate hypothermia. IV fluids may need to be warmed during the administration of large volumes. The nurse should monitor the client for cardiovascular overload and pulmonary edema when large volumes of IV solution are given. Coffee ground emesis is an indication of a GI bleed, not shock. Pain is related to cardiogenic shock.

The nurse is assessing a client who is known to have right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding is most consistent with this client's diagnosis? A. Pulmonary edema B. Distended neck veins C. Dry cough D. Orthopnea

ANS: B Rationale: Right-sided heart failure may manifest by distended neck veins, dependent edema, hepatomegaly, weight gain, ascites, anorexia, nausea, nocturia, and weakness. The other answers are not characteristic signs of right-sided heart failure.

A client presents to the ED reporting severe substernal chest pain radiating down the left arm. The client is admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). What nursing assessment activity is a priority on admission to the CCU? A. Begin ECG monitoring. B. Obtain information about family history of heart disease. C. Auscultate lung fields. D. Determine if the client smokes.

ANS: A Rationale: The 12-lead ECG provides information that assists in ruling out or diagnosing an acute MI. It should be obtained within 10 minutes from the time a client reports pain or arrives in the ED. By monitoring serial ECG changes over time, the location, evolution, and resolution of an MI can be identified and monitored; life-threatening arrhythmias are the leading cause of death in the first hours after an MI. Obtaining information about family history of heart disease and whether the client smokes are not immediate priorities in the acute phase of MI. Data may be obtained from family members later. Lung fields are auscultated after oxygenation and pain control needs are met.

A nurse is teaching a client with osteomalacia about the role of diet. What would be the best choice for breakfast for a client with osteomalacia? A. Cereal with milk, a scrambled egg, and grapefruit B. Poached eggs with sausage and toast C. Waffles with fresh strawberries and powdered sugar D. A bagel topped with butter and jam with a side dish of grapes

ANS: A Rationale: The best meal option is the one that contains the highest dietary sources of calcium and vitamin D. The best selection among those listed is cereal with milk, and eggs, as these foods contain calcium and vitamin D in a higher quantity over the other menu options.

A nurse is admitting a new client who has been admitted with a diagnosis of COPD exacerbation. How can the nurse best help the client achieve the goal of maintaining effective oxygenation? A. Teach the client strategies for promoting diaphragmatic breathing. B. Administer supplementary oxygen by simple face mask. C. Teach the client to perform airway suctioning. D. Assist the client in developing an appropriate exercise program.

ANS: A Rationale: The breathing pattern of most people with COPD is shallow, rapid, and inefficient; the more severe the disease, the more inefficient the breathing pattern. With practice, this type of upper chest breathing can be changed to diaphragmatic breathing, which reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and sometimes helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Suctioning is not normally necessary in clients with COPD. Supplementary oxygen is not normally delivered by simple face mask and exercise may or may not be appropriate.

A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports a new onset of slight dyspnea. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals bilateral lung crackles and elevated BP. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client closely. B. Discontinue the transfusion and begin resuscitation. C. Pause the transfusion and administer a 250 mL bolus of normal saline. D. Discontinue the transfusion and administer a beta-blocker, as prescribed.

ANS: A Rationale: The client is showing early signs of hypervolemia; the nurse should slow the infusion rate and assess the client closely for any signs of exacerbation. At this stage, discontinuing the transfusion is not necessary. A bolus would worsen the client's fluid overload.

A nurse is caring for a client with Hodgkin lymphoma at the oncology clinic. The nurse should identify what main goal of care? A. Cure of the disease B. Enhancing quality of life C. Controlling symptoms D. Palliation

ANS: A Rationale: The goal in the treatment of Hodgkin lymphoma is cure. Palliation is thus not normally necessary. Quality of life and symptom control are vital, but the overarching goal is the cure of the disease.

A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a client with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurse's care? A. To improve the client's and family's quality of life B. To support aggressive and innovative treatments for cure C. To provide physical support for the client D. To help the client develop a separate plan with each discipline of the health care team

ANS: A Rationale: The goal of palliative care is to improve the client's and the family's quality of life. The support should include the client's physical, emotional, and spiritual well-being. Each discipline should contribute to a single care plan that addresses the needs of the client and family. The goal of palliative care is not aggressive support for curing the client. Providing physical support for the client is also not the goal of palliative care. Palliative care does not strive to achieve separate plans of care developed by the client with each discipline of the health care team.

While planning a client's care, the nurse identifies nursing actions to minimize the client's pleuritic pain. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Administer an analgesic before coughing and deep breathing. B. Ambulate the client at least three times daily. C. Arrange for a soft-textured diet and increased fluid intake. D. Encourage the client to speak as little as possible.

ANS: A Rationale: The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Because deep breathing and coughing prevent atelectasis, the client should be given an analgesic prior to performing these respiratory exercises. A soft diet is not necessarily indicated, and there is no need for the client to avoid speaking. Ambulation has multiple benefits, but pain management is not among them.

The nurse is assessing a client who has a 35 pack-year history of cigarette smoking. In light of this known risk factor for lung cancer, which statement by the client should prompt the nurse to refer the client for further assessment? A. "Lately, I have this cough that just never seems to go away." B. "I find that I don't have nearly the stamina that I used to." C. "I seem to get nearly every cold and flu that goes around my workplace." D. "I never used to have any allergies, but now I think I'm developing allergies to dust and pet hair."

ANS: A Rationale: The most frequent symptom of lung cancer is cough or change in a chronic cough. People frequently ignore this symptom and attribute it to smoking or a respiratory infection. A new onset of allergies, frequent respiratory infections, and fatigue are not characteristic early signs of lung cancer.

A client with mitral stenosis exhibits new symptoms of a dysrhythmia. Based on the pathophysiology of this disease process, the nurse would expect the client to exhibit which heart rhythm? A. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) C. Atrial fibrillation D. Sinus bradycardia

ANS: C Rationale: In clients with mitral valve stenosis, the pulse is weak and often irregular because of atrial fibrillation caused by strain on the atrium. Bradycardia, VF, and VT are not characteristic of this valvular disorder.

An office worker eats a cookie that contains peanut butter. The worker begins wheezing, with an inspiratory stridor and air hunger, and the occupational health nurse is called to the office. The nurse should recognize that the worker is likely suffering from which type of hypersensitivity? A. Anaphylactic (type 1) B. Cytotoxic (type II) C. Immune complex (type III) D. Delayed-type (type IV)

ANS: A Rationale: The most severe form of a hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis. An unanticipated severe allergic reaction that is often explosive in onset, anaphylaxis is characterized by edema in many tissues, including the larynx, and is often accompanied by hypotension, bronchospasm, and cardiovascular collapse in severe cases. Type II, or cytotoxic, hypersensitivity occurs when the system mistakenly identifies a normal constituent of the body as foreign. Immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity involves immune complexes formed when antigens bind to antibodies. Type III is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, certain types of nephritis, and bacterial endocarditis. Delayed-type (type IV), also known as cellular hypersensitivity, occurs 24 to 72 hours after exposure to an allergen.

A nurse is planning an educational event for a local group of citizens who live with a variety of physical and cognitive disabilities. What variable should the nurse prioritize when planning this event? A. Health-promotion needs of the group B. Relationships between participants and caregivers C. Wellness state of each individual D. Learning needs of caregivers

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse must be aware of the participants' specific health promotion needs when teaching specific groups of people with physical and mental disabilities. This is a priority over the relationships between participants and caregivers, each person's wellness state, or caregivers' learning needs.

A gerontologic nurse has observed that clients often fail to adhere to their therapeutic regimen. What strategy should the nurse adopt to best assist an older adult in adhering to a therapeutic regimen involving wound care? A. Demonstrate a dressing change and allow the client to practice. B. Provide a detailed pamphlet on a dressing change. C. Verbally instruct how to change a dressing and check for comprehension. D. Delegate the dressing change to a trusted family member.

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse must consider that older adults may have deficits in the ability to draw inferences, apply information, or understand major teaching points. Demonstration and practice are essential in meeting their learning needs. The other options are incorrect because providing written instructions is not a substitute for a comprehensive teaching plan. Verbally teaching how to change a dressing and then checking for comprehension of the teaching is not as effective as demonstrating a dressing change and observing the client practicing the dressing change. Having a family member change the dressing when the client is capable of doing it impedes self-care and independence.

The home care nurse is assessing the home environment of a client who will be discharged from the hospital shortly after a laryngectomy. The nurse should encourage the client to use which appliance during recovery at home? A. A room humidifier B. An air conditioner C. A water purifier D. A radiant heater

ANS: A Rationale: The nurse stresses the importance of humidification at home and instructs the family to obtain a humidifier before the client returns home. Air conditioning may be too cool and drying for the client. A water purifier or radiant heater is not necessary.

A client who has undergone a femoral to popliteal bypass graft surgery returns to the surgical unit. Which assessments should the nurse perform during the first postoperative day? A. Assess pulse of affected extremity every 15 minutes at first. B. Palpate the affected leg for pain during every assessment. C. Assess the client for signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome every 2 hours. D. Perform Doppler evaluation once daily.

ANS: A Rationale: The primary objective in the postoperative period is to maintain adequate circulation through the arterial repair. Pulses, Doppler assessment, color and temperature, capillary refill, and sensory and motor function of the affected extremity are checked and compared with those of the other extremity; these values are recorded initially every 15 minutes and then at progressively longer intervals if the client's status remains stable. Doppler evaluations should be performed every 2 hours. Pain is regularly assessed, but palpation is not the preferred method of performing this assessment. Compartment syndrome results from the placement of a cast, not from vascular surgery.

A nurse has asked the nurse educator if there is any way to predict the severity of a client's anaphylactic reaction. Which response by the nurse educator would be best? A. "The faster the onset of symptoms, the more severe the reaction." B. "The reaction will be about one-third more severe than the client's last reaction to the same antigen." C. "There is no way to gauge the severity of a client's anaphylaxis, even if it has occurred repeatedly in the past." D. "The reaction will generally be slightly less severe than the last reaction to the same antigen."

ANS: A Rationale: The time from exposure to the antigen to onset of symptoms is a good indicator of the severity of the reaction: the faster the onset, the more severe the reaction. None of the other statements is an accurate description of the course of anaphylactic reactions.

The nurse is caring for a client who has terminal lung cancer and is unconscious. Which assessment finding would most clearly indicate to the nurse that the client's death is imminent? A. Mottling of the lower limbs B. Slow, steady pulse C. Bowel incontinence D. Increased swallowing

ANS: A Rationale: The time of death is generally preceded by a period of gradual diminishment of bodily functions in which increasing intervals between respirations, weakened and irregular pulse, and skin color changes or mottling may be observed. The client will not be able to swallow secretions, so suctioning, frequent and gentle mouth care, and possibly the administration of a transdermal anticholinergic drug are appropriate actions. Bowel incontinence may or may not occur.

A nurse is working with a client with rheumatic disease who is being treated with salicylate therapy. What statement would indicate that the client is experiencing adverse effects of this drug? A. "I have this ringing in my ears that just won't go away." B. "I feel so foggy in the mornings and it takes me so long to wake up." C. "When I eat a meal that's high in fat, I get really nauseous." D. "I seem to have lost my appetite, which is unusual for me."

ANS: A Rationale: Tinnitus is associated with salicylate therapy. Salicylates do not normally cause drowsiness, intolerance of high-fat meals, or anorexia.

A nurse is planning the care of a client who has a long history of chronic pain, which has only recently been diagnosed as fibromyalgia. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this client's care needs? A. Ineffective role performance related to pain B. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to myalgia C. Risk for infection related to tissue alterations D. Unilateral neglect related to neuropathic pain

ANS: A Rationale: Typically, clients with fibromyalgia have endured their symptoms for a long period of time. The neuropathic pain accompanying fibromyalgia can often impair a client's ability to perform normal roles and functions. Skin integrity is unaffected, and the disease has no associated infection risk. Activity limitations may result in neglect, but not of a unilateral nature.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just been told that the client's stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the client the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer? A. Palliative B. Reconstructive C. Salvage D. Prophylactic

ANS: A Rationale: When cure is not possible, the goals of treatment are to make the client as comfortable as possible and to promote quality of life as defined by the client and family. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk to develop cancer.

A client newly diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse what happens when uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged. The nurse explains that a client with prolonged, uncontrolled hypertension is at risk for developing which health problem? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Right ventricular hypertrophy C. Glaucoma D. Anemia

ANS: A Rationale: When uncontrolled hypertension is prolonged, it can result in chronic kidney disease, myocardial infarction, stroke, impaired vision, left ventricular hypertrophy, and cardiac failure. Glaucoma and anemia are not directly associated with hypertension.

A 76-year-old client with Parkinson disease has been admitted with aspiration pneumonia and constipation. Which nursing intervention would help both diagnoses? A. Sitting upright for meals B. Good oral hygiene C. Prolonged laxative usage D. Increase dietary fat

ANS: A Sitting upright for meals is beneficial to both problems. It decreases risk from further aspiration and increases motility. Good oral hygiene promotes gastrointestinal health. Prolonged laxative use and increased dietary fat are not recommended for either condition.

Middle-aged adults are part of an age group that is known to be interested in health and health promotion, and the nurse is planning health promotion activities accordingly. To what suggestions do members of this age group usually respond with enthusiasm? Select all that apply. A. Lifestyle practices that can improve health B. Healthier eating practices C. Life benefits of exercise D. Strategies for adhering to prescribed therapy E. Exercise for the aging

ANS: A, B, C Rationale: Young and middle-aged adults represent an age group that not only expresses an interest in health and health promotion but also responds enthusiastically to suggestions that show how lifestyle practices can improve health; these lifestyle practices include nutrition and exercise. Middle-aged adults may not respond positively to teaching aimed at "the aging." Adherence is not noted to be a desired focus in this age group.

