Exam Set 2

C. The normative sample for the WAIS-IV included 2,200 individuals ranging in age from 16:0 to 90:11

The WAIS-IV is appropriate for individuals ages: A. 10 through 70. B. 12 through 65. C. 16 through 90. D. 18 through 85.

B. The cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system and is believed to play an excitatory role in emotions and in motivating behaviors. It's also known as the satisfaction center - mediating feelings of satisfaction following eating and sex.

The cingulate cortex is most associated with: A. spatial memory B. emotions and motivation C. somatosensory processing D. balance and posture

D. Collaborative empiricism is a central technique of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy and refers to the therapist and client working together to gather evidence and test the logic, or hypotheses, of the client's thoughts and beliefs.

The concept "collaborative empiricism" is affiliated with which of the following theorists? A. Perls B. Freud C. Ellis D. Beck

B. Contrary to what may be expected, the prevalence of mental disorders in people 65 and older is lower than any other age group; only cognitive impairment shows a definite age-associated increase in incidence.

The prevalence of mental disorders in people over 65 is: A. higher than any other age group B. lower than any other age group C. higher, and includes cognitive impairment D. The same as the under 65 population

Avolition

refers to a lack of initiative, motivation, or goal-directed activities and is a "negative" symptom of Schizophrenia or Schizophreniform disorder when it is severe enough to prevent an individual from doing basic activities.

A. One criticism of anger management training for children has been that most programs, which utilize a cognitive-behavioral approach, place the emphasis on the individual's perceptions, feelings and behaviors while ignoring the interpersonal or systemic factors. Research indicates that training program effectiveness is increased by expanding beyond the individual to include family, peer and community relationships

Anger management training for children has been criticized for: A. limited positive effects due to focusing on the individual B. limited positive effects due to focusing on the behavior C. being developmentally inappropriate due to children's tendency to blame anger on others D. being developmentally inappropriate due to children's inability to control feelings and behaviors

A. While in vivo exposure has been found superior to exposure in imagination for Simple Phobia and Agoraphobia, the difference is less clear for OCD (both seem effective). In addition, gradual exposure and maximal exposure (flooding) seem to be about equally effective as are massed and distributed exposure sessions. However, there is evidence that the benefits of exposure are maximized when it is combined with response (ritual) prevention.

As a treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, in vivo exposure: A. is most effective when exposure is combined with response prevention. B. is most effective when exposure is distributed (versus massed) and is combined with response prevention. C. is most effective when exposure is massed (versus distributed) but involves a gradual increase in the intensity of anxiety arousal. D. is effective only when maximal anxiety is invoked during exposure sessions.

D. Evidence suggests that bilingual children perform better on tests of cognitive flexibility, divergent thinking, and metalinguistic awareness, than monolingual children. Findings on the academic performance of bilingual children are inconsistent and influenced by many factors such as the age of second language acquisition, community support, and academic services

Bilingual children ______________________ than monolingual children. A. perform no better or no worse academically B. perform worse academically C. have no better or no worse intellectual flexibility D. have increased intellectual flexibility

C. A basic tenet of systems theory is that a system seeks homeostasis, or balance and stability. Consequently, the alternative description of a system as always tending toward chaos is actually opposite to what is the case. All the other alternatives are more or less true of the systems approach

From a family systems perspective, all of the following statements are true, except: A. change in any one part of the family is associated with change in all other parts. B. the system is composed of interrelated parts. C. there is a constant dynamic toward chaos which is checked through family rituals and beliefs. D. the system maintains a balance of periods of change and periods of stability.

D. According to Gregory Herek, violence against gays and lesbians is attributable to a combination of psychological (individual) and cultural heterosexism. Heterosexism is defined as an "ideological system that denies, denigrates, and stigmatizes among nonheterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community" (p. 150).

Gregory Herek (1992) ascribes violence against gays and lesbians to: A. stigmatization. B. bigotry. C. homophobia. D. heterosexism.

D. High expressed emotion (also known as negative expressed emotion) refers to three family behaviors - hostility, criticalness, and emotional over-involvement. It has been linked to an increased risk for relapse for patients with Schizophrenia, Major Depressive Disorder, Bipolar I Disorder, and other disorders

High expressed emotion has been linked to an increased risk of relapse for individuals with Schizophrenia and is characterized by all of the following except: A. emotional over-involvement. B. hostility. C. frequent criticism. D. inconsistency and ambivalence.

D. Research investigating outcomes of quality bilingual education programs shows that immigrant children in these programs learn English and subject matter as well as or better than immigrants in English-only programs.

Immigrant children who complete bilingual education programs, as compared to counterparts who are submerged in "English-only" education, end up: A. more deficient in both the native language and in English. B. more proficient in the native language but more deficient in English. C. more deficient in the native language. D. at least equally proficient in English.

B. During middle childhood sibling relationships are characterized by a combination of conflict and closeness. During this period siblings typically fight and experience friction, yet also report having greater warmth and companionship with each other.

In late childhood and adolescence, sibling relationships tend to become egalitarian; however, during middle childhood they can best be described as: A. distant and distrustful B. conflicted and close C. abusive and uncaring D. dominant and submissive

C. The WAIS-IV Full Scale IQ and Index scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, and the subtest scores have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of 3.

Individual subtest scores on the WAIS-IV are standard scores that have a mean of ___ and standard deviation of ___. A. 100; 15 B. 50; 5 C. 10; 3 D. 8; 2

C. Interoceptive exposure is often included as a component of cognitive-behavioral therapy for individuals with Panic Disorder. It involves exposure to physical sensations associated with panic attacks by, for example, having the person hyperventilate, spin in a chair, or breathe through a straw.

Interoceptive exposure is an effective intervention for people with which of the following? A. Bipolar I Disorder B. Substance Use Disorder C. Panic Disorder D. Paraphilic Disorder

D. Yalom felt the most important factors in group process were interpersonal learning, which gave members an opportunity to learn valuable interpersonal skills, catharsis, where group members are able to openly express their feelings in front of other members, and group cohesiveness where group members feel a sense of cohesiveness and friendliness with other group members. However the importance of these factors is relative. Higher functioning group participants rate interpersonal learning and universality as more important. In lower functioning clients the instillation of hope is deemed most important.

Irving Yalom (1985) felt the most important therapeutic factors in groups were: A. Altruism, universality, installation of hope B. Instillation of hope, catharsis, existential factors, C. Cohesiveness, altruism, universality D. Interpersonal learning, catharsis and cohesiveness .

B. J. Barry conceptualizes acculturation as many models existing on a continuum, with the minority culture and the majority or mainstream culture at opposite poles. Integration would be displayed by an individual who has high retention of the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.

J. Berry, who views acculturation as a multidimensional construct, would describe an integrated client as one who: A. Has a low retention of the minority culture B. Has high maintenance of the mainstream culture C. Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority culture D. Gets along with others in the workplace

A. Kohlberg believed that the three levels of moral reasoning reflect different levels of cognitive development, which encompasses changes in social perspective-taking. At the conventional level, the person views an individual as a member of society and bases his/her moral judgments on that conceptualization

Kohlberg's theory of moral development is based on the assumption that progress through his hypothesized stages is related to: A. changes in social perspective. B. changes in self-concept. C. socioemotional development. D. identity development.

D. Kubler-Ross (1969) proposed five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance (DABDA). Research indicates that these feelings don't necessarily occur in a fixed sequential order. Although the feeling of hope was not identified by Kubler-Ross, it is a common emotion in the terminally ill.

Kubler-Ross proposed people go through which of the following stages when faced with their own death: A. denial, anger, depression, acceptance and hope B. denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance and hope C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression and hope D. denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance

A. The Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) and CAT (Computerized Axial Tomography) or CT scan, take a series of images at different levels of the brain giving information and a direct visualization of structures and features. The MRI does this with magnetic fields; the CAT scan uses x-rays. In general, the MRI provides more detail than the CAT scan and can be used in examining the central nervous system, as well as, used to identify tumors, strokes, degenerative diseases, inflammation, infection, and other abnormalities in organs and other soft tissue of the body. Huntington's disease is due to degeneration in several areas of the brain including the basal ganglia and that damage can often be detected by an MRI or other brain imaging technique even before the person exhibits symptoms.

MRI or other brain imaging techniques can detect Huntington's brain degeneration: A before the person exhibits symptoms B. as the person begins to exhibit symptoms C. in late stage disease development D. with limited accuracy regardless of stage of disease development

A. Methylphenidate (brand name Ritalin) is used to treat Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor. This means that it increases the availability of norepinephrine and dopamine in brain synapses. Researchers believe that increased dopamine activity is behind the drug's effectiveness in treating ADHD. Dopamine is believed to be involved in the motivational process and increased levels of this neurotransmitter may improve attention and decrease distractibility.

Methylphenidate has which of the following effects on neurotransmitters in the brain? A It increases dopamine availability. B. It decreases dopamine availability. C. It increases serotonin availability. D. It decreases serotonin availability.

C. Minuchin defines three types of "rigid triangles" that involve chronic boundary disturbances - triangulation (answer C); detouring (answer B); and a stable coalition (answer A)

Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, defines "triangulation" as occurring when: A. the child and one parent "gang up" on the other parent. B. the parents either consistently attack or protect the child. C. each parent demands that the child side with him/her. D. two members of the family consistently challenge the therapist's authority.

B. Murray Bowen was psychoanalytically trained and his extended family systems therapy was strongly influenced by his analytic training. For example, his transgenerational approach focuses on addressing relationship issues in one's family of origin and developing insight in order to resolve current problems.©

Murray Bowen's approach to family therapy was strongly influenced by: A. gestalt therapy B. psychodynamic theory C. existentialism D. communications theory

D. You may have recalled that free recall is more affected by age than cued recall; however, picture recognition is the least demanding cognitive process of all of the choices, and is, therefore, the least affected by aging.

Normal aging is least likely to negatively affect: A. free recall B. cued recall C. working memory D. picture recognition

B. Seroconversion describes the development of antibodies to a particular antigen, or the conversion from seronegative (HIV negative) to seropositive (HIV positive) as the result of the presence of antibodies. An individual who is infected may develop symptoms of acute HIV infection while still having a negative HIV antibody test because seroconversion often does not occur until several weeks after infection.

Once exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive is referred to as: A. retroviral-conversion B. seroconversion C. seronegative D. seropositive

A. Orgasmic reconditioning is used to treat Fetishistic Disorder and other Paraphilic Disorders. There are several versions of the treatment. One version involves having the person masturbate to the unacceptable stimulus and then switch to an acceptable stimulus before orgasm, with the acceptable stimulus being introduced progressively earlier in the sequence over time

Orgasmic reconditioning is used to treat which of the following disorders? A. Fetishistic Disorder B. Erectile Disorder C. Premature Ejaculation D. Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

B. Otitis media with effusion (OME) refers to fluid in the middle ear without symptoms of an acute ear infection. The condition occurs most commonly in children aged 0-3. Because affected children do not display obvious symptoms such as infection or fever, the condition may go untreated for months, with hearing adversely affected during this time. A history of otitis media is twice as common in learning disabled children as those without learning disabilities. This is probably because the condition can reduce exposure to language during critical periods of language development, though some have identified other possible reasons, such as a higher incidence of OME in children in lower socioeconomic groups.

Otitis media with effusion in infants and toddlers: A. is not associated with any long-term consequences. B. is associated with learning delays or disabilities later in childhood. C. is associated with oppositional behavior and conduct disturbances later in childhood. D. is a predictor of a variety of personality disturbances that could last well into adulthood.

C. Delinquency has been linked to a number of parental characteristics, especially lax supervision, nonenforcement of rules, and noninvolvement in the child's life.

Patterson's research on delinquency has shown that the parents of antisocial adolescents are most often: A. hostile and rejecting. B. overindulgent. C. lax and uninvolved. D. overcontrolling.

D. Piaget thought that around age 7 or 8 children begin to intentionally communicate false statements. Subsequent research suggest that children as young as age four lie intentionally, most often to avoid punishment or obtain a reward.

Piaget believed that children are "spontaneous liars" and considered their false statements to be natural and harmless until about: A. Age 3 or 4 B. Age 4 or 5 C. Age 5 or 6 D. Age 7 or 8

D. Knowing that Symbol Search and Coding are the core subtests for the Processing Speed Index would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question

Poor performance on which of the following WISC-IV subtests suggests impairments in visual and/or motor processing speed? A. Block Design and Visual Puzzles B. Digit Span and Letter-Number Sequencing C. Block Design and Picture Concepts D. Symbol Search and Coding

B. Longitudinal studies indicate problem drug users, as young as 7 years old, exhibit a consistent pattern of alienation, impulsivity, and subjective distress, which often precedes drug use onset. Early experimentation with drugs (a.) is a predictor of problem drug use only in the presence of the syndrome described above and while peer pressure (c.) does underlie experimentation, it does not appear to be associated with problem drug use among adolescents. Lack of information (d.) is also not a significant contributor to problem drug use

Problem adolescent drug use is associated most with: A. early experimentation with drugs B. alienation C. peer pressure D. lack of information/education

C. Protocol analysis is sort of an umbrella term used to refer to qualitative research studies that involve collecting verbatim reports. These reports could consist of an examinee's verbal statements, a descriptive account of a subject's behavior, or both. The term is commonly applied to research where the subject is asked to "think aloud" as he or she is performing a task. The researcher then records what the subject does and says, and analyzes the data to determine what cognitive processes are used to solve the problem. The analysis, by the way, is not quantitative or statistical; rather, it is qualitative, or based on the researcher's own interpretations.

Protocol analysis typically involves A. specifying the unstated rules of communication between two individuals. B. analyzing a behavior in terms of its antecedents and consequences. C. recording specific behaviors that allow one to understand the subject's problem-solving methodology. D. standardizing psychotherapy procedures.

A. Studies of individuals who have undergone sex reassignment surgery have found the vast majority no longer expressed gender dysphoria and were psychologically, socially and sexually functioning well following surgery. Smith et al. (2005) found, post-operatively, female-to-male and homosexual transsexuals functioned better in many respects than male-to-female and non-homosexual transsexuals and non-homosexual individuals with greater psychopathology and body dissatisfaction reported the worst post-operative outcomes

Recent research on sex reassignment surgery outcomes indicates that, following surgery, gender dysphoria: A. is no longer experienced by a majority of individuals. B. is no longer experienced by a majority of male-to-female patients, whereas female-to-male patients experienced an increase in gender dysphoria. C. continues to be experienced by a majority of individuals. D. is increasingly experienced by a majority of individuals.

C. The research has found that the most common precipitants of relapse are the presence of smoking-related cues and negative affect.

Relapse by smokers who have stopped smoking is most likely to be triggered by the presence of smoking-related cues in one's surroundings or: A. positive affect. B. inactivity. C. negative affect. D. coffee consumption.

D. Once again, the hypothalamus is a "good guess" (and the correct response). One of the functions of the hypothalamus is to control the gonads through its influence on the pituitary gland.

Release of the sex hormones by the gonads depends on signals from the: A. medulla B. amygdala. C. thalamus. D. hypothalamus.

D. Instead of a literal recollection of past events, the current view of memory is that it is a constructive process - vulnerable to distortions, errors, and factors limiting the accuracy of memories. Neuropsychological research has most consistently identified lesions in the frontal lobes, especially the prefrontal cortex, with false recollections.

Research on constructive memory has linked false recollection to lesions in the: A. occipital lobe B. parietal lobe C. temporal lobe D. frontal lobe

solution-focused

Steve de Shazer and other strategic family therapists developed ___________ therapy which focuses on the here-and-now and identifying solutions to problems

D. The ADHD patients are the probands in this study. Probands, or index cases, are the individuals who are first brought to the attention of the researcher - i.e., individuals manifesting the characteristic of interest or disease

The probands, in a study comparing characteristics of adult ADHD patients, with characteristics of their first degree and second degree biological relatives and non-patients (controls), are: A. non-patients B. first degree relatives C. first and second degree relatives D. ADHD patients

B. Anticholinergic effects may be either central or peripheral. Central side effects are cerebral and include impaired concentration, confusion, attention deficit, and memory impairment. Peripheral side effects include dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, bowel obstruction, dilated pupils, blurred vision, increased heart rate, and decreased sweating. Light tremor (a.) and diarrhea (c.) are not associated side-effects, and while dry mouth may affect appetite and result in weight loss (d.), it is not considered an anticholinergic side-effect either

Which is the most common anticholinergic side-effect? A. Light tremor B. Blurred vision C. Diarrhea D. Weight loss

D. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder requires the presence of one or more symptoms of psychosis (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior) with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. Symptoms must last for at least one day but less than one month

Your new client, a 20-year-old college student, reports that, three months ago, she experienced delusions and hallucinations for about two weeks. She has not had any symptoms since then. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for this client is A. Schizophreniform Disorder. B. Delusional Disorder. C. Other Specified Schizoaffective Spectrum Disorder. D. Brief Psychotic Disorder.

Illness Anxiety Disorder

is characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness with the presence of no or mild somatic symptoms.

Alogia

refers to a lack of spontaneous speech.

Anhedonia

refers to the inability to experience pleasure.

D. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Enuresis requires repeating voiding of urine into the bed or clothes with a frequency of at least twice a week for at least three months or significant distress or impaired functioning. The child must be at least five years old or the equivalent developmental level.

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Enuresis, a child must be at least _____ years of age or the equivalent developmental level. A. three B. seven C. nine D. five

B. For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder, symptoms must have a duration of at least four weeks for children and adolescents or about six months or more for adults.

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder in children and adolescents, symptoms must have lasted for ________ or more. A. six weeks B. four weeks C. two months D. three months

D. The key words in this question are "for women in general." To identify the correct answer, you have to know that PMS is not typical of most women. While it is not uncommon for women to have mild psychological symptoms during the latter part of the luteal phase, there is no specific pattern that is typical for most women. Make sure you read questions carefully: For example, if the question asked about women who do experience PMS, the correct answer would have been "symptoms occur shortly before and terminate shortly after the onset of menses."

For women in general, the typical pattern of depression and dysfunctional physical symptoms accompanying a menstrual cycle is that: A. the symptoms occur shortly before and terminate shortly after the onset of menses. B. the symptoms occur shortly after the onset of menses. C. the symptoms occur and terminate shortly before the onset of menses. D. there is no typical pattern.

Intermittent Explosive Disorder

Frequent behavioral outbursts that are due to an inability to control aggressive impulses is characteristic of ________________

B. The phase model of psychotherapy, an extension of the dose-response model of treatment response, was first proposed by Howard et al. in 1993 and is a client stage model that outlines a progressive, 3-stage sequence of change. The first phase, remoralization, focuses on the client's subjective well-being and occurs during the first few sessions. The second phase, remediation, focuses on symptom reduction and generally occurs between the 5th and 15th sessions. The third and final phase is rehabilitation which focuses on life functioning gains and emerges more gradually. According to this model, effective courses of treatment are initially characterized by a restored subjective sense of well-being then, as a function of this improvement, the client may benefit from interventions to provide symptom reduction or relief (e.g., decrease difficulty concentrating or sleep disruption) and finally, is able to either resume their former level of role functioning (e.g., doing well at work) or initiate new roles (e.g., obtaining a new job).

Howard et al.'s (1993) phase model of psychotherapy change does NOT include: A. remoralization B. reexamination C. remediation D. rehabilitation

B. The changing criterion design is a type of single case design that consists of a series of phases in which a different behavioral criterion is set for each phase. If the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase, the treatment is considered to be effective. The multiple baseline (a.) sequentially applies a treatment across subjects, settings, or behaviors in a single case design. The Solomon four-group design (c.) is utilized to assess the pretesting effects on the internal and external validity of a study. Partial counterbalancing is used when the number of participants does not permit a completely counterbalanced design. Latin square (d.) design, a type of partial counterbalancing, administers all levels of an independent variable to all subjects but the order of administration varies between subjects or subgroups of subjects.

If a behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase, treatment is considered to be effective in which of the following designs? A. multiple baseline B. changing criterion C. Solomon four-group D. Latin square

A. The parietal lobe is concerned mainly with sensory activities, such as receiving and interpreting information from all parts of the body. A stroke or damage to the parietal lobes in the right hemisphere can cause agnosia, which involves being unable to understand what one is perceiving, or unilateral neglect syndrome, which involves ignoring everything on the stroke-involved side of the body

If an individual consistently neglects the left side of his body he likely has damage to the ___________ lobe of his _________ hemisphere. A. parietal; right B. parietal; left C. temporal; right D. temporal; left

D. Simply put, a lot of variance around the regression line indicates that the correlation isn't too high. Be careful not to confuse this with the idea of heteroscedasticity. This term means that the scatter is uneven at different points of the continuum. For instance, there might be high variability around the regression line at low x (predictor) values, and low variability around the line at high x values. In other words, heteroscedasticity refers to a differential level of scatter, not high scatter.

If data points are widely scattered around a regression line, it would indicate: A. high heteroscedasticity. B. low heteroscedasticity. C. low homoscedasticity. D. a low correlation coefficient.

B. Trend analysis is a statistical technique used to determine the trend or shape that best describes the relationship between two variables. The technique basically involves collecting data on two variables and running statistical analyses to determine what trend or trends (e.g., linear, U-shaped) are significant. For example, in studying the relationship between arousal and performance, one could study 100 students and collect data on how aroused they are and how well they perform. Then, one could run a separate analysis for different types of trends and see which receives the strongest support.

If you are interested in determining whether the relationship between arousal and performance assumes a linear or a non-linear shape, the best statistical analysis to use would be: A. multiple regression analysis. B. trend analysis. C. logistic regression. D. principal components analysis.

B. Gestalt therapy focuses on the "here and now" which encourages clients to gain awareness and full experiencing in the present. The term contact refers to interacting with nature and others without losing one's individuality. Resistances to contact are the defenses that one develops as a self-protective attempt to avoid the anxiety necessitated by change and prevents full experiencing in the present. The question lists the five defenses or types of resistance to contact. The five layers of neurosis (a.), proposed by Perls (1969) to describe the process of working through neurosis are: phony, phobic, impasse, and implosive, explosive. Neurotic anxiety (d.) is the result of not facing normal anxiety.

In Gestalt therapy, introjection, projection, deflection, confluence and retroflection are examples of: A. layers of neurosis B. resistances to contact C. natural anxiety D. neurotic anxiety

A. An ABAB design is a type of single-subject design. It is an example of a reversal design -- a baseline measure of a behavior is obtained (the "A" phase), the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered (the "B" phase), the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is again measured, (the second "A"), and the behavior is again measured after the treatment is re-applied (the second "B"). In other words, the same subject receives all the treatments that are applied (actually, the same treatment at different times; thus, the word "all" might be somewhat misleading, but A is still the best answer). Choices C and D are examples of multiple baseline designs.

In an ABAB design: A. the same subject is administered all treatments. B. different subjects are administered treatments. C. a treatment is administered to one subject across a number of different settings. D. a treatment is administered to the same subject for a number of different behaviors.

A. Brief and long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy share a number of characteristics. A primary difference is that, in brief psychotherapy, a full-scale transference neurosis is discouraged. However, positive transference is seen as an important contributor to therapy progress

In brief psychodynamically-oriented therapy: A. positive transferences are encouraged and are viewed as essential to treatment progress. B. positive and negative transferences are encouraged early in treatment to ensure that a transference neurosis develops. C. positive and negative transferences are both discouraged because of the here-and-now focus of the treatment. D. negative transferences are encouraged because they are more likely than positive transferences to produce useful information for interpretation.

A. In both children and adults, high levels of social support is one of the best predictors of positive psychological outcome following a traumatic event. Having skill in at least one activity is associated with self-efficacy beliefs, which are also associated with positive outcome following a trauma in both children and adults.

In children, positive outcome following a traumatic event is most likely if the child: A. has adequate social support and a high level of skill in at least one activity. B. has a high level of intelligence. C. is male. D. has experienced a traumatic stressor.

B. Note that this question is asking how non-sexist therapy differs from feminist therapy. A key distinction is that non-sexist therapy is more concerned with personal responsibility and personal change, while feminist therapy places equal or greater emphasis on the sociopolitical contributions to pathology and the need for social change

In contrast to feminist therapists, non-sexist therapists: A. emphasize the importance of therapist self-disclosure B. focus more on individual change than social change C. de-emphasize the effects of gender on personality development D. stress the egalitarian nature of the therapist-client relationship

B. Low-ability students tend to benefit more from computer-assisted instruction because it gives them an opportunity for individualized instruction and decreases judgment from, and competition with, higher-ability students. Computer-assisted instruction is also associated with other positive effects including: reducing students' fears (a.) of computers through familiarity of use, improving standardized achievement test scores (c.), facilitating sharing or increasing social interactions (d.).

In regard to computer-assisted instruction in the classroom, all of the following are true except: A. it reduces students' fears about computers. B. it is less beneficial for low (versus high) ability students. C. it enhances improvements on standardized achievement tests. D. it increases social interactions between students.

cognitive

In some forms of ________ therapy, the therapist may be quite confrontive and challenge a client's cognitions and behaviors rather than remaining consistently neutral

C. There are several reasons for errors in memory. Source misattributions (b.) occur when individuals misremember the time, place, person, or circumstances involved with a memory. Cryptomnesia (c.) is an example which occurs when a person perceives the recovery of information from memory as being an original idea of their own. Another example of source misattribution is the false fame effect (d.) in which subjects remembered the names but could not recall where they had encountered the names so they concluded that the individuals were famous. Source amnesia (a.) is an episodic memory disorder where source or contextual information surrounding facts are severely distorted and/or unable to be recalled. An individual remembers some factual information, yet forgets the contextual information related to the fact such as when, where, and with whom the fact was learned

In some plagiarism cases, writers may be using what they perceive to be their original ideas, consequently failing to credit the ideas to the proper source, while they are actually retrieved thoughts from memory. This is an example of a phenomenon known as: A. source amnesia B. source misattribution C. cryptomnesia D. false fame effect

D. When the dependent variable is repeatedly administered to the same subjects, the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable is referred to as autocorrelation. Repeated measures is the only design listed that repeated measurement occurs in

In which of the following research designs is autocorrelation most likely to be a problem: A. between groups B. Solomon four-group C. double-blind D. repeated measures

C. Known as the "great equalizer," randomization of subjects to groups is the most powerful way for controlling extraneous variables. Unlike random assignment which occurs after subjects are selected, random selection refers to a method of selecting subjects to participate from the population being studied. Random selection influences external validity. Matching, a procedure to ensure equivalency on a specific extraneous variable, and blocking, studying the effects of the extraneous variable, are also methods of increasing internal validity

Increasing internal validity is best achieved by: A. random selection B. matching C. random assignment D. blocking

D. In a normal distribution, 1.0 is 34 percentile points above the mean of 50. Jose's standard score is (75-60)/15 or 1.0, putting his score at the 84th percentile

Jose scored 75 on his final exam. The test scores were normally distributed, with a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 15. Jose's score would be in which of the following percentile ranges? A. 35-49 B. 50-64 C. 65-79 D. 80-95

A. Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory of gender concept development, grounded in Piagetian theory, asserts that children gradually progress through three stages. Gender identity, usually gained by age three, is the ability to correctly label own gender and identify others as boys/men and girls/women. Gender stability - knowledge, usually gained by four years of age, that reflects an understanding that one's gender remains the same throughout life. Gender constancy: realization, around age 5, 6 or 7 years, that one's gender stays the same even with superficial changes in appearance, behaviors, or desires.

Kohlberg would say a 4-year old girl who refuses to get a haircut because she doesn't want to turn into a boy: A. has not developed gender constancy yet. B. has a gender schema too heavily based on information about the opposite sex. C. is likely to demonstrate heavily sex-type behavior. D. is likely to be suffering from gender identity disorder

D. Kohlberg believed there is a link between moral reasoning and moral action but felt that the correspondence was greatest at the higher stages of moral reasoning.

Kohlberg's theory of moral development focuses on moral reasoning. With regard to the linkage between moral reasoning and moral action, Kohlberg would most likely agree with which of the following? A. There is a direct, one-to-one link between moral reasoning and behavior. B. The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual's previous experience with the situation. C. The link between moral reasoning and behavior is mediated by the individual's IQ. D. There isn't a one-to-one correspondence between moral reasoning and behavior, although, the higher the stage of moral reasoning, the stronger the link is likely to be.

A. Malnutrition is obviously harmful at any age, but it has its most severe impact during periods when the brain is growing rapidly. The fastest periods of brain growth (including brain size spurts, and rapid increases in brain nerve cells and their connections) occur between mid-pregnancy and the third year of life. Effects can include mild to moderate mental retardation and deficits in behavioral areas such as activity and curiosity. Thus, of the choices listed, the perinatal period (between the fifth month of pregnancy and seven days after birth) is the best answer.

Malnutrition is most harmful to individuals at which stage of development? A. the perinatal period B. between the ages of 3-6 years C. adolescence D. old age

C. Like Huntington's disease, these disorders are genetic disorders caused by an autosomal dominant gene, meaning that they occur in the presence of only one gene on a chromosome that is not a sex (X or Y) chromosome. Von Willebrand's disease, which causes blood clotting defects, is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder, affecting at least 1% of the population. Marfan's syndrome affects the connective tissue and it is estimated that at least 1 in 5,000 people in the United States have the disorder.©

Marfan's syndrome and Von Willebrand's disease are due to: A. an X-linked dominant gene B. an X-linked recessive gene C. an autosomal dominant gene D. an autosomal recessive gene

A. Although low motivation to change has been linked to an increased risk for relapse, it is not one of the three situations identified by Marlatt and Gordon. Their research found that the majority of relapses occurred in response to negative emotional states, interpersonal conflicts, or social pressure to resume substance use.

Marlatt and Gordon's (1985) analysis of relapse episodes of people with various addictions found that three high risk situations accounted for nearly three-fourths of all relapses. These situations include all of the following except: A. low motivation to change. B. negative emotional states. C. interpersonal conflicts. D. social pressure.

C. A number of treatments are considered to be empirically supported treatments for Conduct Disorder, including the three listed in this question - parent management training, multisystemic treatment (also known as multisystemic therapy), and functional family therapy.

Parent management training, multisystemic treatment, and functional family therapy are empirically supported treatments for which of the following disorders? A. Autistic Spectrum Disorder B. Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder C. Conduct Disorder D. Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder

D. A number of older studies showed that, in mixed gender classrooms, boys receive more attention from teachers than girls. More recent research has detected this difference but has found that it is much less dramatic than had been claimed in the past. According to analyses of results of some of the recent research, the finding is due to the fact that boys display a higher proportion of learning and behavior difficulties, rather than any gender bias on the part of teachers. Note that the results of research are not entirely in accord; the bulk of the research, however, does confirm the finding that boys receive more attention than girls.

Research in the 1960s and 1970s found that, in school settings, teachers tend to pay more attention to boys than to girls. More recent research has suggested that this finding was due to: A. a bias against girls on the part of many teachers. B. methodological errors in the research. C. the fact that girls tend to be more shy and unassuming than boys. D. the fact that boys display a higher proportion of learning and behavior difficulties.

B. Research by Jordan and Deluty (1998) indicates sexual orientation disclosure, or "coming out", by lesbians is associated with positive outcomes such as a lower level of anxiety, a lower likelihood of engaging in anonymous socializing (i.e., going to bars) and greater family support following disclosure to family members. The study also revealed higher self-esteem and greater positive affectivity the more widely lesbian women disclosed their sexual orientation

Research indicates lesbians' disclosure of sexual orientation is associated with: A. increased isolation from family members. B. increased self-esteem. C. increased anxiety. D. increased anonymous socializing.

A. Solution-focused brief therapy, also referred to as solution focused or brief therapy, is a form of psychotherapy based on social constructionist philosophy that focuses on solutions rather than problems or their causes. Underlying this approach is the assumption that clients possess the resources needed to achieve their goals. The solution-focused therapist works with people to generate solutions to their problem using direct and indirect compliments and future-oriented questions such as the miracle question.

Solution-focused brief therapists in group work: A. utilize questioning B. focus on identifying an individual's problem C. use a directive, expert stance. D. emphasize insight as the main mechanism of change.

B. Stranger anxiety first appears in infants between 8 and 10 months of age. The intensity of stranger anxiety typically peaks at about 18 months of age and then gradually declines during the end of the second year.

Stranger anxiety is typically found in children aged: A. 3 to 6 months B. 12 to 24 months C. 24 to 36 months D. 36 to 48 months

A. "Terminal drop" refers to findings indicating in the months before death, a substantial drop in all facets of intelligence occurs.

The "terminal drop" phenomenon refers to: A. declines in intellectual functioning B. declines in sensory functioning C. declines in REM sleep D. declines in non-REM sleep

B. The DSM-5 provides three age-related specifiers for Conduct Disorder. "Childhood-onset type" applies when the individual had at least one symptom of Conduct Disorder before age 10; "adolescent-onset type" applies when the individual had no symptoms of Conduct Disorder before age 10; and "unspecified onset" applies when it is unknown if the first symptom was before or after age 10.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Conduct Disorder, childhood-onset type is appropriate when the child: A. met the full diagnostic criteria for Conduct Disorder prior to age 10. B. had at least one symptom of Conduct Disorder prior to age 10. C. had at least one symptom of Conduct Disorder prior to age 13. D. met the full diagnostic criteria for Conduct Disorder prior to age 13.

A. Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a controversial therapeutic technique which combines techniques from cognitive-behavioral and other treatment approaches with lateral eye movements. Clients receiving EMDR are asked to recall anxiety-provoking memories and are then instructed to track the therapists' fingers which are moved from side to side. This process is repeated until the clients' anxiety is extinguished. Although Francine Shapiro, the developer of the technique, originally proposed that the bilateral eye movements accelerate the reprocessing of traumatic memories, a meta-analysis of 34 studies indicated that the eye movement component did not contribute to the effectiveness of EMDR. Rather, it appears that the element of exposure is responsible for its effects. The meta-analysis did find EMDR to be more effective than no-treatment or non-exposure treatments; however, it was no more effective than other exposure techniques.

The effectiveness of Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) in the treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is due to: A. exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli B. changes in the functioning of the brain due to lateral eye movement stimulation C. unconditional positive regard D. placebo effect

B. Sensitive periods are times in development when a particular type of experience is necessary for development to occur. In the situation described in this question, a temporary loss of hearing during a sensitive period has had long-term repercussions.

There is some evidence that hearing impairment in infancy (e.g., due to ear infections) may lead to some degree of persisting impairment in verbal skills and academic achievement even when the hearing deficit has been alleviated. This finding supports the notion of: A. canalization. B. sensitive periods. C. developmental delays. D. preordination.

C. The ratio IQ was a simple formula used when mental tests were first developed. It was a way of determining how the child's mental age differed from his or her chronological age. A problem with the ratio IQ is that IQ scores are not comparable across age groups. For this reason, the deviation IQ was developed. Here the IQs are related to the average score for each age group and the derived IQ is presented in terms of how far the score deviates from that average. In this way, the scores can be more easily compared across ages.

Using the deviation IQ is preferred to using the ratio IQ because the deviation IQ: A. can be ascertained more easily by simply referring to the IQ tables. B. is a more reliable measure of performance for the lower and upper ranges than was the ratio IQ. C. is comparable across all ages because the standard deviations are the same for all ages. D. all of the above.

C. Wernicke's area, in the temporal lobe of the brain, is involved with language comprehension and lesions in the temporal lobe may produce Wernicke's aphasia. Wernicke's aphasia, also known as sensory, receptive and impressive aphasia, is associated with impaired comprehension of language, fluent aphasia (clear speech that makes little or no sense), and dysnomia (inability to name objects).

Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by: A. receptive problems and non fluent speech B. expressive problems and non fluent speech C. receptive problems and fluent speech D. expressive problems and fluent speech

A. According to the DSM-5, the rate of Major Depressive Disorder for adolescent and adult females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for adolescent and adult males. The rates for prepubertal boys and girls are about equal

Which of the following statements is true regarding the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder? A. The rate for adolescent and adult females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for adolescent and adult males. B. The rate for prepubertal girls is about twice the rate for prepubertal boys. C. The rate for adolescent and adult females is about half the rate for adolescent and adult males. D. The rate for prepubertal boys is about 1.5 times the rate for prepubertal girls.

D. Overeating and weight gain are common symptoms associated with SAD. Other characteristic symptoms include hypersomnia and a craving for carbohydrates. Seasonal Affective Disorder is typically treated with phototherapy, which has been found to be as effective as antidepressants in alleviating or reducing symptoms.

Which of the following symptoms is an individual with Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) most likely to exhibit? A. loss of appetite without weight loss B. a craving for salty foods C. hyposomnia D. overeating and weight gain

D. Autoplastic ("self-change") refers to changing or adapting to the environment by altering one's own behaviors or responses. An emic (a.) perspective involves focusing on the intrinsic distinctions that are meaningful to members of a particular culture or society. An etic (b.) perspective involves focusing on extrinsic distinctions that have meaning for the observer of the culture or society. Alloplastic (c.) refers to changing or adapting to the environment by effecting changes in the environment.

Which of the following therapeutic approaches refers to changing or adapting to the environment by altering one's own behaviors or responses? A. emic B. etic C. alloplastic D. autoplastic

B. The Conners Rating Scales-Revised is used to identify hyperactivity and other behavioral problems in individuals aged 3 to 17 years by obtaining reports from teachers and parents; it also includes a self-report scale for adolescents. The Stanford-Binet (ages 2 to 85+) and WISC-IV (ages 6 years, 0 months to 16 years, 11 months) are intelligence tests; and the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales, Second Edition is used to evaluate personal and social skills of people (birth to age 90) with mental retardation, autism spectrum disorders, ADHD, brain injury, or dementia and for assisting in the development of educational and treatment plans. [Note: The WISC-IV is most recent version of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, although it does not appear this version is being asked about on the EPPP yet. The WISC-IV assesses a broader range of intellectual functions, is based more on neurocognitive models of information processing, and measures six of the eight Cattell-Horn-Carroll cognitive abilities (crystallized intelligence, fluid intelligence, visual processing, short-term memory, processing speed, and quantitative knowledge). It provides scores on four indexes - Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed, as well as individual subtest scores and a full scale IQ (FSIQ) score

Which of the following would be most useful for assessing an eighth grader who has been acting out at school, refusing to follow instructions and disrupting his class? A. Stanford-Binet-V B. Conners Rating Scales-R C. Vineland-II D. WISC-IV

C. The tests listed are alternatives to the Wechsler and Stanford-Binet tests for assessing the general intellectual ability of individuals requiring accommodation. The Hiskey-Nebraska test was created for administration with deaf and hard-of-hearing children between the ages of 3 to 16. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test-Revised (a.) measures receptive vocabulary, providing a nonverbal estimate of intelligence of any individual who can hear a stimulus word, see the drawings, and communicate a response in some manner. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (KABC-II) (b.) provides an assessment of cognitive ability in children of different backgrounds and with diverse problems, between the ages of 3 to 18, and is based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll and Luria models. The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery (d.) is a screening assessment for brain damage that measures sensorimotor, perceptual, and language functioning

Which of the following would be most useful to assess the general intelligence of a thirteen-year old with severe hearing impairment? A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test B. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children C. Hiskey-Nebraska D. Halstead-Reitan

B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder has an earlier peak onset for males than females. For males the peak onset is between ages 6 and 15, but for females it is between ages 20 and 29. The incidence is, therefore, higher among boys than girls but, in adulthood, the incidence is about the same

With regard to prevalence, OCD is: A. about twice as common in males than females across the lifespan. B. higher among male children but about equal among male and female adults. C. about the same for males and females across the lifespan. D. higher among female children but about equal among male and female adults.

C. External validity refers to the ability to generalize findings beyond the specifics (e.g., time, setting, and subjects) of a research study. Internal validity is the extent the changes in the dependent variable are believed to be caused by the independent variable. Both types of validity are research design considerations

With regard to research design, the term external validity refers to: A. significance B. control C. generalizability D. accuracy

Morita Therapy (aka the psychology of action)

a Japanese therapeutic intervention developed by Japanese psychologist Shoma ____ in the early part of the twentieth century originally to treat anxiety and neurosis. ________ doesn't deal with the past, inner dynamics, or with emotions directly as a prerequisite to change. Emphasis is on learning to accept the internal fluctuations of thoughts and feelings and ground behavior in reality and the purpose of the moment. The focus is on the external environment, behavior, and distinguishing what is and is not controllable. All emotions are accepted as valid, pain is inevitable and there is no attempt to control or govern feelings. Concrete effort to take action, with or without success and despite the accompanying emotions, is encouraged. Progress is measured by degree of responsiveness to behavioral demands and in the effort for self improvement. Like cognitive behavioral therapy, _________ deals with changing behaviors and dysfunctional cognitive processes through reframing the meaning of anxiety, focusing on attitudinal blocks to behavior and taking personal responsibility for behavior.

Heart rate variability (HRV) (aka electrocardiogram (ECG))

biofeedback that monitors heart rate and cardiac reactivity from sensors placed on a person's fingers or wrist. It is useful for managing stress, high blood pressure, anxiety, and heartbeat irregularities.

Body Dysmorphic Disorder

involves preoccupation with one or more perceived defects or flaws in physical appearance that are not observable or appear minor to others

Somatic Symptom Disorder

is characterized by the presence of one or more physical symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption in daily life and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. When symptoms involve only pain, the specifier "with predominant pain" is applied.

C. The key to recognizing the correct answer to this question is knowing that, in children and adolescents, Major Depressive Disorder often involves an irritable (rather than depressed) mood as well as acting out behaviors.

A 14-year old is brought to therapy after he is caught stealing from a local store. His parents say they have been having trouble with their son for the past two months - they are constantly fighting, and he is irritable and sullen most of the time, occasionally has outbursts of anger, spends most of his time in his room playing with video games, has been caught smoking, and doesn't seem to sleep as much as he should. These symptoms are most suggestive of: A. ADHD. B. Persistent Depressive Disorder. C. Major Depressive Disorder. D. Conduct Disorder.

A. According to Piaget and researchers who have studied his theories, adolescents are prone to what has been termed "formal operational egocentrism" or "adolescent egocentrism." This is characterized by a number of beliefs and modes of thinking, including the belief that the world can only become a better place through implementation of a grand idealistic system, the belief that others are as concerned with the adolescent's behavior as the adolescent him- or herself is, and (as in this question) a strong faith in one's own invulnerability and uniqueness

A 16-year old girl is sexually promiscuous and does not practice safe sex. When confronted with information about sexually transmitted diseases and pregnancy, she states "that could never happen to me." The girl's behavior is characteristic of: A. adolescent egocentrism. B. concrete operational thought. C. teenagers who have been sexually abused. D. an immature system of defense mechanisms.

Naikan Therapy (aka the psychology of reflection)

A Japanese approach that is based on clients asking themselves three questions: what have I received from? What have I given to? What troubles or difficulties have I caused to? Through such self-reflection, a client's awareness of the role they play in the relationship or situation, the amount of support they've received, and an appreciation for others is said to be increased

A. While psychological problems are often experienced as "emotional" by Anglos, members of a number of minority groups (including Latinos) often experience them as physical or spiritual in origin

A Latina is most likely to experience her symptoms of depression as a: A. spiritual or physical problem. B. family problem. C. woman's problem. D. mental or emotional problem.

C. According to Elkind, adolescent egocentrism is evident through the personal fable (the belief that one is unique and invulnerable) and the imaginary audience (the belief that everyone is looking or feeling like one is 'on stage'), as described in the question. Psychological reactance (d.) occurs when an individual has been asked to do something and does the opposite

A boy beginning high school gets a haircut that is substantially shorter than desired or requested. The boy feels like people are always looking at him and talking about his haircut. This is an example of: A. personal fable B. identity foreclosure C. imaginary audience D. psychological reactance

D. The use of two-word sentences, called telegraphic speech, normally appears between the age of 1-2 years. It would rarely be absent by the age of 30 months; if it is, a developmental evaluation is justified

A child who is not putting together two-word phrases, by which of the following ages, should be taken in for an evaluation? A. 12 months B. 18 months C. 24 months D. 30 months

A. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Tobacco Withdrawal requires the development of four or more characteristic symptoms following cessation or reduction of tobacco use after daily use of tobacco for at least several weeks. Symptoms are irritability, frustration, or anger; anxiety; difficulty concentrating; increased appetite; restlessness; depressed mood; and insomnia

A client experiencing Tobacco Withdrawal is least likely to have which of the following symptoms? A. hand tremor and psychomotor agitation B. restlessness and depressed mood C. irritability and frustration D. impaired concentration and insomnia

B. The presence of one or more somatic symptoms that result in impaired functioning and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms is characteristic of Somatic Symptom Disorder.

A client has experienced extreme fatigue, loss of appetite, and stomach pains for the past eight months that have made it difficult for him to work. Despite numerous medical tests, no physical explanation for his symptoms can be found. The client is certain this his symptoms are signs of a life-threatening illness, and he spends a great deal of time preoccupied with concerns about his health. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis is: A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder. B. Somatic Symptom Disorder. C. Illness Anxiety Disorder. D. Factitious Disorder.

A. In a two group design, one group is exposed to a treatment and another, control group, is not exposed or gets a different treatment. The results of both groups are tested in order to compare the effects of treatment. A factorial design is a design with more than one independent variable. In this design, the independent variables are simultaneously investigated to determine the independent and interactive influence they have on the dependent variable. The effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable (c.) is called a main effect and in a factorial design there are as many main effects as there are independent variables. An interaction effect between two or more independent variables occurs when the effect that one independent variable has on the dependent variable depends on the level of the other independent variable. At least three levels must be used to predict a curvilinear relationship (d.).

A factorial design, unlike a two group design: A. allows more independent variables to be studied B. requires a larger sample C. shows the effect of an independent variable on the dependent variable D. cannot detect a curvilinear relationship between variables

D. Joining, a technique used by structural family therapists, involves taking steps to become a family insider by, among other things, assuming the same type of communication style, sharing personal stories, etc

A family therapist who uses anecdotes from her own family to emphasize similarities with the client family is doing which of the following? A. reframing B. triangulating C. diffusing boundaries D. joining

D. Eta is a correlational coefficient used for non-linear, or curvilinear, relationships. Structural modeling (response "A"), a variety of techniques based on correlations between multiple variables, regression analysis (response "B"), a method used to estimate the value of one variable based on the value of another variable, and Pearson r (response "C"), all assume a linear relationship between variables.

A linear relationship is an assumption of all of the following, except: A. structural modeling equation B. regression analysis C. Pearson r D. eta

A. In immigrant families, a possible cause of conflict is differential levels of acculturation within the family -- that is, some members of the family may adopt the values and behavioral patterns of the new culture faster than others. This is especially true when one of the family members is an adolescent, who will likely have both greater contact with and a stronger desire to be accepted by peers in the new culture.

A mother, father, and teenage son come to see you for family therapy. The family emigrated to the United States from a Latin American country five years ago. The son is not getting along with his parents and disobeys them constantly. Which of the following is a likely explanation for their problem? A. different levels of acculturation within the family B. the son has Conduct Disorder C. this is a common style of interaction in Latino families D. the son is frustrated because he is having trouble with the English language

A. These parents should relax. Undoubtedly this is their first child. First words typically occur anywhere from 10 to 16 months of age. From 18 months children begin to create "language" several words that represent a complete thought

A one-year-old has no vocabulary but can understand what you are saying. The parent should: A. Do nothing; this reflects normal development B. Consult with a speech pathologist C. Refer to a pediatrician D. Screen for the possibility of autism

C. Paraphasias involves the production of unintended syllables, words, or phrases during the effort to speak. Verbal paraphasia is a dominant symptom within the more general category of anomia which refers to word finding difficulty. When an individual is unable to evoke, retrieve, or recall a particular word then an incorrect word or phrase is substituted for an intended or target word. Apraxia (a.) of speech (AOS) is a disorder of articulation in which individuals have difficulty planning, initiating, and sequencing speech movements accurately. Dysarthria (b.) is the collective name for a group of motor speech disorders caused by a disturbance in the neuromuscular control of speech, due to either central or peripheral nervous system damage, and manifested as weakness, slowness, or incoordination of speech. It involves difficulty in articulation, not in word finding or grammar. Prosody is the variation in stress, pitch, and rhythm of speech by which different shades of meaning are conveyed. Dysprosody (d.) includes difficulties in rhythm and intonation, affecting enunciation, pronunciation and patterns of stress

A patient uses similar phonemes or words instead of the specific words required. What impairment does the patient have? A. apraxia B. dysarthria C. paraphasias D. dysprosody

A. Bipolar II Disorder is diagnosed when the person has a history of at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode. By definition, the person has never had a manic episode (otherwise, the diagnosis would be Bipolar I Disorder

A person with Bipolar II Disorder would have no history of: A. manic episodes. B. major depressive episodes. C. manic or major depressive episodes. D. hypomanic episodes.

C. We use statistical tests to make inferences about a population. So if we have significant results, we assume that this represents what happens in the real world -- that is, in the population.

A significant finding for a one-way ANOVA indicates that the: A. group means were different. B. sample means were different. C. population means were different. D. within-group variance was different.

A. Circular questioning involves asking questions that highlight differences among family members or define relationships between them. Usually, it will involve asking a family member about the perceptions of the relationship between other family members, as in this question. The technique is designed to provide information about family processes to the therapist and other family members, to get family members to see problems from different perspectives, to lead to further exploration, and to form the basis for further circular questioning. It is particularly associated with the Milan Systemic School of family therapy.

A therapist seeing a family consisting of a couple and their son asks the father to describe the relationship between the mother and her son. The therapist is using which of the following techniques? A. circular questioning B. embedded suggestion C. joining the family D. process interruption

B. All of the responses are factors in Piaget's preoperational stage. Animistic thinking is believing that objects, like the tree with droopy leaves, have lifelike qualities such as thoughts and feelings. Magical thinking is believing one has control over objects or events. Egocentricity is believing that others experience the world in the same way and centration refers to the tendency to focus on one detail while neglecting others.

A three-year-old sees a tree with droopy leaves and tells her father that the tree is "tired." This is an example of: A. magical thinking B. animistic thinking C. egocentricity D. centration

C. Although African-American families were previously believed to most often have a matriarchal authority structure, more recent authors have concluded that they are typically egalitarian. That is, the husband and wife equally share authority in the family.

African-American families use an authority structure that can be best characterized as: A. matriarchal B. patriarchal C. egalitarian D. too diverse to generalize

B. Anticholinergic (side) effects occur as a result of interference with acetylcholine in the brain and peripheral nervous system. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics often have anticholinergic effects which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, dizziness, urinary retention, tachycardia, and confusion.

Anticholinergic effects include all of the following EXCEPT: A. constipation B. diarrhea C. blurred vision D. dizziness

C. This question is asking about the self-fulfilling prophecy (Rosenthal) effect. The original research on this effect found that teachers altered the outcomes of students identified as "bloomers" in the expected direction, apparently in subtle ways (e.g., through their tone of voice, facial expressions)

At the beginning of the school year, a teacher is told that several of her first graders are "bloomers" who will show unusual gains in intellectual growth. In fact, these children were chosen at random. At the end of school year, the "bloomers" will: A. be indistinguishable from the other students in the class. B. show fewer gains in achievement and IQ score than the other students in the class. C. show greater gains in achievement and IQ score than the other students in the class. D. exhibit less enthusiasm about school due to their treatment by the teacher and other students in the class.

Respiratory Sinus Arrhythmia (RSA)

Biofeedback that involves the synchronous control of heart rate and respiration, in which there is a small rise in heart rate during inhalation and a corresponding decrease during exhalation.

C. Children generally begin to understand the concept of death between the ages of 7 and 9 years, and the concrete operational stage (Piaget) occurs between the ages of 7 and 12 years. The preoperational stage ("b.") occurs between 2 and 7 years. Freud's phallic stage ("a.") occurs from 3 to 6 years and the genital stage ("d.") begins after puberty

Children begin to understand the concept of death in the: A. phallic stage. B. preoperational stage. C. concrete operational stage. D. genital stage.

A. Cortisol is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex, which is located near the kidneys. It stimulates the liver to convert fat and protein into glucose for energy. Under stress, cortisol level rises to provide the energy needed to cope with the stress. However, chronic stress results in chronically elevated levels of cortisol which is believed to cause several health consequences. If you incorrectly guessed choice "C," note that although cortisol is a steroid, it is not one of the common steroids of abuse.

Cortisol is frequently used as measure of: A. stress B. anorexia and Bulimia C. steroid abuse D. cortical functioning

C. The orbitofrontal cortex is part of the prefrontal cortex located just above the eye sockets. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to alter emotional behavior. The orbitofrontal cortex is believed to play a role in excitability, behavioral inhibition, personality, and judgment. The famous case of Phineas Gage, the 19th century railroad worker who survived an iron rod shooting through his head, suffered damage to his orbitofrontal cortex which is believed to have caused changes in his emotions and behaviors

Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to result in: A. impaired depth perception B. impaired motor coordination C. altered emotional behaviors D. left-right confusion

personal construct

Developed by George Kelly, ___therapy combines cognitive, behavioral, and humanistic concepts. It emphasizes the effect of the individual's perspective on his/her experience of the world.

D. "D" is the best choice, because it involves reflecting the kinesthetic presentation of the client, which is emphasized in this question. Neurolinguistic programming (NLP) suggests that a therapist's ability to communicate effectively with a client will be influenced by his or her ability to identify and then work with the client's preferred sensory mode; for example, if a client prefers a visual mode, the therapist should use terms such as "I see," if a client prefers an auditory mode, the therapist should use expressions such as "I hear you.

145. comes to a session and is very quiet. He is slumped in his chair and holding his arms close to his body. According to neurolinguistic programming (NLP), what should a therapist do in order to build trust with this client? A. use "feeling" words B. use "thinking" words C. make eye contact D. adjust his posture to match the client's

B. This is a difficult question because you don't know if these are the only symptoms Billy has or if they're just some of his symptoms. For the exam, the best strategy is to assume that all the information you need in order to choose the correct answer is given in the question. Based on this assumption, Billy has seven symptoms of ADHD -- one that reflects inattentiveness and six that reflect hyperactivity-impulsivity. This is consistent with a DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation

93. Seven-year old Billy is easily distracted, is always "on the go," talks excessively and often interrupts while someone else is talking, squirms in his seat in class, runs in the school halls and in the house, and can't play quiet games. The DSM-5 diagnosis for Billy is ADHD, A. predominantly inattentive/hyperactive presentation. B. predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation. C. predominantly hyperactive presentation. D. combined presentation.

C. This question is based on Piaget's four stages of cognitive development that, in order, are sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. In the final stage, beginning at about the age of 11 or 12, individuals are able to think abstractly and hypothetically and therefore solve complex problems by imagining alternative solutions. Though not all aspects of the theory are universally accepted, it is generally agreed that cognitive abilities increase beginning in adolescence, and that these advancements include a greater ability to focus on oneself and one's place in the world. This change is often accompanied by a phenomenon known as adolescent egocentrism, whereby the increased focus on the self introduces cognitive distortions. Specifically, adolescent egocentrism is characterized by three distortions: the invincibility fable, the personal fable, and the imaginary audience. The invincibility fable is the belief that one is at lower risk from dangerous behavior as compared to others. Of the choices listed, this is the best explanation for this adolescent's belief that his reckless behavior will not lead to negative consequences. Other aspects of adolescent egocentrism include the personal fable, whereby individuals conceptualize their own lives as unique and heroic, and the imaginary audience, whereby adolescents assume that others are intensely interested in them.

A 16-year-old client tells you that on a regular basis, he drives his parents' car at speeds of 90 miles per hour or greater and drinks beer while he does so. He denies the possibility of either getting into an accident or getting arrested. This is an example of: A. formal operational thought. B. the identity vs. role confusion developmental conflict. C. adolescent egocentrism. D. a possible psychotic break from reality.

D. This woman's thought seems to qualify as an obsession. Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are experienced as intrusive and cause marked distress. A person with obsessions attempts to ignore, suppress, or neutralize them (e.g., by drinking alcohol) and recognizes that they are a product of one's own mind. Recurrent obsessions and/or compulsions are the defining feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

A 34-year-old client complains that she cannot stop thinking about harming her husband, though she has no intention of doing so. The woman is very distressed about these thoughts and occasionally has a drink in an attempt to escape from them, though this is usually unsuccessful. The most likely diagnosis for this woman is: A. Substance Use Disorder. B. Delusional Disorder. C. Major Depressive Disorder. D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

A. Animism is the belief that inanimate objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities. Egocentrism (B) refers to thinking, observing, and judging things in relation to the self. Magical thinking (C), which is based on egocentrism, is the erroneous belief that one has control over objects or events. All of the above traits are normal in a preoperational child and do not indicate Schizophrenia (D)

A 4-year-old girl cries when her teddy bear falls down the stairs. This is an example of: A. animism B. egocentrism C. magical thinking D. childhood schizophrenia

D. People with Korsakoff's Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, long-term alcohol consumption) have severe anterograde amnesia along with retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the relatively recent past. Procedural memory (getting dressed), remote long-term memory (recalling one's first date), and short-term memory (repeating five digits forward and backward) are usually intact.

A 50-year old has memory loss as the result of her long-term heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble: A. recalling her first date. B. getting dressed. C. repeating five digits forward and backward. D. remembering someone she met a week ago.

B. A MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. A factorial ANOVA (a.) is used to analyze data when a factorial design, which includes two or more independent variables, is used and the dependent variable is measured on an interval or ratio scale. A one-way ANOVA (c.) is used when a study has one independent variable and more than two independent groups. The split-plot (mixed) ANOVA (d.) is the appropriate technique when at least one independent variable is a between-groups variable and another independent variable is a within-subjects variable

A MANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when: A. a study includes two or more independent variables B. a study includes two or more dependent variables C. there are more than two levels of a single independent variable D. a study includes at least one independent variable that is a between-groups variable and another independent variable that is a within-subjects variable

B. Exposure to cocaine during prenatal development often causes oversensitivity to stimulation, excessive irritability, and retarded growth. These babies are easily agitated and difficult to soothe.

A baby whose mother used cocaine during pregnancy will most likely: A. be unresponsive to noise and other stimuli B. be difficult to comfort when upset C. have minor cranial/facial abnormalities D. be clingy and abnormally dependent

B. Projective identification is a defense mechanism in which one or more parts of the self are falsely attributed to another, which are then unconsciously accepted by the recipient, and the projector then identifies with the projected part in the other. Recreating the supervisee-client relationship in the supervisee-supervisor relationship through a combination of transference, countertransference, and projection is referred to as parallel process (a.). Introjection (c.) involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others — the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Diagnostic overshadowing (d.) refers to the tendency to attribute all of a client's emotional, behavioral, and social problems to one salient characteristic instead of considering other, alternative explanations.

A client presents as cool, calm, and collected however has an underlying rage and by the end of the session, the therapist feels angry. This is an example of: A. parallel process. B. projective identification. C. introjection. D. diagnostic overshadowing.

B. In the Montessori classroom, children are encouraged to select their own activities; the teacher observes the children and assists them when they truly need help. There is very little didactic group teaching. The method is based on the assumption that the child is an active learner whose drive for self-development is aided by an orderly but stimulating environment. Regarding the other choices, "A" is incorrect because the Montessori classroom is heterogeneous in regard to both age and developmental level -- older children are viewed as good role models for younger children. Choice "C" is not an incorrect statement about the Montessori method, but it is not something that distinguishes it from other educational methods. And contrary to choice "D", critics of the Montessori method have cited its lack of opportunity for group learning experiences as one of its weaknesses.

A distinguishing characteristic of the Montessori teaching method is: A. children are grouped by developmental level rather than by age. B. children are free to select their own learning activities. C. it emphasizes emotional development and academic achievement. D. its focus on group activities and learning experiences.

C. Whereas non-sexist therapy is more concerned with personal responsibility and personal change, feminist therapy places equal or greater emphasis on the sociopolitical contributions to pathology and the need for social change. The feminist approach to psychotherapy rests on the assumption that social roles and socialization are important determinants of behavior and that psychological conflicts are alternative roles and options. A primary goal of feminist therapy is empowerment or helping women become more self-defining and self-determining. One of the main characteristics of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship between the client and therapist. Feminist therapists consider self-disclosure with clients as a way of supporting an egalitarian relationship. Therapist self-disclosure may be used to encourage client participation. Feminist therapy discourages client passivity and feminist therapists typically discourage special bonding as it may encourage client dependence on the therapist.

A feminist therapist would likely consider which intervention most essential? A. a lifestyle analysis B. a functional assessment of a specific problem area. C. social action D. maintaining an anonymous role as a therapist

C. Both meta-analyses and literature reviews involve a summation of research studies related to a particular topic or hypothesis. However, unlike a literature review, a meta-analysis involves calculation of an "effect size," or a statistic that indicates the average effect of a particular treatment across the studies reviewed. This involves converting data from many different studies into a common metric so that their results can be combined and compared. A literature review, by contrast, provides descriptive information only

A meta-analysis differs from a literature review in that A. a meta-analysis involves a review of research in a more broadly defined area than a literature review. B. a literature review involves a review of research in which no statistical hypothesis tests were used. C. a meta-analysis, but not a literature review, involves calculation of an effect size. D. a literature review, but not a meta-analysis, involves calculation of an effect size.

C. The authors mentioned in the question have developed a model of cultural identity development in minority group members, called the Minority Identity Development (MID) model. The model's five stages are conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and synergetic articulation and awareness. Individuals in the conformity stage prefer the dominant culture's values to those of their own culture. They are likely to have feelings of racial self-hatred, negative beliefs about their own culture, and positive feelings toward the dominant culture

A minority group member who is a client of yours expresses very strong negative feelings towards her own culture in a therapy session. This client is most likely in which stage of the Minority Identity Development model developed by Atkinson, Morten, and Sue? A. resistance B. dissonance C. conformity D. denial

D. The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is a type of ANOVA used when two or more dependent variables are included in a study. Rather than using separate ANOVAs to evaluate the effects of each of the dependent variables, a researcher could use the MANOVA when all the dependent variables are measured on a ratio or interval scale. This also helps to control the experiment-wise error rate

A multivariate analysis of variance would be used to analyze collected data when: A. the researcher wants to analyze the effects of an extraneous variable B. the researcher wants to remove the effects of an extraneous variable C. the study includes two or more independent variables D. the study includes two or more dependent variables

B. The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions - the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.

A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions? A. indifference B. indifference or exaggerated jocularity C. frustration and irritation D. rage

A. Withdrawal from benzodiazepine can result in sweating, tremors, insomnia, anxiety, and in some cases, transient hallucinations. The benzodiazepines (also known as anxiolytics and "minor tranquilizers") are anti-anxiety agents; they include drugs such as Valium, Xanax, Halcion, and Ativan. Their major side effects include drowsiness, impaired psychomotor abilities, and impaired short-term memory (particularly anterograde amnesia); more rarely, dizziness, ataxia, allergic reactions, nausea, and aggression have been reported as side effects

A person stopped taking a benzodiazepine then experienced symptoms including hallucinations, nightmares, and rage reactions. These symptoms are most suggestive of which of: A. rebound anxiety B. paradoxical agitation C. overdose D. anticholinergic effects

C. A T-score is a standardized score, which means that it indicates how many standard deviation units a given raw score is above or below the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. This means that a score of 62 -- 12 T-score points above the mean -- is 1.2 standard deviations above the mean, since 10 X 1.2 is 12

A person who takes the MMPI-2 obtains a score of 62 on the depression scale. This means that A. the person is probably clinically depressed. B. the test results are not valid. C. the person's score is 1.2 standard deviation units above the mean. D. the person's score is 12 raw score points above the mean.

D. In general, the SSRIs are safer than the tricyclics. For instance, they are not cardiotoxic and do not cause cognitive impairments. However, they may exacerbate anxiety and sleep symptoms initially

A potential drawback of the SSRIs is that they: A. are cardiotoxic and, consequently, dangerous in overdose. B. initially cause cognitive impairment, especially in older patients. C. may trigger mania. D. may initially worsen sleep and anxiety symptoms.

A. Discriminant function analysis is used to identify variables that distinguish between two or more existing or naturally occurring groups. Its use would involve collecting data on a variety of measures and determining which combination of them best predict differences between the groups. Since the researcher's purpose is to find variables that distinguish between existing groups, discriminant function analysis is the best answer. Regarding the other choices, factor analysis is used to reduce variability in a set of variables to a smaller set of unobserved variables, or factors. For example, factor analysis might be use to confirm a theory that score differences on a variety of intelligence measures can be explained in terms of two factors, verbal intelligence and performance intelligence. Canonical correlation is a technique for assessing the relationship between two sets of variables: i.e., it is used to assess the relationship between multiple predictor and multiple criterion variables. And MANOVA, or multivariate analysis of variance, is used in research studies to evaluate the effects of one or more independent variables on multiple (two or more) dependent variables

A psychological researcher would like to determine what variables best distinguish between patients who benefit from psychotherapy and patients who do not. To identify these variables, the research would most likely use which of the following? A. discriminant function analysis B. factor analysis C. canonical correlation D. MANOVA

B. A mediator variable is a variable that accounts for or explains the effects of an IV on a DV. That is, the IV affects the mediator variable, which affects the DV. In this example, the IV is exercise, the mediator variable is anxiety, which explains how the DV, substance craving, is reduced. A moderator variable (C) is similar to a mediator variable, but a moderator variable only influences the strength of the relationship between two other variables, it doesn't fully account for it. For example, if a job selection test has different validity coefficients for different ethnic groups, ethnicity would be a moderator variable because it influences the relationship between the test (predictor) and actual job performance (the criterion) but it does not fully account for the relationship. A suppressor variable (A) reduces or conceals the relationship between variables. For example, the K scale in the MMPI-2 is a suppressor variable because it measures defensiveness, which can suppress the scores on the clinical scales. The K scale is, therefore, used as a correction factor for some of the clinical scales. Criterion contamination (D) is the artificial inflation of validity which can occur when raters subjectively score ratees on a criterion measure after they have been informed how the ratees scored on the predictor.

A psychologist believes that physical exercise can reduce a person's anxiety level, which reduces the strength of substance cravings in people recovering from substance dependence. According to this hypothesis anxiety is a: A. suppressor variable B. mediator variable C. moderator variable D. criterion contaminator

B. Demand characteristics are unintentional cues in the experimental environment or manipulation that affect or account for the results of the study. In this situation, the subjects' may have acted in ways consistent with their expectations rather than simply in response to the experimental manipulation. The Hawthorne effect (a.) occurs when research subjects act differently because of the novelty of the situation and the special attention they receive as research participants. Carryover effects (c.) occur in repeated measures designs when the effects of one treatment have an impact on the effects of subsequent treatments

A researcher inquires about the subjects' performance expectations and beliefs about the purpose of the study at the conclusion of the experiment. The researcher finds the subjects' actual performance is consistent with their beliefs and expectations when analyzing the data. The results of the study may be confounded by: A. the Hawthorne effect B. demand characteristics C. carryover effects D. changing criteria

B. Canonical correlation is a method used to assess the relationship between two sets of variables--i.e., two or more predictor variables and two or more criterion variables. Scores on both sets of variables are weighted and summed to come up with two canonical variates, or weighted sum scores, one for the predictor variables and one for the criterion variables, and the results reflect how strongly the two canonical variates are related. The Pearson Product Moment Correlation Coefficient is used to test the strength of the relationship between two variables only, one predictor and one criterion (e.g., one academic test and college GPA). When there are two or more predictor variables and one criterion variable, multiple correlation can be used. And factor analysis is not a correlational method, but instead a way of finding a few, unobserved variables that could account for scores on many variables.

A researcher wants to obtain the correlation between several academic predictor tests and three measures of academic success in college. The appropriate method of correlational analysis to use would be the: A. Pearson Product Moment Correlation Coefficient. B. canonical correlation. C. multiple correlation. D. factor analysis.

A. Seizures are generally divided into two main types: "partial" or "focal," and generalized. Partial (focal) seizures typically begin with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body, for example, one finger, which may start to jerk, followed by jerking of the entire arm and then the rest of that side of the body, and may lead to jerking of the entire body. Although it can eventually affect the entire body, it is referred to as a "partial" seizure because of how it initially developed. This is sometimes called "partial seizure with secondary generalization." Partial seizures are further subdivided into "simple partial seizures," which have no alteration of consciousness, and "complex partial seizures," which do alter consciousness. The generalized type of seizures include the petit mal and tonic-clonic (grand mal) types. Petit mal (absence) seizures are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures begin as bilaterally symmetrical at onset and involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff

A seizure that begins with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and gradually spreads throughout one side or the entire body is referred to as: A. partial B. petit mal C. tonic-clonic D. generalized

D. The Symptom Checklist 90 (SCL-90) is a self-report inventory assessing general psychiatric symptoms of anxiety, depression, somatization, obsessive-compulsiveness, and hostility. Clients respond to the stimulus term, such as "feel nervous inside" on a 5-point Likert type scale from "not at all" which gives a score of 0, to "extremely" which gives a score of 4

A self-report inventory that assesses general psychiatric symptoms on a Likert-type scale is the: A. MCMI-III B. Rorschach C. MMPI-II D. SCL-90

B. This type of thinking is an example of the "personal fable" or the idea that one is unique and not subject to the natural laws that govern others (such as the concept of mortality). Elkind (1984) "All Grown Up and No Place to Go" Reading, MA. Addison-Wesley, wrote about the personal fable and also the "imaginary audience" which is the idea that one is always the center of other's attention.

A sixteen-year-old has just received her driver's license and drives the new car her parents have given her as fast as possible in all situations. This is an example of: A. Imaginary audience B. Personal fable C. Acceleration D. Decentration

C. Object relations therapy, as a psychodynamic therapy, involves an interest in defenses and transferences. Associated with Melanie Klein amongst others, object relations therapy incorporates traditional psychodynamic strategies such as the influence of unconscious processes underlying an individual's relationships, and identifying and interpreting defenses against anxiety and transferences. George Kelly's personal construct therapy (a.) combines cognitive, behavioral, and humanistic concepts. It emphasizes the effect of the individual's perspective on his/her experience of the world. Developed by William Glasser, reality therapy (b.) focuses on an individual's present issues and problems. Steve de Shazer and other strategic family therapists developed solution-focused therapy (d.) which focuses on the here-and-now and identifying solutions to problems

A therapist interested in evaluating the defenses that impact an individual's current maladaptive behavior patterns would be a practitioner of: A. personal construct therapy B. reality therapy C. object relations therapy D. solution-focused therapy

D. Cultural empathy means a therapist understands and appreciates cultural differences in a way that extends the boundaries of traditional empathy, retaining his or her separate cultural identity while simultaneously aware of and accepting the cultural values and beliefs of the client. It is a way of relating interpersonally with the ability to accurately understand the experience of culturally diverse clients and the ability to communicate this understanding effectively with an attitude of concern across cultures. Cultural encapsulation (a.), according to Gilbert Wrenn (1962), refers to when a therapist defines reality according to one set of cultural assumptions, becomes insensitive to cultural variations, disregards evidence disproving their assumptions, depends on technique-oriented or quick-fix solutions to problems and judges others from their own self-reference criteria. Cultural universality (b.) refers to the assumption that Western concepts of normality and abnormality can be considered universal and equally applicable across all cultures. Active empathy (c.) refers to when therapists actively communicate appreciation about all aspects of clients' lives.

A therapist is working with a newly arrived refugee client about her difficulties in acculturation. The therapist does not have firsthand experience as a refugee or immigrant, however, knows what it is like to move from one city to another, transfer employment, lose work, and experience the loss of family or friends. That the therapist is able to understand, accept, and feel the client's situation, while simultaneously maintaining a separate sense of cultural self is an example of: A. cultural encapsulation B. cultural universality C. active empathy D. cultural empathy

B. An openness to various ways of integrating diverse theories and techniques characterizes psychotherapy integration. What differentiates psychotherapy integration from an eclectic approach is that in an eclectic approach, a therapist chooses interventions based on what works without considering a theoretical basis for using the technique, while psychotherapy integration attends to the relationship between technique and theory. Assimilative Integration is an approach to psychotherapy integration in which the therapist has a commitment to one theoretical approach but also is willing to use techniques from other therapeutic approaches

A therapist typically conceptualizes cases from a psychodynamic theoretical framework and uses related techniques however uses an empty chair technique in a therapy session. The therapist's use of this technique is consistent with: A. theoretical integration. B. assimilative integration. C. technical eclecticism. D. common factors.

C. Weber's law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. According to Weber, the "just noticeable difference" in the stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one

A whisper being audible in a library reading room, but not in a busy cafeteria is explained by: A. the all-or-nothing principle B. the "law of effect" C. Weber's law D. the "law of proximity"

A. Counterbalancing is a within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of individuals. The goal is to use every possible treatment sequence with equal numbers of participants for each sequence. If the number of participants is too small to permit the use of a completely counterbalanced research design, then researchers may use a type of partial counterbalancing like the Latin square design (c.). This design is useful for determining what exact sequences of treatment will be administered to the different participant groups. The changing criterion design (b.) is a single case design consisting of a series of phases with differing behavioral criterion set for each. The treatment is considered effective if the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase. The Solomon four-group design (d.) is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on internal and external validity.

A within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants is referred to as: A. counterbalancing B. changing criterion C. Latin square D. Solomon four-group

A. In systems theory, feedback refers to information from within the system which results in changes in either the existing homeostasis or the maintenance or restoration of homeostasis. Positive feedback alters the system to accommodate novel input or a new state of equilibrium and negative feedback maintains or restores the status quo of the system. If a child misbehaves while the family is at a restaurant, negative feedback occurs when the parent corrects the misbehaving and restores homeostasis.