A client has been diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Which factors are common triggers of this condition? Select all that apply. A. Tamoxifen and vemurafenib B. Exposure to cold objects, cold fluids, or cold air C. Allopurinol and nevirapine D. Wearing clothing washed in a detergent E. Radiation in combination with phenytoin

ANS: A, C, E Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction commonly triggered by medication. The syndrome can evolve into extensive epidermal necrosis and become life-threatening. Among the many medications that trigger this condition are tamoxifen, vemurafenib, allopurinol and nevirapine. The combination of radiation and antiepileptic drugs such as phenytoin can also trigger this condition. Exposure to cold objects, cold fluids, or cold air can trigger cold urticaria, resulting in wheals (hives) or angioedema, but would not trigger Steven-Johnson syndrome. Wearing clothing washed in a detergent can trigger contact dermatitis but would not trigger Steven-Johnson syndrome.

The nurse is caring for an adult client with heart failure who is prescribed digoxin. When assessing the client for adverse effects, the nurse should assess for which of the following signs and symptoms? Select all that apply. A. Confusion B. Shortness of breath C. Numbness and tingling in the extremities D. Chest pain E. Bradycardia F. Diuresis

ANS: A, E Rationale: A key concern associated with digitalis therapy is digitalis toxicity. Symptoms include anorexia, nausea, visual disturbances, confusion, and bradycardia. The other listed signs and symptoms are not characteristic of digitalis toxicity.

A client is receiving postoperative morphine through a client-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump and the client's prescriptions specify an initial bolus dose. What is the nurse's priority assessment? A. Assessment for decreased level of consciousness (LOC) B. Assessment for respiratory depression C. Assessment for fluid overload D. Assessment for paradoxical increase in pain

ANS: B Rationale: A client who receives opioids by any route must be assessed frequently for changes in respiratory status. Sedation is an expected effect of a narcotic analgesic, though severely decreased LOC is problematic. Fluid overload and paradoxical increase in pain are unlikely, though opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH) occurs in rare instances.

A master's degree-prepared nurse is helping other nurses on a medical-surgical unit integrate evidence and research into their practice. Which role is this nurse performing? A. Case manager B. Clinical nurse leader C. Nurse navigator D. Critical care nurse

ANS: B Rationale: A clinical nurse leader (CNL) is a certified nurse generalist with a master's degree in nursing who integrates evidence-based practices into client care. A case manager, who may not have a graduate degree or be a nurse, coordinates health care services to ensure cost-effectiveness, accountability, and quality care for a caseload of clients. A nurse navigator works with a given population of clients with a common diagnosis or disease to help the client and family transition through different levels of care. A critical care nurse is a staff nurse who works in an intensive care unit.

The nurse should recognize a client's risk for impaired immune function if the client has undergone surgical removal of which of the following? A. Thyroid gland B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Pancreas

ANS: B Rationale: A history of surgical removal of the spleen, lymph nodes, or thymus may place the client at risk for impaired immune function. Removal of the thyroid, kidney, or pancreas would not directly lead to impairment of the immune system.

A perioperative nurse is caring for a postoperative client. The client has a shallow respiratory pattern and is reluctant to cough or to begin mobilizing. The nurse should address the client's increased risk for what complication? A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) B. Atelectasis C. Aspiration D. Pulmonary embolism

ANS: B Rationale: A shallow, monotonous respiratory pattern coupled with immobility places the client at an increased risk of developing atelectasis. These specific factors are less likely to result in pulmonary embolism or aspiration. ARDS involves an exaggerated inflammatory response and does not normally result from factors such as immobility and shallow breathing.

The surgical nurse is caring for a client whose wound is classified as clean contaminated. Which type of wound is the nurse likely to assess? A. A sutured incision without inflammation B. A wound with a drainage system C. A traumatic wound D. An abdominal wound with spillage from intestine

ANS: B Rationale: A wound classified as clean contaminated is one in which a drain has been placed. Other examples include entry into the respiratory, gastrointestinal, or genitourinary tracts without contamination. A sutured incision without inflammation is classified as a clean wound. A traumatic wound and an abdominal wound with spillage from the gastrointestinal tract are classified as contaminated wounds.

A 5-year-old has been diagnosed with a severe walnut allergy after experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Which topic is the nurse's priority when providing health education to the family? A. Beginning immunotherapy B. Carrying an epinephrine pen C. Maintaining the child's immunization status D. Avoiding all foods that have a high potential for allergies

ANS: B Rationale: All clients with food allergies, especially seafood and nuts, should have an EpiPen device prescribed. The child does not necessarily need to avoid all common food allergens. Immunotherapy is not indicated in the treatment of childhood food allergies. Immunizations are important, but do not address food allergies.

A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for an 83-year-old client who has a history of heart failure (HF) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD). At present, the client is unable to stand or ambulate. The nurse should implement measures to prevent which complication? A. Aortitis B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Thoracic aortic aneurysm D. Raynaud disease

ANS: B Rationale: Although the exact cause of venous thrombosis remains unclear, three factors, known as Virchow triad, are believed to play a significant role in its development: stasis of blood (venous stasis), vessel wall injury, and altered blood coagulation. This client has venous stasis from immobility, vessel wall injury from PAD, and altered blood coagulation from HF. The cause of aortitis is unknown, but it has no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues. The greatest risk factors for thoracic aortic aneurysm are atherosclerosis and hypertension; there is no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues. Raynaud disease is a disorder that involves spasms of blood vessels and, again, no direct connection to HF, PAD, or mobility issues.

A client has been scheduled for cardiovascular computed tomography (CT) with contrast. To prepare the client for this test, what action should the nurse perform? A. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the test. B. Establish peripheral IV access. C. Limit the client's activity for 2 hours before the test. D. Teach the client to perform incentive spirometry.

ANS: B Rationale: An IV is necessary if contrast is to be used to enhance the images of the CT. The client does not need to fast or limit activity. Incentive spirometry is not relevant to this diagnostic test.

A client is being treated in the ICU after a medical error resulted in an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. What was the etiology of this client's adverse reaction? A. Antibodies to donor leukocytes remained in the blood. B. The donor blood was incompatible with that of the client. C. The client had a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein in the blood. D. The blood was infused too quickly and overwhelmed the client's circulatory system.

ANS: B Rationale: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when the donor blood is incompatible with that of the recipient. In the case of a febrile nonhemolytic reaction, antibodies to donor leukocytes remain in the unit of blood or blood component. An allergic reaction is a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein within the blood component. Hypervolemia does not cause an acute hemolytic reaction.

The nurse is doing discharge teaching with a client who has coronary artery disease. The client asks why they have to take an aspirin every day if they don't have any pain. Which rationale for this intervention would be the best? A. To help restore the normal function of the heart B. To help prevent blockages that can cause chest pain or heart attacks C. To help the blood penetrate the heart more freely D. To help the blood carry more oxygen than it would otherwise

ANS: B Rationale: An aspirin a day is a common nonprescription medication that improves outcomes in clients with coronary artery disease due to its antiplatelet action, which helps to prevent clots that can lead to chest pain or heart attacks. It does not affect oxygen-carrying capacity or perfusion. Aspirin does not restore cardiac function.

A client is hospitalized because a large abdominal tumor was seen on the computed tomography scan. A biopsy is ordered, and the client wants to know if "this will cause a big scar." Which type of biopsy will this client likely experience? A. Excisional B. Incisional C. Needle D. Fine needle

ANS: B Rationale: An incisional biopsy is performed if the tumor is too large to be removed. An excisional biopsy is used for small, easily accessible tumors. Needle biopsy is performed to sample suspicious masses that are easily and safely accessible. Fine needle biopsy aspirates cells rather than tissue. Needle biopsies are usually done in an outpatient setting. The biopsy type is chosen based on size, location, and whether a cancer diagnosis was confirmed. The client will have a scar and the size will depend on whether it will be performed by endoscopy or laparotomy.

An asthma nurse educator is working with a group of adolescent asthma clients. What intervention is most likely to prevent asthma exacerbations among these clients? A. Encouraging clients to carry a corticosteroid rescue inhaler at all times B. Educating clients about recognizing and avoiding asthma triggers C. Teaching clients to utilize alternative therapies in asthma management D. Ensuring that clients keep their immunizations up to date

ANS: B Rationale: Asthma exacerbations are best managed by early treatment and education, including the use of written action plans as part of any overall effort to educate clients about self-management techniques, especially those with moderate or severe persistent asthma or with a history of severe exacerbations. Corticosteroids are not used as rescue inhalers. Alternative therapies are not normally a high priority, though their use may be appropriate in some cases. Immunizations should be kept up to date, but this does not necessarily prevent asthma exacerbations.

A client presents to the ED reporting increasing shortness of breath. The nurse assessing the client notes a history of left-sided heart failure. The client is agitated and occasionally coughing up pink-tinged, foamy sputum. The nurse should recognize the signs and symptoms of what health problem? A. Right-sided heart failure B. Acute pulmonary edema C. Pneumonia D. Cardiogenic shock

ANS: B Rationale: Because of decreased contractility and increased fluid volume and pressure in clients with heart failure, fluid may be driven from the pulmonary capillary beds into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema and signs and symptoms described. In right-sided heart failure, the client exhibits hepatomegaly, jugular vein distention, and peripheral edema. In pneumonia, the client would have a temperature spike, and sputum that varies in color. Cardiogenic shock would show signs of hypotension and tachycardia

The nurse is caring for a client who has a history of heart disease. What factor should the nurse identify as possibly contributing to a decrease in cardiac output? A. A change in position from standing to sitting B. A heart rate of 54 bpm C. A pulse oximetry reading of 94% D. An increase in preload related to ambulation

ANS: B Rationale: Cardiac output is computed by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. Cardiac output can be affected by changes in either stroke volume or heart rate, such as a rate of 54 bpm. An increase in preload will lead to an increase in stroke volume. A pulse oximetry reading of 94% does not indicate hypoxemia, as hypoxia can decrease contractility. Transitioning from standing to sitting would more likely increase rather than decrease cardiac output.

A client is scheduled for catheter ablation therapy. When describing this procedure to the client's family, the nurse should address which aspect of the treatment? A. Resetting of the heart's contractility B. Destruction of specific cardiac cells C. Correction of structural cardiac abnormalities D. Clearance of partially occluded coronary arteries

ANS: B Rationale: Catheter ablation destroys specific cells that are the cause or central conduction route of a tachydysrhythmia. It does not "reset" the heart's contractility and it does not address structural or vascular abnormalities.

A client is undergoing testing to determine the overall function of the client's immune system. Which test will best identify the functioning of the client's cellular immune system? A. Immunoglobulin testing B. Delayed hypersensitivity skin test C. Specific antibody response D. Total serum globulin assessment

ANS: B Rationale: Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity tests include the delayed hypersensitivity skin test, since this immune response is specifically dependent on the cellular immune response. Each of the other listed tests assesses functioning of the humoral immune system.

A resident of a long-term care facility has reported chest pain to the nurse. What aspect of the resident's pain would be most suggestive of angina as the cause? A. The pain is worse when the resident inhales deeply. B. The pain occurs immediately following physical exertion. C. The pain is worse when the resident coughs. D. The pain is most severe when the resident moves the upper body.

ANS: B Rationale: Chest pain associated with angina is often precipitated by physical exertion. The other listed aspects of chest pain are more closely associated with noncardiac etiologies.

The nurse is admitting an oncology client to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the client has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem? A. Cognitive deficits B. Impaired wound healing C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tumor lysis syndrome

ANS: B Rationale: Combining other treatment methods, such as radiation and chemotherapy, with surgery contributes to postoperative complications, such as infection, impaired wound healing, altered pulmonary or renal function, and the development of deep vein thrombosis. Cardiac tamponade, cognitive effects, and tumor lysis syndrome are less commonly associated with combination therapy.

The nurse is performing a dietary assessment with a client who has been admitted to the medical unit with community-acquired pneumonia. The client asks if the nurse is posing so many questions about the client's dietary practices because the client is from another country. What is the nurse's best response to this client? A. "We always try to abide by foreign-born clients' dietary preferences to make them comfortable." B. "We know that some cultural and religious practices include dietary guidelines, and we do not want to violate these." C. "We wouldn't want to feed you anything you only eat on certain holidays." D. "We know that clients who grew up in other countries often have unusual diets, and we want to accommodate this."

ANS: B Rationale: Culture and religious practices together often determine whether certain foods are prohibited and whether certain foods and spices are eaten on certain holidays or at specific family gatherings. A specific focus on holidays, however, does not convey the overall intent of the dietary interview. Dietary planning addresses all clients' needs, not only those who are immigrants. It is inappropriate to characterize a client's diet as "unusual."

An 80-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital for hypertension and now requires oxygen. The client asks the nurse why oxygen is needed because they have never smoked and feel fine. The client requires oxygen in the hospital because of which respiratory changes or requirements? A. As a therapeutic measure to encourage coughing and deep breathing B. Diminished respiratory efficiency and declining aerobic capacity C. To increase inspiratory and expiratory force of lungs D. Lung mass increases and residual volume decreases

ANS: B Rationale: Diminished respiratory efficiency and declining aerobic capacity are related to age. Older, healthy adults are usually able to compensate for these changes, but stress from illness may increase the demand for oxygen. Oxygen is a drug and not used to encourage cough and deep breathing. Reduced maximal inspiratory and expiratory force may occur in the lungs due to calcification and weakening of the muscles of the chest wall. Lung mass decreases and residual volume increases as the client ages.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a loop diuretic for the treatment of heart failure. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? A. Monitoring liver function studies B. Blood pressure C. Vitamin D intake D. Monitoring potassium levels

ANS: B Rationale: Diuretic therapy increases urine output and decreases blood volume, which places the client at risk of hypotension. Clients are at risk of losing potassium with loop diuretic therapy and need to continue with potassium in their diet; hypokalemia is a consequent risk. Liver function is rarely compromised by diuretic therapy and vitamin D intake is not relevant.