A young child starts to act out while waiting for the food to be served at a restaurant, according to systems theory, in order to the restore the family to its previous state of equilibrium, the parent will: A. use negative feedback to restore homeostasis B. use negative feedback to unbalance the system further and bring the child back into line C. use positive feedback to restore homeostasis D. use positive feedback to correct the child's behavior

D. Avolition refers to a lack of initiative, motivation, or goal-directed activities and is a "negative" symptom of Schizophrenia or Schizophreniform disorder when it is severe enough to prevent an individual from doing basic activities. Alogia refers to a lack of spontaneous speech. Anhedonia refers to the inability to experience pleasure. Akathisia is a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of restlessness, an inability to sit or keep still, a pressing need to be in constant motion, and behaviors such as fidgeting, crossing and uncrossing the legs while sitting, rocking from foot to foot, marching in place and pacing.

A young woman with Schizophrenia has difficulty initiating activities, such as paying her bills and starting assignments or reading; and once she does get started, she is unable to finish. This is an example of: A. anhedonia B. akesthesia C. alogia D. avolition

C. The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the "internal" factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called "personalization," a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control - seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them.

According to Aaron Beck, when faced with a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to maintain an: A. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility B. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility C. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

C. The purpose of Beck's cognitive therapy is to modify dysfunctional automatic thoughts that are seen as the cause of maladaptive emotional responding (e.g., depression and anxiety). Unlike Ellis, who identifies irrational thoughts as the cause of clients' problems, Beck believes that these thoughts may or may not be irrational

According to Beck, depression is caused by: A. biochemical factors. B. early parental rejection. C. dysfunctional automatic thoughts. D. dysfunctional irrational thoughts.

B. Piaget proposed that cognitive development is the result of a combination of biological maturation and exposure to appropriate environmental stimuli. An implication of this assumption is that, even when a child is biologically ready for cognitive growth, it will not occur unless the child is also exposed to necessary environmental stimulation.

According to Piaget, which of the following underlies cognitive development? A. biological maturation B. biological maturation and environmental stimulation C. social interactions D. changes in the ability to process, store, and retrieve information

B. Berry's model of acculturation distinguishes between two dimensions -- retention of the minority culture and maintenance of the majority culture. He proposes that these dimensions are independent, which means that a person can be high on one and low on the other; high on both; or low on both. Berry uses the term "marginalization" to describe the situation where a member of a minority group does not identify strongly with either culture

According to Berry's acculturation model, marginalization is characterized by: A. low involvement in the mainstream culture. B. low involvement in both the mainstream culture and the minority culture. C. low involvement in the minority culture. D. low involvement in the mainstream culture and high involvement in the minority culture.

B. Gilligan's research found that girls remain self-confident until about age 11 or 12, when they begin to become disconnected from themselves and others due to denial of their feelings

According to Carol Gilligan, healthy identity development in early adolescence for females is: A. traceable to a satisfactory infant-mother attachment. B. related to the girl's ability to stay connected to self and others. C. related to the girl's ability to develop a "gendered-less" identity. D. closely related to the girl's acceptance by peers.

B. J.B. Rotter identified internal-external locus of control as a personality trait related to attributional tendency. People with an internal locus of control tend to view positive and negative outcomes as the result of their own actions; i.e., they believe they have control over their own fate. Those with an external locus of control view outside forces, such as luck or powerful external entities, as in control over what happens to them. Derald Wing Sue identified locus of responsibility as an additional attributional tendency. People with an internal locus of responsibility credit or blame themselves for what happens to them; those with an external locus of responsibility place credit or blame with others. According to Sue, one's worldview can fall into one of four quadrants, based on their locus of control and locus of responsibility. For example, people with an internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility (IC-ER) might blame society for their problems, but believe that they have the ability to overcome these problems; this is the typical worldview of an activist or militant. Sue noted that IC-IR is the quadrant considered normal and healthy in the dominant culture, but that this is not necessarily the case in minority cultures. In this question, the person believes he has no control over his ability to get a job and blames the problem on discrimination. Therefore, he has an external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

According to Derald Wing Sue's locus of control and locus of responsibility theory, a person who gives up on getting a desirable job because he believes it is impossible to do so due to outside forces such as discrimination likely has a worldview of: A. external locus of control, internal locus of responsibility. B. external locus of control, external locus of responsibility. C. internal locus of control, external locus of responsibility. D. internal locus of control, internal locus of responsibility.

D. Adolescents who are successful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage conflict, results in the virtue Erikson called "fidelity". Fidelity refers to loyalty, although not blind loyalty, to society's standards. On the other hand, those who are unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage experience either the extreme of "fanaticism" or "repudiation." Fanaticism (c.) occurs when the person becomes overzealous in identification to a particular role to the point that he or she is intolerant of others. Repudiation (a.) is the other maladaptive tendency in which the adolescent compensates for a lack of identity by fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity: religious cults, military organizations, or hate groups. The adolescent repudiates his or her membership in the world of adults.

According to Erik Erikson, adolescents who successfully resolve the identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit: A. repudiation B. mainstream behaviors C. fanaticism D. fidelity

B. According to Erikson, adolescents who are unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage experience either the extreme of "fanaticism" or "repudiation." Fanaticism occurs when the person becomes overzealous in identification to a particular role to the point that he or she is intolerant of others. Repudiation is the other maladaptive tendency in which the adolescent compensates for a lack of identity by fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity: religious cults, military organizations, or hate groups. The adolescent repudiates his or her membership in the world of adults. Successful resolution of the conflict, on the other hand, results in the virtue Erikson called "fidelity" (A). Fidelity refers to loyalty, although not blind loyalty, to society's standards.

According to Erik Erikson, an adolescent who is unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit: A. fidelity B. repudiation C. mainstream behaviors D. hopelessness

C. Cattell and Horn distinguish between fluid and crystallized intelligence. The former is independent of specific instruction and is relatively culture free, while the latter depends on exposure to education and is affected by cultural experiences. Cattell and Horn believed that these two aspects of intelligence are highly correlated and that crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.©

According to Horn and Cattell (1966): A. crystallized and fluid intelligence become more integrated in later adulthood. B. crystallized and fluid intelligence are uncorrelated. C. crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence. D. fluid (but not crystallized) intelligence depends on exposure to particular cultural and educational experiences.

B. Unlike studies on children growing up in the 1960's which found aggressive behavior only in males, Huesmann et al. (2003) found childhood exposure to TV violence is stimulating an increase in adult aggression in males and females. This effect persists even when the effects of socioeconomic status, intellectual ability, and a variety of parenting factors are controlled. More childhood exposure to TV violence, greater childhood identification with same-sex aggressive TV characters, and a stronger childhood belief that violent shows tell about life "just like it is" predicted more adult aggression regardless of the initial aggressiveness of the child.

According to Huesmann et al. (2003), the long-term effects of TV violence on children growing up in the 1970-80's, indicate childhood exposure to media violence: A. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males B. predicts young adult aggressive behavior for males and females C. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males with low social economic status or intellectual ability D. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males and females with low social economic status or intellectual ability

A. According to Helms, autonomy is the final stage of racial identity development. Autonomy is characterized by a nonracist White identity based on a realistic understanding of the strengths and weaknesses of White culture. At this stage, Whites value and seek out cross-racial interactions

According to Janet Helms' (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model, the final stage of racial identity development is: A. autonomy B. disintegration C. reintegration D. immersion-emersion

D. Helms' White Racial Identity Model (1984, 1995) consists of two Phases (Abandonment of Racism and Defining Non-racist White Identity) with six specific racial identity statuses equally distributed between the two phases: 1) Contact Status, 2) Disintegration Status, 3) Reintegration Status, 4) Pseudo-independence Status, 5) Immersion/Emersion Status, and 6) Autonomy Status. The first status, "contact", is characterized by ignorance and disregard of any racial differences. The next stage, "disintegration" (b.), involves awareness of racial inequalities which results in moral confusion and conflict. The third status, "reintegration" (c.), involves Whites being viewed as superior to minorities. Next is "Pseudo-Independence", which is marked by dissatisfaction with reintegration. Then is "Immersion-Emersion" (a.), during which people embrace their whiteness without rejecting minorities. The last status, "Autonomy", is reached when a person internalizes a nonracist White identity, whereby similarities and differences are acknowledged but are not perceived as threatening.

According to Janet Helms' (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model, the fourth status of racial identity development is: A. immersion-emersion B. disintegration C. reintegration D. pseudo-independence

A. Patterson, Chamberlin and Reid 1982 "A Comparative evaluation of a parent-training program" Behavior Therapy, 13(5) 638-650 proposed a coercive family interaction model. It hypothesized that children first learn aggressive behaviors from their parents. These parents also use harsh discipline and reward their children's aggressiveness with attention and approval. As a result, the aggressiveness of the parent-child interaction continues to escalate

According to Jerry Patterson and associates the families of highly aggressive boys are characterized by: A. coercive interactions and poor parental monitoring B. Coercive interactions and high parental monitoring C. Low interaction and low parental monitoring D. Excessive television viewing

B. Conventional morality is the second level of Kohlberg's three levels of moral reasoning. It is between pre-conventional morality, where the behaviors we view as moral are those that result in a reward or avoidance of punishment; and post-conventional morality, where we function according to our own conscience, no matter what the conventional wisdom is. The person at the conventional level supports the social order. He or she believes in that which is approved of by others or by societal standards is moral

According to Kohlberg's theory, which of the following would be the best example of conventional morality? A. maximizing individual gains B. support of social standards C. behaving solely in line with one's own conscience D. behaving in such a way as to avoid risk and cost to the individual

B. Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional). At the preconventional level, morality is based on the consequences of an act. Good behaviors are rewarded and bad behaviors are punished. The next level is conventional, in which morality is guided by the desire to maintain existing social laws, rules, and norms. In the post-conventional level individuals view morality in terms of self-chosen principles. Heteronomous morality (D) is a term use by Piaget to describe preschool children who believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable.

According to Kohlberg, an individual who is concerned with obeying society's laws and rules is in which stage of moral development? A. preconventional B. conventional C. postconventional D. heteronomous

C. According to Mahler, a child must separate and individuate so that he or she can move from being part of a mother-child unit to being a member of a family. Separation occurs when the child disengages and differentiates from the mother, while individuation occurs when the child develops an inner representation of the mother, an ability to test reality, a sense of time, and an awareness of the existence of others as distinct from him or herself. In other words, when the child individuates, he or she moves away from symbiosis with the mother and toward the recognition and experience of his or her individual existence

According to Margaret Mahler, individuation involves: A. developing relationships with significant others. B. developing an interest in the outside world. C. coming to recognize the existence of self and others. D. coming to recognize that Mother does not cease to exist when she disappears from sight.

D. Marlatt and Gordon's (1985) model of substance addiction proposes that addicts learn to associate substance use with relief of self-criticism and guilt through a variety of cues and reinforcers, such as advertisements depicting people feeling cheerful when drinking and social occasions in which a carefree attitude is reinforced. In other words, there are a variety of cues and mediators that encourage and reinforce use. Contrary to the person's expectations, however, excessive substance use only exacerbates problems, such as interpersonal or work-related problems. This leads to more self-criticism and guilt, which the person again attempts to relieve by using. In other words, substance use is self-reinforcing -- it is the cause of and the expected solution to the same problems. And it is "over-learned" in that, due to the multiplicity of its antecedents, it becomes a strongly ingrained behavior. According to Marlatt and Gordon, a person is less likely to lapse (use a drug after a period of abstinence) if he/she attributes lapses to non-dispositional factors that he or she can learn to control.

According to Marlatt and Gordon's theory of substance addiction: A. relapse is more likely when the person attributes lapses (use of a drug after a period of abstinence) to non-dispositional factors. B. excessive substance use is related to an unresolved need for power. C. addictions can be successfully treated only with medication because they are largely due to biological factors. D. substance use is "over-learned" in that it is maintained by itself as well as by multiple cognitive mediators and external reinforcers.

B. Maslow's five basic needs, arranged in hierarchical order of importance, are physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization.

According to Maslow, there are five levels of human needs that are represented in a hierarchical order. The stage that follows physiological needs is: A. order B. safety C. acceptance D. self-actualization

C. Research on the effects of television violence on children's behavior demonstrates that viewing aggressive models is associated with increased aggressive behavior. Moreover, these effects can be long-lasting; they have been observed in longitudinal studies lasting up to 22 years

According to the current research, the effects on children of observing aggressive models, such as through television violence, are: A. short-term but not long-term. B. long-term but not short-term. C. both short-term and long-term. D. neither short-term nor long-term.

B. Chodorow uses the principles of object relations theory (thus D is incorrect) to show that girls are taught to stay attached to their same sex mother while boys are taught to differentiate (opposite of answer C) from their mothers. Chodorow argues that the present system represents a gendered division of labor and that changes in gender relations will only occur when men and women are equally responsible for child rearing

According to Nancy Chodorow (1978) roles in society will change only when we have a system of parenting in which men and women are equally responsible for child rearing. Chodorow feels: A. The present system doesn't reflect the gendered division of labor B. The present system teaches girls to remain attached to their mothers C. The present system teaches boys to remain attached to their mothers D. The present system cannot be explained through object relations theory

B. Piaget's theory of cognitive development identifies four developmental stages, roughly correlated with specific age ranges. As children progress through these stages, their methods of assimilating new information, accommodating existing cognitive structures to new information, and mentally representing information in general become more sophisticated. The third stage, concrete operational, develops around the ages of 7-11. During this phase, children develop the ability to employ a number of logical operations they use to solve concrete (as opposed to abstract) problems. One of these operations, called reversibility, involves the ability to imagine that objects can be changed and then restored to their original state. The child described by the question is using reversibility. Regarding the other choices, conservation is the ability to understand that quantity or fundamental properties of an object are not necessarily related to the object's appearance. A child displaying conservation of liquid would know, for example, that the quantity of water does not decrease when it is poured from a tall thin glass to a short wide glass. Reversibility is a sign that conservation abilities are present but reversibility is a better answer for this question because it more specifically applies to this child. Multiple classification, another characteristic of concrete operational thought, is the ability to classify objects into more than one applicable category. And hypothetico-deductive reasoning involves the ability to generate multiple theories for a phenomenon and choose one theory over others based on reasoning and evidence. Hypothetico-deductive reasoning is a sign of formal operational thought, the final stage of Piaget's theory

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, a child who can imagine that clay broken up into many pieces can be reassembled into the original clay ball is displaying: A. conservation. B. reversibility. C. multiple classification. D. hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

A. Piaget's theory of cognitive development identifies four developmental stages, roughly correlated with specific age ranges. As children progress through these stages, their methods of assimilating new information, accommodating existing cognitive structures to new information, and mentally representing information in general become more sophisticated. The fourth and final stage, formal operational thought, begins at about the age of 12, though not everyone fully completes this stage. It involves the ability to think abstractly, reason logically and draw conclusions from available information. One characteristic of formal operational thought is hypothetico-deductive reasoning, which involves the ability to generate multiple theories for a phenomenon and choose one theory over others based on reasoning and evidence.

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, a child who is able to generate multiple theories as to why something occurred and then arrive at one theory based on the evidence at hand is displaying: A. formal operational thought. B. preoperational thought. C. decentration. D. concrete operational thought.

A. Piaget's theory of cognitive development identifies four developmental stages, roughly correlated with specific age ranges. As children progress through these stages, their methods of assimilating new information, accommodating existing cognitive structures to new information, and mentally representing information in general become more sophisticated. The fourth and final stage, formal operational thought, begins at about the age of 12, though not everyone fully completes this stage. It involves the ability to think abstractly, reason logically and draw conclusions from available information. One characteristic of formal operational thought is hypothetico-deductive reasoning, which involves the ability to generate multiple theories for a phenomenon and choose one theory over others based on reasoning and evidence

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, a child who is able to generate multiple theories as to why something occurred and then arrive at one theory based on the evidence at hand is displaying: A. formal operational thought. B. preoperational thought. C. decentration. D. concrete operational thought.

C. Piaget proposed that cognitive abilities develop in a fixed sequence of four stages: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years) is characterized by learning through sensory information and the development of object permanence. The preoperational stage (2 to 7 years) is marked by a tremendous increase in symbolic thought and language. Concrete operational stage (7 to 11 years), which is predominant during the elementary school years, is marked by the development of reversibility and decentration which enables conservation. Finally, the formal operational stage (11 to 16 years), begins in early adolescence and is characterized by the ability to abstract, which enables hypothetical-deductive reasoning.

According to Piaget, the concrete operations stage occurs during: A. 2 to 5 years B. 5 to 7 years C. 7 to 11 years D. 11 to 16 years

D. Piaget identified four stages of cognitive development that he believed children moved through in an orderly and predictable fashion at specific ages. The first of these stages is the sensorimotor stage, which occurs between the ages of 0-24 months. During this stage, children attain a number of milestones in their cognitive development, one of which is the ability to recognize that objects are permanent figures that continue to exist once they are out of sight. This ability, called object permanence, typically occurs between the ages of 9-12 months. The onset of separation anxiety in infants is associated with their attainment of object permanence. The thinking is that once they obtain object permanence, babies realize that the attachment figure could be present when they are out of sight and therefore start objecting to the person's absence.

According to Piaget, the onset of normal separation anxiety in infants is related to the development of: A. egocentrism. B. conservation. C. concrete operational thought. D. object permanence.

B. As defined by Piaget, equilibration is a state of cognitive balance. The need for balance is what motivates the individual to assimilate and accommodate new information.

According to Piaget, when a child accommodates new information by forming a new schema or modifying an existing one, this results in: A. decentration. B. equilibration. C. assimilation. D. symbolic representation.

C. The James-Lange theory, one of the earliest theories of emotion, proposes that we feel after our body reacts (i.e., that we are sad because we cry).

According to the peripheralist theory of emotions, "we feel afraid because we tremble." This approach is reflected in which of the following theories? A. Cannon-Bard B. Lazarus-Schachter C. James-Lange D. Kuder-Richardson

A. Speech-act theory, originated by Austin (1962) then further developed by Searle (1969), proposes by understanding the detail of what is being said or uttered, people will understand and communicate better with others. Specifically, a verbal utterance is defined in terms of its content, the intention of the speaker, and the effect on the listener. A locutionary act is an utterance of a meaningful sentence or statement, the act of saying something. An illocutionary act (c.) intends to communicate. It is the way in which something is said. A perlocutionary act (b.) seeks to change behavior. It is the effect of what was said on the listener or speech acts that have an effect on the feelings, thoughts or actions of either the speaker or the listener. A propositional act (d.) is something referenced, but no communication may be intended. According to the theory, a speech act necessarily involves a locutionary act but may or may not involve an illocutionary act and a perlocutionary act.

According to Speech Act Theory, the general act of saying something is referred to as a/an: A. locutionary act B. perlocutionary act C. illocutionary act D. propositional act

A. The term paralanguage is used to refer to vocal cues, other than words or language, individuals use to communicate meaning. The term kinesics is used to refer to bodily movements such as facial expressions, posture, gestures, eye contact (c.) and the term proxemics refers to the perception and use of personal and interpersonal space (d.)

According to Sue and Sue (2003), culture influences certain aspects of communication and potentially impacts interactions between individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds. One of these culturally influenced characteristics of communication is paralanguage, which refers to: A. rate of speech, pauses, loudness of voice, and other vocal cues B. culturally shared meanings for words or phrases C. facial expressions, posture, gestures, eye contact and other bodily movements D. personal and interpersonal use of space

B. Sue and Sue state that individuals are products of cultural conditioning with their worldviews, or values and beliefs, representing an "invisible veil" which operates outside the level of conscious awareness. The resulting assumption is that everyone shares the same reality and truth regardless of race, culture, ethnicity, or gender. This assumption of universality is erroneous yet seldom questioned due to being firmly ingrained in one's worldview, and often results in people operating on misinformation. Cultural universality (d.) refers to the assumption that Western concepts of normality and abnormality can be considered universal and equally applicable across all cultures. Cultural relativism, including lifestyles, class values (a.), cultural values (c.) and worldviews, affect the expression and determination of deviant behavior.

According to Sue and Sue (2003), what represents an "invisible veil" which operates outside the level of conscious awareness? A. class-bound values B. worldviews C. cultural-bound values D. cultural-universality

D. Even if you were unfamiliar with Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, you may have been able to guess correctly if you realized that the term "dissonance" refers to conflict. Sue and Sue's (1990) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) is an elaboration of the Minority Identity Development model (MID) proposed by Atkinson, Morton, and Sue (1989). Both models describe the same stages (conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness) but the R/CID model elaborates on individuals' attitudes toward self and others. During the Conformity stage, a person depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group. During the Dissonance stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the majority group. In the Resistance and Immersion stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the majority group. In the Introspection stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or her appreciation and depreciation of self and others. And, finally, in the Integrative Awareness stage, the person experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group

According to Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person in the dissonance stage would experience: A. appreciation of the self and depreciation of the dominant group B. depreciation of the self and appreciation of the dominant group C. appreciation of the self and the dominant group D. conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group

A. For Vygotsky, language is originally and primarily social. Thus a child's language and cognitive processes are greatly influenced by his social relationships and culture. From these experiences the child formulates his language. This is in contrast to Piaget (answer B and C) who believed that universal internal cognitive structures or schema developed first within the child, and then were influenced by his surroundings. Answer D "scaffolding" is Vygotsky's term for the assistance adults give to children to help them learn about the world.

According to Vygotsky, what has the greatest impact on the development of language? A. social relationships B. internal cognitive structures C. schemas D. scaffoldings

A. There are a few different cognitive-behavioral theories of the Anorexia Nervosa but all emphasize two major factors in the maintenance of the disorder: an extreme need to control eating and an extreme tendency to judge self-worth on the basis of body shape and weight.

According to cognitive-behavioral theories, a central factor in the maintenance of symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa is: A. the need to control eating. B. a fear of sexuality and sexual maturity. C. positive reinforcement from family and friends for weight loss. D. dysfunctional family interactions.

C. While standard developmental scales don't predict later IQ score, a baby's responses to a visual attention task do. How much time it takes the baby to assimilate a novel stimulus is moderately predictive of later IQ score since, it is hypothesized, the mental functioning involved is similar

According to current research, the most predictive variable for adult IQ scores among infant responses would be: A. scores on the Bayley Scale of Infant Development. B. scores on the Gesell Development Schedule. C. attention to a visual recognition task. D. auditory orientation.

D. The tendency of babies to cry at the sound of another infant's cries is referred to as emotional contagion and is considered by researchers to be the first sign of empathy. Emotional contagion has been observed in infants as young as two days

According to empathy development theories, "emotional contagion" is considered to be earliest expression of empathy and appears in infants: A. by the end of the first year of age. B. between 6 and 9 months of age. C. between 3 and 6 months of age. D. between the first few days and weeks of life.

D. You needed to approach this question from the point of view of a system. A system means that everything functions together. Knowing just that little piece, you probably could have gotten to the correct answer: once the system changes, the individuals will change. The work is at the systems level, not at the individual level. The alternative stating that "no member will improve unless all members improve" comes close to this idea, but it's not exactly the point of system theory. And, besides, you don't have to have all members improving before any one member improves. According to systems theory, individual symptoms can remit, however, without systemic change, other problems (either in that individual or in another family member) will arise

According to family therapists: A. when one family member improves, others will improve also. B. no member of a family will improve unless all members improve. C. if the identified patient improves, the family system will improve. D. if the family system changes, the identified patient will improve.

C. The research on psychotherapy outcome is pretty consistent in its conclusions. Common findings include that therapy is generally effective for children and adults of all backgrounds and that, with the exception of certain specific problem areas, all therapies are about equal. This question is about one of those exceptions. According to outcome research, phobias respond best to behavioral techniques such as exposure treatments.

According to meta-analytic studies of psychotherapy, A. so few well-controlled studies have been done that no conclusions can be made concerning treatment outcome. B. behavior therapy is better than psychoanalysis. C. behavior therapy is the treatment of choice for phobias. D. a person participating in therapy would have just as much chance of improving as a control subject.

A. Research indicates many parents undergoing a custody evaluation produce defensive MMPI-2 score patterns. Siegel and Langford (1998) expanded on these findings by examining the MMPI-2 profiles of mothers with parental alienation syndrome and those without, who were going through a custody evaluation. Results showed mothers with parental alienation syndrome had a lower F scale score and higher L and K scale scores than mothers without parental alienation syndrome

According to research on mothers who exhibit parental alienation syndrome and are going through a custody evaluation, the pattern of scores on the MMPI-2 would most likely be: A. low F scale score and elevated L and K scale scores B. low K and F scale scores and elevated L scale score C. low L and F scale scores and elevated K scale score D. low L and K scale scores and elevated F scale score

D. Researchers in the 1950s identified two dimensions of parenting styles: permissiveness and affection. Permissiveness is a continuum that ranges from autonomy on one extreme to control at the other; affection is a continuum that ranges from hostility to love. Parents who combine hostility with autonomy (e.g., those who combine violent discipline with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children) are likely to produce disobedient and aggressive children

According to research on parenting styles, which of the following describes the parents who are most likely to raise very aggressive children? A. attentive parents who are very controlling of their children's behavior B. parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and are very controlling of their children's behavior C. loving parents with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior D. parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and have a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior

D. The Geschwind-Galaburda hypothesis was proposed to explain sex differences in cognitive abilities by relating them to lateralization of brain function. Geschwind and Galaburda (1987) suggested that differences in the rates of maturation between the two cerebral hemispheres is mediated by circulating testosterone levels in a fetus' developing brain and impact hemispheric dominance, with high concentrations or excessive testosterone delaying development in the left hemisphere relative to the right hemisphere and male brains maturing later than females. According to the hypothesis, beyond left-handedness, such "anomalous" hemispheric dominance is also associated with other health effects such as immune dysfunction and developmental disorders of language and speech. Although others have also hypothesized that handedness is a marker of prenatal hormonal exposures or other factors, it remains controversial.

According to the Geschwind-Galaburda hypothesis, which of the following predisposes individuals to dyslexia, childhood allergies, stuttering, left-handedness, and good right-hemisphere skill? A. emotional conflict in early childhood B. adrenal gland damage C. Vitamin B deficiency D. high levels of testosterone

D. Research with drugs led to the formulation of the "catecholamine hypothesis" about the cause of mood disorders. First presented in 1965, Schildkraut et al.'s theory of depression emphasized the association of depression with a decrease in the levels of brain catecholamines dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE), especially norepinephrine. This hypothesis in its simplest form, stated that depression was due to a deficiency of norepinephrine, one of the major catecholamine systems in the brain. This early hypothesis is based on evidence from three groups of drugs: reserpine, monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, and tricyclics. Reserpine depletes the brain of dopamine and norepinephrine and is used primarily to treat hypertension. It is also used for severe agitation. MAO inhibiters and tricyclics, although they work in somewhat different ways, are used to treat depression and tend to increase the amount of norepinephrine available in the central nervous system. A variety of approaches, especially in the United States, tested this hypothesis and the results are inconclusive. Nonetheless, this theory served as the "standard" theory for depression in the United States until the 1980s.

According to the catecholamine hypothesis, depression is due to a deficiency in: A. dopamine B. gamma-aminobutyric acid C. acetylcholine D. norepinephrine

B. "Homeostasis" refers to the tendency for any system to react toward restoring the status quo in the event of any change. Homeostasis is automatically disturbed as individuals in a family grow into new developmental stages or "get better" after having had depressive or other symptoms. Therefore, when someone recovers, to restore a homeostatic balance, family members may either sabotage the recovered member's improvement or become symptomatic themselves. Thus, if the woman's depressive symptoms improve, the concept of homeostasis would predict that depressive symptoms might develop in her husband

According to the concept of "homeostasis," if a married woman's depressive symptoms improve, we can expect that which of the following will be most likely to occur? A. increased support from her husband B. depressive symptoms in her husband C. rejection by all family members D. overall improvement in the family's symptoms

D. Introjection involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others -- the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Choice A is incorrect because it is primarily values, not emotions, that are absorbed from the environment in Gestalt therapy's view of introjection.

According to the theory underlying Gestalt therapy, introjection involves: A. viewing other people's emotions as one's own B. failing to develop a healthy "social interest" C. blaming oneself for the problems of others D. interpreting the values of the larger society as one's own

C. Morita Therapy, sometimes referred to as the psychology of action, is a Japanese therapeutic intervention developed by Japanese psychologist Shoma Morita in the early part of the twentieth century originally to treat anxiety and neurosis. Morita therapy doesn't deal with the past, inner dynamics, or with emotions directly as a prerequisite to change. Emphasis is on learning to accept the internal fluctuations of thoughts and feelings and ground behavior in reality and the purpose of the moment. The focus is on the external environment, behavior, and distinguishing what is and is not controllable. All emotions are accepted as valid, pain is inevitable and there is no attempt to control or govern feelings. Concrete effort to take action, with or without success and despite the accompanying emotions, is encouraged. Progress is measured by degree of responsiveness to behavioral demands and in the effort for self improvement. Like cognitive behavioral therapy, Morita therapy deals with changing behaviors and dysfunctional cognitive processes through reframing the meaning of anxiety, focusing on attitudinal blocks to behavior and taking personal responsibility for behavior. Another Japanese approach, Naikan Therapy (a.), or the psychology of reflection, is based on clients asking themselves three questions: what have I received from? What have I given to? What troubles or difficulties have I caused to? Through such self-reflection, a client's awareness of the role they play in the relationship or situation, the amount of support they've received, and an appreciation for others is said to be increased. It is often combined with use of Morita Therapy. In Network Therapy (b.), the client's family, friends, and relatives (i.e. the client's network) are brought together, through the therapist's initiative, to implement the therapeutic process. Rational-emotive therapy (d.), views irrational thoughts as the cause of clients? problems and that the maintenance of problems is due primarily to self-indoctrination.

According to this type of psychotherapy, feelings are acknowledged and accepted as uncontrollable and the focus is on taking constructive action, not the alleviation of discomfort or the attainment of some ideal feeling state. A. Naikan therapy B. Network therapy C. Morita therapy D. Rational-emotive therapy (RET)

B. Bem's gender schema theory states children develop schema about what is expected of them as girls or boys and then apply those schemas to their own behavior. Because it emphasizes both social, notably sociocultural factors, and cognitive processes, it is classified as a social-cognitive approach. Kagan's social learning theory (a.) focuses on social factors role on the development of gender-role identity, yet focuses primarily on the impact of modeling and reinforcement. Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory (c.) emphasizes the cognitive processes that underlie gender-role identity development. Resolution of the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage of development is the emphasis of Freud's theory of gender-role identity (d.).

Adapting attitudes and behaviors to fit the expectations of what girls or boys are "supposed to do" within a sociocultural environment is reflective of which gender-role identity development theory? A. Kagan's social learning theory B. Bem's gender schema theory C. Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory D. Freud's psychodynamic theory

B. Albert Ellis' Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT, sometimes referred to as Rational Emotive Therapy, or RET) is based on the notion that irrational thinking, feeling, and behavior is behind most problems encountered in therapy. It relies on Ellis' A-B-C model of disturbance: An activating event (A) triggers irrational beliefs about that event (B), and those beliefs have consequences (C) such as negative emotions and self-defeating behavior. REBT adds D and E to this chain of events: The therapist disputes (D) the irrational beliefs, leading to their replacement with rational beliefs and an effective outlook (E). REBT focuses mostly on the present--currently-held maladaptive attitudes, emotions and behaviors. It does recognize that events in early life may play a role in people's problems, but it views the past as affecting people by contributing to beliefs that we hold in the present.©

Albert Ellis' Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy focuses on: A. uncovering childhood causes of current dysfunction. B present problems and practical ways to solve them. C. reward and punishment for appropriate and inappropriate affective responses. D. self-monitoring and thought stopping.

B. There are many different approaches to brief therapy including psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and eclectic to name a few; however, brief therapy is always based on theory. Brief therapy, as its name implies, is time limited and effective for acute symptoms. A positive transference is also generally considered to be essential to the success of brief therapy

All of the following are generally considered to be characteristic of brief psychotherapy, except: A. time limited therapy B. lack of theoretical orientation C. effective for acute symptoms D. encourages the development of a positive transference between the client and the therapist.

A. Norm-referenced scores indicate how well an individual performed on a test compared to others in the norm group. A pass or fail score achieved by one individual does not indicate how many others passed or failed. Pass/fail is a criterion-referenced score, which indicates if an individual knows the exam content or not, but does not measure performance relative to other examinees. The other three responses are norm-referenced scores. A grade-equivalent score (b.) permits a test user to compare an individual's exam performance to others in different grade levels. A T-score (c.) is a type of standard score, or norm-referenced scores indicating how a test-taker performed in terms of standard deviation units from the mean score of the norm group. A percentile rank (d.) shows the percent of individuals in the norm group who scored lower.

All of the following are norm-referenced scores except: A. pass/fail B. grade-equivalent scores C. T-score D. percentile rank

B. Although some progress has been made recently in identifying genetic markers of Alzheimer's Disease, the presence of a particular genetic mutation does not confirm that the person has or will develop the disorder. Currently, the diagnostic process involves determining that the diagnostic criteria for the disorder are met, the typical features of Alzheimer's are present, and other possible causes of the disturbance have been ruled out. The three incorrect options all describe techniques that are typically part of this diagnostic process

All of the following are standard aspects of the assessment and diagnosis of Neruocognitive Disorder Due to Alzheimer's Disease except: A. administering a mental status exam. B. administering medical tests to identify the presence of the Alzheimer's gene. C. administering tests of neuropsychological functioning. D. using neuroimaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

A. Few, if any, experts believe that age-related declines in cognition and especially memory are solely related to artifacts of experience or testing. These declines have been observed again and again across different cultures and different tests. Certainly, experience and test error can account for some degree of observed decline, but the generally accepted conclusion is that these declines are real and reflect true neuropsychological changes. Choices B, C, and D are true statements about age-related decline in cognition and memory.

All of the following are true regarding the relationship between aging and memory, except: A. observed age-related cognitive and memory declines are believed to be due to artifacts of intelligence tests and experience, rather than physiological changes. B. the main locus of observed age-related decline in memory is in long-term memory rather than short-term or sensory memory. C. on tests such as the WAIS-III, the least age-related decline is observed on subtests measuring stored knowledge. D. age-related declines on complex psychomotor tasks are greater than they are on simple psychomotor tasks.

D. Women who have multiple roles appear to be at lower risk for depression. This may be because they have many different support sources and outlets for their competence -- i.e., if their life is not going well in one area, they can compensate with success in other areas. The other choices, according to the APA Task Force Report on Women and Depression, provide accurate descriptions of the results of research on women and depression: For example, men may be at a lower risk than women because, in response to problems, they are more likely to employ action and mastery (e.g., work, sports, going out with friends) strategies that distract them from their worries and give them a sense of power and control. Women, on the other hand, tend to brood and dwell on their problems

All of the following are true regarding women and depression, except: A. gender differences in coping style apparently are a reason why women are at a greater risk for depression than men. B. marriage reduces the risk of depression to a greater extent for men than it does for women. C. the more children a woman has, the more likely it is that she'll be depressed. D. women who have multiple roles (e.g., a job, children, a marriage) are more vulnerable to depression than women who don't.

B. Choice B is not true of Beck's theory. According to Beck, dysfunctional schemas (i.e., models of the world) are not always present. Rather, they are activated by particular environmental events -- often, events that bear some resemblance to events earlier in life that caused the schema to develop. For instance, a business failure could activate the schema "no matter what I try, I'll fail because I'm inadequate" that might have been formed due to experiences in childhood. Unless activated by such events, schema lie dormant and don't affect functioning. You might have thought that choice A sounded more like the psychoanalytic than the cognitive viewpoint. However, as should be clear from this explanation, Beck also believes that past experiences play a role in the development of mental illness.©

All of the following statements about Beck's cognitive theory of the origin and maintenance of depression are true, except: A. experiences in early childhood play a role in the development of depression in adulthood. B. depressed individuals are suffering from personality pathology due to relatively stable and omnipresent dysfunctional models of the world. C. the cognitive triad of depressive cognitions is negative beliefs about the self, future, and the world. D. automatic depressive thoughts are the result of logical errors that occur when the individual tries to interpret a situation in terms of a dysfunctional schema.

C. Meichenbaum's stress inoculation training is based on the medical inoculation model: the idea is to give the person the opportunity to deal with a low "dose" of anxiety-provoking stimuli, in order to help the person build coping skills (which are analogous to immunity). Contrary to choice C, the technique consists of three steps (education, rehearsal, and real-life application) in which the person's exposure to stressful stimuli proceeds from least-anxiety to most anxiety-provoking. As part of the training, clients are taught to use appropriate self-statements (i.e., self-instruction) to guide them through the coping process

All of the following statements are true of the technique of stress inoculation training, except: A. its mechanism of action is analogous to that of medical inoculation. B. it consists of three distinct phases. C. it is based on the notion that immediate imaginal exposure to a fearful stimulus at its maximal intensity results in rapid extinction of the fear. D. it relies heavily on the technique of self-instruction.

C. Code switching (also known as language switching) occurs when a bilingual speaker changes languages during the course of a conversation. It seems to serve several purposes, including allowing the speaker to better express his/her feelings toward the listener

Among bilinguals, code-switching: A. is associated with low academic achievement. B. is evidence of a critical period in language development. C. is a way for the speaker to better express his or her attitude toward the listener. D. should be encouraged early in language development to ensure greater reliance on the dominant language.

A. Social referencing refers to using the emotional response of others as a cue as to how to respond oneself. Infants begin to display social referencing at the age of about 6 months, when they are influenced by the mother's mere presence; by about the age of 10 months, they begin to reference their mother's faces. Social referencing in infants generally occurs in ambiguous situations, when they are presented with novel stimuli or unfamiliar situations. A number of studies have suggested that social referencing in infants reflects cognitive awareness of the meaning of emotional expressions, and, contrary to choices 3 and 4, not simply imitation or contagion

An 11-month-old infant is presented with a new toy and hesitates to approach it, but then starts to play with it after seeing his mother smile and hearing her verbally encourage him. This is an example of: A. social referencing. B. secure attachment. C. imitation. D. emotional contagion.

D. Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's Minority Identity Development Model is based on the notion that the phases of development are rooted in the struggle to form a strong sense of self- and group identity in the face of oppressive conditions. They identified five phases of cultural identity development that blend into each other, without clear boundaries: 1) conformity, in which individuals reject the values of their own racial group and strive to assimilate into the dominant culture; 2) dissonance, a transition phase where positive attitudes towards the dominant culture and negative attitudes toward one's own group are examined and questioned; 3) resistance and immersion, which involves unconditional acceptance of one's own racial group and complete rejection of the dominant culture; 4) introspection, where the person questions the monolithic viewpoints of the previous stage, is able to see positive as well as negative aspects of the dominant culture, and focuses more on individual identity issues; and 5) synergistic articulation and awareness, which is characterized by a secure balance between personal and racial identity, the desire to eliminate all forms of oppression as opposed to just oppression aimed at one's own group, and appreciation of positive aspects of the dominant culture. From the perspective of this theory, the resistance and immersion phase of development would most likely include rejecting any possibility of working with a therapist of a different racial group. It is true that such a refusal could be due to lifelong experiences of racism, as stated by choice 1. However, because you are asked to answer from the perspective of the Minority Identity Development Model, choice 3 is a better answer.

An African-American client refuses to work with a non African-American therapist under any circumstances. From the perspective of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's Minority Identity Development Model, A. the client's reaction is typical and expected due to lifelong experiences of racism. B. the client's reaction reflects a failure of racial identity development. C. the client may be in the dissonance stage of identity development. D. the client may be in the resistance and immersion phase of identity development.

A. The Minority Identity Development (MID) model defines five stages of identity development in African-Americans and other minority groups who share an experience of oppression. The stages are Conformity, Dissonance, Resistance and Immersion, Introspection, and Synergistic Articulation and Awareness. In the first stage, Conformity, the person is likely to have strong negative feelings toward one's own culture and strong positive feelings toward the dominant culture. Thus, an African-American who feels cheated by having to see an African-American therapist would likely be in the Conformity stage of development.

An African-American client who is referred to an African-American therapist states that he has been cheated because he is getting sub-standard care. According to the minority identity development model, this person is in which stage of development? A. conformity B. dissonance C. resistance D. introspection

C. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized test that rates three categories of patient responses: eye opening, best motor response, and best verbal response. The eye opening tests indicate the function of the brain's activating center, the best verbal response indicates the condition of the central nervous system within the cerebral cortex, and the best motor response examines the ability to move arms and legs. The levels of responses indicate the degree of nervous system or brain impairment with "1" being the lowest possible score in each category. Using these scores, which range from 3 to 15 to form the Glascow Coma Scale, brain injuries are classified as mild, moderate or severe. The Rancho Los Amigo Scale (response "A") is an evaluation of eight levels of cognitive functioning administered in acute rehabilitative settings following release from intensive care. The AVPU Scale (response "B") is primarily used after injury occurs or as pre-hospital information. It rates if someone is alert, responds to voice, responds to pain or is unresponsive. The Disability Rating Scale or DRS (response "D") is for gauging general level of disability (e.g., self care, dependence on others) from "none" to "extreme vegetative state.

An accident victim has been partially stabilized in a hospital emergency room and is being transferred to an intensive care unit for continued assessment and treatment. At this point, which of the following is commonly used to evaluate for brain injuries? A. Rancho Los Amigo Scale B. AVPU Scale C. Glascow Coma Scale D. Disability Rating Scale

A. Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge

An adolescent's behavior is motivated primarily by her needs for power and attention. Her problems would probably be best addressed by a therapist adopting the approach of: A. Adler. B. Ellis. C. Perls. D. Freud.

B. Of these, only the Ravens is an intelligence test completely non-dependent on language. It's a non-verbal assessment of abstract reasoning and a fairly good predictor of general cognitive functioning.

An adult woman comes to an outpatient clinic. She is foreign-born and has almost no skills in English. She appears depressed. If one were to attempt a standardized assessment of her level of cognitive functioning, the best test would be: A. Stanford-Binet. B. Ravens Progressive Matrices. C. Perdue Peg Board Test. D. Otis-Lennon Test.

D. The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects different neurotransmitters than conventional antipsychotics and, to some degree, has different side effects. For example, although it doesn't produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disease. An important advantage of clozapine is that it's often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs aren't.

An advantage of clozapine (Clozaril) over conventional antipsychotic drugs is that it is: A. significantly more effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia. B. less likely to produce anticholinergic effects. C. less likely to cause agranulocytosis. D. often effective for those who don't respond to conventional drugs.

B. Stepwise multiple regression is a variation of multiple regression. In multiple regression, one develops an equation that uses two or more predictor variables to predict scores on a criterion (outcome) variable. Stepwise multiple regression involves starting with a large set of predictors and reducing them to a smaller set that provides significant predictive value without providing overlapping information. Specifically, the goal is to get predictors that have high enough correlations with the criterion and low enough correlations with each to be included. If predictors have high correlations with each other, they are basically providing overlapping information and there is no point in including them. The two variations of this technique are forward stepwise multiple regression and backwards stepwise multiple regression. In forward stepwise multiple regression, you choose the predictor with the highest correlation with the criterion, you add one predictor at a time, and then run a significance test to see if the added predictor significantly increases the combined predictive value of the overall equation. The process stops when an added predictor fails to significantly increase predictive value. In backwards stepwise regression, you start with all predictors, and remove predictors, starting with the one that is least correlated with the criterion. This process ends when removal of a predictor causes a significant decrease in the ability of the equation to predict values on the criterion

An educational psychologist has data on 12 different variables collected from students in the graduating high school class of the preceding year, including high school GPA, SAT scores, teacher ratings, and various tests of motivation and personality. She is interested in using these measures to predict success in college. In this instance, the psychologist would use stepwise multiple regression in order to A. develop a predictive equation using all 12 measures. B. determine the optimal set of measures to use. C. determine if mean differences on the 12 measures significantly differ from each other. D. identify any cultural bias in the predictor or criterion measure.

B. This condition is known as prosopagnosia, which refers specifically to the inability to recognize familiar faces. Visual agnosia (answer A) is a more general term and refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. Topograpagnosia (answer C) involves deficits in spatial ("route-finding") ability; and Capgras' syndrome is the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter who has an identical or similar appearance

An elderly man is not able to recognize familiar faces. For example, he doesn't recognize family members until they speak. This condition is referred to as: A. visual agnosia. B. prosopagnosia. C. topographagnosia. D. Capgras' syndrome.

B. Individuals with TBI are most likely to obtain the lowest score on the Processing Speed Index and the highest score on the Verbal Comprehension Index.

An examinee with traumatic brain injury (TBI) is most likely to obtain the lowest score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes? A. Perceptual Reasoning B. Processing Speed C. Verbal Comprehension D. Working Memory

C. Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, and Visual Puzzles are the core subtests of the Perceptual Reasoning Index. The Similarities subtest is a core subtest of the Verbal Comprehension Index

An examinee's score on the Perceptual Reasoning Index of the WAIS-IV is derived from his or her scores on all of the following subtests except: A. Block Design B. Matrix Reasoning C. Similarities D. Visual Puzzles

C. The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the "internal" factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called "personalization," a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control - seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them. A self-confident person (A) is most likely to have an internal locus of control and responsibility. A hostile person (B) is more likely to blame others, that is, would have an external locus of responsibility. And, contrary to D, only marginalized minorities are likely to have an external locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility.

An external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of: A. a self-confident person B. a hostile person C. a depressed person D. most minorities

B. Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical, or stages of change, model is an eclectic model that integrates interventions from various theories of psychotherapy and distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. Many descriptions of the model only include the first five stages because the termination stage of "zero temptation and 100% self-efficacy" is not necessary for success and rare for most behaviors. At each stage, an individual weighs the pros and cons of adopting a new behavior, which Prochaska and DiClemente called "decisional balance." The first stage is "Precontemplation," characterized by denial, resistance, and no plans to change. In the second stage, "Contemplation," a person begins to recognize the benefits of change and, although somewhat ambivalent, plans to change within the next 6 months. This best describes the person in this question. In the third stage, "Preparation," a person has decided to take action within the next 30 days and may have already begun to take small steps towards change. In the next stage, "Action," the person is actively engaged in making changes or acquiring new behaviors. The final stage is the "Maintenance" stage, in which the person has maintained action for at least 6 months and is actively working to prevent a relapse

An individual who is in the contemplation stage of change is: A. unaware of a problem. B. aware of a problem, thinking of change. C. intending to change. D. working on modifying their behavior.

D. According to client-centered therapy, when an individual's natural tendency toward growth and actualization is disrupted by incongruence between the self and experience (e.g., others' evaluations differing from one's self-concept), personality and behavioral problems arise. Denying or distorting the experience is one way of dealing with the incongruence. According to Rogers, denial and distortion leads to anxiety which may result in visceral symptoms such as those listed in the question

An individual's symptoms of tension headaches, nausea, hyperventilation and heart palpitations would be most likely to be interpreted by a client-centered therapist as relating to: A. overwhelming environmental stress B. being unable to fulfill one's own needs C. unresolved intrapsychic conflicts D. denied threats to the self-concept

D. An infant born before 37 week gestation period is considered premature. Greenburg and Cmic (1988) found that with a supportive environment and appropriate medical attention premature infants without significant abnormalities often catch up with their peers, in terms of social and cognitive language skills, by two or three years of age. There is no known relationship between prematurity and adult body weight

An infant born prematurely is most likely to eventually develop: A. Poor social skills B. Poor academic performance C. Low adult body weight D. None of the above

B. Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distinguishes between four interacting environmental levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the individual's immediate environment and includes parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.

An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner's microsystem will focus on: A. family members. B. family members and/or classmates. C. school and church. D. parents' work and friends.

C. The majority of women experience some depressive symptoms following childbirth but, for most, these symptoms are mild. For about 10 to 20% of women, symptoms are sufficiently severe to qualify for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder.

Approximately what percent of women experience depressive symptoms that meet the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder following the birth of their child? A. 30 to 40% B. 20 to 30% C. 10 to 20% D. 1 to 5%

B. Research suggests that compared to their monolingual counterparts, bilingual children perform better on tests of cognitive flexibility, analytical reasoning, concept formation, and metalinguistic awareness.

As compared to children who speak one language, young children who speak a second language show: A. delayed mental abilities. B. greater cognitive flexibility. C. better psychological adjustment. D. poorer peer relations.

C. The DSM-5 defines tolerance as "requiring a markedly increased dose of the substance to achieve the desired effect or a markedly reduced effect when the usual dose is consumed" (APA, 2013, p. 484). The definitions of addiction, physical dependence, and psychological dependence vary somewhat in the literature. However, addiction is usually described as a craving for and compulsion to use a substance that includes the development of tolerance and withdrawal. Physical dependence refers to continued use of a substance to avoid physical withdrawal symptoms. Psychological dependence refers to the continued use of a substance to maintain a state of well-being or avoid depression, anxiety, and other psychological symptoms.

As defined in the DSM-5, __________ refers to a need for an increased amount of a substance to achieve desired effects or a markedly reduced effect of the substance with continued use of the same amount. A. addiction B. physical dependence C. tolerance D. psychological dependence

D. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Substance Use Disorder requires the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms, with symptoms representing four categories - impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria (tolerance and withdrawal).

As described in the DSM-5, the symptoms of Substance Use Disorder represent four categories that include all of the following except: A. social impairment. B. impaired control. C. risky use. D. cognitive impairment.

C. Although Asian-Americans are a diverse group, certain generalizations have been found. Asian-Americans tend to prefer a direct-structured approach to therapy (A), are inhibited and reserved in therapy (B), and use silence as a way of communicating respect (D). When Asian-Americans smile and laugh it may convey meanings other than happiness, in particular, embarrassment, discomfort, or shyness; however, smiling is less likely to be used to express disapproval. Sue and Sue (1999) have noted that this cultural difference may have contributed to conflicts in Los Angeles following the Rodney King verdict, when African-Americans misinterpreted Korean store owners' smiling as arrogance and a lack of compassion, when they were actually expressing embarrassment and apprehension

Asian-American clients are LEAST likely to: A. prefer a direct-structured approach to therapy B. be inhibited and reserved in therapy C. smile to express disapproval D. use silence as a way of communicating respect

B. BASIC ID is an acronym that represents the seven areas of the client's life that are examined in Lazarus's multimodal therapy: behavior, affective responses, sensations, images, cognitions, interpersonal relationships, drugs, biological functions, nutrition and exercise. Rational emotive therapy (RET) (a.) is a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in which the primary focus proposes changes in thinking will lead to changes in behavior, thereby alleviating or improving symptoms. The emphasis is on changing irrational thinking patterns that cause emotional distress into thoughts that are more reasonable and rational. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) (c.) is therapeutic technique which combines techniques from cognitive-behavioral and other treatment approaches with lateral eye movements. Clients receiving EMDR are asked to recall anxiety-provoking memories and are then instructed to track the therapists' fingers which are moved from side to side. This process is repeated until the clients' anxiety is extinguished.

BASIC ID is utilized by which of the following to assess what interventions will work for a particular client? A. Rational emotive therapy B. Multimodal therapy C. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing D. Cognitive behavioral modification

Respiratory Feedback (RFB)

Biofeedback that involves control of breathing type and frequency

thermal or skin temperature (ST) biofeedback

Biofeedback that involves skin temperature and blood flow control

Electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback

Biofeedback that measures impulses in the muscles and indicates the degree of relaxation or contraction/tension. It is commonly used for conditions such as stress, tension headaches, chronic pain, muscle stiffness, incontinence, urinary urgency and frequency, and when muscles are healing

Electrodermal response (EDR) biofeedback (aka galvinic skin response training (GSR))

Biofeedback that measures skin surface changes, giving feedback on the relation between emotional state and the activity of the sympathetic system via sweat gland activity, and is utilized for stress and hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating).

Electroencephalogram (EEG) or neurofeedback

Biofeedback that provides information on brainwave activity and patterns. It is often used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, depression, and epilepsy to improve attention, reduce impulsivity and promote recovery from head injuries and strokes.

C. Parental divorce can have a substantial negative impact on the school performance of children. There is also evidence that the negative effects of divorce on school performance are worse for boy's than for girls and for older than younger children

Boys who come from divorced families: A. Have low self-esteem B. Blame themselves C. Have poorer academic performance D. Are more apt to develop identity problems

C. An individual making impulsive statements or other types of problems with response inhibition is more from the result of damage to the frontal lobes. Specifically, disinhibition, impulsiveness, happy indifference, and jocularity frequently result from damage to the right frontal lobe. In comparison, damage to the left frontal lobe most often results in reduced speech, depression, and apathy. The striate cortex (b.) is associated with the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing. Problems with auditory perception, changes in sexuality, and severe anterograde amnesia are examples of behaviors that have been linked to temporal lobe (d.) damage

Brain damage to the _____________ frequently results in loss of social inhibitions and ignoring rules of polite conduct. A. hypothalamus B. striate cortex C. prefrontal cortex D. temporal lobe

B. Research has consistently implicated pathology in the basal ganglia and frontal lobes in all three disorders.

Brain imaging techniques have identified abnormalities in which areas among people with Tourette Syndrome, Autistic Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? A. frontal lobes and thalamus B. frontal lobes and basal ganglia C. parietal lobes and amygdala D. parietal lobes and thalamus

B. Bronfenbrenner's ecological model identifies interacting environmental systems, ranging from the most proximal to the most global, that impact development. The microsystem includes relations between an individual and the immediate environment, i.e., parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers. The mesosystem (c.) includes the connections between immediate settings, or aspects of the microsystem, such as school and home. The exosystem (a.) involves social settings that do not directly contain the developing individual (i.e., parental workplace) but affect him/her. The macrosystem (d.) includes the religious values, laws, cultural customs, and economic resources that affect activities and interactions of the inner layers of the individual life. The chronosystem refers to the dynamic, changing nature of the individual's environment that occurs as a result of the passage of time. These may include changes related to the family (e.g., moving to a new area, birth of siblings) or the larger environmental context (e.g., an economic recession, growth or war)

Bronfenbrenner's model refers to the temporal dimension, or the role of the passage of time, as the: A. exosystem B. chronosystem C. mesosystem D. macrosystem

C. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa requires recurrent episodes of binge eating, recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, and self-evaluation that is excessively influenced by body weight and shape. An eating binge, by definition, involves a sense of a lack of control over eating, so a lack of control is characteristic of both disorders. The DSM-5 includes marked distress about binge eating as a diagnostic criterion only for Binge-Eating Disorder, and Bipolar Disorder is a common comorbid disorder for both disorders.

Bulimia Nervosa is more likely than Binge-Eating Disorder to be the appropriate diagnosis for a client when, in addition to recurrent episodes of binge eating, the client reports: A. a sense of a lack of control over eating. B. marked distress about binge eating. C. inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. D. comorbid symptoms of Bipolar Disorder

D. Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory of gender concept development, grounded in Piagetian theory, asserts that children gradually progress through three stages. Gender identity, usually gained by age three, is the ability to correctly label own gender and identify others as boys/men and girls/women. Gender stability - knowledge, usually gained by age four years, that reflects an understanding that one's gender remains the same throughout life. Gender constancy: realization, around age 5, 6 or 7 years, that one's gender stays the same even with alterations in appearance, behaviors, or desires

By the age of 6, which of the following are established? A. gender identity and stability B. gender identity and constancy C. gender constancy and stability D. gender constancy, identity and stability

B. Children's ethnic perspective-taking ability (EPTA) has been evaluated and described in several stages. In the first stage, which develops between 3 and 4 years, children first begin to describe ethnicity in terms of physical traits (e.g., skin color, clothes, physical features). In the next stage, which occurs between 5 and 9 years, they become able to accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others and they rely on other objective cues such as language and food preference, as well as physical appearance in ethnic labeling. In the next stage, from 7-12 years, children express a social perspective of ethnicity, including prejudice. And between 10 and 15 years, they begin to immerse themselves into their ethnic group

Children generally begin to recognize racial differences based on physical traits between: A. 1 and 2 years B. 3 and 4 years C. 5 and 9 years D. 7 and 12 years

C. Stepparent-stepchild relationships have been investigated by Hetherington and others, who have found that stepfathers are generally uninvolved in the raising and discipline of their stepchildren (although the relationship between stepfathers and stepsons may improve somewhat over time)

Children of divorced parents not only have to adjust to their parents' separation but often have to eventually adapt to the remarriage of one or both of their parents. Investigators looking as the impact of stepparents have found that: A. stepmothers discipline their stepchildren more than the children's biological mothers. B. stepmothers have more difficulty with stepsons than with stepdaughters. C. stepfathers provide less support, less control, and less punishment than biological fathers. D. stepfathers get along better with stepdaughters than with stepsons.

D. Authoritative parents are very demanding but also warm and responsive to their children. Children raised by authoritative parents tend be more mature and have better coping skills, or resilience to life stressors, than children raised with other parenting styles.

Children raised by parents who are very demanding but warm are likely to be highly: A. neurotic B. oppositional C. insecure D. resilient

A. According to the research of Baumrind, permissive or Laissez fairre parents express warmth but use little discipline. Their children have difficulty controlling their impulses and, although they are intelligent, they are not motivated to achieve. Authoritative (b.) parents, who are described as being high in control (demandingness) and high in warmth (responsiveness) tend to raise children who are most resilient to the stresses of life. These children have better coping skills, are more mature, responsible, and perform better on cognitive measures. Authoritarian (c.) parents are high in control, but low in warmth. Their children are often insecure, dependent, and perform more poorly on cognitive tests. Finally, uninvolved/rejecting/neglecting (d.) parents are low in both control and warmth and their children have the worst coping skills. The children tend to be antisocial, lack self-regulation, are more immature, and score lower on cognitive tests.

Children who have difficulty controlling their impulses and, although intelligent, are not motivated to achieve are most likely to have which type of parents? A. permissive B. authoritative C. authoritarian D. rejecting

D. Bilateral otitis media means inflammation of the left and right middle ear. Middle ear infections in early childhood, especially severe infections, have been associated with the development of Learning Disorders later in childhood. As you might expect, hearing loss in children most often affects verbal comprehension. In a study of children 8- to 10-years-old who had a history of otitis media between birth and 3 ½ years of age, but have since been free of the disease, reading level was found to be more than a year below grade level and scores on the Verbal Comprehension factor for the WISC-R (now the WISC-III) were significantly lower than controls

Children with a history of bilateral otitis media score lowest on which of the following WISC subtests? A. freedom from distractibility B. perceptual organization C. processing speed D. verbal comprehension

D. Recent research has found that babies memories are not lost, rather they are updated continually as learning progresses. Their ability to recall is influenced by the same factors and conditions that impact recall in older children and adults. These include: the nature of the events; the number of times they experience them; and the availability of cues or reminders. Children from ages one to three are all capable of both immediate and long-term recall of specific events in their lives. Infants tested at two, four, and six months can recall details about hidden objects, their location, and size. The failure in retrieving memories from the first years of life (a.) refers to the phenomenon of infantile amnesia. Infantile amnesia has been theorized to be the result of a lack of schematic organization of experience, a different in way of encoding in early childhood, and, more recently, the importance of language development. Studies on memory and language development suggest that memories are made initially as the result of the child talking about them with someone else. As the ability to reason develops, the memory securing conversations are carried out within the child him/herself

Children's memory for early events: A. cannot be recalled by most after age 3 B. is limited and constant C. changes after age 2 D. changes as it develops over time

B. Eta is the appropriate correlation coefficient to use when both variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale and the relationship between the predictor (the X variable) and the criterion (the Y variable) is curvilinear. Rho (sometimes referred to as the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient) is appropriate when both variables are measured as ranks. The phi (c.) coefficient is used when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies. When both variables are measured on an ordinal scale, Kendall's tau (d.) is appropriate.

Choosing a correlation coefficient is based on factors such as the variables scale of measurement and the shape of the relationship between them. When measuring the relationship between two continuous variables when the relationship between them is nonlinear, which of the following is used? A. rho B. eta C. phi D. tau

A. Chronic pain research estimates 50-90% of patients can be expected to achieve at least 50% pain relief with antidepressants, with others achieving less pain relief. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline (Elavil), have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic (pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain) or one of the headache syndromes. SSRI antidepressants have also been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective. It is theorized these medications may reduce migraines by affecting the level of serotonin and other brain chemicals. Individuals do not have to have depression to take and benefit from these drugs. A therapeutic trial of antidepressants may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. This can be particularly effective in cancer patients who have pain at multiple pain sites, some nociceptive and some neuropathic.

Chronic pain treatment with tricyclic antidepressants is most effective for: A. neuropathic pain and headaches B. neuropathic and musculoskeletal pain C. headaches and musculoskeletal pain D. neuropathic pain, headaches and musculoskeletal pain

B. In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students in that school as participants in the study. That's cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster (group) and then selecting selectively smaller clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district, then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the state.

Cluster sampling involves: A. randomly selecting individual subjects from a larger target population. B. randomly selecting a naturally-occurring group of subjects from a larger target population. C. randomly selecting several naturally occurring groups from a larger population, and then randomly selecting individuals from each group. D. randomly selecting individuals from a larger target population and dividing subjects into groups on the basis of their status on a demographic variable.

B. Code-switching refers to bilinguals' fluctuation between languages during a conversation. It may be used for several reasons such as to enhance communication or establish rapport with a listener.

Code-switching is associated with: A. long-term memory encoding. B. bilingualism. C. giftedness. D. learning disabilities.

B. Don't expect to get this right the first time. What is important is that you now know that tacrine hydrochloride (Cognex) and donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept) have beneficial effects on memory and reasoning for some patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's Dementia. It is hypothesized that these drugs prevent the breakdown of ACh and thus increase the availability in the brain. While these drugs seem to help temporarily, they are not considered a cure. Serotonin has not been shown to be involved in Alzheimer's. While glutamate may be involved, the drugs mentioned do not target this neurotransmitter.

Cognex and Aricept are used in the treatment of Alzheimer's Dementia and are believed to: A. increase serotonin levels. B. increase ACh levels. C. decrease glutamate levels. D. decrease serotonin levels.

A. Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV), a type of herpes virus, is the second-most common cause of mental retardation after Down Syndrome and infection can be life-threatening during prenatal development or birth. At birth, approximately 10% of infants infected with CMV show symptoms and another 10-15% develop symptoms in the first few years of life. Common symptoms include some degree of mental retardation and hearing and visual impairments. Adults infected with CMV tend to be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms

Common symptoms of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) include mental retardation and: A. visual and hearing impairments. B. intestinal and urinary abnormalities. C. facial deformities. D. heart and lung abnormalities.

B. Family therapists from the Mental Research Institute in Palo Alto such as Gregory Bateson, Virginia Satir, and Jay Haley described communication as having a "report function" that contains the content or informational aspect of the communication, and the "command function", that is often conveyed nonverbally and exemplifies the relationship between the communicators. The other choices are other concepts from the Mental Research Institute. "Principles of equifinality" refers to the idea that no matter where the system change occurs, the end result is the same. "Circular model of causality" is a concept in their approach that describes a symptom as both a cause and an effect of dysfunctional communication patterns. "Paradoxical strategies" include prescribing the symptom and relabeling, or changing the label a family attaches to a problem in order to change the meaning.

Communication-interaction therapy espouses that communication has both a "report" function and a: A. Principle of equifinality B. Command function C. Circular model of causality D. Paradoxical strategy

D. Curriculum-based assessment provides information about a student in the context of the existing curriculum. The results of such an assessment not only indicate the student's performance level -- they also provide feedback about the instruction itself, so that necessary changes can be made to better fit the student's ability and current knowledge. In contrast to choice A, curriculum-based assessment is criterion-referenced, since it involves evaluating the student's performance in light of an external standard (the curriculum). Norm-referenced assessment would involve evaluating a student's performance by way of a comparison to other students. In contrast to choice B, the assessment is not designed to bring about changes in the curriculum itself -- rather, its purpose is to help identify progress in terms of the existing curriculum and any change in instruction (e.g., pace, sequencing of topics) that would aid the student's progress in completing the curriculum

Curriculum-based assessment is: A. a form of norm-referenced assessment designed to compare the performance of students to other students who are receiving the same type of instruction. B. used to evaluate a curriculum in order to identify how it should be improved or changed. C. used to compare the curriculum at an educational institution to that of other institutions with similar students and goals. D. used to evaluate student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional style.

D. The striate cortex, located in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex, is the primary receptive area for visual impulses and handling of visual processing. It is also sometimes called the visual projection area.

Damage to the striate cortex in the occipital lobe, is most likely to result in: A. loss of fine motor control B. loss of touch and other body sensations C. deafness D. blindness

A. A number of studies have confirmed that dyslexia (a reading disorder) is due to deficits in phonological processing, which is an auditory processing skill that involves the ability to detect and discriminate differences in speech sounds.

Deficits in phonological processing have been linked to: A. dyslexia. B. dysarthria. C. dysgraphia. D. dyspraxia.

C. Research has indicated that infants develop depth perception in a predictable sequence: kinetic, binocular, and pictorial. Kinetic depth cues are based on movements of objects in the environment or the body. Babies as young as 3 weeks begin perceiving kinetic cues. For example, they will blink their eyes defensively when an object approaches their face and looks as if its going to hit them. Binocular depth perception begins between 2 and 3 months. And pictorial depth cues, which are used by artists to make paintings look three-dimensional, begins to develop at about 7 months of age.

Depth perception in infants develops in which of the following sequences? A. kinetic, pictorial, binocular B. pictorial, binocular, kinetic C. kinetic, binocular, pictorial D. binocular, kinetic, pictorial

D. Research has shown that two general differences exist between the genders in interaction style among children: boys are more active and aggressive in their play than girls, and girls are more vocal and nurturant in their play than boys. These differences begin to emerge at about the age of three years old. Boys' social behavior is more likely to include physical and verbal aggression, insults, and teasing, whereas the behavior of girls is more likely to involve grooming, offering compliments to peers, and other signs of nurturance. Additionally, girls are more likely to spend time indoors and interact in smaller groups than boys. These differences are most apparent in same gender interactions, primarily because, until they are teenagers, boys and girls tend to play in same gender pairs and groups.

Differences between boys and girls in social interaction style: A. are not significant. B. do not emerge until about the age of 10. C. are most apparent in cross-gender interactions. D. are most apparent in same gender interactions.

B. B. Worldview refers to the manner in which people perceive, evaluate and react to encountered situations. Sue and Sue describe mainstream American culture "as the epitome of the individual-centered approach that emphasizes uniqueness, independence and self-reliance" (p.277). This is characterized by an internal locus of control and locus of responsibility in Sue, D.W. & Sue, D. (2003).

Differing locus of control and locus of responsibility combinations yield the four worldviews described by Sue and Sue (2003). Mainstream American culture would best be characterized by an: A. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility B. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility C. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

B. Most of the studies on the long-term effects of early attachment have focused on secure attachment. However, there is some evidence that insecure and disorganized-disoriented attachment patterns are associated with negative outcomes. For example, the disorganized-disoriented pattern (which is associated with child abuse) predicts hostile behavior toward other children at age five

Disorganized-disoriented attachment in infancy is somewhat predictive of __________ in preschool. A. behavioral inhibition B. hostility toward other children C. over-dependence on adults D. separation anxiety

B. A primary goal of the client-centered approach to therapy is achieving congruence between self and experience. Eliminating incongruence allows clients to reclaim their "self-actualizing" urges, or tendency to act, develop, and experience life in a manner that is consistent with their self-concept. Key to Rogers's theory is his concept of self, which includes the individual's perceptions of who he or she is, can do, etc. and of his or her relationships with other people, things, and so forth. Individuals are also thought to possess an image of the ideal self, or of the person they want to be. Response A. is associated with Gestalt therapy; C. is associated with Rational Emotive therapy; and D. is associated with psychoanalysis

Doug comes to see you because he is having problems with his supervisors at work, feeling undervalued and finding it difficult to maintain the new friendships he has made since moving to the area a year ago. You decide a "client-centered" approach with Doug would be most effective. The primary goal of such therapy is: A. development of "awareness" B. congruence between self and experience C. giving up irrational beliefs and ideas D. understanding of underlying intrapsychic conflicts

A. Demand characteristics are cues in a research study that allow participants to guess the hypothesis. As a result, participants may behave differently than they would under normal conditions. The Hawthorne effect (B) is a similar phenomenon, but refers to the tendency of research participants to behave differently due to the mere fact they are participating in research - rather than due to cues about how they are expected to behave. Quasi-experimental designs (C) are simply designs which do not randomly assign participants to groups. Finally, Choice D is a possible, but less probable, cause of this phenomenon.

During a research study the participants are able to guess the research hypothesis, causing them to behave differently than they would under normal conditions. This phenomenon is due to: A. demand characteristics B. the Hawthorne effect C. the use of a quasi-experimental design D. the use of psychic research participants

D. Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps: joining, evaluating/diagnosing, and restructuring. Joining is the initial step in structural family therapy. Tracking (identifying and using the family's values, life themes, etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family's behavioral and affective style) are methods used to join the family system. Constructing a family map (a.) is a technique used for the structural diagnosis of the family. Relabeling and reframing (b.) are restructuring techniques. Enactment (c.) is used to facilitate diagnosis and restructuring of the family

During the first of structural family therapy's three steps, which of the following techniques is most useful? A. constructing a family map B. relabeling and reframing C. enactment D. tracking and mimesis

C. Early symptoms of Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV Infection include forgetfulness, impaired concentration, mental slowing, apathy, irritability, and loss of balance and coordination. Psychomotor retardation, ataxia, and tremor are also characteristic of this disorder but have a later onset

Early symptoms of Neurocognitive Disorder due to HIV Infection most often include which of the following? A. dystonia, dysphagia, and emotional lability B. psychomotor retardation, ataxia, and tremor C. forgetfulness, impaired concentration, and loss of balance D. irritability, vertigo, and tinnitus

C. Berne called a person's life plan a script, and espoused that it reflected the person's characteristic pattern of giving and receiving strokes. The life position (A) is one of the I'm OK, You're OK Sequence. Transaction (B) was the term for communication between ego states and (D) the ego states are parent, child, adult.

Eric Berne feels which of the following reflect a person's characteristic pattern of giving and receiving strokes? A. Life position B. Transaction C. Script D. Ego state

C. Eysenck, in his 1952 study, found that 64% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% of psychoanalytic patients improved versus a 72% improvement rate for untreated patients. His methodology and findings have been criticized for decades following his report and most studies since then have found psychotherapy to be superior to no treatment. Choice "A" is one of the conclusions of Smith and Glass' (1978) meta-analysis. Choice "B" was not one of Eysenck's conclusions, and it is also contrary to a finding of Consumer Report's 1995 study which failed to find a relationship between therapist level of training and outcome. Choice "D" is partly correct, in that many other outcome studies did follow Eysenck's study; however, most of these have contradicted his findings. Indeed, even Eysenck modified his conclusion in 1985 by indicating that at least one therapy, behavior therapy, is superior to placebo or no treatment.

Eysenck's 1952 study on psychotherapy outcome: A. concluded that individuals who receive psychotherapy are better off than 80% of controls B. concluded that psychologists and psychiatrists are more effective than master's level clinicians C. challenged the effectiveness of most psychotherapy treatments D. led to many other outcome studies, most of which have supported his findings

B. Focal, or partial, seizures are the result of abnormal electrical activity in one region of the brain. In the parietal lobe, this abnormal electrical activity causes unusual bodily sensations symptoms such as tingling or warmth on the side of the body opposite the affected lobe. Partial seizures in the occipital lobe are likely to causes the symptom of strange colors or flashing lights (a.). A sudden alteration in emotions, a sense of déjà vu and/or a change in perception are symptoms of temporal lobe focal seizures. Motor symptoms and an inability to speak ("speech arrest") are associated with frontal lobe focal seizures

Focal seizures in the parietal lobe are associated with: A. strange colors or flashing lights. B. unusual bodily sensations. C. a sense of déjà vu. D. an inability to speak.

A. Wernicke's area, in the temporal lobe of the brain, is involved with language comprehension. Lesions in the temporal lobe may produce Wernicke's aphasia, which is associated with impaired comprehension of language, fluent aphasia (clear speech that makes little or no sense), and dysnomia (inability to name objects). Broca's aphasia, which may occur following lesions in the frontal lobe, is associated with nonfluent aphasia -- the person would not be able to speak clearly. In conduction aphasia, which is a lesion of the pathway between Wernicke's and Broca's area, the person can speak clearly and understand language but cannot repeat what he or she has heard

Following a stroke, a person cannot understand language. Although the person can speak clearly, his speech makes no sense. The person is most likely suffering from: A. Wernicke's aphasia. B. Broca's aphasia. C. conduction aphasia. D. global aphasia.

B. Based on the limited information provided, the most likely diagnosis is Adjustment Disorder, which involves the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to one or more stressors, with symptoms developing within three months of the onset of the stressor.

Following the break up of a relationship with her fiancé six weeks ago, a woman is very distressed and obsessed with thoughts about the former relationship. Her most likely diagnosis is: A. Acute Stress Disorder B. Adjustment Disorder C. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder D. Uncomplicated Bereavement

D. Somatic Symptom Disorder is characterized by the presence of one or more physical symptoms that are distressing or result in significant disruption in daily life and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms. When symptoms involve only pain, the specifier "with predominant pain" is applied. Illness Anxiety Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness with the presence of no or mild somatic symptoms. Body Dysmorphic Disorder involves preoccupation with one or more perceived defects or flaws in physical appearance that are not observable or appear minor to others. Pain Disorder is a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis, and this question is asking for the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis

Following the loss of her job eight months ago, Sharon started having headaches and pain in the back of her neck. She's convinced that these symptoms mean she has a brain tumor, and her constant worry about her health has made it difficult for her to concentrate at work and take care of her two dogs. Sharon had a complete physical exam, including a brain scan, after the symptoms started, but the doctor was unable to find a physical explanation for her symptoms. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Sharon is: A. Pain Disorder. B. Illness Anxiety Disorder. C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder. D. Somatic Symptom Disorder with predominant pain.