A nurse is developing the teaching portion of a care plan for a client with COPD. What would be the most important component for the nurse to emphasize? A. Smoking up to three cigarettes weekly is generally allowable. B. Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage. C. Minor respiratory infections are considered to be self-limited and are not treated with medication. D. Activities of daily living (ADLs) should be clustered in the early morning hours.

ANS: B Rationale: Environmental risk factors for COPD include prolonged and intense exposure to occupational dusts and chemicals, indoor air pollution, and outdoor air pollution. Smoking cessation should be taught to all clients who are currently smoking. Minor respiratory infections that are of no consequence to the person with normal lungs can produce fatal disturbances in the lungs of the person with emphysema. ADLs should be paced throughout the day to permit clients to perform these without excessive distress.

A client with a documented history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency has presented to the emergency department with signs and symptoms including pallor, jaundice, and malaise. Which of the nurse's assessment questions relates most directly to this client's hematologic disorder? A. "When did you last have a blood transfusion?" B. "What medications have you taken recently?" C. "Have you been under significant stress lately?" D. "Have you suffered any recent injuries?"

ANS: B Rationale: Exacerbations of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency are nearly always precipitated by medications. Blood transfusions, stress, and injury are less common triggers.

A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been diagnosed with geriatric failure to thrive. The nurse should perform interventions to prevent what complication? A. Muscle clonus B. Muscle atrophy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Muscle fasciculations

ANS: B Rationale: If a muscle is in disuse for an extended period of time, it is at risk of developing atrophy, which is the decrease in size. Clonus is a pattern of rhythmic muscle contractions and fasciculation is the involuntary twitch of muscle fibers; neither results from immobility. Lack of exercise is a risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis.

The nurse is caring for a client with mitral stenosis who is scheduled for a balloon valvuloplasty. The client reports being unsure of why the surgeon did not opt to replace the damaged valve rather than repair it. Which statement indicates an advantage of valvuloplasty that the nurse should cite? A. The procedure can be performed on an outpatient basis in a health care provider's office. B. Repaired valves tend to function longer than replaced valves. C. The procedure is not associated with a risk of infection. D. Lower doses of antirejection drugs are required than with valve replacement.

ANS: B Rationale: In general, valves that undergo valvuloplasty function longer than prosthetic valve replacements and clients do not require continuous anticoagulation. Valvuloplasty carries a risk of infection, like all surgical procedures, and it is not performed in a health care provider's office. Antirejection drugs are unnecessary because foreign tissue is not introduced.

A nurse is assessing a client with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the client, which of the following observations takes immediate priority? A. Oral temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) B. Tachypnea and restlessness C. Frequent loose stools D. Weight loss of 0.45 kg (1 lb) since yesterday

ANS: B Rationale: In prioritizing care, tachypnea and restlessness are symptoms of altered respiratory status and need immediate priority. Weight loss of 1 lb is probably fluid related; frequent loose stools would not take short-term precedence over a temperature or tachypnea and restlessness. An oral temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is not considered a fever and would not be the first issue addressed.

A client with thoracic trauma is admitted to the ICU. The nurse notes the client's chest and neck are swollen and there is a crackling sensation when palpated. The nurse consequently identifies the presence of subcutaneous emphysema. If this condition becomes severe and threatens airway patency, what intervention is indicated? A. A chest tube B. A tracheostomy C. An endotracheal tube D. A feeding tube

ANS: B Rationale: In severe cases in which there is widespread subcutaneous emphysema, a tracheostomy is indicated if airway patency is threatened by pressure of the trapped air on the trachea. The other listed tubes would neither resolve the subcutaneous emphysema nor the consequent airway constriction.

A gerontologic nurse is analyzing the data from a client's focused respiratory assessment. The nurse is aware that the amount of respiratory dead space increases with age. What is the effect of this physiologic change? A. Increased diffusion of gases B. Decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen C. Decreased shunting of blood D. Increased ventilation

ANS: B Rationale: The amount of respiratory dead space increases with age. Combined with other changes, this results in a decreased diffusion capacity for oxygen with increasing age, producing lower oxygen levels in the arterial circulation. Decreased shunting and increased ventilation do not occur with age.

The nurse in a pain clinic is caring for a client who has long-term, intractable pain. The pain team feels that first-line pharmacologic methods of pain relief have been ineffective. Which recommendation should guide this client's subsequent care? A. The client may benefit from new alternative pain management options that are available in other countries. B. The client may benefit from a multimodal approach to pain management. C. The client may need to increase exercise and activity levels significantly to create distractions. D. The client may need to relocate to long-term care to have activities of daily living needs met.

ANS: B Rationale: In some situations, especially with long-term severe intractable pain, pharmacologic methods of pain relief alone are ineffective. In those situations, a multimodal approach to pain management, including nonpharmacologic interventions, may be considered. Investigating new alternative pain-management options that are available abroad is unrealistic and may even be dangerous advice. Increasing exercise and activities to create distractions is unrealistic when a client is in intractable pain, and this recommendation conveys the attitude that the pain is not real. Moving to a long-term care facility so others may care for the client does not address the issue of pain.

A female client has presented to the local health center with a large mass in the right breast. The client has felt the lump for about a year but was afraid to come to the clinic because the client was sure it was cancer. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Self-esteem disturbance related to late diagnosis B. Ineffective individual coping related to reluctance to seek care C. Altered family process related to inability to obtain treatment D. Ineffective denial related to reluctance to seek care

ANS: B Rationale: Ineffective individual coping is the inability to assess our own stressors and then make choices to access appropriate resources. In this case, the client was unable to access health care even when they were was aware the disorder could be life-threatening. Self-esteem disturbance, altered family process, and ineffective denial are nursing diagnoses that are often associated with breast cancer, but the client's ineffective individual coping has created a significant safety risk and is, therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. The client did not deny the severity of the finding, but rather feared it and was unable to cope.

The nurse is screening a number of adults for hypertension. Which range of blood pressure is considered normal? A. Less than 110/80 mm Hg B. Less than 120/80 mm Hg C. Less than 130/90 mm Hg D. Less than 140/90 mm Hg

ANS: B Rationale: JNC 7 defines a blood pressure of less than 120/80 mm Hg as normal, 120 to 129/80 to 89 mm Hg as prehypertension, and 140/90 mm Hg or higher as hypertension.

A client's severe asthma has necessitated the use of a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA). Which of the client's statements suggests a correct understanding of this medication? A. "This drug may make my heart beat slower." B. "This drug is particularly good at preventing asthma attacks during exercise." C. "I'll make sure to use this each time I feel an asthma attack coming on." D. "I understand that this drug is less effective at controlling night-time symptoms."

ANS: B Rationale: LABAs are effective in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma. They are also used with anti-inflammatory medications to control asthma symptoms, particularly those that occur during the night. LABAs are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. are not used for management of acute asthma symptoms. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a potential adverse effect of this medication.

The nurse caring for a client post colon resection is assessing the client on the second postoperative day. The nasogastric tube remains patent and is draining moderate amounts of greenish fluid. Which assessment finding would suggest that the client's potassium level is too low? A. Diarrhea B. Paresthesias C. Increased muscle tone D. Joint pain

ANS: B Rationale: Manifestations of hypokalemia include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, leg cramps, decreased bowel motility, paresthesias (numbness and tingling), and arrhythmias. The client would not have diarrhea because increased bowel motility is inconsistent with hypokalemia. Joint pain is not a symptom of hypokalemia, nor is increased muscle tone.

A client is learning about a new diagnosis of asthma with the asthma nurse. What medication will best prevent the onset of acute asthma exacerbations? A. Diphenhydramine B. Montelukast C. Albuterol sulfate D. Epinephrine

ANS: B Rationale: Many manifestations of inflammation can be attributed in part to leukotrienes. Medications categorized as leukotriene antagonists or modifiers such as montelukast block the synthesis or action of leukotrienes and prevent signs and symptoms associated with asthma. Diphenhydramine prevents histamine's effect on smooth muscle. Albuterol sulfate relaxes smooth muscle during an asthma attack. Epinephrine relaxes bronchial smooth muscle but is not used on a preventative basis.

A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis is deficient in completing health screening and health promotion tests. Based on the information provided, and statistical data, what is the most likely test that the client missed? A. Yearly physical B. Pelvic examination C. Colonoscopy D. Hearing test

ANS: B Rationale: Minority and older women with disabilities are less likely to receive a pelvic examination. Some reasons given by clients include difficulty transferring to exam tables and a belief that the exam was not needed due to their disability. No statistical data was listed for yearly physicals, colonoscopy, or hearing tests in this forum.

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has asked to represent the unit on the hospital's quality committee. When describing quality improvement programs to nursing colleagues and members of other health disciplines, what characteristic should the nurse cite? A. These programs establish consequences for health care professionals' actions. B. These programs emphasize the need for evidence-based practice. C. These programs identify specific incidents related to quality. D. These programs seek to justify health care costs and systems.

ANS: B Rationale: Numerous models seek to improve the quality of health care delivery. A commonality among them is a focus on the importance of evidence-based practice. Consequences, a focus on incidents, and justification for health care costs are not universal characteristics of quality improvement efforts.

An asthma educator is teaching a client newly diagnosed with asthma and the family about the use of a peak flow meter. The educator should teach the client that a peak flow meter measures highest airflow during which type of breath? A. Forced inspiration B. Forced expiration C. Normal inspiration D. Normal expiration

ANS: B Rationale: Peak flow meters measure the highest airflow during a forced expiration.

The nurse is providing care for a client who has just been admitted to the postsurgical unit following a laryngectomy. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize? A. The client's swallowing ability B. The client's airway patency C. The client's pain level D. Signs and symptoms of infection

ANS: B Rationale: The client with a laryngectomy is at risk for airway occlusion and respiratory distress. As in all nursing situations, assessment of the airway is a priority over other potential complications and assessment parameters, including swallowing ability, pain level, and signs and symptoms of infection, all of which can be assessed after assessing the client's airway patency.

A client with heart failure is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's nutritional teaching plan has been effective? A. "I will have a ham and cheese sandwich for lunch." B. "I will have a baked potato with broiled chicken for dinner." C. "I will have a tossed salad with cheese and croutons for lunch." D. "I will have chicken noodle soup with crackers and an apple for lunch."

ANS: B Rationale: The client's choice of a baked potato with broiled chicken indicates that the teaching plan has been effective. Potatoes and chicken are relatively low in sodium. Ham, cheese, and soup are often high in sodium.

During an adult client's last two office visits, the nurse obtained BP readings of 122/76 mm Hg and 128/78 mm Hg, respectively. How would this client's BP be categorized? A. Normal B. Elevated C. Stage 1 hypertension D. Stage 2 hypertension

ANS: B Rationale: The latest guidelines (November 2017) released by the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association are: Normal blood pressure: Systolic less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure: Systolic between 120 and 129 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg. Stage 1 hypertension: Systolic between 130 and 139 mm Hg or diastolic between 80 and 89 mm Hg. Stage 2 hypertension: Systolic of 140 or greater mm Hg or diastolic of 90 or greater mm Hg.

A brain (B-type) natriuretic peptide (BNP) sample has been drawn from an older adult client who has been experiencing vital fatigue and shortness of breath. This test will allow the care team to investigate the possibility of what diagnosis? A. Pleurisy B. Heart failure C. Valve dysfunction D. Cardiomyopathy

ANS: B Rationale: The level of BNP in the blood increases as the ventricular walls expand from increased pressure, making it a helpful diagnostic, monitoring, and prognostic tool in the setting of HF. It is not specific to cardiomyopathy, pleurisy, or valve dysfunction.

An adult client's abnormal complete blood count (FBC) and physical assessment have prompted the primary care provider to order a diagnostic workup for Hodgkin lymphoma. The presence of what assessment finding is considered diagnostic of the disease? A. Schwann cells B. Reed-Sternberg cells C. Lewy bodies D. Loops of Henle

ANS: B Rationale: The malignant cell of Hodgkin lymphoma is the Reed-Sternberg cell, a gigantic tumor cell that is morphologically unique and thought to be of immature lymphoid origin. It is the pathologic hallmark and essential diagnostic criterion. Schwann cells exist in the peripheral nervous system and Lewy bodies are markers of Parkinson disease. Loops of Henle exist in nephrons.

The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 2 following a colon resection. While turning the client, wound dehiscence with evisceration occurs. What should be the nurse's first response? A. Return the client to the previous position and call the health care provider. B. Place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the wound. C. Assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. D. Pull the dehiscence closed using gloved hands.

ANS: B Rationale: The nurse should first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to prevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the health care provider and take the client's vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically closed, so the nurse should never try to close it.

25. A client is in the primary infection stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement regarding this client's current health status is most accurate? A. The client's HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus. B. The client is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies. C. The client's risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak. D. The client may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.

ANS: B Rationale: The period from infection with HIV to the development of HIV-specific antibodies is known as primary infection. The virus is not being eradicated and infection is certain. Opportunistic infections emerge much later in the course of the disease.