D. This DSM-5 diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa requires the presence of (a) binge eating that involves consuming an excessively large amount of food and a sense of lack of control over eating and (b) inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to lose weight (e.g., purging, excessive exercise) for three months or more

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, a person must have a history of binge eating and: A. vomiting, use of diuretics, or excessive exercising for at least four months. B. a sense of a lack of control over eating for at least three months. C. purging for at least six months. D. inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months.

B. The effects of visitation on children's adjustment following divorce are dependent upon several factors, including the quality of the relationship between the divorced parents and certain attributes and behaviors of the noncustodial parent. Specifically, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father has been found to result in fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement, especially in boys, when the father was supportive, authoritative, and lacked any significant problems in adjustment, and when the child was not exposed to high levels of conflict between the parents

For children of divorce, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father usually results in: A. fewer behavioral problems among boys but not girls and higher academic achievement among girls but not boys B. fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement if the noncustodial father is supportive and authoritative C. fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the characteristics of the noncustodial father D. fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement regardless of the parent's level of conflict

D. Many of the WAIS-IV subtests have reverse rules that require the examiner to administer easier items in reverse order when an examinee has difficulty with the first two items administered. When using the reverse rule, administration of easier items continues until the examinee obtains a perfect score on two consecutive items

For some WAIS-IV subtests, when an examinee does not obtain a perfect score on the first two items administered, the "reverse rule" is used. This involves administering earlier (easier) items in reverse order until the examinee obtains a perfect score on _____ consecutive items. A. five B. four C. three D. two

A. Dr. Richard Ferber, along with other experts, recommend a progressive waiting period to help children fall asleep and stay asleep. The method, sometimes referred to as "Ferberizing" involves putting the baby to bed while he or she is still awake. If the child cries, parents are instructed to wait a predetermined interval -usually five minutes. At that time they are instructed to go in to check and comfort the child verbally, but without rocking, feeding, or picking up the child. After doing this, they are to leave the room. If the child cries again, they are to wait 10 minutes before providing the same response. After each successive time the interval is increased until the child falls asleep. Contrary to Choice "D," Ferber recommends sticking to a regular schedule; however, he does acknowledge that under certain circumstances, for instance, if the child is sick or you are traveling, you may need to be flexible regarding the schedule

For the prevention and treatment of childhood sleep disorders, Ferber recommends that by six months parents should: A. provide only verbal comfort or a pat on the back if the child cries B. rock the child until he/she falls asleep C. feed the child before putting him/her to bed or provide the child with a bottle at bedtime D. be flexible regarding the child's natural sleep cycle

A. Bulimia Nervosa has been associated with lower-than-normal levels of serotonin and treatment with medications that increase serotonin levels, like SSRIs, has been found to be useful.

For the treatment of Bulimia Nervosa, a medication that ____________ would be most effective. A. increases serotonin levels B. increases sensitivity to cortisol C. reduces glutamate levels D. reduces sensitivity to acetylcholine

D. Both Freud and Erik Erikson proposed a stage theory of development. The stages in Freud's psychosexual theory are based on the focus of libidinal energy at a given age range. The five stages are oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital. The latency stage occurs after the Oedipus conflict has been resolved and libidinal energy is temporarily latent. It lasts from about the ages of 7 through 11. Both Freud and Erikson's theories hold that failure to resolve conflicts at a particular stage could lead to fixation at (Freud's term) or a developmental regression to (Erikson's term) that stage later on. They differ in that 1) Erikson's theory posits stage development throughout the life span, whereas Freud's stages end at the age of 12; and 2) Erikson focuses on psychosocial development, not psychosexual development. Erikson's eight stages, each reflecting a psychosocial conflict that takes precedence at that stage, in order are trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame, initiative vs. guilt, industry vs. inferiority, ego identity vs. role confusion, intimacy vs. isolation, generativity vs. stagnation, and integrity vs. despair. The industry vs. inferiority stage occurs approximately between the ages of 6-12, and the focus is on learning new skills and knowledge and developing a sense of industry; failure to resolve the conflict could result in feelings of inadequacy and low self-esteem later in life. Because it spans the same age range as Freud's latency stage, it is the best answer to this question

Freud's latency stage corresponds most to which of the following stages in Erikson's theory of psychosocial development. A. autonomy vs. shame B. identity vs. role confusion C. initiative vs. guilt D. industry vs. inferiority

B. Studies on interventions to increase compliance with hand hygiene practices have found that no single intervention has consistently improved handwashing frequency in healthcare workers. Individual intervention findings indicate: one-time educational interventions and performance feedback on compliance rates are associated with a short-term influence; distribution of written materials and strategically placed reminders had a modest but more sustained effect; automated sinks increased the quality of handwashing however decreased the frequency; and the availability of moisturizing soaps had little or no effect on frequency. Research suggests the most effective approach is a multifaceted one that includes education in combination with written material, reminders and continued feedback of performance. The availability of an alcohol-based hand gel, when added to the multifaceted approach also appears to result in a modest improvement in compliance.

Hand washing frequency by health care workers is low despite the importance of compliance for reducing rates of hospital-acquired infection. Research indicates the most effective interventions for increasing hand washing include: A. continued performance feedback and written materials B. education, continued performance feedback and reminders C. automated sinks, education and availability of moisturizing soap D. automated sinks, written materials and reminders

C. Harlow studied monkeys separated from their mothers at birth and found that they preferred a terry cloth surrogate mother to a wire mother — even when the wire mother provided food. He concluded that contact comfort, or the pleasant tactile sensation of a soft parent is more important to the development of attachment than feeding

Harlow found which of the following factors to be most significant in his study of attachment in infant monkeys? A. maternal scent B. oral gratification C. tactile comfort D. auditory cues

C. The K Scale is sometimes referred to as the "defensiveness" indicator as high scores are considered to reflect a defensive approach to the test, while low scores are considered to be reflective of an unusually frank and self-critical approach. The K scale was developed to identify test-takers' attempts to deny psychopathology and present oneself favorably or, in contrast, to exaggerate psychopathology and to appear unfavorably. Research on the K Scale indicates that the K Scale is not only related to defensiveness, but is also related to educational level and socioeconomic status, with better-educated (b.) and higher socioeconomic-level (d.) individuals scoring higher on the scale. College-educated individuals, who are not being defensive, commonly obtain T-scores in a range of 55 to 60 on the K Scale and it is not unusual for those with even more formal education to obtain T-scores in a range of 60 to 70. Note that moderate elevations on the K Scale may also be indicative of ego strength and psychological resources.

High scores on the K Scale of the MMPI are associated with all of the following except? A. defensiveness B. formal education C. a self-critical approach D. higher socioeconomic-level

A. This is an example of inductive reasoning, or reasoning from a particular fact to a general rule. B, symbolic thought, is the understanding that one thing can stand for another, C, deductive reasoning, is reasoning from a general law to a particular case, and D is object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible

If a child can understand that A is greater than B and B is greater than C, and then understand that as a result, A is greater than C, this is an example of: A. Inductive reasoning B. Symbolic thought C. Deductive reasoning D. Pre-operational thought.

B. Knowing that PKU is caused by two autosomal (i.e., not sex-linked) recessive genes would have helped you answer this question correctly. Because it is caused by recessive genes, a child would need to receive the PKU gene from both parents in order to develop the disease. Since both parents are heterozygous they each carry one dominant gene and one recessive gene for PKU, but do not have the disease themselves. Thus, the probability that the father will contribute the PKU gene is 50% and the probability that the mother will contribute the gene is also 50%. Fifty percent times 50% is 25% (0.5 x 0.5 = 0.25). People born with PKU lack the enzyme needed to digest the amino acid phenylalanine, which undigested causes severe brain damage. Most to all of the PKU symptoms can be prevented by early detection and adherence to a diet low in phenylalanine during the first 9 years of life.

If a man and a woman are each heterozygous for phenylketonuria (PKU), the probability that their next child will have PKU is: A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100%

C. The confluence model states simply that each succeeding child has less of the family's resources available to him or her. The first child doesn't have to share with anyone. The next child shares with one older sibling. The next child must share with two older siblings. The theory has been tested and found to predict accurately: Only-borns and children from small families tend to, on the average, do better on measures of intellect and achievement than later borns. Note that the choice about only-borns having the highest intelligence is a better answer than the choice about children from a small family. This is because, from the perspective of the confluence model, only-borns have even more of the family's resources available to them than children from a small family.

If one were to apply the confluence model to predict the intellectual and achievement scores of children, the most accurate prediction would be that: A. middle children would show the highest score when compared to both earlier and later born children. B. children from small families would score the highest. C. only-borns would be the highest scoring group. D. later borns would be the highest scoring group.

C. The point of this question is that one cannot make any theoretical conclusions about variables on the basis of a high correlation alone. A correlation means that two variables co-vary, or that values change in a predictable direction--e.g., as the value of one goes up, the other tends also to increase (positive correlation), or as the value of one increases, the other tends to decrease (negative correlation). Another way of saying this is that the two variables are associated. When two variables are correlated, it could be that either one is a cause of the other, or that there are one or more other variables causing the two in question to co-vary. For example, in the case of parent-child intelligence, there could be third variables, such as SES or test bias, that account for any observed association. There is evidence that intelligence has a strong genetic component, but the question is about what one can conclude on the basis of a correlation alone, not about conclusions that have been drawn on the basis of all the available evidence

If scores obtained by parents on an adult test of intelligence are highly correlated with scores obtained by their children on a childhood intelligence test, one can conclude that: A. high parental intelligence is the cause of high childhood intelligence. B. intelligence has a high heritability factor. C. scores on the two tests are associated. D. both nature and nurture account for scores on childhood intelligence tests.

C. The disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern was added to Ainsworth's original three patterns by Mary Main, who found it to be a common pattern among children who had been mistreated by their caregivers

In Ainsworth's "strange situation," a child exhibits the disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. This pattern is most associated with: A. a difficult temperament. B. mental retardation. C. early maltreatment. D. early enrollment in daycare.

D. Other achievements of the concrete operational stage are transitivity, or the ability to mentally sort objects; and hierarchical classification--the ability to sort object into classes and subclasses based on similarities and differences among groups. Deferred imitation and object permanence are achievements of the sensorimotor stage. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not there. Finally, propositional thought (C) is developed in the Formal Operational Stage. It is the ability to evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without having to use real-world circumstances.

In Piaget's concrete operational stage the child is able to conserve due to the development of reversibility and decentration. Other achievements of this stage are: A. Deferred imitation B. Object permanence C. Propositional thought D. Transitivity

D. A frequency distribution is a list of the values that a variable takes in a sample, showing the number of times each value appears. In a negatively skewed distribution, most of the values fall on the high end. For example, the distribution of scores on an easy test might be negatively skewed, with most people scoring high and only a few low scores. The distribution is called negatively skewed because when graphed on an x-y axis, the tapering side, representing fewer values, is on the left, or lower score, side. In a negatively skewed distribution, the mode is higher than the median, which is higher than the mean. The mode is the most frequently occurring score in the distribution, and on an easy test, the most frequent score will be toward the high end. And of the three measures of central tendency, the mean is most sensitive to outlying scores and will be pulled down by the few low scores. The median, the score that cuts the distribution in half, with 50% scoring above the median and 50% below, will fall in between the mean and the mode.

In a negatively skewed distribution, the order of measures of central tendency from lowest to highest will be: A. mode, mean, median. B. mode, median, mean. C. mean, mode, median. D. mean, median, mode.

D. You have to picture the positively skewed curve in order to get this correct. Positive skewness means there are some outliers (extreme scores) way over on the positive side. That's where the tail is, way off to the right, or positive, end. Since the mean takes into account the magnitude of the scores, these outliers can be pictured as "pulling" the mean to the positive side, or the right. So, in any ordering of measures of central tendency, the mean would be the highest value. Thus, you can eliminate the two distractors that don't list the mean as the highest value. To distinguish between the remaining answers, let's go back to consider what the median is. The median is the middlemost point irrespective of value. If you've pictured the curve correctly you can see that more than half the cases fall on the right side because some are way over on the positive side. If you put a line where the highest point is on the curve, which is the mode, you'd see that more than half the cases fall to the right of that line. Hence the median, the 50% point, is to the right of the high point, the mode. This should have gotten you to the correct answer

In a positively skewed distribution, one would most likely find, ranked from lowest to highest in value, the: A. median, mean, mode. B. median, mode, mean. C. mean, mode, median. D. mode, median, mean.

A. Based on a medical model, interpersonal therapy (ITP) views mental disorders as illnesses and focuses on symptom reduction in addition to improving interpersonal relationships

In addition to improved interpersonal relationships, a primary goal of interpersonal therapy (ITP) is: A. alleviating or reducing symptoms. B. satisfying needs in responsible ways. C. resolving underlying conflicts. D. living in an authentic, meaningful way.

B. Research has shown that when a mother who is the custodial parent of children remarries, the children's contact with the noncustodial parent typically decreases gradually for two years following the divorce. This tendency is less pronounced with noncustodial mothers, who are almost twice as likely to maintain frequent contact with their children than noncustodial fathers. Contrary to choice 3, the quality of the father-child relationship prior to the divorce is not predictive of the frequency of contact between noncustodial father and children afterward. Of course, these findings don't hold true in all cases, and variables that are correlated with frequency of noncustodial parental contact include geographical proximity, whether or not the noncustodial parent remarries, and obstacles to visitation implemented by the custodial parent.

In divorced families, when a mother who is the custodial parent remarries, the amount of time the noncustodial father spends with his children: A. tends to increase over time. B. tends to decrease over time. C. is correlated with the quality of the father-child relationship prior to the divorce. D. tends to increase over time when the children are teenagers.

C. The term "dynamic assessment" refers to a variety of procedures involving departure from standardized test administration in order to obtain additional information about an examinee. It is done after the test has been administered using standardized procedures. It is usually used in the assessment of individuals with learning disabilities or mental retardation. Testing the limits involves providing cues to see how many are needed to generate successful performance: The more cues required, the more severe the learning disability.

In dynamic assessment, "testing the limits": A. is done initially to determine the appropriate entry level for testing B. is done only when appropriate norms are available C. is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized procedures D. is no longer recommended because it has been found to be biased against members of certain groups.

A. Gestalt therapy is an experiential mode of psychotherapy that emphasizes personal responsibility and focuses on the person's experience and awareness in the present moment (i.e., the here and now), as well as the environmental and social contexts in which experiences take place. In Gestalt therapy, an open, authentic patient-therapist relationship, in which the patient is expected to take responsibility for his or her own progress, is an important part of the process. In this relationship, Gestalt therapists focus on strengthening the contact boundary, or the degree to which the therapist and the client can engage in authentic dialog and contact while still maintaining the distinction between self and other. Transferences are seen as distortions in this boundary and in the awareness of what is actually occurring in the therapy situation. Transferences are not ignored in Gestalt therapy--they are explored and worked through as they arise, but unlike as in psychoanalysis, they are not encouraged.

In gestalt therapy, transference would most likely be: A. viewed as a distortion that interferes with here-and-now awareness. B. viewed as a good way to learn about a client's past relationships. C. seen a sign that the client is not a good candidate for psychotherapy. D. ignored.

A. Brain plasticity refers to the ability of the nervous system to adapt to different circumstances and to find new ways of learning. Plasticity is particularly useful for acquiring a new skill or recovering from a brain injury. Children, as you might expect, have greater plasticity than adults, although adults maintain some degree of plasticity throughout their lives. The greater plasticity in children is attributed to their brains not being fully developed. The human brain continues its development throughout childhood and into early adulthood, with significant increases in neural connections and myelination. However, adults, having more life experience, have more explicit and implicit memories. Adults also tend to have better metamemory, that is, greater knowledge of what one knows and how one's memory works, although this ability may decline among older adults

In regards to learning, children generally have an advantage over adults due to their greater: A. brain plasticity B. explicit memory C. implicit memory D. metamemory

B. The effects of the timing of physical maturation are different for males and females. Boys seem to benefit from early maturation (early maturers are more popular and do better in school), while early-maturing girls experience a number of negative outcome (e.g., shyness, low self-esteem)

In terms of self-concept and social relationships, early physical maturity has been found to have which of the following effects for adolescents? A. positive effects for both males and females B. positive effects for males but not for females C. positive effects for females but not for males D. negative effects for both males and females

D. Sue and Sue (Counseling the Culturally Different, New York, John Wiley, 1990) indicate that minority group members are becoming increasingly aware of their own ethnic identity and adopting a worldview that reflects an internal locus of control and an external locus of responsibility. An external locus of control and responsibility (answer A) is more characteristic of a "placater" who adopts a passive role. Internal locus of control and responsibility (answer B) is characteristic of the Westernized approach to counseling and white middle-class clients. An external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility (answer C) is more characteristic of "marginalized" individuals who have been oppressed by the dominant group

In terms of worldview, Sue and Sue (1990) propose that minority groups are increasingly more likely to exhibit an: A. external locus of control and responsibility. B. internal locus of control and responsibility. C. external locus of control, internal locus of responsibility. D. internal locus of control, external locus of responsibility.

B. According to Irwin Yalom, author of the book "The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy," two major roles of a group therapist are to help keep the group focused on the here-and-now, and help illuminate process. By illuminating process, the therapist must encourage the group to examine, understand, and learn from its own transactions and interactions. Illumination of process requires that the group to perform what he calls a "self-reflective loop", which means it stays focused on the here-and-now but also pauses to examine here-and-now events that just occurred. Therefore, Yalom would handle the situation described in this question by having the group examine what just happened as well as the interpersonal processes that could explain what happened. The second choice best expresses this. Though Yalom does note that hostilities and resistances are common in the early stages of group therapy, he would not likely try to explain this concept in the form of an interpretation based on a theory of group development, as suggested by choice 1, because that could take the focus off of the here-and-now. The fourth choice is also not correct because Yalom believes that a group therapist should actively steer groups back towards here-and-now experiences and the self-reflective loop when the group moves away from these focuses. Finally, choice 3 is not a great answer, because even though Yalom would not rule out using an explicit instruction to group members if necessary, his focus would not be on "exerting power."

In the early stages of group therapy, two participants dominate the discussion, giving the other members little opportunity to speak. Other group members are expressing anger towards those two members as well as the therapist. According to Irwin Yalom, the therapist would be best advised to: A. interpret this situation as a stage in the group's developmental level B. explore the processes influencing this dynamic with the group. C. exert more power by explicitly instructing the two dominating members to yield some of their time. D. remain silent for one or two more sessions to let the situation play out.

C. Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical or stages of change model distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. Many descriptions of the model only include the first five stages because the termination stage of "zero temptation and 100% self-efficacy" is not necessary for success and rare for most behaviors. Maintenance is when a person has maintained action, consolidates the change and is actively working to prevent a relapse. For many, the maintenance stage lasts forever and the model accepts temptation or the potential for relapse, such as an occasional craving for a cigarette or a drink, as normal and an opportunity to learn. At each stage, an individual weighs the pros and cons of adopting a new behavior, Prochaska and DiClemente called this weighing "decisional balance."

In the transtheoretical model, "zero temptation and 100% self-efficacy" is: A. an unrealistic expectation of behavioral change. B. the definition of successful behavioral change. C. the result of complete behavioral change in the termination stage. D. the result of 'decisional balance' in the maintenance stage.

D. Although all of the actions described in the responses could be called "culturally sensitive," only the first three were described by Rogler and his colleagues, which makes answer D the correct response

In their discussion of mental health services for Latino clients, Rogler et al. (1987) describe three ways to increase the cultural sensitivity of therapy for members of this group. These methods include all of the following except: A. incorporating elements of Latino culture into therapy. B. increasing the accessibility of mental health services for Latino clients. C. selecting standard treatments that best fit Latino culture. D. obtaining cultural sensitivity training.

D. Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, defines triangulation as a family boundary problem in which each parent demands that the child side with him or her against the other parent. According to Minuchin, the therapist's goal in this and other situations in which parents attempt to deflect conflict onto children is to restructure the parent-child and spousal subsystems so they function correctly. This involves introducing some stress into the family system to upset the family's balance and block the family from its normal way of interacting. For example, Minuchin describes strategies such as prohibiting children from talking about symptomatic behavior with their parents, rewarding parents for their capacity to nurture and support each other, and restructuring the parents in a coalition against their child

In working with a triangulated family, a structural family therapist would: A. work with the most differentiated family members in order to reduce their emotional reactivity. B. use a paradoxical intervention by taking steps to increase the family's initial level of triangulation. C. train the family in communication skills and techniques. D. upset the family's balance by blocking the family from its normal interactional pattern.

C. Constructivism refers to the notion that learning is not a matter of passive transmission of knowledge from one person to another. Rather, learners actively create and construct their own knowledge by way of interaction with their environment. According to Piaget, children learn through environmental interactions by adapting cognitive structures based on these interactions. This adaptation takes place via two specific processes: assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation involves assimilating new information into existing cognitive schema or structures. For example, if a child sees a zebra for the first time and calls it a horse, she would be assimilating new information into her cognitive representation of a horse as a rather large animal with four legs. Accommodation refers to the process of changing internal cognitive structures to increase their consistency with external reality. For example, when a child modifies a cognitive schema for a horse by learning it does not have stripes, and creates a new, different category for a zebra, she would be employing accommodation.

Jean Piaget's work is often cited as the inspiration for constructivism in teaching and learning. From a Piagetian perspective, the term "constructivism" refers to the notion that: A. knowledge construction is a direct function of biological development and growth. B. others actively construct knowledge for learners by transmitting social beliefs and norms from generation to generation. C. learners actively construct knowledge by interpreting their environment and filtering new information through previous experience. D. learners construct knowledge primarily through contemplation and self-reflection.

D. Among other things, Jung and Freud disagreed about the nature of the unconscious. For Freud, the unconscious is primarily the product of the individual's personal history -- it contains innate drives as well as material (e.g., fantasies, memories, affects) accumulated over the life span. For Jung, the unconscious consists of both a personal and collective component. The collective unconscious contains latent memories of our cultural past, archetypes (innate ideas that ready us for human experience), and even prehuman memories.

Jungian theory differs from Freudian theory in that: A. Jung had a more optimistic outlook on the ability of psychoanalysis to effect a cure. B. Jung endorsed the notion of psychic determinism. C. Jung focused on the "here-and-now"; Freud focused on the past. D. Jung had a different theory about the role of the unconscious than Freud.

B. Conventional moral judgment (stage 3) is best exemplified by the boy's volunteering being motivated by approval of others. In response choice "A" the boy's judgment is motivated by the morality of social contract (stage 5). Stage 5 begins the post-conventional level of moral development. A person in this stage seeks to uphold democratically-determined laws but recognizes that laws can be ignored or changed for a valid reason. In response choice "C" the boy is risking the disapproval of his friends by consideration of his higher principles which is characteristic of Stage 6 in which morality transcends legal standards. In "D" the boy acts out of fear of punishment which is characteristic of stage 1.

Kohlberg's conventional morality in an adolescent is best exemplified by which of the following statements? A. A teenager volunteers at a shelter on weekends because he believes everyone has a responsibility to help the less fortunate or others in need. B. A teenager volunteers at a shelter on weekends because he believes his teachers would approve of his behavior. C. A teenager refuses to join his friends at a party where alcohol is being served because he disapproves of activities that could result in harm to others. D. A teenager refuses to join his friends at a party where alcohol is being served because he fears being punished by his parents for consuming alcohol.

D. Kohlberg's theory of moral development focuses on moral judgment and distinguishes judgment from moral action. Kohlberg proposes the higher the moral reasoning, the more likely moral action is and the greater the consistency is between moral judgment and action because the higher stages increasingly employ more stable and general principles

Kohlberg's view of the relationship between moral judgment and moral action is best described by which of the following? A. moral judgment and moral action do not have a consistent relationship during any specific stage of moral development. B. moral judgment and moral action have a strong relationship during all stages of moral development. C. moral judgment and moral action have the strongest relationship during the lower stages of moral development. D. moral judgment and moral action have the strongest relationship during the higher stages of moral development.

B. Laura's symptoms involve excessive attention-seeking and emotionality, which are the essential features of Histrionic Personality Disorder. While Laura's mood may be somewhat unstable, she does not demonstrate other characteristics of Borderline Personality Disorder such as a pervasive pattern of instability in self-image and marked impulsivity. Individuals with Narcissistic Personality Disorder display a pervasive pattern of grandiosity and a lack of empathy and tend to less involved with others than Laura is. A pattern of difficulties in interpersonal relationships and peculiarities in ideation, appearance, and behavior characterize Schizotypal Personality Disorder.

Laura, a 43-year-old medical billing administrator, seeks continual approval and attention from her supervisor and peers, is overly affectionate toward female coworkers and flirtatious with male co-workers, and, if criticized, becomes extremely hurt and angry no matter how minor the incident. The most likely best diagnosis for Laura is: A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder. B. Histrionic Personality Disorder. C. Borderline Personality Disorder. D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder.

C. The specifier "with atypical features" is applied to the diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder when the person has reversed vegetative symptoms - i.e., hypersomnia, an increase in appetite, and weight gain. Flight of ideas and grandiosity are two symptoms that suggest that the specifier "with anxious features" is appropriate, and an empty mood, early morning awakening, and weight loss are symptoms that suggest the specifier "with melancholic features" is appropriate.

Major Depressive Disorder with atypical features is likely to be the appropriate diagnosis when a person's depressive symptoms include which of the following? A. flight of ideas and grandiosity B. an "empty mood" C. hypersomnia and weight gain D. early morning awakening and weight loss

C. If you incorrectly chose "A," remember that Parkinson's is characterized by insufficient amounts of dopamine; thus, medical treatment seeks to increase dopamine, not block it. Another treatment strategy is to block acetylcholine receptors to help restore the normal balance between dopamine and acetylcholine. In Parkinson's, the loss of dopamine results in a relative excess of acetylcholine. Medications aim to restore the balance by increasing dopamine and/or blocking acetylcholine receptors.

Medications used to treat symptoms of Parkinson's Disease block the effects of: A. dopamine B. serotonin C. acetylcholine D. GABA

A. Bradykinesia/akinesia refer to slowness and absence of movement, respectively, and is one of the primary symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Other primary symptoms of PD are tremor or trembling in hands, arms, legs, jaw, and face; rigidity or stiffness of the limbs and trunk; and postural instability, or impaired balance and coordination. Other symptoms may include depression and other emotional changes; sleep disruptions; skin problems; difficulty in swallowing, chewing, and speaking; and urinary problems or constipation. Motor planning or "praxis" is the ability of the brain to conceive, organize, and carry out a sequence of unfamiliar actions. Praxis enables us to deal with the physical environment in an adaptive manner. In Dyspraxic Syndrome there is a reduced ability to carry out non-learned movements, even though adequate physical and conceptual capacity exists. Dyspraxia (b.) is a lifelong disorder that affects a person's development in the area of motor development. People with dyspraxia have difficulty planning and completing intended fine motor tasks. It is estimated that as many as 6% of all children show some signs of dyspraxia, and in the general population, about 70% of those affected by dyspraxia are male. Dyspraxia can affect different areas of functioning, varying from simple motor tasks such as waving goodbye to more complex tasks like brushing teeth. Hyperkinesia (c.) refers to abnormally increased motor function or activity; hyperactivity. Hypophonia (d.) refers to a weak voice due to incoordination of the vocal muscles

Memory impairment is to Alzheimer's disease as _____________ is to Parkinson's disease: A. bradykinesia/akinesia B. dyspraxia C. hyperkinesia D. hypophonia

B. Biofeedback is the process of identifying physiological variables, or responses, for the purpose of helping an individual develop greater sensory awareness and is achieved by using electronic instrumentation to monitor responses then providing the information to the individual to improve their physiological control of responding. Electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback measures impulses in the muscles and indicates the degree of relaxation or contraction/tension. It is commonly used for conditions such as stress, tension headaches, chronic pain, muscle stiffness, incontinence, urinary urgency and frequency, and when muscles are healing. Electrodermal response (EDR) biofeedback, also referred to as galvinic skin response training (GSR), measures skin surface changes, giving feedback on the relation between emotional state and the activity of the sympathetic system via sweat gland activity, and is utilized for stress and hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating). Electroencephalogram (EEG) or neurofeedback provides information on brainwave activity and patterns. It is often used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, depression, and epilepsy to improve attention, reduce impulsivity and promote recovery from head injuries and strokes. Heart rate variability (HRV), sometimes referred to as electrocardiogram (ECG), biofeedback monitors heart rate and cardiac reactivity from sensors placed on a person's fingers or wrist. It is useful for managing stress, high blood pressure, anxiety, and heartbeat irregularities. ...Depending on the reason for biofeedback, more than one type is often used. For example in this question, Michael might also use EDR to control his general stress response in addition to EMG to control the muscle tensing and teeth clenching responses. Behavioral skills training such as relaxation training, guided imagery and stress-coping techniques are also frequently used in addition to the actual biofeedback

Michael has a high-pressure legal career that involves frequent altercations with opposing counsel and ongoing stress. He commonly reacts to the stress of anger by clenching his teeth and generally tensing up. His therapist will most likely recommend which type of biofeedback? A. HRV B. EMG C. EDR D. EEG

B. Few if any experts dispute the fact that there are significant, average differences in IQ scores between African-Americans and Caucasians. And there are people, such as Arthur Jensen and the authors of the book "The Bell Curve", who argue that these differences reflect genetic differences between the two groups. This notion based to a large extent on correlational studies that demonstrate very high correlations between the IQs of identical twins, and lower correlations between the IQs of relatives who do not share the exact same genes; these studies strongly suggest that IQ does have a genetic component. However, many have pointed out that even if genetics account for a large proportion of individual variability in IQ scores, this does not mean that they can explain average differences between groups. Moreover, there is now a considerable body of evidence that average racial differences are not due to genetic factors--for instance, the fact that the average gap between the races has been declining over the years at a rate faster than can be explained by intergenerational changes in genetics. In addition, if whatever genetic differences existing between blacks and whites were responsible for intelligence differences, one would expect to find a relationship between the degree of European ancestry and IQ scores within the African-American population; however, studies investigating this possibility have not found such a relationship. In sum, a body of research suggests, and the majority of thinkers in this area believe, that IQ differences between Caucasians and African-Americans are due to external factors--especially differences in educational and school quality

Most experts in the area of intelligence currently believe that IQ differences between Caucasians and African-Americans are best accounted for by: A. test bias. B. .differences in life experiences and school quality. C. inherent differences in intelligence. D. a statistical artifact that does not reflect any real underlying difference.

C. Michael White and David Epston's narrative therapy is a postmodern therapeutic approach that explores the importance of the life stories people tell and the differences that can be made through the telling and re-authoring of these stories. A narrative therapist helps clients to deconstruct the meaning of the reality of their lives and relationships, showing the difference between the reality and the internalized stories of self, encouraging them to re-author their lives according to alternative and preferred stories of self-identity and ways of life and think of their lives within the framework of different stories. The re-authored stories externalize a client's condition or problem. "The person is not the problem. The problem is the problem." Some narrative techniques include encouraging patients to write stories, letters, essays or poems and recalling experiences in which a concern was vanquished or they responded to another individual with cathartic satisfaction. (See: White, M. & Epston, D. (1990). Narrative Means to Therapeutic Ends. New York: W. W. Norton.) The miracle and scaling questions are two techniques used by solution-focused therapists. The miracle question (a.) invites the client to imagine what it would be like if his/her problem was suddenly gone. The scaling question (d.) invites each family member to rate a situation to see how the problem is perceived by others

Narrative therapy is associated with which of the following interventions? A. the miracle question B. discovering faulty cognitions C. externalizing conversations D. the scaling question

C. This is a difficult question because the research results on childhood sexual abuse are inconsistent. Many studies have found no consistent gender differences in impact or pattern of symptoms, while other studies have found a more negative impact for females than for males. One of the complicating factors has been the definition of childhood sexual abuse - which includes consensual sex involving a minor when there is a significant age difference between the two parties. However, when only non-consensual types of childhood sexual abuse are examined, males and females are equivalently affected

Non-consensual childhood sexual abuse generally has a: A. more negative impact for females than males B. more negative impact for males than females C. similar impact for males and females D. similar impact for males and females but a very different pattern of symptoms

D. Self-recognition can be seen when a child develops the ability to recognize and distinguish the self in relation to the outside world through everyday interactions with the physical and social environment. The development of self-recognition has been studied mainly by examining infants' responses to their reflections in mirrors. The definitive test is whether or not the infant is capable of using the reflection to notice and respond to a mark on the face or head by touching the mark. Lewis and Brooks-Gunn (1979) found that infants respond to their reflections either by pointing to the mirror or by touching their faces as early as 15 months of age. Research indicates this response appears in some infants around 15 months of age and by a majority of infants by 24 months of age

Observations of infants' reactions to pictures, mirror reflections, and movies of themselves have been used to assess self-recognition, which involves simple body and facial discrimination. Lewis and Brooks-Gunn (1979) found that infants respond to their reflections either by pointing to the mirror or by touching their faces as early as: A. 6-9 months B. 9-12 months C. 12-15 months D. 15-18 months

D. Kramer (1983) describes three stages or characteristics of adult cognitive development: an understanding of the relativistic nature of knowledge (relativist reasoning); an acceptance of contradiction as a part of reality; and an integrative approach to thinking. According to Kramer, the stage of relativist reasoning includes an awareness of alternative perspectives on issues and the importance of context when finding answers to questions and thus most likely to be facilitated by undergraduate learning and experiences. Kramer indicates adolescents tend to enter university with absolutist, or idealistic, reasoning (b.) abilities and typically most people do not develop dialectical reasoning (d.) abilities until late adulthood. Dialectial reasoning involves the recognition of contradiction, then moving on to the reconciliation of basic elements of the opposing perspectives. Postformal reasoning and inductive reasoning (c.) are not stages in Kramer's theory of cognitive development in early adulthood.

Of Kramer's stages of cognitive development in adulthood, which would most likely be improved by an undergraduate university education? A. absolutist reasoning B. dialectical reasoning C. inductive reasoning D. relativist reasoning

D. On the basis of their structures, the four monoamine neurotransmitters are subdivided into two groups, catecholamines and indolamines. Dopamine (a.) norepinephrine (b.) and epinephrine (c.) are catecholamines and each is synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine. In contrast, serotonin (also called 5-hydroxytryptamine or 5-HT) is synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan and is classified as an indolamine

Of the following monoamine neurotransmitters, which is not a catecholamine? A. dopamine B. norepinephrine C. epinephrine D. serotonin

C. The Millon Adolescent Clinical Inventory (MACI) is intended for clients aged 13 to 19 years whose reading ability is at or above a sixth-grade level. The MACI scales focus on broad and long-standing personality attributes and are designed for identifying personal problems, such as confusion about self and peer and family difficulties, and individuals likely to display acting out behavior, anxious feelings, or suicidal tendencies. The MCMI-III (d.), a self-report personality inventory, is the adult version of the MACI which also assesses both acute clinical states and long-standing personality traits. Both are designed to be used in clinical, residential, and correctional settings (i.e., with patients undergoing clinical assessment or psychotherapy). The Bender-Gestalt-II (a.) is used primarily as a brief measure of visual-motor integration and screening tool for neuropsychological impairment for individuals aged 3 years and older. While it can be used to assess an adolescent, it is not as useful as the MACI for assessing personality. The MMPI-2 (b.) is designed for individuals aged 18 and over who have at least an eighth grade reading comprehension level. It is a self-report personality inventory that reports an examinee's performance in terms of clinical and validity scales; commonly, the individual's personality is assessed through "profile analysis," a method of score interpretation that involves examining subtest or scale score patterns. A version of the MMPI-2 called the MMPI-A is available for adolescents (ages 14 to 18).

Of the following tests, which would be most useful for identifying the personality traits and personal problems of a 15 year old? A. Bender-Gestalt-II B. MMPI-2 C. MACI D. MCMI-III

C. OCD and ADHD are the most common comorbid disorders for Tourette's Disorder. (While some studies have found OCD to be more common than ADHD, others have found the opposite to be true.)

Of the following, the most common associated features of Tourette's Disorder are: A. oppositional defiant behaviors B. phobias C. obsessions and compulsions D. depression

C. Gender segregation refers to children's preference for same-sex peer affiliations. Children as young as 3 years of age often establish and maintain same-gender friendships and play in groups composed primarily of children of their own gender. This phenomenon occurs in all cultures where children's social groups are large enough to allow choice and is typically observed from the preschool years through adolescence. Gender segregation appears to have important influences on children's development. Different peer group environments may lead to the development of different psychological preferences, skills, peer cultures and may also foster later gender differences in academic achievement, socializing and intimacy. These differences have been referred to as the two cultures theory which also proposes that distinctive features of girls' and boys' peer relationships confer particular developmental advantages but also vulnerabilities for each group

Of the following, which is true regarding gender segregation? A. It is an indication of overly sex-typed socialization by parents. B. It inhibits the development of mature gender schemas. C. It illustrates the interacting influences of biology, socialization and cognition on gender development. D. It is the results of biological gender differences.

D. There are different forms of object-relations therapy, but they tend to focus on the patient's modes of relating to others, including issues such as intimacy, control, autonomy and trust. The patient's object relations manifest in his or her interactions with the therapist, and the therapist strives to provide a safe caring environment in which the patient can resolve the pathological qualities of the transference relationship and by extension, other relationships (in some forms of object relations therapy, this is referred to as "re-parenting"). Unlike traditional psychoanalytic therapy, the therapist does not adopt a passive or neutral stance. The first choice might have seemed liked a good answer, because in object relations therapy, interpretations do not play a curative role to the extent they do in traditional psychoanalytic therapy. However, they are a part of the therapeutic process in many forms of object relations therapy and therefore do not distinguish the two forms of therapy as well as emotional stance of the therapist. The other two choices have little to do with either traditional psychoanalytic therapy or objects relations therapy.

On which of the following dimensions does object relations psychotherapy differ most distinctly from traditional psychoanalytic therapy? A. interpretation of transference and resistance B. focus on maladaptive cognitions C. focus on authenticity of the patient's mode of being-in-the-world D. emotional neutrality or non-neutrality of the therapist

C. One disadvantage of percentile ranks is that a given distance between two percentile ranks does not necessarily reflect the same distance between the examinees' raw scores. Specifically, percentile ranks tend to overestimate raw score differences in the middle of the score distribution and underestimate raw score differences at the end of the distribution. Let's take an example: Say that Examinee A has a percentile rank score of 93, Examinee B has a percentile rank score of 96, Examinee C has a percentile rank score of 50, and Examinee D has a percentile rank score of 53. If you're just looking at percentile ranks, you might assume that the score difference between Examinee A and B is equivalent to the score difference between Examinee C and D. However, because examinees A and B scored at the extreme high end of the distribution, their raw score difference will be greater than that between examinees C and D, who scored in the middle of the distribution. Choices A and B are true of both standard scores and percentile ranks, while choice D is true of neither.

One advantage of standard scores as compared to percentile ranks is that standard scores: A. allow you to determine the relative standing of examinees who take the same test. B. set cutoff scores above which a given percentage of examinees will score. C. provide more meaningful information about differences between examinees' test scores. D. when used properly, can decrease the cultural bias of test scores in many cases.

A. Freud and Skinner differ on almost every dimension, with their main difference involving the origin of causation however they have a commonality in their reliance on determinism. Skinner maintained that all behavior is environmentally controlled through reinforcement contingencies, whereas Freud contended the primary cause of behavior is internal, unconscious mental mechanisms or psychic determinism

One commonality between Skinner and Freud is a(n) _______ view of behavior. A. deterministic B. holistic C. phenomenological D. adaptive

A. Both parametric and nonparametric tests are used in statistical hypothesis testing. In both, sample data is collected and analysis is run to see if the data supports a research hypothesis. Parametric tests make assumptions about the underlying population data (e.g., that data is normally distributed) and also are typically used to estimate population parameters. For instance, given a statistic from a sample of subjects, parametric tests typically indicate the probability that the statistic falls within a certain range in the underlying population. By contrast, nonparametric tests do not make assumptions about and do not attempt to estimate population parameters. Another advantage of nonparametric tests is they can be used to test hypotheses about ranked data or non-numerical categorical data. However, when the assumptions required to use them are met, parametric tests provide more accurate and precise results than nonparametric tests.

One potential advantage of nonparametric statistical tests over parametric tests is that the former: A. require fewer assumptions about the population data. B. are more powerful. C. result in a lower probability of false positives. D. provide more precise information.

A. The substantia nigra (which literally means "black substance") is a brain region, located in the brain stem, just above the spinal cord, that produces dopamine, a neurotransmitter involved in the control of movement. Parkinson's Disease involves degeneration of neural cells in this region, resulting in an overall loss of dopamine in the brain and deficits in movement control. Resulting symptoms include slowed movements, tremor, and rigidity. Note that the basal ganglia is also involved in Parkinson's disease. Neurons in the substantia nigra project directly to areas of the basal ganglia, which contains neural circuits that regulate movement. Degeneration of the substantia nigra leads to dopamine deficits in the basal ganglia, which inhibits its communication with the thalamus, which in turn results in deficits in communication between the thalamus and the motor cortex. However, basal ganglia is not the correct answer to this question because, in Parkinson's disease, even though the basal ganglia area suffers from dopamine deficits, its neurons remain intact.

Parkinson's disease is characterized by degeneration of neurons in which of the following brain areas? A. substantia nigra B. basal ganglia C. hypothalamus D. thalamus

C. Patterson's model attributes aggressiveness in children to certain parent-child interactions. According to this model, children initially learn aggressive behavior from their parents who model aggression through their use of harsh discipline and ignore or reinforce their child's aggressiveness. In addition, these actions become increasingly coercive and eventually generalize to school

Patterson's coercive family interactive model would predict: A. parents who "bribe" their children to act appropriately will meet with limited success. B. hostile aggressive children change a parent's disciplinary technique. C. children initially learn aggressive behaviors from their parents. D. children often learn aggressive behavior at school and then this generalizes.

C. Studies indicate peers have the greatest influence over behaviors that are subjective (e.g., clothes and music), while parents have a greater influence than peers over other types of behavior (e.g., attitudes related to education, career, politics). Peers also have a significant influence when it comes to behaviors such as drinking, smoking, and drug use. Pressure from peers is resistible and research has shown middle and high school students are typically able to resist the pressure of their peers to act antisocially (d.).

Peer pressure during adolescence has been found to be: A. more influential on behavior and attitudes than parental influence. B. more influential on attitudes and less on behaviors than parental influence. C. most influential related to behaviors without clear standards. D. most influential related to antisocial behaviors.

B. Dissociative Amnesia involves an inability to recall important autobiographical information that is not attributable to ordinary forgetting. The most common types are localized or selective: Localized amnesia involves a loss of memory for all personally experienced events during a circumscribed period of time, while selective amnesia involves a loss of memory for some personally experienced events during a circumscribed period of time.

People with Dissociative Amnesia have deficits in: A. semantic memory. B. autobiographical memory. C. procedural memory. D. prospective memory.

D. This one is so easy that you may have thought it was a trick question and picked the wrong answer! People who are depressed tend to focus on negative events while ignoring neutral and positive ones.

People with which of the following disorders experience a heightened recall of past experiences that have negative connotations and limited recall of past experiences that have neutral or positive connotations? A. Illness Anxiety Disorder B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder C. Avoidant Personality Disorder D. Major Depressive Disorder

C. Primary circular reactions are not associated with the preoperational stage but rather entail repetitions of pleasurable actions and are characteristic of babies between 1 and 4 months of age. Transduction (a.) refers to reasoning involving by the tendency to move from one specific case to another without taking the general into account. Centration (b.) involves an inability to focus on more than one aspect of a situation or object at a time and animism (d.) refers to the belief that objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities.

Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development, with the preoperational stage occurring between the ages of 3 to 6 years. Which of the following is not associated with this stage of cognitive development? A. transduction B. centration C. primary circular reactions D. animism

B. Many theorists and researchers have identified developmental benefits of children's play. Piaget, for instance, believed that pretend play was a form of learning about the world, whereby children assimilate new rules and objects into their cognitive schema. In other words, one of the developmental functions of play is to help children learn about and master their environment.

Play in children, as opposed to play in adolescents and adults: A. is solely a form of imitation. B. contributes to mastery of the environment. C. is basically a form of entertainment. D. is for the purpose of competition and attaining power.

C. According to Freud, the only personality structure that has developed at birth is the id. The id operates according to the pleasure principle because it looks for ways of gratifying its needs immediately to avoid tension. Answer "A" is associated with the ego, which doesn't develop until about six months of age. Freud suggested that the ego operates on the basis of the reality principle because it postpones satisfaction of the id's instincts until there is a suitable object available in reality. The dynamic principle (response "B") refers to Freud's interest in understanding people in terms of the dynamic interactions (conflicts) that occur between the id, ego, and superego, and the genetic principle (response "D") refers to his emphasis on the importance of a person's experiences during childhood

Psychoanalytic theory posits that which of the following is the principle influence at around four months of age? A. reality B. dynamic C. pleasure D. genetic

A. Most associated with Jacob L. Moreno, psychodrama employs experiential methods, role theory, sociometry and group dynamics to facilitate insight, personal growth, and integration on cognitive, behavioral and affective levels. Psychodrama provides participants a safe, supportive environment in which to practice new and more effective roles and behaviors. There are three distinct components of group interaction in a classically structured psychodrama session: the warm-up, the action and the sharing phases. In the warm-up phase, the group theme is identified and a protagonist (a.), individual(s) who represents the theme in the drama, is selected. In the action phase the problem is dramatized and the protagonist explores new methods of resolving it. Then in the sharing phase, group members or the audience (d.) may express or share their associations, experience or connection with the protagonist's work. The other components of psychodrama include: auxiliary egos (b.), or group members who assume the roles of significant others in the drama; the director (c.), a trained psychodramatist who guides participants through each phase of the session; and the stage, the physical space in which the drama is conducted

Psychodrama seeks to examine and resolve difficult situations through guided dramatization and the release of creative forces inherent in the individual. The issue or problem to be explored in the psychodrama is chosen by the: A. protagonist B. antagonist C. director D. audience

B. Even though therapists should respond to clients as individuals and not stereotype people, they must also consider social and cultural factors in assessing individuals, interpreting their responses, and devising treatment plans -- especially when a client strongly identifies with a culture that differs from the dominant one. For instance, as stated by the first choice, Asian culture is characterized by strong deference to elders, which sometimes leads to reluctance to discuss background family issues in therapy. Clients with a traditional Asian background also may report physical problems when experiencing psychological discomfort (i.e., somaticize); this tendency may be due to Asian medicine's belief in a close relationship between mind and body. And, when seeking mental health services, these clients may expect that the therapist will serve as an expert who provides directive advice and quick relief for the presenting problem. Thus, as stated by choice 4, trying to establish an egalitarian relationship may engender a lack of confidence in the clinician. Choice 2, however, describes a tendency that opposes traditional Asian cultural preferences. Clients from this background often believe that touching strangers is inappropriate and prefer more distance between themselves and others than what is typical in Western culture -- which itself is characterized by a greater need for personal space than many other cultures

Psychologists working with clients who identify with a traditional Asian culture should be aware of all of the following cultural tendencies that may influence the therapeutic process except: A. a preference to defer to the opinion of elders. B. a tendency to stand very close to others. C. the possibility that psychological symptoms may be somaticized. D. the possibility that trying to work with the client as a "partner" may engender a lack of confidence in the process.

B. In the literature, a distinction has been made between rationalist and constructivist cognitive therapies. Rationalist therapies are based on the assumptions that irrationality is the primary source of neurotic pathology, that explicit beliefs and logical reasoning can serve as a guide to emotion and behavior, and that the core process in effective therapy is the substitution of rational for irrational thought. The techniques described in choice B are all designed to increase rational thought processes and/or decrease irrational thinking; thus, they are most in line with the assumptions of rationalist cognitive therapy. As compared to rationalist therapy, constructivist cognitive therapy is based on more complex and abstract assumptions, in which unconscious, developmental, and interactional processes are emphasized. You might have been thrown off by the word "rationalist" in the question. If so, it would have been best to answer the question as if it were about cognitive therapy in general. The best answer would still be B.

Rationalist, cognitive therapy is most likely to involve: A. relaxation training, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery. B. cognitive restructuring, reducing automatic thoughts, and thought stopping. C. a focus on unconscious and developmental processes. D. stress inoculation training, self-instruction, and stimulus control.

D. Howard et al. (1986) reviewed the benefits that clients experienced due to attending therapy sessions as a function of the dosage of therapy sessions. Performing a meta-analysis of 15 previous outcome studies, their results verified that the longer patients remain in therapy, the greater their gains. They found that 15% of patients improve between intake and the first session (presumably due to spontaneous remission and the ameliorative effects of having sought treatment), 50% improve after eight sessions, and 75% improve after 26 sessions. Consistent with these findings, research by Kafta et al. (1994) found approximately 75% of the psychotherapy clients showed an alleviation of acute symptoms after the 28th session.

Recent research on psychotherapy outcome indicates: A. 28% of therapy clients show marked improvement in symptoms after the 8th session B. 72% of therapy clients show marked improvement in symptoms after the 8th session C. 53% of therapy clients show marked improvement in symptoms after the 26th session D. 75% of therapy clients show marked improvement in symptoms after the 26th session

A. Based on data from 2002 Health and Retirement Study (HRS) and the findings of recent studies, retirees who are engaged in activities such as paid work, volunteering, or caregiving activities, have higher levels of subjective well-being than those who are unengaged - independent of age, sex, race, marital status, education, mental and physical health, and income. The likelihood of being very satisfied with retirement is highest for people who participate in more than one activity and, up to a certain point, increases with hours of engagement (Butrica & Schaner, 2005). It should be noted however that retirees who only provide caregiving are significantly less likely to be satisfied. Retirement studies also indicate that older people who participate in productive activities have better physical and mental health and lower mortality rates

Recent research on retirement indicates which of the following is most predictive of retirement satisfaction? A. participation in activities B. reliable social support C. marital status D. good physical health

A. Identity process theory proposes that adjustment to aging can be conceptualized as involving the three processes of identity assimilation (maintaining self-consistency), identity accommodation (making changes in the self), and identity balance (maintaining a sense of self but changing when necessary). Despite the changes in the relationship with his son, Frank continues to think of himself as having a loving relationship in order to maintain his consistent sense of self. Research indicates only identity balance is positively related to internal state awareness, suggesting that the ability to incorporate age-related changes within an identity and at the same time maintain a consistent and positive view of the self is most conducive to successful aging.

Recently the relationship between Frank and one of his adult sons has become increasingly tense, conflicted and distant. Frank considers himself a loving and supportive father. He dismisses the problem as a temporary "phase" to avoid the situation. Frank's attempt to explain away the problem, according to Whitbourne's self-concept model, is an attempt to maintain his own self-concept through: A. identity assimilation B. identity accommodation C. identity styles D. rationalization

D. Interventions designed to increase "bicultural competence" have been found effective in preventing substance abuse among Native American adolescents. These interventions help individuals develop coping skills that "blend the adaptive values and roles of both the culture in which they were raised and the culture by which they are surrounded" (LaFromboise, Assertion training with American Indians: Cultural/behavioral issues for trainers. Las Cruces: New Mexico State University, 1982, p. 12). Normalizing substance use (A) would likely increase the incidence of substance abuse and has been regarded as one of the factors that contributes to the high rate of substance abuse among Native Americans. Increasing legal consequences of substance use has not been found to be a very effective deterrent for adolescents presumambly because adolescents do not always make rational decisions based on consideration of the perceived consequences of committing a crime

Reduced incidence of substance abuse among Native American adolescents would most likely result from: A. normalizing substance use within tribal communities B. increasing the legal consequences of substance use C. aversive conditioning D. increasing bicultural competence

C. Authoritative parenting has been linked to many positive outcomes for both children and adolescents including better academic performance. However, the effects of authoritative parenting seem to be moderated by race. Steinberg and his colleagues found that, even though African-American parents often adopt an authoritative style, the academic performance of their adolescents is influenced more by peers and, therefore, has less of an effect. These investigators also found that, overall, parents' involvement in their youngster's schooling is more important than their encouragement of academic excellence.

Research by Laurence Steinberg, Sanford Dornbusch and their colleagues on the relationship between parenting style and academic achievement has revealed that: A. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to children but not adolescents. B. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents regardless of gender, socioeconomic status, or race. C. the positive impact of authoritative parenting may apply less to African-American adolescents than to European, Asian, and Hispanic adolescents. D. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents and seems to be due primarily to parents' encouragement of academic excellence.

D. Research on giftedness has focused on the role of metacognition and has consistently shown that gifted children are more aware of their cognitive processes and better at choosing and applying cognitive strategies and evaluating the effectiveness of their choice. Response accuracy is more characteristic of gifted children than response speed (a.). Parallel processing (b.) is a term that has several meanings. In the context of attention and memory, it refers to the flow of information from the source to the recipient via more than one route. It has not been linked to giftedness. Divergent thinking (c.) is found in both gifted and average children and is associated with creativity

Research comparing gifted and average children indicates that gifted children tend to be superior in terms of: A. response speed B. parallel processing C. divergent thinking D. metacognition

C. The research on this issue has generally found that open discussions with children about their illness are associated with the best psychosocial outcomes. Of course, parents are ultimately responsible for deciding what and when to tell children (response D), but a professional familiar with the research can at least inform them of the findings to help them decide what to do.

Research examining methods of informing children with cancer about their illness suggests that: A. providing young children with limited information is best since they are unable to understand the illness and only become confused when given details about it. B. limiting information to responses to children's direct questions is better than "volunteering" details about their illness or treatment. C. children are better off when they are given information about their diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment procedures. D. it is best to let the parents decide what and when to tell children about their illness.

B. The amygdala is an almond-shaped group of neurons that sits deep within the medial temporal lobes of the brain. It is part of the limbic system and plays a key role in the processing and memory of emotional information. It also plays a role in motivation, and specifically in learning based on reward and punishment. Research has shown that emotional arousal following an event increases the subsequent memory for that event, and that the amygdala is involved in mediating the effects of emotions on memory. Regarding the other choices, the hypothalamus is involved in a number of functions including emotion, thirst, hunger, and circadian rhythms; it also regulates the pituitary gland. The caudate nucleus in involved in processing and memory of feedback from the environment and language comprehension; it is also believed to have a role in human love and possibly be dysfunctional in people with obsessive-compulsive disorder. And the thalamus has multiple roles; for instance it functions as a "relay center" for sensory information as it arrives in the brain, and also plays a role in sleep and wakefulness.

Research indicates that emotional arousal during an event increases the strength of long-term memory for the event. The brain structure apparently responsible for this effect is the: A. caudate nucleus. B. amygdala. C. hypothalamus. D. thalamus.

A. Longitudinal research has shown that, from the point of view of childhood adjustment to structural changes in the family introduced by remarriage and newly blended families, early adolescence is not a good time for a custodial parent to remarry. Adolescents, both boys and girls, display more difficulty adjusting to this new situation on the average than young children. In addition, girls in early adolescence seem particularly prone to adjustment difficulties than boys at the same age. Experts have suggested that these difficulties may be due to the stepfather "dethroning" the almost exclusive relationship the girl previously had with her mother.

Research investigating adjustment in early adolescence to parental remarriage has suggested that: A. remarriage and the corresponding family structural changes negatively impact early adolescent girls more than early adolescent boys. B. remarriage and corresponding family structural changes negatively impact early adolescent boys more than early adolescent girls. C. factors such as increased maternal happiness and increased family functioning typically function as a "buffer" to protect both early adolescent girls and boys from the negative effects of family structural changes caused by remarriage. D. both early adolescent boys and early adolescent girls typically adjust fairly rapidly to family structural changes caused by remarriage.

C. Cognitive flexibility involves the ability to simultaneously reason about or conceptualize two or more abstract representations. Linguistic competence is correlated with cognitive flexibility, and studies have demonstrated that bilingual children tend to outperform monolingual children on tasks requiring such flexibility. For example, in one study, bilingual children performed better on a task that required them to sort cards on one dimension and then again on a different dimension. The study suggested that this result was due to the bilingual children's superior ability to inhibit attention to previous mental representations. Another study showed that bilingual children were better able to switch between different possible interpretations of ambiguous figures.

Research on bilingualism in children has suggested that: A. bilingual children are more likely to display cognitive and learning difficulties than monolingual children. B. on the average, bilingual and monolingual children do not display any differences in cognitive functioning. C. bilingual children tend to display greater cognitive flexibility than their monolingual counterparts. D. the cognitive functioning of bilingual children is related to the degree of difference in the languages they know.

A. Studies investigating the biological and genetic contributions to Autistic Disorder have confirmed that these factors play a dominant role. However, no single factor has been identified as the most important one.

Research on biogenic theories of autism: A. has confirmed that biological and genetic factors are the primary cause although no single factor seems to be responsible for the majority of cases. B. has found that obstetric complications are the cause of most cases of this disorder. C. has recently identified the specific gene that is responsible for the majority of cases. D. has demonstrated that biological and genetic factors are secondary to psychosocial factors in the etiology of this disorder.

D. J. A. Hall and A. G. Halberstadt's original research found gender-role identity to have a greater impact than biological sex on self-esteem in children and that androgyny (both masculine and feminine preferences and characteristics) is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in both boys and girls. Subsequent studies supported these findings and some have also found that masculinity, to a somewhat lesser degree, is associated with higher levels of self-esteem than femininity in both boys and girls.

Research on the relationship between self-esteem, biological sex and gender-role suggests: A. biological sex has a greater impact than gender role on self-esteem in children B. biological sex has a greater impact than gender role on self-esteem in males C. a combination of masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in males D. a combination of masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in children

C. It's difficult to draw any general conclusions about utilization rates because the research findings are inconsistent. However, a 1991 study by Sue et al. (which is frequently cited in the literature) reports underutilization by Asian-and Latino-Americans and overutilization by African-Americans. The results of other studies also suggest that there are group differences in utilization rates, so response C is the best.

Research on the use of mental health services by members of minority groups indicates that: A. utilization rates are lower for members of all minority groups than for whites. B. utilization rates are higher for members of all minority groups than for whites. C. utilization rates are higher for members of some minority groups and lower for members of other minority groups than for whites. D. utilization rates for members of minority groups are about the same as the rates for whites.

C. Self-absorption is characteristic of the cognitive and information processing style of both depressed and anxious individuals. The other choices about the differences between depressed and anxious individuals are true.©

Researchers in the area of cognitive therapy have conducted studies regarding the predominant types and styles of cognition in different mental disorders. These studies have found all of the following to be distinguishing features of cognitions in depression and anxiety, except: A. in depression, cognitions about hopelessness and failure are more common than in anxiety. B. depressed people are more likely to have absolute thoughts about negative themes; anxious people are more likely to have questioning thoughts about the future of events. C. anxious people tend to be self-absorbed; depressed people tend to be more absorbed with others. D. depressed people have enhanced recall of negative feedback; anxious people have enhanced recall of threatening situations.

C. Overregularization occurs when grammatical rules are overextended, such as the examples in the question- adding "s" to foot to form the plural or "ed" to run to form the past tense. Overregularization is common among three and four year olds who typically love rules and override some of the irregulars they learned when younger. Agrammaticism (a.) is the loss of the ability to combine words into correct sentences. Overextension (d.) occurs when a child uses a specific word to mean something more general, such as the word hat meaning anything put on the head or doggie for any animal.

Saying "go-ed" instead of "went", "foots" instead of feet, and "runned" instead of "ran" are examples of: A. agrammaticism B. overgeneralization C. overregularization D. overextension

B. The likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce varies based on age at marriage, income, education, length of marriage, race and other factors distinguished in the National Survey of Family Growth. The survey data indicates that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation.

Several demographic characteristics are associated with the risk of divorce. According to the National Survey of Family Growth (2002), divorce rates are highest for women who: A. have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age B. have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age C. have a higher level of education and marry at an older age D. have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

B. Severe prenatal malnutrition is likely to have differential effects, depending on when in pregnancy it occurs. In the first trimester, it can result in congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion. In the third trimester (as well as in the first 3-6 months after birth), it is most likely to have a negative effect on the central nervous system -- specifically, the brain. Studies have suggested that these children often have an abnormally low number of brain cells and brain weight. The specific behavioral consequences may include apathy, unresponsiveness to environmental stimulation, irritability, an abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development.

Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true? A. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to result in incomplete development of the autonomic nervous system. B. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most severe negative impact on the developing brain. C. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to cause physical disabilities that prevent the child from developing at a normal rate. D. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is not likely to have a significant physiological effect on the developing fetus; observed deficits in these children are probably due to social and environmental causes.

C. Research indicates sibling relationships often involve both positive and negative aspects or contradictions however closeness and conflict seems to be particularly characteristic of sibling relationships during preadolescence.

Sibling relationships during preadolescence are most likely to be characterized by: A. competitiveness and cooperation. B. detachment and distance. C. closeness and conflict. D. hostility and conflict.

B. About ten percent of all children are socially inhibited. Typically, these children cling to their parents, are socially timid, and are scared of the unfamiliar. Reliable predictors of social inhibition have been detected in early infancy -- as early as the ages of 2-4 months. For instance, infants who display high levels of negative affect and motor activity in response to novel stimuli tend to display social inhibition later on in life. These and other findings suggest that inhibition and other personality characteristics related to basic temperament are stable and have a strong genetic basis.

Signs of the personality characteristic of social inhibition are usually present: A. at birth. B. by the age of four months. C. by the age of nine months. D. by the time the child attends school for the first time.

B. Associated with the bio-medical model, somatic therapy refers to types of treatment involving manipulations of the body. Three main types of somatic therapy are: psychopharmacological or drug therapy ( c.), which is the most common; electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) (d.), which involves administering a muscle relaxant and anaesthetizing a patient before passing an electric current through the non-dominant brain hemisphere; and psychosurgery (a.), which is the most extreme form of somatic therapy. Psychosurgery is rarely used and reserved only for acute conditions such as severe depression, chronic anxiety, and severe obsessional disorders for which all other treatments have been unsuccessful. Psychosurgery involves either lobotomy (removal of brain tissue) or leucotomy (cutting the connections to a particular part of the brain). Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical or Stages of Change theory is an eclectic model that integrates interventions from various theories of psychotherapy. Transtheoretical therapy incorporates the identified stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance in selecting and utilizing therapeutic interventions. For example, people are most likely to respond to feedback and education in the contemplation stage and social reinforcers in the maintenance stage

Somatic therapy may include all of the following except: A. psychosurgery B. transtheoretical therapy C. psychopharmacological therapy D. electroconvulsive shock therapy

A. Not all experts agree that children cannot experience panic attacks. However, those that do, for the most part, argue that children do not experience panic because they are cognitively incapable of making catastrophic interpretations (e.g., I'm going crazy) of bodily symptoms

Some experts argue that panic attacks do not occur in young children because: A. children are not capable of making catastrophic interpretations of bodily sensations. B. children do not have the verbal abilities needed to describe intense fear. C. children do not experience the bodily sensations associated with panic. D. children are not capable of predicting that certain external events may trigger bodily symptoms.

B. The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is exposure with response prevention, which exposes the person to the feared object or situation while preventing him or her from engaging in usual avoidance behavior.

Stephanie has just been assigned a diagnosis of Specific Phobia by her therapist. The therapist will most likely recommend which of the following as a treatment for Stephanie? A. habit reversal training B. exposure with response prevention C. stimulus control D. guided self-change

D. Structural equation modeling is a technique used to evaluate or confirm the cause-and-effect or hypothesized relationship between both measured and latent variables. Classifying participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors (a.) is referred to as discriminant function analysis. Convergent and divergent validity is evaluated (b.) using the multitrait-multimethod matrix. Cluster analysis (c.) is a method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories. It can be used to discover structures in data without providing an explanation/interpretation.

Structural equation modeling is used to: A. classify participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors. B. to evaluate convergent and divergent validity. C. to identify homogeneous groups from a collection of observations. D. to evaluate predictive relationships between measured variables and latent factors.

A. The American Psychological Association in its Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults [2004] concluded there are few significant differences in the effectiveness of various psychotherapeutic techniques for older and younger adults. It also notes that effectiveness may be increased by tailoring an intervention to the specific needs of an older individual.

Studies evaluating the effectiveness of differing types of psychotherapy for older adults indicate: A. although older adults may respond more slowly, older and younger adults respond comparably to most forms of therapy. B. although younger adults may respond more slowly, older and younger adults respond comparably to most forms of therapy. C. younger adults respond much better older adults to most forms of psychotherapy D. older adults respond much better than younger adults to most forms of psychotherapy

C. Most physical differences between boys and girls do not become prominent until puberty. Before puberty, boys and girls are about equal, for instance, in terms of speed and strength, implying that they should do about equally well in many sports

Studies on gender differences in physical development suggest that, until about age _____, girls should be able to compete effectively with boys in baseball and other sports. A. 7 B. 10 C. 12 D. 15

C.

Studies on the effectiveness of training for improving the cognitive skills of older people who have already experienced normal age-related declines have found that training: A. is useful for verbal but not for nonverbal skills. B. is useful for nonverbal but not for verbal skills. C. can improve verbal and nonverbal skills to levels comparable to pre-decline levels. D. can improve verbal and nonverbal skills but to a level significantly below pre-decline levels.

2. Dissonance

Sue and Sue's R/CID Model: During the _________ stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the majority group.

3. Resistance and Immersion

Sue and Sue's R/CID Model: In the ______ stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the majority group.

4. Introspection

Sue and Sue's R/CID Model: In the ______stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or her appreciation and depreciation of self and others.

5. Integrative Awareness

Sue and Sue's R/CID Model: The stage where the person experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group

1. Conformity

Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model: During the _________ stage, a person depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group.

A. Stranger anxiety can first appear as early as 6 months of age, but it usually begins in infants between 8 and 10 months of age, peaks at about 18 months of age, and then gradually declines during the end of the second year.

Symptoms of anxiety in response to the presence of unfamiliar adults usually begins at: A. 9 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 24 months

B. Although separation anxiety sometimes begins as early as 5 or 6 months, it typically has its onset at 8 or 9 months of age, rises dramatically until the age of 18 months, and then gradually falls off until it becomes negligible between the ages of 24-36 months. Prior to the onset of separation anxiety, babies do not typically protest when separated from their primary caretakers, even though a number of attachment behaviors develop during this time.

Symptoms of separation anxiety usually begin to appear at approximately: A. 5 months B. 9 months C. 12 months D. 18 months

A. Dynamic assessment is an alternative method of assessment that was derived from the work of Vygotsky (1962). Dynamic assessment is an alternative to standard educational assessment and involves providing the test-taker with assistance or instruction (scaffolding) during the assessment process to determine the effects of doing so. Formative evaluation (b.) involves evaluating the effects of an educational program while it is being developed in order to determine what modifications are needed. Protocol analysis (c.) involves having the test-taker "think aloud" in order to identify the cognitive processes that led to the test-taker's answers to test items. Domain-referenced testing (d.) involves interpreting an examinee's performance with regard to a specific knowledge or skill domain.

Testing-the-limits and graduated prompts are used to establish the degree to which an examinee will benefit from instruction or assistance. These techniques are part of: A. dynamic assessment B. formative evaluation C. protocol analysis D. domain-referenced testing

A. The "fight or flight response", also known as the "acute stress response", was first described by Walter Cannon in the 1920s and is a general discharge of the sympathetic nervous system that occurs in response to environmental threats. It results in physiological changes such as increased heart rate, pupil dilation, constricted blood vessels, respiration, and perspiration, and it increases the person's alertness and attentiveness to the environment. General adaptation syndrome is a model of stress put forth by Hans Selye in the 1930s. According to this model, exposure to stressful stimuli causes a predictable series of reactions, divided into three phases: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. In the alarm phase, the stress is identified and adrenaline is produced in order to trigger the fight-or-flight response.

The "fight or flight" response is equivalent to which stage in Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome? A. Alarm B. Resistance C. Exhaustion D. Hypervigilance

A. Learner-centered education, as defined by McCombs and Whisler (1997), is "the perspective that couples a focus on individual learners (their heredity, experiences, perspectives, backgrounds, talents, interests, capacities, and needs) with a focus on learning (the best available knowledge about learning and how it occurs and about teaching practices that are most effective in promoting the highest levels of motivation, learning, and achievement for all learners)." In 1993, the American Psychological Association's Presidential Task Force on Psychology in Education developed twelve psychological principles for learner-centered education and identified the implications of these principles for instruction, curriculum, assessment, school redesign and reform. In 1997, the psychological principles pertaining to the learner and the learning process were increased to 14. Rather than conditioned habits or physiological factors, the principles focus on psychological factors that are primarily internal to and under the control of the learner. Although, they attempt to acknowledge contextual factors or external environment that interact with these internal factors as well. The principles are intended to deal holistically with learners in the context of real-world learning situations and are best understood as an organized set of principles; instead of viewed in individual isolation. They are also intended to apply to all learners, such as children, parents, teachers, administrators and members of the community involved in the educational system. The 14 principles are divided into five categories of factors influencing learners and learning: cognitive and metacognitive; motivational and affective; developmental; social and personal; and individual differences.

The American Psychological Association's learner-centered psychological principles: A. focus on psychological factors that are primarily internal to and under the control of the learner B. are intended to apply to learners from elementary through secondary school C. are best understood when viewed in isolation or as an organized set of principles as applicable D. focus on individual learners rather than the learning process

B. For a diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder, the individual must exhibit (a) severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the provocation in terms of severity or duration and are developmentally inappropriate and (b) a persistently irritable or angry mood between temper outbursts. Frequent behavioral outbursts that are due to an inability to control aggressive impulses is characteristic of Intermittent Explosive Disorder.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder requires the presence of chronic and severe irritability with A. persistent dysthymia that does not meet the criteria for Persistent Depressive Disorder. B. frequent temper outbursts that are developmentally inappropriate. C. discrete episodes of excessive emotional expression that do not meet the criteria for Bipolar Disorder. D. frequent behavioral outbursts that are due to an inability to control aggressive impulses.

A. For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Intermittent Explosive Disorder, the person must exhibit recurrent behavioral outbursts that represent a failure to control aggressive impulses that may or may not result in physical damage to property or physical harm to animals. Although the outbursts must be out of proportion to provocation, the DSM-5 does not require them to represent a misinterpretation of the intentions of others. However, it does require that the outbursts are not premeditated or performed for the purpose of achieving a tangible objective.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Intermittent Explosive Disorder requires the presence of: A. behavioral outbursts that represent a failure to control aggressive impulses. B. behavioral outbursts that are committed to obtain a tangible reward. C. aggressive outbursts that cause damage or destruction to property or physical injury to animals or people. D. aggressive outbursts that are due to a misinterpretation of the intentions of others as hostile or aggressive.

B. The diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder requires the presence of five or more characteristic symptoms of a major depressive episode with at least one symptom being a depressed mood or markedly diminished interest in all or most activities. The symptoms listed in the other answers are characteristic symptoms that may or may not be present

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms of a major depressive episode with at least one symptom being a depressed mood or: A. feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt. B. loss of interest in all or most activities. C. feelings of helplessness. D. diminished ability to concentrate or other cognitive impairment.

A. One of the ways the DSM-5 differs from its predecessor is that it uses a nonaxial assessment system (rather than a multiaxial one). When using this system, all mental and medical diagnoses are listed together with the principal diagnosis listed first and any other diagnoses listed in order of focus and treatment.

The DSM-5's assessment system is: A. nonaxial. B. multiaxial. C. hierarchical. D. nonhierarchical.

A. This was a California case related to the use of standardized intelligence tests for assessing children for placement in special classes for the mentally retarded. It's one of several famous cases and rulings which questioned the validity of using these tests for this purpose. The ruling, which continues to be challenged, banned the use of IQ tests in the placement of minority children in special education classes.

The Larry P. v. Riles case is important because it: A. defined the relationship between standard intellectual assessments and placement in Mental Retardation classes. B. was the first time a court addressed bias in job selection in private industry. C. relates to how much information must be revealed to research participants. D. limited certain restraint of trade clauses in the APA Ethics Code, such as using patient testimonials.

C. The Racial Identity Attitude Scale, developed by Helms and Parham (1996), is based on Cross' (1971, 1978) stages of African-American identity development. The stages are pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. Choice A includes the stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's Minority Identity Development Model. Choice B refers to Berry's Acculturation model, which consists of independent dimensions, rather than stages. And choice D contains terms from each of the other models

The Racial Identity Attitude Scale, developed by Helms and Parham (1996), is used to assess the stages of African-American racial identity development which are: A. conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and articulation and awareness B. separation, marginalization, assimilation, and integration C. pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization D. encounter, resistance, integration, and awareness

D. The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.

The Solomon four-group design is: A. a quasi-experimental design B. used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups C. used to reduce practice effects D. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting

B. The Leiter-3 (Leiter International Performance Scale-3rd Edition) can be administered without verbal instructions and does not require verbal or written responses. Therefore, it is considered a useful measure of cognitive ability for individuals who do not speak English or have a language or hearing impairment. Note: The Leiter-3 was released in 2013 as an updated version of the Leiter-R. It combines some of Leiter-R subtests, includes a new neuropsychological subtest (the Nonverbal Stroop Subtest), and is appropriate for individuals ages 3 through 75+

The __________ is useful for assessing the cognitive ability of individuals with a language or hearing impairment. A. WRAT-4 B. Leiter-3 C. CogAT D. CAS

C. Conservation is the ability to understand that changing an object's appearance doesn't change the object's physical qualities. For example, water poured from a tall thin glass into a short wide glass will be conserved, or understood to be the same amount of water. Conservation develops during the concrete operations stage (7 to 12 years). Note that there may be slight variations between age ranges that you have studied and the age ranges presented in test questions. In this case, the most correct choice is 7 to 10 years, which falls within the 7 to 12 year range. Choice D, 11 to 13 years, overlaps between the high end of concrete operations and the low end of formal operations (12 onward) - which is not as good a choice for the typical development of concrete operations.