The nurse is caring for an adult client whom the nurse suspects has digoxin toxicity. In addition to physical assessment, the nurse should monitor what assessment information? A. Skin turgor B. Potassium level C. White blood cell count D. Peripheral pulses

ANS: B Rationale: The serum potassium level is monitored because the effect of digoxin is enhanced in the presence of hypokalemia and digoxin toxicity may occur. Skin turgor, white cell levels, and peripheral pulses are not normally affected in cases of digitalis toxicity.

A client has just begun been receiving skeletal traction and the nurse is aware that muscles in the client's affected limb are spastic. How does this change in muscle tone affect the client's traction prescription? A. Traction must temporarily be aligned in a slightly different direction. B. Extra weight is needed initially to keep the limb in proper alignment. C. A lighter weight should be initially used. D. Weight will temporarily alternate between heavier and lighter weights.

ANS: B Rationale: The traction weights applied initially must overcome the shortening spasms of the affected muscles. As the muscles relax, the traction weight is reduced to prevent fracture dislocation and to promote healing. Weights never alternate between heavy and light.

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this client should expect the health care provider to prescribe which medication for the management of the client's diarrhea? A. Fluoxetine B. Octreotide acetate C. Levofloxacin D. Valganciclovir

ANS: B Rationale: Therapy with octreotide acetate, a synthetic analogue of somatostatin, has been shown to be effective in managing chronic severe diarrhea. Fluoxetine is an antidepressant and would not be prescribed for the treatment of chronic diarrhea. Levofloxacin is an antibiotic and would not likely be prescribed for chronic severe diarrhea. Valganciclovir is an antiviral medication that is used to treat cytomegalovirus infection and would not be prescribed to treat chronic diarrhea.

A client newly diagnosed with thrombocytopenia is admitted to the medical unit. After the admission assessment, the client asks the nurse to explain the condition. The nurse explains to this client that this condition occurs due to which factor? A. An attack on the platelets by antibodies B. Decreased production of platelets C. Impaired communication between platelets D. An autoimmune process causing platelet malfunction

ANS: B Rationale: Thrombocytopenia can result from a decreased platelet production, increased platelet destruction, or increased consumption of platelets. Impaired platelet communication, antibodies, and autoimmune processes are not typical pathologies.

A client converts from normal sinus rhythm at 80 bpm to atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response at 166 bpm. Blood pressure is 162/74 mm Hg. Respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute with normal chest expansion and clear lungs bilaterally. IV heparin and diltiazem are given. The nurse caring for the client understands that the treatment has what main goal? A. Decrease SA node conduction. B. Control ventricular heart rate. C. Improve oxygenation. D. Maintain anticoagulation.

ANS: B Rationale: Treatment for atrial fibrillation is to terminate the rhythm or to control ventricular rate. This is a priority because it directly affects cardiac output. A rapid ventricular response reduces the time for ventricular filling, resulting in a smaller stroke volume. Control of rhythm is the initial treatment of choice, followed by anticoagulation with heparin and then Coumadin.

The physical therapist notifies the nurse that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experienced a significant increase in heart rate during physical therapy. The nurse recognizes that an increase in heart rate in a client with CAD may result in which outcome? A. Development of an atrial-septal defect B. Myocardial ischemia C. Formation of a pulmonary embolism D. Release of potassium ions from cardiac cells

ANS: B Rationale: Unlike other arteries, the coronary arteries are perfused during diastole. An increase in heart rate shortens diastole and can decrease myocardial perfusion. Clients, particularly those with CAD, can develop myocardial ischemia. An increase in heart rate will not usually result in a pulmonary embolism or create electrolyte imbalances. Atrial-septal defects are congenital.

The nurse caring for a client receiving a transfusion notes that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has begun, the client is having difficulty breathing and reports severe chest tightness. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take? A. Notify the client's health care provider. B. Stop the transfusion immediately. C. Remove the client's IV access. D. Assess the client's chest sounds and vital signs.

ANS: B Rationale: Vascular collapse, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, shock, fever, chills, and jugular vein distension are severe reactions. The nurse should discontinue the transfusion immediately, monitor the client's vital signs, and notify the health care provider. The blood container and tubing should be sent to the blood bank. A blood and urine specimen may be needed if a transfusion reaction or a bacterial infection is suspected. The client's IV access should not be removed.

A nurse is working with a client who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. This client will be considered to have AIDS when the CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold? A. 75 cells/mm3 of blood B. 200 cells/mm3 of blood C. 325 cells/mm3 of blood D. 450 cells/mm3 of blood

ANS: B Rationale: When CD4+ T-cell levels drop below 200 cells/mm3 of blood, the person is said to have AIDS.

The nurse is preparing to change a client's abdominal dressing. The nurse recognizes that the first step is to provide the client with information regarding the procedure. Which explanation should the nurse provide to the client? A. "The dressing change is often painful, so we will give you pain medication beforehand." B. "I will provide privacy. The dressing change should not be painful; you may look at the incision and help." C. "The dressing change should not be painful, but you can never be sure, and infection is always a concern." D. "The best time for a dressing change is during lunch. I will provide privacy, and it should not be painful."

ANS: B Rationale: When having dressings changed, the client needs to be informed that the dressing change is a simple procedure with little discomfort; privacy will be provided; and the client is free to look at the incision or even assist in the dressing change itself. If the client decides to look at the incision, assurance is given that the incision will shrink as it heals and that the redness will likely fade. Dressing changes should not be painful, but giving pain medication prior to the procedure is always a good preventive measure. Telling the client that the dressing change "should not be painful, but you can never be sure, and infection is always a concern" does not offer the client any real information or options and serves only to create fear. The best time for dressing changes is when it is most convenient for the client; nutrition is important so interrupting lunch is probably a poor choice.

A client who is in shock is receiving dopamine in addition to IV fluids. What principle should inform the nurse's care planning during the administration of a vasoactive drug? A. The drug should be discontinued immediately after blood pressure increases. B. The drug dose should be tapered down once vital signs improve. C. The client should have arterial blood gases drawn every 10 minutes during treatment. D. The infusion rate should be titrated according the client's subjective sensation of adequate perfusion.

ANS: B Rationale: When vasoactive medications are discontinued, they should never be stopped abruptly because this could cause severe hemodynamic instability, perpetuating the shock state. Subjective assessment data are secondary to objective data. Arterial blood gases should be carefully monitored, but draws every 10 minutes are not the norm.

The nurse is assessing a new client with reports of acute fatigue and a sore tongue that is visibly smooth and beefy red. This client is demonstrating signs and symptoms associated with what form of hematologic disorder? A. Sickle cell disease B. Hemophilia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Thrombocytopenia

ANS: C Rationale: A red, smooth, sore tongue is a symptom associated with megaloblastic anemia. Sickle cell disease, hemophilia, and thrombocytopenia do not have symptoms involving the tongue.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who needs daily dressing changes. The client is 3 days' postoperative and is scheduled for discharge the next day. Until now, the client has refused to learn how to change the dressing. What would indicate to the nurse the client's possible readiness to learn how to change the dressing? Select all that apply. A. The client wants the nurse to teach a family member to do dressing changes. B. The client expresses interest in the dressing change. C. The client is willing to look at the incision during a dressing change. D. The client expresses dislike of the surgical wound. E. The client assists in opening the packages of dressing material for the nurse.

ANS: B, C, E Rationale: While changing the dressing, the nurse has an opportunity to teach the client how to care for the incision and change the dressings at home. The nurse observes for indicators of the client's readiness to learn, such as looking at the incision, expressing interest, or assisting in the dressing change. Expressing dislike and wanting to delegate to a family member do not suggest readiness to learn.

A client with hypokalemia is to receive intravenous (IV) potassium replacement. Which action should the nurse take when administering potassium intravenously? Select all that apply. A. Administer potassium by IV push. B. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine prior to potassium administration. C. Monitor complete blood count during potassium infusion. D. Follow the facility policy for infusion of potassium. E. Report a reduced urinary output to the health care provider.

ANS: B, D, E Rationale: Potassium should be administered by an infusion pump and should never be given by IV push to avoid rapid replacement. Because potassium is excreted by the kidneys, BUN, serum creatinine, and urinary output should be assessed prior to and during administration of IV potassium. Abnormal laboratory results or decreased or absent urinary output should be reported to the health care provider. Because potassium administration does not affect blood cells, the complete blood count does not need to be monitored during administration of potassium. The nurse should check facility policy on the administration of IV potassium to ensure safe care.

The ICU nurse is caring for a client in hypovolemic shock following a postpartum hemorrhage. For what serious complication of treatment should the nurse monitor the client? A. Anaphylaxis B. Decreased oxygen consumption C. Abdominal compartment syndrome D. Decreased serum osmolality

ANS: C Rationale: Abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) is a serious complication that may occur when large volumes of fluid are given. The scenario does not describe an antigen- antibody reaction of any type. Decreased oxygen consumption by the body is not a concern in hypovolemic shock. With a decrease in fluids in the intravascular space, increased serum osmolality would occur.

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adult client with asthma. Which teaching point should have the highest priority in the plan of care that the nurse is developing? A. Gradually increase levels of physical exertion. B. Change filters on heaters and air conditioners frequently. C. Take prescribed medications as scheduled. D. Avoid goose-down pillows.

ANS: C Rationale: Although all of the measures are appropriate for a client with asthma, taking prescribed medications on time is the most important measure in preventing asthma attacks.

A lipid profile has been ordered for a client who has been experiencing cardiac symptoms. When should a lipid profile be drawn in order to maximize the accuracy of results? A. As close to the end of the day as possible B. After a meal high in fat C. After a 12-hour fast D. Thirty minutes after a normal meal

ANS: C Rationale: Although cholesterol levels remain relatively constant over 24 hours, the blood specimen for the lipid profile should be obtained after a 12-hour fast.

A school nurse is caring for a 10-year-old client who is having an asthma attack. What is the preferred intervention to alleviate this client's airflow obstruction? A. Administer corticosteroids by metered dose inhaler. B. Administer inhaled anticholinergics. C. Administer an inhaled beta-adrenergic agonist. D. Use a peak flow monitoring device.

ANS: C Rationale: Asthma exacerbations are best managed by early treatment and education of the client. Quick-acting beta-adrenergic medications are the first used for prompt relief of airflow obstruction. Systemic corticosteroids may be necessary to decrease airway inflammation in clients who fail to respond to inhaled beta-adrenergic medication. A peak flow device will not resolve short-term shortness of breath.

The triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client with chronic heart failure who has presented with worsening symptoms. In reviewing the client's medical history, which condition is a potential primary cause of the client's heart failure? A. Endocarditis B. Pleural effusion C. Atherosclerosis D. Atrial septal defect

ANS: C Rationale: Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries is the primary cause of heart failure. Pleural effusion, endocarditis, and an atrial-septal defect are not health problems that contribute to the etiology of heart failure.

A client has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) following left tibia open reduction internal fixation. The client is reporting pain, and the nurse is preparing to administer intravenous hydromorphone. Prior to administering the drug, the nurse should prioritize which assessment? A. Electrolyte levels B. Heart rate C. Respiratory status D. Hydration

ANS: C Rationale: Before administering an opioid, the nurse should assess the client's respiratory rate and depth of respirations because opioids can cause respiratory depression, especially coupled with the effects of anesthesia. The nurse should also monitor electrolyte levels, heart rate, and hydration, but respiratory rate and depth are the priority assessment.

Fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) has been prescribed for a hospital client. Prior to administration of this blood product, the nurse should prioritize which client education? A. Infection risks associated with FFP administration B. Physiologic functions of plasma C. Signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction D. Strategies for managing transfusion-associated anxiety

ANS: C Rationale: Clients should be educated about signs and symptoms of transfusion reactions prior to administration of any blood product. In most cases, this is priority over education relating to infection. Anxiety may be an issue for some clients, but transfusion reactions are life-threatening and should be addressed first. Teaching about the functions of plasma is not likely a high priority.

The nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the postsurgical unit following abdominal surgery. The client is unable to ambulate and is now refusing to wear external pneumatic compression stockings. The nurse should explain that refusing to wear external pneumatic compression stockings increases the risk of which postsurgical complication? A. Sepsis B. Infection C. Pulmonary embolism D. Hematoma

ANS: C Rationale: Clients who have surgery that limits mobility are at an increased risk for pulmonary embolism secondary to deep vein thrombosis. The use of external pneumatic compression stockings significantly reduces the risk by increasing venous return to the heart and limiting blood stasis. The risk of infection or sepsis would not be affected by external pneumatic compression stockings. A hematoma or bruise would not be affected by external pneumatic compression stockings unless the stockings were placed directly over the hematoma.

A nurse is collaborating with a team of community nurses to identify the vision and mission for community care. What is the central focus of nursing? A. Increased health literacy in the community B. Distributing ownership for the health of the community C. Promoting and maintaining the health of individuals and families D. Identifying links between lifestyle and health

ANS: C Rationale: Community-based nursing practice focuses centrally on promoting and maintaining the health of individuals and families, preventing and minimizing the progression of disease, and improving quality of life. Health literacy is not a goal in itself, but rather a means to promoting health. Distributing ownership and identifying links between lifestyle and health are not the essence of community-based care.

A junior nursing student is having an observation day in the operating room. Early in the day, the student reports eye swelling and dyspnea to the OR nurse. What should the nurse suspect? A. Cytotoxic reaction due to contact with the powder in the gloves B. Immune complex reaction due to contact with anesthetic gases C. Anaphylaxis due to a latex allergy D. Delayed reaction due to exposure to cleaning products

ANS: C Rationale: Immediate hypersensitivity to latex, a type I allergic reaction, is mediated by the IgE mast cell system. Symptoms can include rhinitis, conjunctivitis, asthma, and anaphylaxis. The term latex allergy is usually used to describe the type I reaction. The rapid onset is not consistent with a cytotoxic reaction, an immune complex reaction, or a delayed reaction.