The ability to understand that changing an object's appearance doesn't change the object's physical qualities typically develops during years: A. 0 to 2 B. 2 to 6 C. 7 to 10 D. 11 to 13

D. According to the nativist view of language acquisition, a biological aspect is responsible for language development. The behaviorist (a.) theory focuses on the role of classical and operant conditioning on language. The interactionist (b.) theory suggests a link between the environmental and biological factors in the process of acquiring language. According to Searle's Speech Act (c.) theory (1969), an individual is doing one of five things when talking: asserting, directing, commiserating, expressing and declaring. Searle's five illocutionary/perlocutionary points include: assertives, which are statements that may be viewed as true or false because they strive to describe a state of affairs in the world; directives, which are statements that attempt to make the other person's actions fit the propositional content; commissives are statements which commit the speaker to a course of action as described by the propositional content; expressives are statements that express the "sincerity condition of the speech act"; and declaratives are statements that attempt to change the world by "representing it as having been changed."

The assertion that language is natural and similarities in grammar are present in many different languages is associated with which theory of language acquisition? A. Behaviorist B. Interactionist C. Speech Act D. Nativist

D. Overall, the authoritative style of parenting (as compared to the authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved styles) has the most positive outcomes in children's growth and development - including academic achievement. However, researchers have found that the benefits of authoritative parenting are moderated by ethnicity. Specifically, Hispanics and African-Americans do not appear to benefit as much as Whites from having authoritative parenting. And, although Asian-Americans tend to do well academically, they are least likely to have authoritative parents.

The authoritative style of parenting typically results in better school performance among: A. Asians B. Hispanics C. African-Americans D. Whites

D. Howard Gardner initially defined intelligence as an ability to solve real-life problems, to generate new problems, and to create something meaningful or offer a service that is valued within a person's culture or local community. He developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalist.

The basic assumption of Howard Gardner's theory of intelligence is reflected best in which of the following statements: A. Intelligence is best defined in terms of the ability to deal with abstract concepts. B. Intelligence assessment requires the use of simple quantified measures such as paper-and-pencil tests. C. In assessing intelligence, learning to be an efficient processor of information is more important than genetic factors. D. In assessing intelligence, the society in which a person lives evaluates how intelligent a person is thought to be.

A. Most research has found that being raised by gay or lesbian parents does not increase the risk of negative developmental outcomes in children. For instance, a recent, comprehensive review of the literature found no support for the hypothesis that children of lesbians and children of heterosexual differ in terms of emotional health, interpersonal relations, sexual orientation, or gender development. The same review found that lesbian and heterosexual mothers do not differ significantly in terms of psychological adjustment or parenting skill.

The best overall conclusion about psychological outcomes for children who are raised by two lesbian parents is that: A. such children are no more likely to have negative developmental outcomes than children raised by heterosexual parents. B. boys raised by lesbian parents are more likely than girls to have negative developmental outcomes. C. girls raised by lesbian parents are more likely than boys to have negative developmental outcomes. D. regardless of their gender, such children are more likely to have negative developmental outcomes than children raised by heterosexual parents.

D. Among these four alternatives, it's probably the person who shows the most distress (misery) who would be the most motivated to seek and make use of treatment. Making the symptoms dystonic and difficult to bear will enhance motivation

The best predictor of therapy success would be: A. symptoms. B. dependency. C. previous treatment. D. misery.

A. The long-term outcome for autism is variable, but only a small percentage of individuals with the disorder live and work independently as adults. A better prognosis has been linked to the development of functional language skills by age five, an IQ over 70, and a later onset of symptoms

The best prognostic indicator for individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder is: A. early language ability B. severity of stereotyped behaviors C. level of impairment in social interaction D. presence of symptoms prior to two years of age

D. Infants' learning and cognitive development is promoted primarily through their own exploration of the environment around them. Meeting their physical needs helps ensure that they have the physical ability to explore the environment, and meeting their emotional needs helps ensure they have the security and confidence to do so. For this reason, the fourth choice is the best answer. Regarding choice one, problem solving tasks certainly will help an infant develop cognitively, but the wording of this choice makes it a weak answer. The infant should not have to be "supplied" with a problem-solving task as each new stimulus she encounters in the environment basically functions as one. Moreover, the choice suggests that the infant would be presented with one task per day, but infants who have the opportunity, strength, and confidence to explore their environment are presented with much more than a "daily" opportunity to solve problems.

The best strategy to stimulate an infant's learning and cognitive development would be to: A. supply the infant with a daily problem solving task. B. enroll the infant in preschool. C. expose the infant as early in infancy to the written word. D. ensure that the infant's physical and emotional needs are met.

C. All the choices refer to methods of recording behaviors that can be used by observational raters or researchers. In interval recording (the correct answer), the rater observes a subject at given intervals and notes whether or not the subject is engaging in the target behavior during that interval. For instance, a rater might observe a student for 10 seconds every three minutes and record whether on not the student is on-task during those 10 seconds. Interval recording is most useful for behaviors that do not have a fixed beginning or end — such as being on task. Frequency recording (a.) involves keeping count of the number of times a behavior occurs; this would not be practical in keeping track of whether or not a person is on task. Continuous recording (b.) involves recording all the behaviors of the target subject during each observation session. Although it's possible to keep track of whether a person is on-task using this method, it is not as practical or meaningful for this purpose as interval recording. Finally, duration recording (d.) involves recording the elapsed time during which the target behavior or behaviors occur. This would not be practical for a behavior that has no fixed beginning or end.

The best technique for evaluating an intervention intended to increase the time a student with ADHD stays academically on-task would be: A. frequency recording. B. continuous recording. C. interval recording. D. duration recording.

C. The key words in this question are "accurate and reliable." There is no laboratory test available which definitively confirms Alzheimer's Disease. Diagnosis of the disorder involves confirming that the diagnostic criteria are met and ruling out other possible causes of dementia. Diagnosis is aided by the use of neuroimaging techniques, such as computerized tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and positive-emission tomography (PET). Indeed, properly applied diagnostic techniques result in an 85% accuracy rate in diagnosing the disorder. However, at this time, the only way to absolutely confirm the diagnosis is with a brain biopsy or autopsy.

The best way to make an accurate and reliable diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease is by way of: A. ongoing observation of the patient. B. neuroimaging techniques. C. a brain biopsy. D. a mental status exam.

A. In empirical criterion keying, items are assessed to determine how well they distinguish between prespecified criterion groups (e.g., between depressed and non-depressed individuals). The items that best distinguish between the groups are maintained for the final version of the scale or the test.

The clinical scales of the MMPI-2 were developed using empirical criterion keying. This means that A. items which distinguish between specific subgroups of people are retained for the final version of the test. B. items that have high correlations with the previous version of the test are retained for the final version of the test. C. items that have high correlations with other tests designed to measure similar constructs are retained for the final version of the test. D. items which appear to measure what they are designed to measure are retained for the final version of the test.

A. The concordance rate for unrelated people living in a similar environment, into which category this question falls, is around .17. As the genetics get more similar, of course the rate increases, as you'd expect.

The concordance rate for IQ between children and adopted parents is around: A. .17. B. .33. C. .50. D. .60.

B. The concordance rate for Schizophrenia for biological siblings is about 10%. If you didn't know this, you might have been able to guess the correct answer. A rate of 60% or 45% probably should have seemed too high, and 0.5% is lower than the prevalence rate in the general population.

The concordance rate for Schizophrenia for biological (non-twin) siblings is: A. 45% B. 10% C. 0.5% D. 60%

B. The three tasks (friendship, occupation, and love) all involve social interactions which is most consistent with Adler's emphasis on social factors and need to belong (i.e., social interest). Adler held people are primarily motivated by an innate social interest and that the goal in life is to act in ways that fulfill social responsibilities

The conviction that love, friendship and occupation are the three major life tasks is most similar to the theory and beliefs of: A. Maslow. B. Adler. C. Rogers. D. Berne.

D. Nearly all of the neurons are present at birth, and continued development of the brain following birth is due primarily to an increased number of dendrites and myelination of the existing neurons.

The cortex is the least developed part of the brain at birth. Subsequent development is due primarily to: A. the growth of new neurons. B. the growth of new neurons and glial cells. C. increases in the size of existing neurons. D. myelination of existing neurons.

A. Mimesis is the term used to describe adopting a family's communication and affective style and is one way of joining the family system

The initial stage in structural family therapy is to "join" the family system. To do so, which of the following would be most useful? A. mimesis B. enactment C. positioning D. alignment

A. The term Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) refers to a set of severe and complex deficits in children produced by prolonged and heavy maternal alcohol use during pregnancy. Symptoms vary depending on the amount of alcohol consumed; typical features included growth retardation, microcephaly, irritability, and a variety of physical illnesses. In most cases, the symptoms are irreversible.©

The effects of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome: A. are irreversible and long-term. B. remit within the first six months in about 25% of cases. C. are reversible if proper nutrition is provided to the child. D. remit by the age of six except for lingering learning difficulties.

A. Research by Kochanska (1997) has indicated that toddlers' level of fearfulness mediates the effects of parental discipline. Specifically, the use of "gentle discipline" was found more effective for the development of conscience among fearful toddlers than among fearless toddlers. Fearless toddlers, on the other hand, developed conscience better through the use of a secure mother-child attachment. It should be noted that these results were primarily found during the toddler years and were not significant or were less significant when reassessed during preschool years

The effects of parental discipline on the development of conscience in toddlers is mediated by the toddlers' level of: A. fearfulness B. intelligence C. activity level D. pain threshold

A. There are a number of different types of correlation coefficients. The most common is the Pearson r, which is used to measure the relationship between two quantitative variables assumed to be related in a linear way. When a nonlinear relationship is assumed, the eta coefficient can be used instead. A linear relationship is one where as the value of one variable increases the other increases (positive correlation), or where as the value of one variable increases the other decreases (negative correlation). For example, the correlation between height and weight will be positive and linear; the correlation between income and health problems will be negative and linear. In a nonlinear relationship, variables are related but not in this linear fashion. An example would be a depression drug that has no effect at low dose, decreases symptoms at moderate doses, and increases symptoms at very high doses. Here there would be a non-linear relationship between dosage and depression level. Regarding the other choices, the phi coefficient can be used to measure the correlation between two dichotomous variables (i.e., variables that can take one of two values). The point-biserial coefficient is used to measure the correlation between a dichotomous variable and a quantitative variable. And Spearman's rho is used to measure the correlations between two sets of ranked data

The eta correlation ratio would be used to: A. estimate the strength of a nonlinear relationship. B. measure the relationship between two dichotomous variables. C. estimate the strength of a relationship between a dichotomous variable and a quantitative variable. D. measure the relationship of variables measured by ranks.

C. Longitudinal research by John M. Gottman and his colleagues investigated the interactions between married couples that predict divorce. The results indicated a combination of criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling, referred to as the "four horseman of the Apocalypse," is associated with a high risk for early divorce. This is considered to be the first seven years of marriage, which is when half of all divorces are known to occur. The suppression of affect, both positive and negative, is predictive of later divorce or the period during which the first child reaches 14 years of age.

The findings from longitudinal research on divorce risk factors by John M. Gottman and his colleagues indicate: A. suppression of negative affect is associated with a high risk of divorce B. suppression of negative and positive affect is associated with a high risk of early divorce C. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling predicts a high risk of early divorce D. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling predicts a high risk of later divorce

D. To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you'd need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You'd have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements

The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be: A. maturation. B. selection. C. regression. D. history.

B. The area of the brain referred to as the "midbrain" is also known as the mesencephalon and is divided into two regions: the tectum and the tegmentum. The substantia nigra (a.) is located in the tegmentum and is part of the brain's sensorimotor system. The inferior colliculus (c.) is part of the tectum and is involved in audition. The superior colliculus (d.) is also part of the tectum and mediates vision. The hypothalamus is located in the diencephalon. The diencephalon and the telencephalon make up the forebrain.

The mesencephalon does not contain which of the following? A. substantia nigra B. hypothalamus C. inferior colliculus D. superior colliculus

D. Research on the efficacy of biofeedback for pain reduction indicates that it is as effective as treatments such as relaxation training. This is true for the treatment of most disorders or conditions, however in cases such as the treatment of Raynaud's Disease or migraine headaches, some studies suggest that biofeedback is the treatment of choice

The most correct statement that can be made about biofeedback as a therapeutic treatment for pain reduction is that: A. the significant effects found can be accounted for by the type of instrumentation employed. B. it is effective for certain types of patients only. C. its effectiveness has diminished over the years. D. it is probably no different from relaxation training in its effectiveness.

B. The development of tolerance and dependence quickly occurs from regular use of morphine. Abrupt discontinuation of regular morphine use produces a withdrawal syndrome resembling a moderately severe case of the flu that is associated with vomiting, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal and muscle cramps, chills, runny nose and eyes, and insomnia. Rebound refers to when a drug is discontinued and the symptom for which the drug was initially prescribed reoccurs in greater severity. Rebound anxiety and insomnia (a.) are characteristic of benzodiazepine withdrawal. Delirium tremens (DT) (c.) is a potentially fatal form of alcohol withdrawal with symptoms that can include altered mental status (e.g., confusion, hallucinations, severe agitation, disorientation, stupor or loss of consciousness), soaking sweats, sleep disturbances or generalized seizures.

The most likely result of sudden morphine withdrawal is: A. rebound anxiety and insomnia B. flu-like symptoms C. delirium tremens D. blackouts

D. The Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude has 12 subtests and was specifically developed and standardized for deaf and hearing impaired children between the ages of 3 and 16. The other response choices are also non-verbal tests of intelligence. The Leiter International Performance Scale (a.) is appropriate for children with reading or speaking problems between the ages of 2 and 18. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale (b.) yields IQ scores for children ages 3 years 6 months through 9 years 11 months and is also appropriate for children with speaking or reading difficulties as well as with sensorimotor disorders. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (c.) can be used with ages 2 years 6 months through adulthood and is appropriate for children with expressive language disorders and a limited expressive vocabulary but not hearing problems

The nonverbal measure of intelligence developed specifically for deaf and hearing-impaired children is: A. Leiter International Performance Scale B. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale C. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test D. The Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude

A. Prader-Willi syndrome and cru-du-chat are two disorders caused by a chromosomal deletion which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. A chromosomal translocation (b.) occurs when a section of a chromosome is attached to another chromosome. An extra chromosome (c.) results in disorders such as Down Syndrome and Klinefelter Syndrome. A missing chromosome (d.) causes a disorder like Turner Syndrome which occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome

The number of babies born with a chromosomal abnormality is approximately 1 in 200. Characterized by mental retardation and extreme obesity, Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by: A. a chromosomal deletion B. a chromosomal translocation C. an extra chromosome D. a missing chromosome

Rational-emotive therapy

Therapeutic approach that views irrational thoughts as the cause of clients? problems and that the maintenance of problems is due primarily to self-indoctrination

B. When a person taking an MAOI consumes food containing tyramine, a life-threatening tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis may occur. The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating. Common side effects of the MAOIs include orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, and edema (c.) as well as paresthesias, myoclonus, and muscle pain (d.). Irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia (a.) are symptoms of serotonin syndrome, which may occur when an MAOI and an SSRI are taken together.

The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include: A. irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia. B. headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating. C. orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, and edema. D. paresthesias, myoclonus, and muscle pain.

A. The strongest bond in Hispanic-American families is most often found between parent and child, and especially the mother-son and father-son relationships

The strongest bond among Hispanic-American families is typically between: A. parent and child B. husband and wife C. siblings D. godparent and godchild

B. The Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE) is a simplified, scored form of the cognitive mental status examination. It is "mini" because it concentrates only on the cognitive aspects of mental functions, and unlike the Mental Status Exam, excludes questions concerning abnormal mental experiences (a.), the form of thinking (c.) and mood (d.). It is thorough within the cognitive realm assessing orientation, memory, attention and calculation, registration and language. The MMSE includes eleven questions, requires only 5-10 minutes to administer and is practical to use serially and routinely. It is especially useful for elderly patients, particularly those with delirium or dementia syndromes, or those who can cooperate well only for short periods

The questions on the Mini-Mental Status Exam concentrate on: A. abnormal mental experiences B. cognitive aspects of mental functions C. the form of thinking D. mood or affective aspects of mental functions

A. Gender concept develops in a predictable sequence of stages during childhood. The first stage is known as "gender identity," which is the ability to categorize self and others as male or female. There is evidence that gender identity develops as early as 9 months or as late as 3 years, depending on how the researchers define it. The next stage, which develops by 4 years of age, is "gender stability," which is an understanding that one's gender does not change over time. The final stage is known as "gender constancy," which is characterized by an understanding that gender stays the same despite changes in appearance. Gender constancy is achieved by age 5 or 6

The realization that gender is unaffected by superficial changes in appearance or activity is referred to as: A. gender constancy B. gender stability C. gender identity D. ego-dystonic transvestism

A. Sampling error is the extent to which a sample value deviates from the corresponding population value which it is supposed to represent. Thus, the smaller the sample size, the greater the risk of sampling error. You should have been able to eliminate reliability ("B") and validity ("C"), since those are characteristics of a test - which is not applied until after the sampling procedure. Sampling error, as it's name implies, takes place during the sampling or selection of subjects. A confounding variable ("D"), is a variable that is not of interest in a study but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Thus it would threaten the internal validity of a test but it is not related to sampling error

The risk of sampling error is greatest when a: A. sample size is small B. test has low reliability C. test has low validity D. confounding variable exists

C. Paresthesia may be transient or chronic. Transient paresthesia of the hands and feet are common symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome, panic attacks or pressure on a nerve that inhibits or stimulates its function. Chronic paresthesia indicates a problem with the functioning of neurons which may be the result of poor circulation in the limbs, vitamin deficiency or malnutrition, metabolic disorders like diabetes and hypothyroidism, nerve irritation from tissue inflammation, rheumatoid arthritis, carpal tunnel syndrome, muscle cramps as a result of anxiety or excessive stress, poor posture, heavy lifting, or physical trauma or direct damage to the nerves. Chronic paresthesia may also be symptomatic of serious conditions, such as autoimmune disorders (e.g., multiple sclerosis or lupus erythematosus) and herpes zoster or shingles. Neuroglycopenia (a.) refers to a shortage of glucose in the brain, usually due to hypoglycemia, which affects brain functioning and behavior and can cause permanent brain damage if prolonged. Hemiparesis (b.) is weakness on one side of the body (versus hemiplegia, or total paralysis of the leg, arm, and trunk on the same side of the body). Hyperglycemia (d.), or high blood sugar, is a condition in which an excessive amount of glucose circulates in the blood.

The sensation of tingling, pricking, or numbness of an individual's skin, more generally known as the feeling of "pins and needles" or a limb "falling asleep" is referred to as: A. neuroglycopenia B. hemiparesis C. paresthesia D. hyperglycemia

D. There is currently no one single behavioral or biological marker that definitively confirms a diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease in a patient who has symptoms of dementia. The diagnosis is made by confirming the presence of characteristic symptoms with a mental status exam and behavioral observation and then ruling out other possible causes. CT scans and MRI exams can aid this process, but there is no specific finding that will definitively confirm the diagnosis. The only way to confirm the diagnosis with 100% accuracy is with a brain autopsy after death.

The single best way to definitively confirm a diagnosis of Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Alzheimer's Disease: A. brain imaging techniques. B. comprehensive lab work. C. a mental status exam. D. brain autopsy after death.

A. Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to evaluate the causal (predictive) influences or test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors. Cluster analysis (b.) is used to identify homogeneous subgroups in a heterogeneous collection of observations. Q-technique factor analysis (c.) determines how many types of people a sample of people represents. Survival analysis (d.) is used to assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event.

The technique which allows a researcher to identify the underlying (latent) factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors is: A. structural equation modeling (SEM) B. cluster analysis C. Q-technique factor analysis D. survival analysis

D. Narrative Therapy is premised on the notion that our identities are based on the stories we tell ourselves about our lives, or our narratives. Narrative therapists work to help people (they reject the term "client') fully describe these stories, and restructure and reframe their stories and thereby their identities. The therapist adopts a co-operative and egalitarian stance, and works to help the person discover his own narrative rather than imposing one. Some techniques associated with Narrative Therapy include 1) naming the problem, which encourages focus, precision, and control; 2) externalizing the problem, which involves framing the problem as having an effect on, rather than being within, the person (e.g., "depression invaded your life"), the goal being to separate the problem from the person's identity; 3) relative influence questioning, which involves contrasting the effect the problem has had on the person's life with the effect that the person's life has had on the problem (i.e., the control over the problem the person has had); 4) deconstructing unique outcomes, whereby the therapist encourages the person to focus and expand on experiences that are not consistent with a problem-saturated narrative; and 5) outsider witness, in which a third party is brought into the therapy session and the person tells this witness his revised or developing life narrative. Therapy ends when the person's story is revised to the point that it is rich enough to sustain a healthy future

The techniques of "externalizing" a problem, relative influence questioning, and bringing an "outside witness" into the therapy session are most associated with: A. Structural Therapy B. Systemic Therapy C. Dialectical Behavioral Therapy D. Narrative Therapy

B. Underextension is the tendency to use a general word to mean one very specific thing (e.g., "baba" meaning one's own bottle or "cat" to describe a pet but not other cats). In contrast, overextension (c.) refers to children's tendency to use words to describe a broader class of objects than adults do (e.g., calling all animals "cat"). Source misattributions occur when individuals misremember the time, place, person, or circumstances involved with a memory. Misattribution (d.), in this context, means ascribing words to a person who did not use them.

The tendency for children to use words to describe a smaller class of objects than adults do is referred to as: A. under-usage B. underextension C. overextension D. misattribution

A. The term "best practices" is defined as approaches to counseling practice that have empirical evidence to support their effectiveness. It is one way managed care companies and practitioners strive to maintain accountability for costs of services and clinical decision making, as well as ascertain the most effective practices available to individuals.

The term "best practices" refers to: A. empirical evidence to support effectiveness of counseling approaches B. counselor characteristics that contribute to increased effectiveness. C. matching certain client problems with specific counseling models D. clinical decision making accountability and concerns for service costs

D. While adults 65 years and older generally report the most memories for events that occurred within the ten years before being evaluated, the next largest recall of autobiographical memories is from adolescence and early adulthood. In other words, recent and remote events are more frequently recalled than intermediate events

The term "reminiscence bump" refers to the increased number of autobiographical memories older adults have for events that happened between the ages of: A. 40-50 B. 35-45 C. 25-35 D. 15-25

B. According to Glasser's Reality Therapy, when an individual is capable of fulfilling his or her own needs for survival, power, belonging, freedom and fun, without harming self or infringing on the rights of others, then he or she has developed a "success identity." When the needs are met irresponsibly then the individual has developed a "failure identity." Bern (a.) is associated with transactional analysis (TA); Perls (c.) is associated with gestalt therapy; and Rogers (d.) is associated with client-centered therapy

The term "success identity" is associated with: A. Eric Berne B. William Glasser C. Fritz Perls D. Carl Rogers

C. J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence. Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or "thinking out of the box." Galton (a.) postulated that intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone (b.) applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities (that individuals possess varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence). Cattell's (d.) theory distinguished between fluid and crystallized intelligence.

The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with: A. Galton B. Thurstone C. Guilford D. Cattell

A. The assumption in psychoanalytic psychotherapy is that the therapist's neutrality allows the client to project onto the therapist positive or negative feelings he or she originally had for another significant person in the past. Analysis is the primary technique, and the primary targets of analysis are the client's free associations, resistances, transferences, and dreams. In some forms of cognitive therapy (response "B"), the therapist may be quite confrontive and challenge a client's cognitions and behaviors rather than remaining consistently neutral. Reality therapy (response "C") is also a confrontive form of therapy: It strives to teach clients specific behaviors that will enable them to fulfill their needs and the therapist-client relationship is viewed as a crucial aspect of therapy. Reality therapists also model responsible behaviors for their clients. Finally, client-centered, or Rogerian, therapy (response "D") is based on the assumption that if the right environment is provided by the therapist, a client will be able to achieve congruence between self and experience and be carried by his or her own innate tendency toward self-actualization. The "right environment" includes three facilitative conditions: unconditional positive regard, accurate empathic understanding, and genuineness or congruence

The therapist intentionally stays neutral in which therapeutic approach? A. psychoanalytic B. cognitive C. reality D. client-centered

D. The prenatal period is divided into three phases: the germinal, embryonic, and fetal (or foetal) stages. The first and shortest stage of prenatal development is the germinal stage which takes place during the first two weeks following conception. This stage is characterized by methodical cell division and attachment to the wall of the uterus resulting in zygote development. The embryonic stage takes place two to eight weeks following fertilization. Significant growth occurs in the major organs and body systems at this point and this is when an embryo is most vulnerable to environmental influences, miscarriage (spontaneous abortion) due to serious birth defects or problems with uterus. The foetal, or fetal, stage begins about eight weeks after conception and continues until birth (38 weeks + or -2). A developing fetus increases dramatically in size and weight while the organs become more differentiated and operational.

The three phases of prenatal development are: A. fetal, embryonic, neonatal. B. embryonic, germinal, fetal. C. neonatal, embryonic, foetal. D. germinal, embryonic, foetal.

D. Much research supports the generally accepted conclusion that in-vivo exposure with response prevention is a preferred treatment for Agoraphobia as well as for a number of other Anxiety Disorders

The treatment-of-choice for Agoraphobia is: A. participant modeling. B. implosive therapy. C. systematic desensitization. D. in-vivo exposure with response prevention.

D. Pooled variance is the weighted average variance for each group. They are "weighted" based on the number of subjects in each group. Use of a pooled variance assumes that the population variances are approximately the same, even though the sample variances differ

The use of "pooled variance" in statistics assumes that: A. the sample sizes are equal B. the sample variances are equal C. the population sizes are equal D. the population variances are equal

D. The research has confirmed that bilateral ECT produces both anterograde and retrograde amnesia, especially for events that occurred immediately before and after the procedure. In contrast, unilateral ECT to the nondominant (usually right) hemisphere produces less anterograde and retrograde amnesia.

The use of electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) to treat depression is controversial because it can cause memory loss and other undesirable side effects. However, research comparing unilateral and bilateral ECT suggests that: A. unilateral ECT to the dominant hemisphere reduces the risk for retrograde and anterograde amnesia. B. bilateral ECT reduces the risk for retrograde amnesia but increases the risk for anterograde amnesia. C. unilateral ECT to either hemisphere reduces the risk for anterograde amnesia but increases the risk for retrograde amnesia. D. unilateral ECT to the nondominant hemisphere reduces the risk for retrograde and anterograde amnesia.

Network Therapy

Therapeutic approach where the client's family, friends, and relatives (i.e. the client's network) are brought together, through the therapist's initiative, to implement the therapeutic process

C. One of the main characteristics of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship between the client and therapist. Feminist therapists consider self-disclosure with clients as a way of supporting an egalitarian relationship. Therapist self-disclosure may be used to encourage client participation (a.), but this response isn't as good as (c.) in describing the role of self-disclosure in feminist therapy. Feminist therapy discourages client passivity (b.) and feminist therapists typically discourage special bonding as it may encourage client dependence on the therapist

Therapist self-disclosure in feminist therapy: A. encourages participation by the client in the early stages of therapy. B. promotes client passivity in the therapeutic relationship. C. contributes to an egalitarian relationship between the client and therapist. D. facilitates a special bonding between the therapist and the client.

C. A number of authors have noted that elderly individuals tend to vary greatly -- even more so than younger people -- in terms of physical abilities, intellectual abilities, interests, and personality characteristics. The other choices represent myths or stereotypes about the elderly that should be avoided.

Therapists working with elderly patients should be aware that: A. elderly patients have very poor memory. B. elderly patients cannot benefit much from psychotherapy. C. individual differences among elderly patients are greater than individual differences among younger patients. D. elderly people tend to drop out of therapy prematurely.

D. There is evidence that individuals with Anorexia Nervosa have higher-than-normal levels of serotonin, which causes anxiety and irritability and that food restriction lowers serotonin levels, which reduces unpleasant feelings. In other words, food restriction acts as a type of self-medication

There's evidence that people with Anorexia Nervosa engage in food restriction because doing so __________ which, in turn, reduces anxiety and irritability. A. raises serotonin levels B. lowers epinephrine levels C. raises epinephrine levels D. lowers serotonin levels

C. Only C is a requirement of the Buckley Amendment. Written consent is not needed in the situation described in choice A, as long as the parents have been notified of the transfer of records to the new school. And although the records must be supplied in the situation presented in B, identifying information must be removed from the records

To be consistent with the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (the Buckley Amendment), a school counselor must keep in mind that: A. it is necessary to obtain the signed consent of a student's parents before releasing any information from the student's file to officials of another school where the student is planning to enroll. B. student records, including identifying information, must be released to designated federal and state educational authorities if needed in connection with the evaluation of federally-sponsored educational programs. C. parents have the right not only to inspect and review their children's school records but also to challenge the contents of records. D. all of the above.

A. You should memorize the different correlation coefficients and when they are used. The point-biserial coefficient is used when a dichotomous variable (e.g., gender) is correlated with continuous variable (e.g., IQ score). You might have thought the biserial coefficient is also correct, since it is used to correlate an artificial dichotomy with a continuous variable. An artificial dichotomy is one that is created arbitrarily by setting a cutoff score on a test; for instance, if you give the WAIS-III and classify everybody who scores over 110 as having "high intelligence" and everybody who scores below 110 as having "low intelligence," you have created an artificial dichotomy. Because an artificial dichotomy is not, in a pure sense, a dichotomous variable, choice B is not as good an answer as choice A.

To determine the relationship between a dichotomous variable and a continuous variable, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients? A. point biserial B. biserial C. Spearman's Rho D. eta

C. There are a variety of approaches to the treatment of aggression in children; the cognitive-behavioral approach is probably most common. In children who are older or developmentally advanced enough to understand, cognitive approaches tend to focus on helping the person accurately interpret external cues, so that he or she does not respond inappropriately with aggression. In younger children, the goal is often to identify the child's goals, the negative consequences of using aggression to meet those goals, and alternatives to aggression. The other choices are not as likely to be helpful: consistent discipline is good, but contrary to choice A, overly harsh discipline can serve to increase the child's aggression. Reinforcement for alternative behaviors is not a proven method of directly addressing aggression. And the notion that aggression is something that can be released through venting it on a safe target (or, by the way, watching it on TV) has not been supported -- apparently, engaging in aggressive behavior only leads to more of the same.

To reduce a child's aggressive behavior, the best approach is to: A. punish the aggression consistently and harshly. B. use differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors. C. identify the consequences of the behavior and alternatives to it. D. have the child vent his or her aggressive feelings by hitting a pillow.

D. The "rebound effect" occurs when a benzodiazepine is discontinued and wears off. The symptoms come back stronger and the initial symptoms are magnified. When the medication is stopped, individuals can experience withdrawal symptoms as well as experience a "rebound" or resurgence of the feelings or condition the drug was originally managing. Essentially, the body/brain reacts to the drug by trying to overcome its effect, and once the drug is stopped that overreaction continues for awhile until it "gets through" to the body/brain that there is no longer a chemical to fight against. The symptoms lessen as the body readjusts to life without the chemicals. This "rebound effect" is also common for other conditions and drugs, such as rebound sinus congestion after frequent use of nasally inhaled decongestants or rebound headaches after a long-term course of painkillers for someone suffering from chronic headaches.

Use of benzodiazepines is associated with a "rebound effect." If an individual is experiencing "rebound anxiety," this refers to: A. an initial paradoxical increase in anxiety B. anxiety persisting even after increasing dosage C. anxiety re-appearing after long-term usage of the drug D. an increase in severity of anxiety temporarily following the discontinuation of the drug

C. Vygotsky stressed the importance of social and cultural impact on the developing child much more than Piaget did. These factors included the family and the child's milieu

What did Vygotsky stress over Piaget? A. developmental levels of specific children B. Cognitive development of children C. Their relationship with others in the family D. The importance of the accommodation stage

D. Research has identified a number of factors associated with poorer adjustment in children whose parents divorce. For instance, rapid remarriage of one or both parents is predictive of poorer adjustment. The other suggestions are likely to be helpful (or at worst, benign): exposure to parental conflict, parental continuance of an unhappy marriage, and failure to allow children to establish a relationship with the noncustodial parent are all factors associated with poorer long-term adjustment in children of divorce

What is the least helpful suggestion you can give to parents when they are going through a divorce or marital conflict? A. avoid exposing the children to any conflicts B. allow the children to participate in decisions regarding visitation rights C. in the long run, it is better for the children if you divorce than if you remain in an unhappy marriage D. remarry as soon as possible

C. In the area of language development and acquisition, "bootstrapping" refers to how a child must somehow "lift him/herself up by his/her bootstraps" to begin formulating a grammar for the language. Syntactic bootstrapping proposes that the sentence structure surrounding a new word provides clues to its meaning and, in this case, the language-learning child uses his/her developed syntactic knowledge to help learn the meaning of new words. Semantic bootstrapping (d.) refers to the idea that children utilize conceptual knowledge to create grammatical categories. Under this approach, the meanings of words are used to identify the semantic category and then are inferred or "bootstrapped" to the syntax. Prosodic bootstrapping (a.) suggests children find and use clues to syntactic structure of language in the prosodic (intonation, stress) characteristics of the speech they hear. Phonological bootstrapping (b.) refers to the hypothesis that clues to the grammar of language are found in phonological (sound) properties of the speech heard

When a child finds and uses clues from the context of a sentence to learn the meaning of a new word, this is referred to as: A. prosodic bootstrapping B. phonological bootstrapping C. syntactic bootstrapping D. semantic bootstrapping

C. Mean square within (or MSW) is a measure of within-group variance -- the degree to which subjects within the same experimental group differ from each other. MSW is the denominator of the F ratio, and is referred to as the error term. The larger the magnitude of MSW, the less likely the F ratio will be significant.

Which of the following is a statistical measure of the degree of difference among scores of subjects within the same experimental or treatment group? A. F ratio B. mean square between C. mean square within D. standard error of the mean

B. The term phenomenology refers to subjective experience. Phenomenology formed the basis of person-centered psychotherapy, the school of psychotherapy founded by Carl Rogers. He was influenced by the work of Combs and Snygg, who defined the "phenomenal field" as "the entire universe, including himself, as it is experienced by the individual at the instant of action...it is the universe...in which each individual lives, the everyday situation of self and surrounding which each person takes to be reality." Rogers believed that the therapist's goal was to get closer to this phenomenal field; his method included listening to the person's report of recent subjective experiences, and paraphrasing or rephrasing these reports. Rogers also believed that self-actualization was a goal of therapy, but the term phenomenology refers to subjective experience, not self-actualization.

When a psychologist takes a phenomenological approach, this means that she focuses on: A. unconscious determinants of behavior. B. subjective experience. C. behavioral antecedents of behavior. D. self-actualization.

C. In general, consultants work with the teachers and parents rather than individual students. With the Adlerian model, preventive interventions are emphasized and the consultants educate the parents and teachers. (Dustin and Ehly 1992).

When a psychologist working out of the Adlerian model serves as a consultant in a school, they: A. Work primarily with the school B. Identify the areas of inferiority within the system C. Primarily educate the parents and teachers through an emphasis on preventive interventions D. Reverse roles--having the teachers see themselves as children and the students as parents in the family school system.

B. Healthy paranoia refers to the phenomenon whereby clients from ethnic minority populations present as generally suspicious, but their behavior has more to do with a reaction to discrimination and racism than a personal problem. Often, this issue can interfere with the therapist-client relationship and needs to be addressed directly. Therapists also must keep this possibility in mind before assigning a diagnosis of psychopathology to such clients

When applied to work with a client from an ethnic minority population, the term "healthy paranoia" refers to: A. a lack of awareness on the part of the therapist of the client's cultural norms. B. a client's problems reflecting to some degree a rational response to discrimination. C. a client with a family history of paranoia who displays only minimal signs of paranoia. D. a client who refuses to work with a therapist who is not from the same background.

B. The feminist approach to psychotherapy rests on the assumption that social roles and socialization are important determinants of behavior. Psychological conflicts are then alternative roles and options. A primary goal is empowerment or helping women become more self-defining and self-determining.