A nurse is working with a client who was recently diagnosed with asthma. During the current session, the nurse taught the client how to administer the bronchodilator by metered-dose inhaler. How should the nurse best evaluate the teaching-learning process? A. Ask the client specific questions about the medication. B. Ask whether the client now understands how to use the inhaler. C. Directly observe the client using the inhaler to self-administer a dose. D. Assess the client's respiratory health at the next scheduled visit.

ANS: C Rationale: Demonstration and practice are essential ingredients of a teaching program, especially when teaching skills. It is best to demonstrate the skill and then give the learner ample opportunity for practice. By observing the client using the inhaler, the nurse may identify what learning needs to be enhanced or reinforced. Asking questions is not an accurate gauge of learning. Respiratory assessment is a relevant, but indirect, indicator of learning. Delaying the appraisal of the client's technique until a later clinic visit is inappropriate because health problems could occur in the interval.\

The acute care nurse is providing care for an adult client who is in hypovolemic shock. The nurse recognizes that antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays a significant role in this health problem. What assessment finding will the nurse likely observe related to the role of antidiuretic hormone during hypovolemic shock? A. Increased hunger B. Decreased thirst C. Decreased urinary output D. Increased capillary perfusion

ANS: C Rationale: During hypovolemic shock, a state of hypernatremia occurs. Hypernatremia stimulates the release of ADH by the pituitary gland. ADH causes the kidneys to further retain water in an effort to raise blood volume and blood pressure. In a hypovolemic state the body shifts blood away from anything that is not a vital organ, so hunger is not an issue; thirst is increased as the body tries to increase fluid volume; and capillary profusion decreases as the body shunts blood away from the periphery and to the vital organs.

The nurse is performing an intake assessment on a client with a new diagnosis of coronary artery disease. What would be the most important determination to make during this intake assessment? A. Whether the client and involved family members understand the role of genetics in the etiology of the disease B. Whether the client and involved family members understand dietary changes and the role of nutrition C. Whether the client and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem and respond appropriately D. Whether the client and involved family members understand the importance of social support and community agencies

ANS: C Rationale: During the health history, the nurse needs to determine if the client and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem, such as acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or HF, and seek timely treatment for these symptoms. Each of the other listed topics is valid, but the timely and appropriate response to a cardiac emergency is paramount.

The nurse is planning the care of a client who is scheduled for a laryngectomy. The nurse should assign the highest priority to which postoperative nursing diagnosis? A. Anxiety related to diagnosis of cancer B. Altered nutrition related to swallowing difficulties C. Ineffective airway clearance related to airway alterations D. Impaired verbal communication related to removal of the larynx

ANS: C Rationale: Each of the listed diagnoses is valid, but ineffective airway clearance is the priority nursing diagnosis for all conditions.

A client underwent an antibody test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) as part of a screening process and has just been told that the results were positive. Which anticipatory guidance regarding the next step should the nurse provide to the client? A. The client will be started on fluoxetine in 1 month. B. Antiretroviral therapy will begin within 3 months. C. Follow-up testing will be promptly performed to confirm the result. D. The client will be monitored for signs and symptoms of HIV to determine the need for treatment.

ANS: C Rationale: Follow-up testing is performed if the initial test result is positive to ensure a correct diagnosis. These tests include antibody differentiation tests, which distinguish HIV-1 from antibodies, and HIV-1 nucleic acid tests, which look for the virus RNA directly. Antiretroviral therapy may be needed, but the next step would be to confirm the diagnosis. Fluoxetine, an antidepressant, would be prescribed if the client developed severe depression, which is not evident in this scenario. The client would not simply be monitored for signs and symptoms of HIV to determine treatment; the client would undergo follow-up testing to determine the need for treatment.

The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. Which risk factors should the nurse list that can be controlled or modified? A. Gender, obesity, family history, and smoking B. Inactivity, stress, gender, and smoking C. Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking D. Stress, family history, and obesity

ANS: C Rationale: Four modifiable risk factors—cholesterol abnormalities, tobacco use, hypertension, and diabetes—are established risk factors for CAD and its complications. Inactivity and obesity are also modifiable risk factors associated with CAD. Stress, although not listed as a direct risk factor for CAD, contributes to hypertension, which is itself a risk factor. Gender and family history are risk factors that cannot be controlled.

A class of nursing students has been asked to break into groups of four and complete a health-promotion teaching project and present a report to their fellow students. What project most clearly demonstrates the principles of health promotion teaching? A. Demonstrating an injection technique to a client for anticoagulant therapy B. Explaining the side effects of a medication to an adult client C. Discussing prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STI) to high school students D. Instructing an adolescent client how to avoid hypoglycemic episodes

ANS: C Rationale: Health promotion encourages people to live a healthy lifestyle and to achieve a high level of wellness. Discussing the importance of STI prevention to a group of high school students is the best example of a health promotion teaching project. Teaching a client an injection technique, side effects of medication, and how to avoid hypoglycemia are interventions to treat disease or illness and not examples of health promotion.

The nurse is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of hypertension. The nurse should consequently assess the client for signs and symptoms of which other health problem? A. Migraines B. Atrial-septal defect C. Atherosclerosis D. Thrombocytopenia

ANS: C Rationale: Hypertension is both a sign and a risk factor for atherosclerotic heart disease. It is not associated with structural cardiac defects, low platelet levels, or migraines.

A client who uses a wheelchair was unable to enter a health care clinic because the pavement was too high. The client filed a formal complaint stating that reasonable accommodations were not met. What is an example of a reasonable accommodation under the 1990 American Disabilities Act (ADA)? A. Priority medical appointments and grab bars B. Low-cost transportation and elevated toilet seats C. Accessible facilities and equipment D. Alternate communication methods and medical home visits

ANS: C Rationale: In health care facilities, reasonable accommodation included accessible facilities and equipment. The ADA of 1990 did not include priority medical appointments or low-cost transportation. Grab bars and elevated toilet seats fall under accessible equipment. Alternative communication methods also fall under the ADA of 1990, but medical home visits do not.

A client is admitted to the orthopedic unit in skeletal traction for a fractured proximal femur. Which explanation should the nurse give the client about skeletal traction? A. "Skeletal traction temporarily stabilizes the fracture before surgery." B. "Weights are attached to the leg using a boot." C. "Traction involves passing a pin through the bone." D. "Light weights must be used with skeletal traction."

ANS: C Rationale: In skeletal traction, a metal pin or wire is passed through the bone and traction is then applied using ropes and weights attached to the pins. Skin traction, not skeletal traction, stabilizes the fracture until surgery is performed and uses a boot or Velcro to attach the ropes and weights to the leg. Skeletal traction is used when greater weight (11 to 18 kg [25 to 40 lb]) is needed to achieve the therapeutic effect.

A 68-year-old client with a history of rheumatic disease has persistent swelling, no stiffness, and full range of motion to his left knee after an injury sustained several months ago. X-rays reveal no fracture of the extremity. Which factor is the most likely cause of the client's continued swelling? A. Degradation of cartilage B. Aging C. An inflammation process D. Reinjury not seen on x-ray results

ANS: C Rationale: Inflammation is a complex physiologic process mediated by the immune system that occurs in response to harmful stimuli such as damaged cells. Inflammation is meant to protect the body from insult by removing the triggering antigen or event. But sometimes the immune system deviates from a normal response. Instead of a resolution of swelling after the triggering event has subsided, a proliferation of newly formed synovial tissue infiltrated with inflammatory cells (pannus) occurs. Degradation in rheumatic diseases causes inflammation, bone stiffening, and cartilage failure. Degradation may be the result of genetic or hormonal influences, mechanical factors, or prior joint damage. For this client, because of the full range of motion (ROM), no reported prior joint damage, and no stiffness, degradation is less likely. Swelling is not a normal process of aging. Reinjury not seen on x-ray is a possibility but unlikely because the client has full ROM.

A young man with a diagnosis of hemophilia A has been brought to emergency department after suffering a workplace accident resulting in bleeding. Rapid assessment has revealed the source of the client's bleeding and established that his vital signs are stable. What should be the nurse's next action? A. Position the client in a prone position to minimize bleeding. B. Establish IV access for the administration of vitamin K. C. Prepare for the administration of factor VIII. D. Administer a normal saline bolus to increase circulatory volume.

ANS: C Rationale: Injuries to clients with hemophilia necessitate prompt administration of clotting factors. Vitamin K is not a treatment modality and a prone position will not be appropriate for all types and locations of wounds. A normal saline bolus is not indicated.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with COPD. What should the nurse teach the client about breathing exercises? A. Lie supine to facilitate air entry. B. Avoid pursed-lip breathing unless absolutely necessary. C. Use diaphragmatic breathing. D. Use chest breathing.

ANS: C Rationale: Inspiratory muscle training and breathing retraining may help improve breathing patterns in clients with COPD. Training in diaphragmatic breathing reduces the respiratory rate, increases alveolar ventilation, and helps expel as much air as possible during expiration. Pursed-lip breathing helps slow expiration, prevents collapse of small airways, and controls the rate and depth of respiration. Diaphragmatic breathing, not chest breathing, increases lung expansion. Supine positioning does not aid breathing.

The nurse is caring for a client with back pain. The nurse reviews the medications and sees that an NSAID (ibuprofen) is prescribed every 6 hours as needed. How should the nurse best implement preventive pain measures? A. Let the client know ibuprofen is available every 6 hours, if needed. B. Administer ibuprofen if the client's pain rating is 5 or higher, on a 0 to 10 scale. C. Use a pain scale to assess client's pain and offer ibuprofen every 6 hours. D. Assume the client is not in pain if the client does not request pain medication.

ANS: C Rationale: Offering pain medication every 6 hours, rather than as needed, provides better pain control since analgesic blood levels are maintained at a stable level. The nurse should let the client know the analgesic is available every 6 hours, if needed, but the nurse should also offer the analgesic every 6 hours and encourage its use to maintain better pain control. An analgesic should be administered when the client is uncomfortable, which is not the same level in all clients and not necessarily at a rating of 5 out of 10. Each client reacts to pain differently, and the nurse should not assume that a client is not in pain if the client does not request an analgesic.

The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching session with a client to evaluate the client's ability to change a dressing. The client speaks and understands the dominant language only minimally. What would be the best way to promote understanding during the teaching session? A. Ask the client to repeat the instructions carefully. B. Write the procedure out for the client in simple language. C. Use an interpreter during the teaching session. D. Have the client demonstrate the dressing change.

ANS: C Rationale: Policies that promote culturally competent care provide translation services for clients with minimal ability in the dominant language. Writing instructions and asking the client to repeat instructions do not adequately compensate for the communication barrier that exists. Having the client demonstrate the procedure would demonstrate competency but does not address promoting understanding during a teaching session.

Which nursing action best demonstrates primary cancer prevention? A. Encouraging yearly Pap tests B. Teaching testicular self-examination C. Promoting and providing vaccines D. Facilitating screening mammograms

ANS: C Rationale: Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of cancer in healthy people through practices such as promoting vaccines that prevent cancer. Secondary prevention involves detection and screening to achieve early diagnosis, as demonstrated by Pap tests, mammograms, and testicular exams.

A client's low hemoglobin level has necessitated transfusion of packed red blood cells. Prior to administration, which action should the nurse perform? A. Have the client identify the blood type in writing. B. Ensure that the client has granted verbal consent for transfusion. C. Assess the client's vital signs to establish baselines. D. Facilitate insertion of a central venous catheter.

ANS: C Rationale: Prior to a transfusion, the nurse must take the client's temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure to establish a baseline. Written consent is required, and the client's blood type is determined by type and cross match, not by the client's self-declaration. Peripheral venous access is sufficient for blood transfusion.

The nurse is caring for a client in the ICU who has been diagnosed with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). The nurse's plan of care should include what intervention? A. Encouraging the family to stay hopeful and educating them to the fact that, in nearly all cases, the prognosis is good B. Encouraging the family to leave the hospital and to take time for themselves as acute care of MODS clients may last for several months C. Promoting communication with the client and family along with addressing end-of-life issues D. Discussing organ donation on a number of different occasions to allow the family time to adjust to the idea

ANS: C Rationale: Promoting communication with the client and family is a critical role of the nurse with a client in progressive shock. It is also important that the health care team address end-of-life decisions to ensure that supportive therapies are congruent with the client's wishes. Many cases of MODS result in death, and the life expectancy of clients with MODS is usually measured in hours and possibly days, but not in months. Organ donation should be offered as an option on one occasion, and then allow the family time to discuss and return to the health care providers with an answer following the death of the client.

A woman with a family history of breast cancer received a positive result on a breast tumor marking test and is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of which type of oncologic surgery? A. Salvage surgery B. Palliative surgery C. Prophylactic surgery D. Reconstructive surgery

ANS: C Rationale: Prophylactic surgery is used when there is an extensive family history and nonvital tissues are removed. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect.

A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity? A. Disease prophylaxis B. Risk reduction C. Secondary prevention D. Tertiary prevention

ANS: C Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack signs and symptoms suggestive of cancer. Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of disease through health promotion strategies. Tertiary prevention is the care and rehabilitation of the client after having been diagnosed with cancer.

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a postsurgical client has pain rated as 8 on a 0-to-10-point scale. The UAP tells the nurse that the client is exaggerating and does not need pain medication. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Since pain often comes and goes with postsurgical clients, reassess the client's pain in 30 minutes." B. "We need to provide pain medications because it is the law, and we must always follow the law." C. "Unless there is strong evidence to the contrary, we should take the client's report at face value." D. "It's not unusual for clients to misreport pain to get our attention when we are busy."

ANS: C Rationale: Self-report is considered the most reliable measure of the existence and intensity of the client's pain and is recommended by the Joint Commission. A broad definition of pain is "whatever the person says it is, existing whenever the experiencing person says it does." Action should be taken unless there are demonstrable extenuating circumstances. Rechecking without offering an intervention would be insufficient, and the law is not the sole reason for providing care. It would be wrong for the nurse to teach the UAP that clients report pain to get the nurse's attention.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just been informed of a diagnosis of colon cancer. The client's vital signs are initially elevated but after the nurse speaks with the client, the client's vital signs become closer to normal range. What biological action is occurring that would explain this phenomenon? A. Cortisol levels fluctuate and become unstable. B. Endocrine activity has increased. C. The client is adapting to noxious stressors. D. The sympathetic response has been activated.

ANS: C Rationale: Selye developed a theory of adaptation to biologic stress, known as general adaptation syndrome, which has three phases: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. During the alarm phase, the sympathetic "fight-or-flight" response is activated with release of catecholamines and the onset of the adrenocorticotropic hormone-adrenal cortical response. The alarm reaction is defensive and anti-inflammatory but self-limited. Because living in a continuous state of alarm would result in death, people move into the second stage, resistance. During the resistance stage, adaptation to the noxious stressor occurs, and cortisol activity is still increased. If exposure to the stressor is prolonged, the third stage, exhaustion, occurs. During the exhaustion stage, endocrine activity increases, and this has negative effects on the body systems (especially the circulatory, digestive, and immune systems) that can lead to death.

A client has had a myocardial infarction and has been diagnosed as having damage to the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action. This client experienced damage to which area of the heart? A. Endocardium B. Pericardium C. Myocardium D. Visceral pericardium

ANS: C Rationale: The middle layer of the heart, or myocardium, is made up of muscle fibers and is responsible for the pumping action. The inner layer, or endocardium, consists of endothelial tissue and lines the inside of the heart and valves. The heart is encased in a thin, fibrous sac called the pericardium, which is composed of two layers. Adhering to the epicardium is the visceral pericardium. Enveloping the visceral pericardium is the parietal pericardium, a tough fibrous tissue that attaches to the great vessels, diaphragm, sternum, and vertebral column and supports the heart in the mediastinum.

The nurse is reviewing the importance of preventive health care with a client who has a disability. The client describes intense financial pressures associated with being disabled. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Limited finances are a common problem for clients with a disability." B. "Is there anyone who you might be able to borrow money from in the short term?" C. "I'll look into federal assistance programs that provide financial assistance for health-related expenses for people with disabling conditions." D. "Many of your expenses should be tax deductible, so you should consult with your accountant and then make your appointments."

ANS: C Rationale: Several federal assistance programs provide financial assistance for health-related expenses for people with some chronic illnesses, acquired disabling acute and chronic diseases, and diseases from childhood. Lack of financial resources, including health insurance, is an important barrier to health care for people with disabilities. Acknowledging the problem without proposing solutions is insufficient. The nurse does not know the tax implications of the client's circumstances and should not encourage borrowing as an initial approach.

The nurse is caring for an adult client recently diagnosed with the early stages of lung cancer. The nurse is aware that the preferred method of treating clients with non-small cell tumors is what method? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation C. Surgical resection D. Bronchoscopic opening of the airway

ANS: C Rationale: Surgical resection is the preferred method of treating clients with localized non-small cell tumors with no evidence of metastatic spread and adequate cardiopulmonary function. The other listed treatment options may be considered, but surgery is preferred.

A client has received the news that the client's treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the client receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of which complication? A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Hemophilia C. Secondary malignancy D. Lymphedema

ANS: C Rationale: Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma have a high risk of secondary malignancies. There is no consequent risk of anemia, lymphedema, or hemophilia.

The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory value would most clearly indicate that the client's warfarin is at therapeutic levels? A. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) within normal reference range B. Prothrombin time (PT) 8 to 10 times the control C. International normalized ratio (INR) between 2 and 3 D. Hematocrit of 32%

ANS: C Rationale: The INR is most often used to determine whether warfarin is at a therapeutic level; an INR of 2 to 3 is considered therapeutic. Warfarin is also considered to be at therapeutic levels when the client's PT is 1.5 to 2 times the control. Higher values indicate increased risk of bleeding and hemorrhage, whereas lower values indicate increased risk of blood clot formation. Heparin, not warfarin, prolongs PTT. Hematocrit does not provide information on the effectiveness of warfarin; however, a falling hematocrit in a client taking warfarin may be a sign of hemorrhage.

The nurse, in collaboration with the client's family, is determining priorities related to the care of the client. The nurse explains that it is important to consider the urgency of specific problems when setting priorities. What should the nurse adopt as the best framework for prioritizing client problems? A. Availability of hospital resources B. Family member statements C. Maslow hierarchy of needs D. The nurse's skill set

ANS: C Rationale: The Maslow hierarchy of needs provides a useful framework for prioritizing problems, with the first level given to meeting physical needs of the client. Availability of hospital resources, family member statements, and nursing skill do not provide a framework for prioritization of client problems, though each may be considered.

A client is scheduled for a bowel resection in the morning and the client's orders are for a cleansing enema be administered tonight. The client wants to know why this is necessary. The nurse should explain that the cleansing enema will have what therapeutic effect? A. Preventing aspiration of gastric contents B. Preventing the accumulation of abdominal gas postoperatively C. Preventing potential contamination of the peritoneum D. Facilitating better absorption of medications

ANS: C Rationale: The administration of a cleansing enema will allow for satisfactory visualization of the surgical site and to prevent trauma to the intestine or contamination of the peritoneum by feces. It will have no effect on aspiration of gastric contents or the absorption of medications. The client should expect to develop gas in the postoperative period.

The nurse in a rural nursing facility will be receiving a client in hypovolemic shock due to a massive postpartum hemorrhage after giving birth at home. Which principle should guide the nurse's administration of intravenous fluid? A. 5% albumin is preferred because it is inexpensive and is always readily available. B. Dextran should be given because it increases intravascular volume and counteracts coagulopathy. C. Whatever fluid is most readily available in the clinic should be given, due to the nature of the emergency. D. Lactated Ringer solution is ideal because it increases volume, buffers acidosis,and is the best choice for clients with liver failure.

ANS: C Rationale: The best fluid to treat shock remains controversial. In emergencies, the "best" fluid is often the fluid that is readily available. Fluid resuscitation should be initiated early in shock to maximize intravascular volume. Both crystalloids and colloids can be administered to restore intravascular volume. There is no consensus regarding whether crystalloids or colloids, such as dextran and albumin, should be used; however, with crystalloids, more fluid is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Albumin is very expensive and is a blood product so it is not always readily available for use. Dextran does increase intravascular volume, but it increases the risk for coagulopathy. Lactated Ringer is a good solution choice because it increases volume and buffers acidosis, but it should not be used in clients with liver failure because the liver is unable to convert lactate to bicarbonate. This client does not have liver disease.

The nurse in the intensive care unit is caring for a client with pulmonary hypertension. Which finding should the nurse expect to assess? A. Pulmonary artery pressure greater than 20 mm Hg B. Flat neck veins C. Dyspnea at rest D. Enlarged spleen

ANS: C Rationale: The main symptom in pulmonary hypertension is dyspnea. At first dyspnea occurs with exertion, then eventually at rest. A client with pulmonary hypertension will have a pulmonary artery pressure greater than 25 mm Hg at rest and distended neck veins secondary to right-sided heart failure. The nurse would expect the liver, not the spleen, to be enlarged secondary to engorgement in pulmonary hypertension.

A medical nurse has admitted a client to the unit with a diagnosis of failure to thrive. The client has developed a fever and cough, so a sputum specimen has been obtained. The nurse notes that the sputum is greenish and that there is a large quantity of it. The nurse notifies the client's health care provider because these symptoms are suggestive of what issue? A. Pneumothorax B. Lung tumors C. Infection D. Pulmonary edema

ANS: C Rationale: The nature of the sputum is often indicative of its cause. A profuse amount of purulent sputum (thick and yellow, green, or rust-colored) or a change in color of the sputum is a common sign of a bacterial infection. Pink-tinged mucoid sputum suggests a lung tumor. Profuse, frothy, pink material, often welling up into the throat, may indicate pulmonary edema. A pneumothorax does not result in copious, green sputum.

The nurse has noted the emergence of a significant amount of fresh blood at the drain site of a client who is postoperative day 1 following total laryngectomy. What is the nurse's best action? A. Remove the client's drain and apply pressure with a sterile gauze. B. Assess the client, reposition the client supine, and apply wall suction to the drain. C. Rapidly assess the client and notify the surgeon about the client's bleeding. D. Administer a STAT dose of vitamin K to aid coagulation.

ANS: C Rationale: The nurse promptly notifies the surgeon of any active bleeding, which can occur at a variety of sites, including the surgical site, drains, and trachea. The drain should not be removed or connected to suction. Supine positioning would exacerbate the bleeding. Vitamin K would not be given without an order.

A client with a recent diagnosis of HIV infection expresses an interest in exploring alternative and complementary therapies. How should the nurse best respond? A. "Complementary therapies generally have not been approved, so clients are usually discouraged from using them." B. "Researchers have not looked at the benefits of alternative therapy for clients with HIV, so we suggest that you stay away from these therapies until there is solid research data available." C. "Many clients with HIV use some type of alternative therapy and, as with most health treatments, there are benefits and risks." D. "You'll need to meet with your doctor to choose between an alternative approach to treatment and a medical approach."

ANS: C Rationale: The nurse should approach the topic of alternative or complementary therapies from an open-ended, supportive approach, emphasizing the need to communicate with care providers. Complementary therapies and medical treatment are not mutually exclusive, though some contraindications exist. Research supports the efficacy of some forms of complementary and alternative treatment.

A client with osteoarthritis of the hip for a number of years reports a dull, aching pain with ambulation and pain shooting down the leg at night while sleeping. The nurse recognizes that the client is experiencing which type of pain? A. Acute pain B. Breakthrough pain C. Chronic pain D. Neuropathic pain

ANS: C Rationale: The pain from osteoarthritis is a chronic pain that persists over a period of time due to the degeneration of the hip joint. Acute pain has a shorter duration and resolves with healing. Breakthrough pain is a temporary increase in controlled persistent pain. Neuropathic or pathophysiologic pain is caused by injury to a nerve with impaired processing of sensory input.

A nurse is providing care for a client who has osteomalacia. What major goal should guide the choice of medical and nursing interventions? A. Maintenance of skin integrity B. Prevention of bone metastasis C. Maintenance of adequate levels of activated vitamin D D. Maintenance of adequate parathyroid hormone function

ANS: C Rationale: The primary defect in osteomalacia is a deficiency of activated vitamin D, which promotes calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and facilitates mineralization of bone. Interventions are aimed at resolving the processes underlying this deficiency. Maintenance of skin integrity is important, but is not the primary goal in care. Osteomalacia is not a malignant process. Overproduction (not underproduction) of PTH can cause the disease.

A client's primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the client's immune response. This is known as what physiologic state? A. Static stage B. Latent stage C. Viral set point D. Window period

ANS: C Rationale: The remaining amount of virus in the body after primary infection is referred to as the viral set point, which results in a steady state of infection that lasts for years. This is not known as the static or latent stage. The window period is the time a person infected with HIV tests negative even though they are infected.

The nurse navigator is coordinating the transition from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility of a client who had a total hip replacement. Which activity would be an example of the nurse navigator role for this client? A. Ensuring cost-effective care B. Communicating with the medical insurance company C. Educating the client on the goals of rehabilitation D. Providing direct care to the client

ANS: C Rationale: The role of the nurse navigator is to assist clients with transitions in different levels of care, such as from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility. It is the role of a case manager to ensure cost-effective care and to communicate with the medical insurance company. The nurse navigator does not provide direct care to clients.

During an orientation class, the medical unit's nursing educator is presenting education on transcultural nursing to a group of newly licensed nurses. What should the staff educator identify as the underlying focus of transcultural nursing? A. To enhance the cultural environment of institutions B. To promote the health of communities C. To provide culture-specific and culture-universal care D. To promote the well-being of discrete, marginalized groups

ANS: C Rationale: The underlying focus of transcultural nursing is to provide culture-specific and culture-universal care that promotes the well-being or health of individuals, families, groups, communities, and institutions. It includes, but is not limited to, institutions, communities, or marginalized groups.

A nurse is planning the care of a client with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease who has been admitted for the treatment of an acute vaso-occlusive crisis. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize in the client's plan of care? A. Risk for disuse syndrome related to ineffective peripheral circulation B. Functional urinary incontinence related to urethral occlusion C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to thrombosis D. Ineffective thermoregulation related to hypothalamic dysfunction

ANS: C Rationale: There are multiple potential complications of sickle cell disease and sickle cell crises. Central among these, however, is the risk of thrombosis and consequent lack of tissue perfusion. Sickle cell crises are not normally accompanied by impaired thermoregulation or genitourinary complications. Risk for disuse syndrome is not associated with the effects of acute vaso-occlusive crisis.

The nurse is providing discharge education to a client diagnosed with heart failure. What should the nurse teach this client to do to assess fluid balance in the home setting? A. Monitor and record blood pressure daily. B. Monitor and record radial pulses daily. C. Monitor weight daily. D. Monitor bowel movements.

ANS: C Rationale: To assess fluid balance at home, the client should monitor daily weights at the same time every day. Assessing radial pulses and monitoring the blood pressure may be done, but these measurements do not provide information about fluid balance. Bowel function is not indicative of fluid balance.

The nurse is creating a care plan for a client who is status post-total laryngectomy. Much of the plan consists of a long-term postoperative communication plan for alaryngeal communication. Which form of alaryngeal communication is generally most preferred? A. Esophageal speech B. Electric larynx C. Tracheoesophageal puncture D. American sign language (ASL)

ANS: C Rationale: Tracheoesophageal puncture is simple and has few complications. It is associated with high phonation success, good phonation quality, and steady long-term results. As a result, it is preferred over esophageal speech, electric larynx, and ASL.

A client has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. After the health care provider discusses treatment options and leaves the room, the client asks the nurse how the treatment is decided upon. What would be the nurse's best response? A. "The type of treatment depends on the client's age and health status." B. "The type of treatment depends on what the client wants when given the options." C. "The type of treatment depends on the cell type of the cancer, the stage of the cancer, and the client's health status." D. "The type of treatment depends on the discussion between the client and the health care provider of which treatment is best."

ANS: C Rationale: Treatment of lung cancer depends on the cell type, the stage of the disease, and the client's physiologic status (particularly cardiac and pulmonary status). Treatment does not depend solely on the client's age or the client's preference between the different treatment modes. The decision about treatment does not primarily depend on a discussion between the client and the health care provider of which treatment is best, though this discussion will take place.

At a blood pressure screening, the nurse learns that a client has a family history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and elevated lipid levels. The client says reports smoking one pack of cigarettes daily and drinking "about a pack of beer" every day. The nurse notes which nonmodifiable risk factor for hypertension? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Excessive alcohol intake C. A family history of hypertension D. Closer adherence to medical regimen

ANS: C Rationale: Unlike cholesterol levels, alcohol intake, and adherence to treatment, family history is not modifiable.

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation has contacted the clinic reporting an accidental overdose on prescribed warfarin. The nurse should recognize the possible need for which antidote? A. Intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG) B. Factor IX C. Vitamin K D. Factor VIII

ANS: C Rationale: Vitamin K is given as an antidote for warfarin toxicity. IVIG is a form of immunosuppressive therapy given to treat immune thrombocytopenic purpura and to counteract hemolytic transfusion reaction and neutralizing antibodies (inhibitors) that develop in response to factor replacement therapy in clients with hemophilia. IVIG is not used as an antidote for warfarin toxicity. Factors VIII and IX are clotting factors that are deficient in clients with hemophilia due to a genetic defect; these clients may receive recombinant forms of these factors to treat their condition.

A client is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a fractured femur after a motorcycle accident. The client has been placed in traction until the femur can be rodded in surgery. For what early complication(s) should the nurse monitor this client? Select all that apply. A. Systemic infection B. Complex regional pain syndrome C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Compartment syndrome E. Fat embolism

ANS: C, D, E Rationale: Early complications include shock, fat embolism, compartment syndrome, and venous thromboemboli (deep vein thrombosis [DVT], pulmonary embolism [PE]). Infection and complex regional pain syndrome are later complications of fractures.

A community health nurse has drafted a program that will address the health promotion needs of members of the community who live with one or more disabilities. Which area of health promotion education is known to be neglected among adults with disabilities? A. Blood pressure screening B. Diabetes testing C. Nutrition D. Sexual health

ANS: D Rationale: Health promotion interventions addressing sexual health in disabled individuals are necessary but rare. Blood pressure testing, diabetes testing, and nutrition are not known to constitute such a gap in health promotion teaching.

The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day 2 following a total laryngectomy for supraglottic cancer. The nurse should prioritize what assessment? A. Assessment of body image B. Assessment of jugular venous pressure C. Assessment of carotid pulse D. Assessment of swallowing ability

ANS: D Rationale: A common postoperative complication from this type of surgery is difficulty in swallowing, which creates a potential for aspiration. Cardiovascular complications are less likely at this stage of recovery. The client's body image should be assessed, but dysphagia has the potential to affect the client's airway, and is a consequent priority.

A 69-year-old client is readmitted with heart failure. The client reports taking all medications as prescribed. The client's grandchild usually helps to set up a weekly organizer pill container but is away at college. What should the nurse first do with this information? A. Call the client's home to solicit another family member to help with the medications on discharge. B. Explain the current inpatient orders and make a note on the chart for discharge C. Contact the client's health care provider (HCP) for assistance and direction on how to proceed. D. Complete a comprehensive assessment reviewing the client's medication history, including over-the-counter medications

ANS: D Rationale: A comprehensive assessment begins with a thorough medication history. This is a nursing intervention and part of the admission process. While a note is appropriate, interventions should start before discharge to ensure medication compliance and safety and to decrease readmission. The client's inpatient orders may change once the medication history is reviewed. Until a medication history is obtained, calling the family isn't appropriate. The nurse may need to contact the HCP regarding the client's medication practices, but this should be done after completing a comprehensive assessment of the client's medication history.

The nurse is planning the care of a client who has been diagnosed with hypertension, but who otherwise enjoys good health. When assessing the response to an antihypertensive drug regimen, which blood pressure would be the goal of treatment? A. 160/90 mm Hg or lower B. 100/80 mm Hg or lower C. Average of two BP readings of 150/80 mm Hg D. 130/80 mm Hg or lower

ANS: D Rationale: A pressure of 130/80 mm Hg or less is the goal for clients. All other readings are out of range or not appropriate.

A critical care nurse is caring for a client with immune hemolytic anemia. The client is not responding to conservative treatments, and the client's condition is now becoming life-threatening. The nurse is aware that a treatment option in this case may include which intervention? A. Hepatectomy B. Vitamin K administration C. Platelet transfusion D. Splenectomy

ANS: D Rationale: A splenectomy may be the course of treatment if autoimmune hemolytic anemia does not respond to conservative treatment. Vitamin K administration is treatment for vitamin K deficiency and does not resolve anemia. Platelet transfusion may be the course of treatment for some bleeding disorders. Hepatectomy would not help the client.

A client is a candidate for percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty, but is concerned about how this procedure will affect the client's busy work schedule. Which guidance would the nurse provide to the client? A. "Clients generally stay in the hospital for 6 to 8 days." B. "Clients are kept in the hospital until they are independent with all aspects of their care." C. "Clients need to stay in the hospital until they regain normal heart function for their age." D. "Clients usually remain at the hospital for 24 to 48 hours."

ANS: D Rationale: After undergoing percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty, the client usually remains in the hospital for 24 to 48 hours. Prediagnosis levels of heart function are not always attainable and the client does not need to be wholly independent prior to discharge.

The intensive care unit nurse is caring for a client with sepsis whose tissue perfusion is declining. What sign would indicate to the nurse that end-organ damage may be occurring? A. Urinary output increases B. Skin becomes warm and dry C. Adventitious lung sounds occur in the upper airway D. Heart and respiratory rates are elevated

ANS: D Rationale: As sepsis progresses, tissues become less perfused and acidotic, compensation begins to fail, and the client begins to show signs of organ dysfunction. The cardiovascular system also begins to fail, the blood pressure does not respond to fluid resuscitation and vasoactive agents, and signs of end-organ damage are evident (e.g., acute kidney injury, pulmonary failure, hepatic failure). As sepsis progresses to septic shock, the blood pressure drops, and the skin becomes cool, pale, and mottled. Temperature may be normal or below normal. Heart and respiratory rates remain rapid. Urine production ceases, and multiple organ dysfunction progressing to death occurs. Adventitious lung sounds occur throughout the lung fields, not just in the upper fields of the lungs.

A client with a family history of allergies has experienced an allergic response based on a genetic predisposition. This atopic response is usually mediated by which immunoglobulin (Ig)? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE

ANS: D Rationale: Atopy refers to allergic reactions characterized by the action of IgE antibodies and a genetic predisposition to allergic reactions. IgE (0.004% of total Ig) appears in serum; takes part in allergic and some hypersensitivity reactions; and combats parasitic infections. IgA (15% of total Ig) appears in body fluids (blood, saliva, tears, and breast milk, as well as pulmonary, gastrointestinal, prostatic, and vaginal secretions); protects against respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary infections; prevents absorption of antigens from food; and passes to neonate in breast milk for protection. IgM (10% of total Ig) appears mostly in intravascular serum; appears as the first Ig produced in response to bacterial and viral infections; and activates the complement system. IgG (75% of total Ig) appears in serum and tissues (interstitial fluid); assumes a major role in bloodborne and tissue infections; activates the complement system; enhances phagocytosis; and crosses the placenta.

14. A client is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer which has metastasized to the client's liver and bones. For the past several hours, the client has been experiencing dyspnea. What nursing action is most appropriate? A. Administer a bolus of normal saline, as prescribed. B. Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy. C. Administer high doses of opioids. D. Administer bronchodilators and corticosteroids, as prescribed.

ANS: D Rationale: Bronchodilators and corticosteroids help to improve lung function, as do low doses of opioids. Low-flow oxygen often provides psychological comfort to the client and family. A fluid bolus is unlikely to be of benefit.

A client is being treated on the medical unit for a sickle cell crisis. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals a fever and a new onset of fine crackles on lung auscultation. Which action by the nurse would be the most appropriate? A. Apply supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula. B. Administer bronchodilators by nebulizer. C. Liaise with the respiratory therapist and consider high-flow oxygen. D. Inform the health care provider that the client may have an infection.

ANS: D Rationale: Clients with sickle cell disease are highly susceptible to infection, thus any early signs of infection should be reported promptly. There is no evidence of respiratory distress, so oxygen therapy and bronchodilators are not indicated.

The nurse is completing a focused assessment addressing a client's immune function. What should the nurse prioritize in the physical assessment? A. Percussion of the client's abdomen B. Palpation of the client's liver C. Auscultation of the client's apical heart rate D. Palpation of the client's lymph nodes

ANS: D Rationale: During the assessment of immune function, the anterior and posterior cervical, supraclavicular, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes are palpated for enlargement. If palpable nodes are detected, their location, size, consistency, and reports of tenderness on palpation are noted. Because of the central role of lymph nodes in the immune system, they are prioritized over the heart, liver, and abdomen, even though these would be assessed.

When caring for a client who predominantly identifies with another culture than the nurse, how can the nurse best demonstrate an awareness of culturally congruent care? A. Maintain eye contact at all times. B. Try to speak the client's primary language. C. Use touch when communicating. D. Establish effective communication.

ANS: D Rationale: Establishment of an environment of culturally congruent care and respect begins with effective communication, which occurs not only through words, but also through body language and other cues, such as voice, tone, and loudness. Not all cultures are comfortable with eye contact. Unless the nurse is fluent in the client's primary language, trying to communicate in that language would not be effective communication. Not all cultures incorporate touch while communicating.

A clinic nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with fibromyalgia. When developing a care plan for this client, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A. Impaired urinary elimination related to neuropathy B. Altered nutrition related to impaired absorption C. Disturbed sleep pattern related to central nervous system stimulation D. Fatigue related to pain

ANS: D Rationale: Fibromyalgia is characterized by fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness. Impaired urinary elimination is not a common manifestation of the disease. Altered nutrition and disturbed sleep pattern are potential nursing diagnoses, but are not the priority.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with cardiogenic shock. The client is experiencing chest pain and there is an order for the administration of morphine. In addition to pain control, what is the main rationale for administering morphine to this client? A. It promotes coping and slows catecholamine release. B. It stimulates the client so he or she is more alert. C. It decreases gastric secretions. D. It dilates the blood vessels.

ANS: D Rationale: For clients experiencing chest pain, morphine is the drug of choice because it dilates the blood vessels and controls the client's anxiety. Morphine would not be prescribed to promote coping or to stimulate the client. The rationale behind using morphine would not be to decrease gastric secretions.

A client with rheumatic disease has developed a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. The nurse caring for the client should further assess for medications that typically exacerbate this condition. Which medication applies? A. Corticosteroids B. Immunomodulators C. Antimalarials D. Salicylate therapy

ANS: D Rationale: GI bleeding is an adverse effect that is associated with salicylates. Corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunomodulators do not normally have this adverse effect.

The nurse is assessing an older adult client with numerous health problems. Which assessment finding indicates an increase in the client's risk for heart failure? A. The client takes furosemide 20 mg/day. B. The client's potassium level is 4.7 mEq/L. C. The client is white. D. The client's age is greater than 65.

ANS: D Rationale: Heart failure is the most common reason for hospitalization of people older than 65 years of age and is the second-most common reason for visits to a physician's office. A potassium level of 4.7 mEq/L is within reference range and does not indicate an increased risk for heart failure. The fact that the client takes furosemide 20 mg/day does not indicate an increased risk for heart failure, although this drug is often used in the treatment of heart failure. The client being white indicates a decreased risk for heart failure compared with Black and Hispanic clients.

4. The nurse caring for a client recently diagnosed with lung disease encourages the client not to smoke. What is the primary rationale behind this nursing action? A. Smoking decreases the amount of mucus production. B. Smoke particles compete for binding sites on hemoglobin. C. Smoking causes atrophy of the alveoli. D. Smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism.

ANS: D Rationale: In addition to irritating the mucous cells of the bronchi and inhibiting the function of alveolar macrophage (scavenger) cells, smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism of the respiratory tract. Smoking also increases the amount of mucus production and distends the alveoli in the lungs. It reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin, but not by directly competing for binding sites.

A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment on a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is most important for the nurse to review which of the following? A. Social work assessment B. Finances C. Chloride levels D. Available diagnostic tests

ANS: D Rationale: In addition to the client's history, the nurse reviews the results of available diagnostic tests. Social work assessment is not a priority for the majority of clients. Chloride levels are relevant to cystic fibrosis, not COPD. Immediate physiological status would be more important than finances.

A client's total laryngectomy has created a need for alaryngeal speech, which will be achieved through the use of tracheoesophageal puncture. What action should the nurse describe to the client when teaching about this process? A. Training how to perform controlled belching B. Use of an electronically enhanced artificial pharynx C. Insertion of a specialized nasogastric tube D. Fitting for a voice prosthesis

ANS: D Rationale: In clients receiving tracheoesophageal puncture, a valve is placed in the tracheal stoma to divert air into the esophagus and out the mouth. Once the puncture is surgically created and has healed, a voice prosthesis is fitted over the puncture site. A nasogastric tube and belching are not required. An artificial pharynx is not used.

A client presents to the clinic reporting intermittent chest pain on exertion, which is eventually attributed to angina. The nurse should inform the client that angina is most often attributable to what cause? A. Decreased cardiac output B. Decreased cardiac contractility C. Infarction of the myocardium D. Coronary arteriosclerosis

ANS: D Rationale: In most cases, angina pectoris is due to arteriosclerosis. The disease is not a result of impaired cardiac output or contractility. Infarction may result from untreated angina, but it is not a cause of the disease.

The nurse is caring for a client on telemetry. The client's ECG shows atrial fibrillation, wide QRS and a fast, irregular ventricular rhythm. What does this ECG show? A. Sinus bradycardia B. Myocardial infarction C. Lupus-like syndrome D. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

ANS: D Rationale: In the client with atrial fibrillation, if the QRS is wide and the ventricular rhythm is very fast and irregular, an accessory pathway should be suspected. An accessory pathway is typically congenital tissue between the atria, bundle of His, AV node, Purkinje fibers, or ventricular myocardium. This anomaly is known as Wolff- Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. These characteristics are not typical of the other listed cardiac anomalies.

When teaching a client with sickle cell disease about strategies to prevent crises, what measures should the nurse recommend? A. Using prophylactic antibiotics and performing meticulous hygiene B. Maximizing physical activity and taking OTC iron supplements C. Limiting psychosocial stress and eating a high-protein diet D. Avoiding cold temperatures and ensuring sufficient hydration

ANS: D Rationale: Keeping warm and providing adequate hydration can be effective in diminishing the occurrence and severity of attacks. Hygiene, antibiotics, and high protein intake do not prevent crises. Maximizing activity may exacerbate pain and be unrealistic.

The hospital case manager for a group of recently discharged clients with asthma is providing health education. Which aspect of client teaching would have the greatest impact on preventing readmissions? A. Alternative treatment modalities B. Family participation in care C. Pathophysiology of the disease process D. Self-care and the therapeutic regimen

ANS: D Rationale: Knowledge about self-care and the therapeutic regimen would have the greatest impact on preventing admissions. For clients, the ability to understand the complex therapies of inhalers, anti-allergy and anti-reflux medications, and avoidance measures are essential for long-term control. Knowledge of alternative treatment modalities, such herbs, vitamins, or yoga, may help but is usually most effective as a complementary measure to an existing plan. Involving the family in care is important and can help the client with compliance, support, and encouragement, but ultimately the client is responsible for their own health. Understanding the pathophysiology of the disease process is important to include in education as it provides a better understanding in regards to causation and how it affects the body. However, how to physically manage asthma takes precedence over understanding in terms of readmission strategies.

A client is undergoing diagnostic testing for osteomalacia. Which of the following laboratory results are most suggestive of this diagnosis? A. High chloride, calcium, and magnesium levels B. High parathyroid and calcitonin levels C. Low serum calcium and magnesium levels D. Low serum calcium and low phosphorus level

ANS: D Rationale: Laboratory studies in clients with osteomalacia will reveal a low serum calcium and low phosphorus level.

A client's history of skin hyperreactivity and inflammation has been attributed to atopic dermatitis. The nurse should recognize that this client consequently faces an increased risk of which health problem? A. Bronchitis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) D. Asthma

ANS: D Rationale: Nurses should be aware that atopic dermatitis is often the first step in a process, known as atopic march, that leads to asthma and allergic rhinitis. It is not linked as closely to bronchitis, SLE, or RA.

A client has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. The client asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) virus are present in the blood, this indicates that the client has which of the following? A. Immunity to HIV B. An intact immune system C. An AIDS-related complication D. An HIV infection

ANS: D Rationale: Positive test results indicate that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood. The presence of antibodies does not imply an intact immune system or specific immunity to HIV. This finding does not indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.

A nurse is explaining to a client with asthma with a new prescription for prednisone what it is used for. What would be the most accurate explanation that the nurse could give? A. To ensure long-term prevention of asthma exacerbations B. To cure any systemic infection underlying asthma attacks C. To prevent recurrent pulmonary infections D. To gain prompt control of inadequately controlled, persistent asthma

ANS: D Rationale: Prednisone is used for a short-term (3-10 days) "burst" to gain prompt control of inadequately controlled, persistent asthma. It is not used to treat infection or to prevent exacerbations in the long term.

A 25-year-old client comes to the emergency department with excessive bleeding from a cut sustained when cleaning a knife. Blood work shows a prolonged prothrombin time (PT), but a vitamin K deficiency is ruled out. When assessing the client, areas of ecchymosis are noted on other areas of the body. Which of the following is the most plausible cause of the client's signs and symptoms? A. Lymphoma B. Leukemia C. Hemophilia D. Hepatic dysfunction

ANS: D Rationale: Prolongation of the PT, unless it is caused by vitamin K deficiency, may indicate severe hepatic dysfunction. Liver dysfunction can lead to decreased amount of factors needed for coagulation and hemostasis. The majority of hemophiliacs are diagnosed as children. The scenario does not describe signs or symptoms of lymphoma or leukemia.

The nurse is caring for an adult client who has just received a diagnosis of prostate cancer. The client states, "I will never be able to cope with this situation." How should the nurse best understand the concept of stress when attempting to meet this client's needs? A. It is a physiologic measurement used to deal with change, and the client will physically adapt. B. It is a physiologic or psychological process that the client implements to adapt to change. C. It is an external event or situation that produces change that does not contribute to growth. D. It is a disruptive condition produced by a change that influences the client's dynamic balance.

ANS: D Rationale: Stress is a disruptive condition produced by a change in the environment that is perceived as challenging, threatening, or damaging to a person's dynamic balance or equilibrium. Stressors can be described as psychological, physiologic, or psychosocial. Stress can be an internal or external event and contributes to growth.

A client has just been diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. The client asks the nurse why the doctor is not offering surgery as a treatment for the cancer. Which fact about lung cancer treatment should inform the nurse's response? A. The cells in small cell cancer of the lung are not large enough to visualize in surgery. B. Small cell lung cancer is self-limiting in many clients, and surgery should be delayed. C. Clients with small cell lung cancer are not normally stable enough to survive surgery. D. Small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively.

ANS: D Rationale: Surgery is primarily used for non-small cell lung cancer, because small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively. Difficult visualization and a client's medical instability are not the limiting factors. Lung cancer is not a self-limiting disease.

When assessing the client with pericardial effusion, the nurse will assess for pulsus paradoxus. Pulsus paradoxus is characterized by what assessment finding? A. A diastolic blood pressure that is lower during exhalation B. A diastolic blood pressure that is higher during inhalation C. A systolic blood pressure that is higher during exhalation D. A systolic blood pressure that is lower during inhalation

ANS: D Rationale: Systolic blood pressure that is markedly lower during inhalation is called pulsus paradoxus. The difference in systolic pressure between the point that is heard during exhalation and the point that is heard during inhalation is measured. Pulsus paradoxus exceeding 10 mm Hg is abnormal.

A client's diagnosis of atrial fibrillation has prompted the primary care provider to prescribe warfarin. When assessing the therapeutic response to this medication, which action by the nurse is the most appropriate? A. Assess for signs of myelosuppression. B. Review the client's platelet level. C. Assess the client's capillary refill time. D. Review the client's international normalized ratio (INR).

ANS: D Rationale: The INR and activated partial thromboplastin time serve as useful tools for evaluating a client's clotting ability and monitoring the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant medications. The client's platelet level is not normally used as a short-term indicator of anticoagulation effectiveness. Assessing the client for signs of myelosuppression and assessing capillary refill time do not address the effectiveness of anticoagulants.

The intensive care unit nurse is caring for an acutely ill client with signs of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). The nurse knows the client is at risk for developing MODS due to all of the following EXCEPT: A. Malnutrition B. Advanced age C. Multiple comorbidities D. Progressive dyspnea

ANS: D Rationale: The client with advanced age is at risk for developing MODS due to the lack of physiological reserve. The client with malnutrition metabolic compromise and the client with multiple comorbidities is at risk for developing MODS due to decreased organ function. Progressive dyspnea is the first sign of MODS.

An older adult client with heart failure is being discharged home on an ACE inhibitor and a loop diuretic. The client's most recent vital signs prior to discharge include oxygen saturation of 93% on room air, heart rate of 81 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 94/59 mm Hg. When planning this client's subsequent care, what nursing concern should be identified? A. Altered tissue perfusion risk related to arrhythmia B. Excess fluid volume risk related to medication regimen C. Altered breathing pattern risk related to hypoxia D. Falls risk related to hypotension

ANS: D Rationale: The combination of low BP, diuretic use, and ACE inhibitor use constitutes a risk for falls. There is no evidence, or heightened risk, of dysrhythmia. The client's medications create a risk for fluid deficit, not fluid excess. Hypoxia is a risk for all clients with heart failure, but this is not in evidence for this client at this time.

The nurse takes the client's blood pressure, and the reading is 161/101 mm Hg. The nurse knows this blood pressure would be classified as which type? A. Elevated B. Normal C. Stage 1 hypertensive D. Stage 2 hypertensive

ANS: D Rationale: The latest guidelines (November 2017) released by the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association are: Normal blood pressure: Systolic less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure: Systolic between 120 and 129 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg. Stage 1 hypertension: Systolic between 130 and 139 mm Hg or diastolic between 80 and 89 mm Hg. Stage 2 hypertension: Systolic of 140 or greater mm Hg or diastolic of 90 or greater mm Hg.

An interdisciplinary team has been commissioned to create policies and procedures aimed at preventing acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. What action has the greatest potential to reduce the risk of this transfusion reaction? A. Ensure that blood components are never infused at a rate greater than 125 mL/h. B. Administer prophylactic antihistamines prior to all blood transfusions. C. Establish baseline vital signs for all clients receiving transfusions. D. Be vigilant in identifying the client and the blood component.

ANS: D Rationale: The most common causes of acute hemolytic reaction are errors in blood component labeling and client identification that result in the administration of an ABO-incompatible transfusion. Actions to address these causes are necessary in all health care settings. Prophylactic antihistamines are not normally given, and would not prevent acute hemolytic reactions. Similarly, baseline vital signs and slow administration will not prevent this reaction.

A client with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The client asks the nurse why it is necessary to stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. Which response by the nurse would be best? A. "Avoiding these factors can reduce the risk of Reed-Sternberg cells developing." B. "These behaviors can reduce the effectiveness of your chemotherapy." C. "Engaging in these activities increases your risk of hemorrhage." D. "It's important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers."

ANS: D Rationale: The nurse should encourage clients to reduce other factors that increase the risk of developing second cancers, such as use of tobacco and alcohol and exposure to environmental carcinogens and excessive sunlight. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is the pathologic hallmark and essential diagnostic criterion for Hodgkin lymphoma, so avoiding these behaviors will not reduce the risk of Reed-Sternberg cells developing. There is no evidence that these behaviors will reduce the effectiveness of chemotherapy or increase the risk of hemorrhage, which is not a typical complication of Hodgkin lymphoma.

When assessing a postsurgical client's risk for deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should prioritize what assessment parameter? A. Range of motion B. Family history C. Blood pressure D. Hydration status

ANS: D Rationale: The stress response that is initiated by surgery inhibits the fibrinolytic system, resulting in blood hypercoagulability. Dehydration, low cardiac output, blood pooling in the extremities, and bed rest add to the risk of thrombosis formation. Altered blood pressure is not a risk factor and there are no known genetic factors. Immobility is a risk factor, but the client's range of motion does not directly determine his or her mobility level.

The nurse is caring for a client who identifies as Native American/First Nations. The client arrives at the clinic for treatment related to type 2 diabetes. Which question would best provide information about the role of food in the client's cultural practices and identify how the client's food preferences could be related to the current condition? A. "Do you feel any of your cultural practices have a negative impact on your disease process?" B. "What types of foods are served as a part of your cultural practices, and how are they prepared?" C. "As a non-Native, I am unaware of your cultural practices. Could you teach me a few practices that may affect your care?" D. "Tell me about foods that you eat and how you feel they influence managing your diabetes."

ANS: D Rationale: While the beliefs and practices that have been shared from generation to generation are known as cultural or ethnic patterns, the nurse should not assume that the client follows these practices. Rather, the nurse should ask what foods the client eats and how the client feels those foods affect diabetes management. An overemphasis on negatives can inhibit assessment and communication. Assessing the types and preparation of foods specific to cultural practices without relating it to diabetes is inadequate. The question, "As a non-Native, I am unaware of your cultural practices. Could you teach me a few practices that may affect your care?" focuses on "care" and fails to address the significance of food in cultural practice or diabetes.