When comparing feminist therapy to a more psychodynamic approach, feminist theory: A. Disallows the mother's role B. Takes factors other than a woman's view of herself into consideration C. Relies much more on the emphasis of the biological mother D. Encourages women to call men to task for the oppression of women

B. Nonparametric methods were developed to be used in cases when the researcher knows nothing about the parameters of the variable of interest in the population (hence the name nonparametric). In more technical terms, nonparametric methods do not rely on the estimation of parameters (such as the mean or the standard deviation) describing the distribution of the variable of interest in the population. Therefore, these methods are also sometimes (and more appropriately) called parameter-free methods or distribution-free methods

When processing data of "low quality," from small samples, or on variables about which nothing is known concerning their distribution, which statistical procedure would be most appropriate? A. parametric B. non-parametric C. path analysis D. discriminant function analysis

C. A conversion V pattern on the MMPI-2 occurs when the scale 2 (depression) score is significantly lower than scores on scales 1 (hypochondriasis) and 3 (hysteria). This pattern is characteristic of individuals with a tendency to somaticize psychological problems, have chronic pain with an organic etiology, have conversion disorder or other somatoform disorder. In the defensive profile (a.) pattern, the F scale score is significantly lower than scores on the L and K scales and indicates an attempt to present in a favorable light. In the psychotic V, or paranoid valley, (d.) pattern, the scale 7 score is significantly lower than scores on scales 6 and 8. In the passive-aggressive V (b.) pattern, the scale 5 score is significantly lower than scores on scales 4 and 6.

When scores on the MMPI scales 1 and 3 are higher than on scale 2, this pattern is referred to as a: A. defensive profile B. passive-aggressive V C. conversion V D. psychotic V

B. The "operations stages" refer to Piaget's concrete operations and formal operations stages. The stages prior to the operations stages are the sensorimotor and "preoperations," which, as its name implies, occurs before the development of operations abilities. The development of decentration and reversibility form the basis for conservation, which is the characteristic achievement of concrete operations (7 to 12 years). Object permanence (D) is achieved during the sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years). Symbolic thought (C) develops during the preoperations stage (2 to 7 years) resulting in the development of language and pretend play. Magical thinking (A) is also characteristic of preoperational thought.

Which of the following is achieved during the operations stages? A. magical thinking B. decentration C. symbolic thought D. object permanence

C. Ecological fallacy is a logic error that occurs when trying to prove causation, levels of data are mismatched and statistics are applied at one level to infer to data of another level. Tautology (a.) is a logic error based on circular reasoning, meaning that something is true by definition or the dependent variable is simply a restatement of the independent variable. Teleology (b.) is a logic error which explains a phenomenon by saying that it was some spirit or higher power that causes the relationship. Latent coding (d.) occurs when a researcher reads into the meaning of the content he/she is analyzing to get data rather than simply taking it at face value. This is in contrast to manifest coding which occurs in content analysis when coding content is based on the face-value rather than looking into the meaning.

When trying to prove causation, a researcher mismatches levels of data and tries to apply statistics at one level to infer to data of another level. This is referred to as: A. tautology B. teleology C. ecological fallacy D. latent coding

D. Although research on the results of sex therapy is limited, findings indicate that sex therapy for vaginismus (a.) and erectile dysfunction (b.) is highly effective in the short- and long-term (one to six years). Results for premature ejaculation however suggest short-term success but less permanent results. Low sexual desire in men shows a relatively poor treatment response (c.) in the short- and long-term and the long-term results of treatment for low sexual desire in women is also relatively poor (d.). Some studies suggest clients that receive an occasional "booster" session, post-treatment may maintain better improvement through preventive measures and even though some individuals had returned to pretreatment dysfunctions in sexual behavior, sex therapy yielded an improvement in the way a many felt about their sexuality.

Whether sex therapy results in sustained change over time appears to vary depending on the presenting problem. According to outcome research on sex therapy, which of the following is not true? A. Sex therapy for vaginismus is highly effective in the short and long-term. B. Sex therapy for erectile dysfunction is highly effective in the short and long-term. C. Low sexual desire in men shows a relatively poor treatment response in the short and long-term. D. Low sexual desire in women shows a relatively poor treatment response in the short-term but is highly effective in the long-term.

A. The cause of Intellectual Disability may be biological, psychosocial, or a combination of the two. Of the etiological factors listed in the answers, chromosomal abnormalities are the most common factor and account for about 30% of all cases.

Which of the following accounts for the most cases of Intellectual Disability? A. chromosomal abnormalities B. perinatal complications C. medical conditions during infancy or childhood D. heredity

A. Confidence intervals allow us to determine the range within which an examinee's true score on a test is likely to fall, given his or her obtained score. The standard error of measurement (b.) is used to construct confidence intervals, not the other way around

Which of the following best describes confidence intervals use? A. estimate true scores from obtained scores B. calculate the standard error of measurement C. calculate the test's mean D. calculate the standard deviation

B. Reframing is a technique of family therapy, especially structural and strategic family therapy. It involves relabeling or redefining a problem behavior in order to get the family to see it in a new light. For example, a therapist might tell a family that a child who frequently "talks back" is expressing insecurity and the need for love, rather than anger and disrespect. The purpose of reframing is usually to increase the family's compliance with treatment. In the example given, reframing might increase the family members' willingness to make changes in their own behavior, rather than focusing only on the identified patient.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of reframing in family therapy? A. It is a paradoxical technique designed to harness the family's resistance in the service of positive behavioral change. B. It is designed to increase the family's compliance with the therapist's directives and the treatment plan in general. C. It is designed to restore the family's homeostasis, or "balance." D. It is designed to increase the family's ability to differentiate intellectual from emotional functioning.

B. Insecure infant attachment is usually characterized by either overly inhibited or inappropriately indiscriminate social responses to social interactions. The cause is usually pathogenic care, such as disregard for the child's basic physical or emotional needs or repeated changes of primary caregiver. The DMS-IV-TR disorder that involves these attachment disturbances is called Reactive Attachment Disorder. In a number of longitudinal studies, insecure patterns of attachment consistently have been found to be related to conduct problems in both preschool and school age children, especially in lower SES populations. However, the reverse is not true. Conduct problems in childhood are more common than markedly insecure attachment behaviors, and they are associated with multiple precursors besides insecure attachment. In fact, the DSM-IV explicitly states "Disturbances of attachment in the early years may increase the risk for antisocial behavior in later childhood and adolescence, but antisocial behaviors are not necessarily signs of Reactive Attachment Disorder."

Which of the following best describes the results of longitudinal research investigating the relationship between insecure infant attachment and childhood conduct problems? A. There is little or no relationship between insecure infant attachment and childhood conduct problems. B. Insecure infant attachment is a good predictor of later childhood conduct problems. C. Current childhood conduct problems are a good predictor of past insecure infant attachment. D. Both insecure infant attachment and childhood conduct problems are good predictors of each other.

C. You probably could have answered this question just by using what you know about cognitive therapy and behavioral therapy -- you did not really need to know much about pain management. Behavioral treatments for managing pain tend to emphasize the importance of environmental contingencies (e.g., avoidance of work, sympathy) in maintaining pain, while cognitive techniques focus on the patient's beliefs -- particularly beliefs about control over his or her own life and therefore over his or her pain. Of course, this is consistent with the principles of cognitive-behavioral treatments in general.

Which of the following best describes the underlying assumptions of the use of cognitive-behavioral techniques for pain management? A. Since pain, to a large extent, is due to tension, it is important to incorporate relaxation techniques into treatment. B. Chronic pain is connected to early childhood experiences, such as modeling of the sick role by parents. C. The environmental contingencies associated with the display of symptoms and the person's perception of control over symptoms must be attended to. D. Chronic pain has a variety of social, cultural, and economic causes.

A. Most research has found that girls have more difficulty adjusting to their mother's remarriage than do boys. This is particularly the case during childhood and early adolescence. Older adolescent males, on the other hand, often continue to have problems with the adjustment. The reverse of choice C is true; that is, stepmothers typically have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepfathers, although these interactions are often abrasive. And in contrast to choice D, stepparents have been found to rely heavily on authoritarian (rather than authoritative) parenting.

Which of the following best reflects the research findings on stepparenting? A. During late childhood and early adolescence males respond more positively to their stepfathers than do females. B. During late childhood and early adolescence females respond more positively to their stepfathers than do males. C. Stepfathers have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepmothers. D. Stepparents most often utilize an authoritative parenting style.

D. A correlation coefficient is a numerical value between -1 and +1 that expresses the strength and direction of the relationship between two variables. The negative or positive sign indicates the direction of the relationship, not its strength. So to determine which of these correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship, you have to consider the number alone and disregard the sign. Therefore, of the four choices, -0.84 represents the strongest relationship. To illustrate: let's say there is a strong negative relationship between income and unhappiness; hypothetically, we'll say that the correlation between yearly income and scores on the Beck Depression Inventory is -0.84. The "negative" part indicates the direction of the relationship and means that as one variable increases (income), the other (BDI scores) decreases. But the negative direction has nothing to do with the strength or weakness of the relationship; in this case, the relationship is negative and strong. Now consider a weak positive relationship, say between income and finger length. Hypothetically, let's say that the correlation is +0.10. A positive relationship means that the values of both variables tend to increase together. In this case, the relationship is very weak and any correlation between the two would be due to random chance factors alone. So in other words, positive or negative have nothing to do with the strength of a correlation; there can be strong negative correlations and weak positive ones (and vice versa of course).

Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest predictive relationship between two variables? A. +0.76 B. +0.09 C. -0.01 D. -0.84

D. The SPECT (single proton emission computed tomography) (as well as the PET or positron emission tomography) is used to measure blood flow in the brain using radioactive isotopes. It is, therefore, used to assess brain functioning (rather than structure). You can remember that this device uses color scale imaging since the acronym "SPECT " can also be thought of as an abbreviation for "spectrum." The other imaging devices (X-Ray, CT, and MRI) are used for identifying structures.

Which of the following devices measures cerebral blood flow with a color scale? A. X-Ray B. CT C. MRI D. SPECT

B. Although Parkinson's disease is primarily a movement disorder, many individuals with the disease also have amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles like those found in Alzheimer's Disease (AD) and some develop symptoms of dementia when the disease is advanced. It is unknown if Parkinson's and AD may be related in a yet-unknown way or simply coexist in some people. Lewy body dementia (LBD) (c.) is one of the most common types of progressive dementia. In LBD, cells die in the brain's cortex and the substantia nigra with many of the remaining nerve cells containing abnormal structures called Lewy bodies that are the hallmark of the disease. LBD usually occurs sporadically and individuals with LBD live an average of 7 years after symptoms begin. Symptoms include memory impairment, poor judgment, confusion, visual hallucinations, parkinsonian symptoms such as a shuffling gait and flexed posture, and day-to-day fluctuations in the severity of symptoms. Lewy bodies are often found in the brains of people with Parkinson's and AD, suggesting that LBD may be linked with the two or the diseases may sometimes coexist in the same person. Niemann-Pick disease (d.) is a group of inherited disorders that affect metabolism. Individuals with Niemann-Pick disease cannot properly metabolize cholesterol and other lipids so excessive amounts of cholesterol accumulate in the liver and spleen and excessive amounts of other lipids accumulate in the brain. These diseases usually begin in young school-age children but may also appear during the teen years or early adulthood. Symptoms may include dementia, confusion, and problems with learning and memory

Which of the following disorders is associated with individuals having amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles and in some cases when advanced, dementia? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Parkinson's disease C. Lewy body dementia D. Niemann-Pick disease

D. Distinguishing between internal and external threats to validity can be difficult. Indeed, some experts disagree on how to categorize some of them. However, all of the choices except D are generally considered to be threats to external validity. Order effects (A) (also known as carryover effects) occurs in repeated measures designs, or in studies in which the same subjects are exposed to more than one treatment. For example, in a study on the effects of marital therapy interventions, couples are given relaxation training followed by communication training. If significant improvement occurs, it may be due to relaxation training preceding communication training; therefore, the results could not be generalized to situations in which subjects only receive communication training. The Hawthorne effect (B) occurs when subjects behave differently due to the fact that they are participating in research. Obviously this threatens external validity since the results cannot be generalized to real-life situations in which people are not participating in research. Interaction between selection and treatment (C) refers to when a treatment has different effects depending on the selection of subjects. For example, studies that only use undergraduate students (as many studies do) might not generalize to non-undergraduate students. Finally, history (D) refers to an external event, other than the experimental treatment, that affects scores on the DV. This is primarily considered a threat to internal validity. For example, if a study on the effects of a new treatment for depression began several weeks before the events on "9-11" and concluded several weeks after "9-11," the results might indicate that the new treatment is not effective. However, this might not be a valid conclusion due to the effects of history.

Which of the following is NOT generally considered a direct threat to external validity? A. order effects B. hawthorne Effect C. interaction between selection and treatment D. history

B. The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is a set of tests designed to assess attention, language, memory, abstract thinking, motor speed, and spatial reasoning (A). The purpose of the test is to provide an overall assessment of brain function. The battery must be administered by a highly trained examiner (C). The results of each subtest are combined into an Impairment Index (D). However, contrary to choice B, the battery usually requires 4 to 5 hours to administer

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery? A. It provides information on a range of cognitive strengths and weaknesses. B. It can usually be completed within 45 to 60 minutes. C. It must be administered by a highly trained examiner. D. The results are reflected in a combined score known as the Impairment Index.

B. Several medications are used to reduce or eliminate Tourette's Disorder. Antipsychotic drugs were considered the first-line drug treatment until recently but, because of their adverse side effects, many experts now consider the antihypertensive drugs clonidine and guanfacine to be the medication-of-choice.

Which of the following is an alternative medication for individuals with Tourette's Disorder who cannot tolerate the side effects of an antipsychotic drug? A. an anti-seizure drug B. an antihypertensive drug C. an opioid antagonist D. a cholinesterase inhibitor

C. Endorphins are endogenous (produced inside the body) peptides which activate opiate receptors in the brain and block the release of Substance P, which results in decreased perception of pain. The term "endorphin" is an abbreviation of "endogenous morphine". The only other opiate listed in the choices is heroin ("D") which is derived from the opium poppy - an exogenous substance.

Which of the following is an endogenous opiate? A. dopamine B. catecholamine C. endorphins D. heroin

C. From her research on the personality characteristics of adults aged 40-70, Neugarten (1968) found midlife to be characterized by this shift in perspective. This finding followed the Kansas City Study findings that people around age 50 experience a transition from active to passive mastery and outer to inner-world orientation. Levinson's "seasons of a man's life" and Erikson's stages are theories of adult personality development that address developmental conflicts

Which of the following is associated with the shift in perspective from "time from birth" to "time to death"? A. Levinson B. Erikson C. Neugarten D. Freud

B. Several antidepressants have been found effective for treating Premature Ejaculation including the tricyclic clomipramine and the SSRIs fluoxetine, sertraline, and paroxetine. Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) and tadalafil (Cialis) are used to treat Erectile Disorder and testosterone is used to treat Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder, especially in post-menopausal women

Which of the following is most likely to be prescribed for a man who has just received a diagnosis of Premature Ejaculation? A. sildenafil citrate B. fluoxetine C. tadalafil D. testosterone

D. Premature Ejaculation has been linked to lower-than-normal serotonin levels, and several SSRIs (e.g., paroxetine and sertraline) have been found to be effective for treating this disorder. Beta-blockers are used to treat a number of conditions including high blood pressure, angina, myocardial infarction, migraine headaches, and the physical symptoms of anxiety; anticholinergic agents are used primarily to treat medication-induced movement disorders; and atomoxetine (Strattera) is a non-stimulant drug used to treat ADHD

Which of the following is most likely to be prescribed for a man who has just received a diagnosis of Premature Ejaculation? A. a beta-blocker B. an anticholinergic agent C. atomoxetine D. an SSRI

A. According to crisis theory, people in crisis tend to follow a predictable sequence of responses (c.) and a key goal of crisis intervention is to help individuals in crisis learn more effective coping so that they can respond more adaptively when having similar experiences in the future. Crisis management strategies often include grief work; active listening; encouraging the open expression of feelings; increasing understanding of the crisis; promoting greater acceptance of reality; exploring constructive ways of coping; linkage to a social network; decision counseling; and reinforcement of newly learned coping behaviors. While addressing a client's emotions, including overwhelming ones, is a part of crisis intervention, crisis theory and crisis intervention also emphasize the cognitive and behavioral elements of a crisis (b.). Although crisis theorists do predict that crisis intervention will be more successful when a client is able to understand the crisis situation (e.g., how his or her behavior is related to the crisis) (d.), neither insight nor the resolution of internal conflicts is considered a prerequisite for change or problem-solving during crisis intervention.

Which of the following is not an aspect of crisis theory? A. overwhelming emotions are the prime motivators for change B. crisis theory emphasizes the cognitive and behavioral elements of a crisis C. people in crisis tend to follow a predictable sequence of responses D. crisis intervention will be more successful when a client is able to understand how his or her behavior is related to the crisis

C. Hofstede's five cultural dimensions are power distance (a.), uncertainty avoidance (b.), individualism, masculinity (d.), and long-term orientation. Research findings indicate the United States scores high on individualism, low on power distance, moderate to high on masculinity and moderate scores on uncertainty avoidance

Which of the following is not one of the dimensions in Hofstede's theory of culture? A. power distance B. uncertainty avoidance C. conscientiousness D. masculinity/femininity

D. The DSM-5 provides five specifiers to designate type of Specific Phobia: animal, natural environment, blood-injection-injury, situational, and other

Which of the following is not one of the types of Specific Phobia identified in the DSM-5? A. animal B. situational C. natural environment D. illness and death

D. Naltrexone is an opiate antagonist that is used to treat alcohol abuse disorders by reducing the desire for alcohol after drinking has stopped and is also often used in maintenance treatment of opiate addiction. Bupropion, varenicline and nicotine replacement interventions are treatments for nicotine dependence and smoking cessation. Bupropion (Welbutrin), an atypical antidepressant, and nicotine replacement therapies (NRTs) (e.g., nicotine gum, nicotine patch) are nicotinic antagonists. Varenicline (CHANTIX) (b.), a nicotinic partial agonist, is used to reduce cravings and diminish the pleasurable effects of tobacco products.

Which of the following is not used as a treatment for smoking cessation? A. bupropion B. varenicline C. nicotine replacement D. naltrexone

A. Research shows that low-achieving students do better in heterogenous classes than in those in which students are grouped by ability (by the way, just in case it comes up on the exam, you should know that the term for grouping students by ability is "tracking").

Which of the following would have the least detrimental effect on low-achieving students in a school? A. placing them in a classroom with other children whose abilities are wide-ranging B. instructing teachers to lower their expectations for these children C. placing them in a classroom consisting only of other low achievers D. placing them into an advanced class for high achievers

A. Resilience in children can be defined as the ability to end up with good outcomes despite threats to development or adaptation such as low socioeconomic status, an absent parent, or severe marital discord in parents. Michael Rutter, a British psychologist who studied at-risk children in London and the Isle of Wight, identified three categories of factors that increase resiliency: positive individual personality in the child, a supportive family, and at least one supportive community agency such as a school or church. In other similar studies, the same protective triad of factors has emerged. Examples of each type of factor are given: Individual: social competence, positive sense of self, easygoing, good problem-solving skills; Family: authoritative parents who are warm and firm, parents who provide clear expectations, parents invested in their child's education; Community: specific role model in community agency connected to child, good schools, supportive friends and neighbors, well delineated community

Which of the following is the "protective triad" of factors that increases the resilience of children from disadvantaged backgrounds? A. individual, family, and community B. genetic, developmental, and individual C. dispositional, situational, and physiological D. psychological, sociological, and familial

C. Many researchers have noted that continued exposure of children to parental conflict -- whether it be while their parents are married, during the divorce process, or after a divorce -- is associated with a variety of adverse effects and is a very high risk factor for maladjustment.

Which of the following is the most valid predictor of post-divorce adjustment in children two years after the divorce? A. whether children got to live with the parent they wanted B. the degree to which parents fought before the divorce C. whether or not parents are engaged in ongoing conflict after the divorce D. how the children felt during the divorce process.

A. Klinefelter's Syndrome only affects males and is caused by an extra X chromosome (XXY). Males with this disorder have typical masculine interests in childhood and develop a normal male identity, but they show an incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics and are often sterile. Klinefelter's does not typically cause severe mental retardation, although most experience some degree of impairment in language and some do have mild mental retardation Finally, while some "XXY males" do not develop the syndrome, Klinefelter's is not believed to be preventable through diet. The symptoms of phenylketonuria (PKU), on the other hand, are preventable through a diet low in phenylalanine

Which of the following is true regarding Klinefelter's Syndrome? A. It occurs only in males B. It occurs only in females C. It typically results in severe to profound mental retardation D. Its symptoms are preventable with dietary restrictions

B. The cingulate gyrus acts as a "satisfaction center" and mediates the feelings of satisfaction that follow eating and sex. The basal ganglia (a.) are important in the regulation of muscle tone and fine motor control. The reticular activating system (c.) is vital to consciousness and arousal. The hippocampus (d.) is more associated with learning and memory consolidation

Which of the following mediates the feelings of satisfaction that follow eating and sex, acting as a "satisfaction center"? A. basal ganglia B. cingulate gyrus C. reticular activating system D. hippocampus

D. This question is an example of EPPP questions that are mostly about reading comprehension. If you were able to stay awake through all the choices, you would have recognized Stage 2, 3, 5 and 6 as the correct selection

Which of the following of Kohlberg's stages of moral development is in the correct order? A. Punishment and obedience orientation, social contract and individual rights orientation, instrumental hedonistic orientation, authority and social order maintaining orientation B. Preconventional, postconventional, conventional C. Social relations orientation, instrumental hedonistic orientation, individual rights orientation, social order maintaining orientation D. Instrumental hedonistic orientation, social relations orientation, social contract and individual rights orientation, universal ethical principles orientation

A. Apraxia refers to is an inability to perform complex or skilled movements that is not due to paralysis, sensory impairment, or a lack of comprehension. Anomia (b.) refers to an inability to recall the names of familiar objects, attributes, or actions. Alexia (c.) refers to a reading impairment due to brain injury. Agnosia (d.) refers to an inability to recognize familiar objects (visual agnosia) or sounds (auditory agnosia).

Which of the following refers to an inability to perform complex or skilled movements not due to paralysis, sensory impairment, or a lack of comprehension? A. apraxia B. anomia C. alexia D. agnosia

D. According to crisis theory, people in crisis tend to follow a predictable sequence of response and a key goal of crisis intervention is to help individuals in crisis learn more effective coping so that they can respond more adaptively when having similar experiences in the future. Crisis management strategies often include grief work; active listening; encouraging the open expression of feelings; increasing understanding of the crisis; promoting greater acceptance of reality; exploring constructive ways of coping; linkage to a social network; decision counseling; and reinforcement of newly learned coping behaviors. While addressing a client's emotions, including the overwhelming ones (b.), is a part of crisis intervention, crisis theory and crisis intervention also emphasize the cognitive and behavioral elements of a crisis. Although crisis theorists do predict that crisis intervention will be more successful when a client is able to understand the crisis situation (e.g., how his or her behavior is related to the crisis), neither insight (a.) nor the resolution of internal conflicts (c.) is considered a prerequisite for change or problem-solving during crisis intervention

Which of the following statements is a major assumption of crisis theory? A. insight must precede change B. overwhelming emotions are the prime motivators for change C. internal conflicts preclude problem solving D. people can learn to cope with stress

B. An elevated F score, particularly within the range of 80 to 99 suggests malingering ("faking bad"), exaggeration of difficulties, resistance to testing, or significant psychopathology. All of the other choices, i.e., high K, high L, and low F scores indicate the reverse, that is, an attempt to be viewed in an overly favorable light ("faking good").

Which of the following would most indicate malingering (i.e., an attempt to "fake bad") on the MMPI-2? A. high K score B. high F score C. low F score D. high L score

A. The Horn-Cattell theory of intelligence is sometimes referred to as the Gf-Gc theory. It divides general intelligence into two components: fluid intelligence, which reflects a person's adaptability and flexibility in solving novel problems by drawing inferences and understanding relationships between concepts, independent of acquired knowledge. Crystallized intelligence is the ability to use skills and knowledge established from the result of earlier development and learning; it includes skills such as vocabulary usage, general knowledge, and accessing knowledge from long-term memory. Of the choices listed, only the first is a true statement. Contrary to choice 2, crystallized intelligence is not synonymous which school achievement, even though the abilities that comprise crystallized intelligence are associated with school success. Achievement and intelligence are distinct concepts; for instance, a person with limited intelligence can achieve a great deal through persistence and hard work. Contrary to choice 3, fluid and crystallized intelligence are correlated with each, though that correlation decreases with age, because crystallized intelligence tends to remain stable over time whereas fluid intelligence tends to decrease. Finally, choice 4 is incorrect because, though the original version of the Horn-Cattell theory only identified fluid and crystallized intelligence, a later version identified nine subtypes--six primary subtypes and three third-order factors, or subtypes of the subtypes

Which of the following statements is most consistent with the propositions of the most recent version of the Horn-Cattell theory of intelligence? A. fluid intelligence can be defined as adaptability in responding to novel situations. B. crystallized intelligence is synonymous with school achievement. C. fluid and crystallized intelligence are not correlated with each other. D. fluid and crystallized intelligence are the only subtypes of intelligence that can be detected by empirical studies.

A. Research has suggested that overall, boys receive more criticism than girls from both male and female teachers. Some research suggests that this pattern may be due mostly (if not completely) to the behavior of boys and girls in the classroom. For instance, some studies show that girls on the average are more successfully adjusted to the student role than boys; this is a primary reason why girls are less likely to be criticized. Boys, on the other hand, misbehave more often and more disruptively than girls in the classroom.

Which of the following statements is most reflective of research findings? A. Both male and female teachers are more likely to criticize boys than girls. B. Male teachers are more likely to criticize boys, while female teachers are more likely to criticize girls. C. Female teachers are more likely to criticize boys, while male teachers are more likely to criticize girls. D. Boys and girls are equally likely to be criticized by both male and female teachers.

C. Bipolar Disorders have a strong genetic and biological component. Nonetheless, evidence suggests that environmental factors can trigger episodes. However, psychosocial stressors often trigger the initial mood episodes but are less likely to trigger subsequent episodes.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between environmental factors and the course of Bipolar Disorders? A. Environmental factors are likely to have no impact because Bipolar Disorders are entirely due to biological factors. B. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact on later episodes of the disorder than on the initial episodes. C. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact on the initial episodes of the disorder than on later episodes. D. Environmental factors are likely to have an approximately equal impact throughout the course of the disorder.

A. When children with a disability or a chronic illness reach adolescence, problems often arise due to their increased awareness and understanding of the problem, coupled with an enhanced desire to be similar to their peers. Sometimes, the adolescent may become depressed and act-out in ways that, given the person's condition, are gravely dangerous. For instance, the adolescent may show reduced compliance with the prescribed treatment regimen

Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of diabetes for adolescents and children? A. Adolescents are more likely than children to show noncompliance with the prescribed treatment regimen. B. Children are more likely than adolescents to show noncompliance with the prescribed treatment regimen. C. Adolescents and children are equally likely to show noncompliance with the prescribed treatment regimen. D. Both children and adolescents are likely to have little or no problems with the prescribed treatment regimen.

B. Structural equation modeling is a complex statistical technique that is used to explore and test relationships among many variables. The variables may be latent (i.e., unobserved variables, such as hypothetical traits or constructs) or observed, may have causal or correlational relationships, and the causal relationships may be specified as unidirectional or bi-directional. The first step in structural equation modeling is model specification. Here, you specify the variables involved, whether they are latent or observed, and the expected relationships among them. The results of statistical analysis indicate whether or not the model is a good fit for the data. The statistics involved are often specialized versions of other multivariate techniques, such as factor analysis and multivariate multiple regression, and the analysis requires specialized statistical software packages such as LISREL or EQS. Regarding the other choices, multivariate multiple regression allows you to test hypothesized predictive relationships between multiple input (or predictor) and output (or criterion) variables. A multiple ANOVA (MANOVA) is a statistical significance test used in experiments with multiple dependent variables. And discriminant function analysis is used to identify variables that are most useful for distinguishing among two or more groups

Which of the following statistical techniques would involve specifying a model of a problem domain that may involve observed and latent variables related to each other causally and non-causally in a unidirectional and bi-directional fashion? A. multivariate multiple regression B. structural equation modeling C. multiple ANOVA D. discriminant function analysis

B. Receptive language (comprehension) precedes productive language throughout the stages of speech development. In sequence, the stages of speech development are: (1) Crying. (2) Cooing (baby utters vowel sounds when he or she is happy) and babbling (baby repeats simple vowel and consonant sounds). (3) Echolalia (baby imitates speech sounds without understanding their meaning) and expressive jargon (baby vocalizes sounds that resemble sentences, but have no meaning). (4) Holophrastic speech (baby says his or her first words and uses single words to express sentences or phrases). (5) Telegraphic speech (baby uses at least two words to form a sentence). (6) Rapid growth of vocabulary (primarily between the ages of 30 months and three years). (7) Use of grammatically correct sentences. (8) Development of metalinguistic awareness (child is able to reflect on language as a communication tool and to reflect on himself or herself as a language user)

Which of the following usually appears first in childhood speech development? A. productive language B. expressive jargon C. telegraphic speech D. first words

A. Minuchin's structural family therapy focuses on modifying aspects of the family structure (e.g., rules, boundaries, coalitions) that underlie family dysfunction. Homework is commonly assigned as a way of bringing about concrete change in the family's behavior; enactments are role-plays that Minuchin often used to evaluate and modify the family structure; and family maps, or diagrams of the family's boundaries, are constructed to help families and the therapist understand the family structure. Choices B, C, and D can be eliminated because they include an intervention that focuses on the family's past whereas structural family therapy tends to focus on a family's present functioning.

Which of the following would most likely be utilized by a therapist whose work is based on Minuchin's structural family therapy? A. giving homework, enactment, making a family map B. taking a family history, issuing paradoxical directives, tracking C. taking a family history, joining the family, making a genogram D. reframing, issuing paradoxical directives, exploring multigenerational transmission processes

D. This question is based upon research conducted by Masters and Johnson, which found that increasing age causes only relatively minor changes in female sexuality. The research found that sexual desire and the ability to reach orgasm do not decrease in females as they grow older. In fact, in DSM-IV, it is noted that female orgasmic capacity increases with age and that, as a result, Female Orgasmic Disorder may be more common in younger women. Answer A is incorrect because Masters and Johnson found that the amount of lubrication diminishes in women as they grow older. This may make sexual intercourse uncomfortable for older women. In DSM-IV, it says "sexual stimulation that is not adequate in focus, intensity, and duration" may be a cause of female sexual problems. This applies to women of any age, so answer B is also incorrect. And C is not correct because after menopause the vaginal walls become thinner, as well as smoother and more fragile. This too may make sexual intercourse less comfortable for older women.

Which of these is the least likely cause of self-reported sexual problems in an elderly female? A. less sexual lubrication B. need for more clitoral stimulation C. thinning of the vaginal walls D. orgasmic dysfunction

B. Homoscedasticity refers to even scatter around the regression line. Homoscedasticity is actually a good thing. It wouldn't attenuate the correlation at all. The other three choices list factors that would attenuate the correlation coefficient

Which one of the following is least likely to attenuate a measure of correlation? A. restricted range B. homoscedasticity C. curvilinear relationship D. the use of unreliable measures

C. Dewey's constructivist theory of learning emphasizes the experiential aspects of learning, proposing learning is the result of experiences and attempts to make sense of those experiences. In other words, each learner individually and socially constructs meaning or knowledge for themselves as he or she learns. Consequently, the focus is on the learner, not on the subject or lesson taught, and no knowledge is independent of the meaning attributed to or constructed by the learner. Vygotsky (a.) described learning as first social, then individual in his sociocultural theory, which is also known as the theory of socially mediated learning. Piaget (b.) suggests cognitive development occurs through adaptive and active ways such as assimilation and accommodation. His theory is also referred to as the theory of genetic epistemology. Gagne's (d.) information processing approach to learning emphasizes there are different types or levels of learning and that each requires different types of instruction. Focusing on learning outcomes (cognitive, affective, or psychomotor) and the conditions (internal and external) necessary for each type of learning outcome, Gagne identified five categories of learning: verbal information, intellectual skills, cognitive strategies, motor skills and attitudes

Which theorist focused most strongly on the experiential aspects of learning? A. Vygotsky B. Piaget C. Dewey D. Gagne

A. This is another situation in which a combined treatment is best, especially in terms of long-term outcomes. While nicotine replacement therapy is successful alone, there is evidence that combining it with behavioral interventions produces the best long-term effects

With regard to interventions for cigarette smoking, the studies have shown that: A. combining a psychosocial intervention (especially a behavioral treatment) with a pharmacological approach (especially nicotine replacement therapy) is more effective than either technique alone, especially in terms of long-term effects. B. psychosocial interventions that emphasize behavioral techniques are superior to pharmacological approaches and adding pharmacological treatments to psychosocial interventions does not improve outcomes. C. combining a psychosocial intervention (especially a behavioral treatment) with a pharmacological approach (especially nicotine replacement therapy) is more effective than either technique alone in terms of short-term effects only. D. pharmacological approaches that include nicotine replacement therapy are superior to psychosocial interventions and adding psychosocial interventions to a pharmacological treatment does not improve outcomes.

D. The study described here is an example of a cross-sectional design, in which two or more different age groups are compared to determine whether aging has an effect on a particular dependent variable. A problem with cross-sectional designs is cohort effects. This refers to differences between the groups in experience rather than age that could be accounting for differences between them on the dependent variable. Cohort effects seem like a particularly plausible explanation for the results here, since it's likely that young people have more experience with computers than older people

You are conducting a study to examine the differences in reaction time between elderly people and young people. Subjects are asked to view stimuli on a computer screen and to press a lever every time they see certain target stimuli. Your results indicate that younger people respond faster than older people, and you conclude that reaction time is faster for younger people. Your conclusion is faulty because of: carry-over effects. differential attrition effects. a selection bias. cohort effects.

D. Your friend's child is exhibiting an insecure/avoidant attachment as described by Ainsworth. Ainsworth found that babies with this type of pattern often had mothers who were either very impatient and nonresponsive, or alternatively overstimulating. Neglect (answer A) is most associated with a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern

You are holding your friend's one year old. Your friend leaves the room and her child continues to smile at you happily, and shows no interest in her mother when she returns. Most likely, your friend as a parent has been: A. neglectful. B. smothering. C. impatient. D. either b or c.

C. All of these choices sound good, so to answer the question, you have to understand what each of these terms mean in the language of family therapy, and also not miss the fact that the question is asking about the behavior of the father and the daughter (as opposed to the behavior of the father and the mother). In family therapy, the term coalition refers to an alliance of two family members against a third. According to Minuchin, dysfunctional families are sometimes characterized by stable coalitions of a parent and a child against the other parent. The other terms in the question don't apply to the behavior of the father and the daughter. Triangulation refers to a situation in which another family member is brought into a conflict that actually exists only between two members, such as when two parents constantly try to get their child to take their side in a conflict the parents are having with each other. Fusion, a term used by Bowen, refers to an inability to separate intellectual from emotional functioning, or an inability to separate one's own thoughts and feelings from those of other family members. And joining is a technique described by Minuchin that involves adopting the family's affective style in order to help establish a working relationship, gain greater understanding of the family structure, and gain more leverage in bringing about family change.

You are seeing a family consisting of a mother, a father, and a daughter in therapy. Every time the mother says something, the father and the daughter argue with whatever she says. The behavior of the father and the daughter can be best described by the term: A. triangulation. B. fusion. C. coalition. D. joining.

D. The basic point being tested here is that if you add a constant to each score -- in either or both data sets -- the relationship between the two variables won't be affected. In other words, adding a constant to every score does not affect the correlation coefficient. The same is true of multiplying or dividing all scores by a constant, or subtracting a constant from every score.

You have conducted a study assessing the relationship between salary and job performance, and you find a significant correlation between these two variables. Your assistant tells you that the data fail to take into account a $25.00 cost of living raise which every employee received. You should: A. decide that the raise invalidated the research. B. reanalyze the data after the raises have been added to the current salary. C. not worry about small details; the actual amount is too small to make a significant difference. D. assume the correlation will not be affected.

D. The child is displaying the ability to conserve, or understand that the fundamental properties of objects do not necessarily change just because their appearance changes. Conservation develops systematically during the concrete operational stage of cognitive development (ages 7-11)

You pour water from a short, fat glass into a tall, thin glass. You ask a child if there is more water in the thin glass than there was in the fat glass. The child says, "No. The amount of water has not changed." The child has attained at least the _____________ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. formal operational D. concrete operational

Reality

______ therapy is a confrontive form of therapy that strives to teach clients specific behaviors that will enable them to fulfill their needs and the therapist-client relationship is viewed as a crucial aspect of therapy. _______ therapists also model responsible behaviors for their clients. [Developed by William Glasser, focuses on an individual's present issues and problems.]

client-centered (or Rogerian)

______ therapy is based on the assumption that if the right environment is provided by the therapist, a client will be able to achieve congruence between self and experience and be carried by his or her own innate tendency toward self-actualization. The "right environment" includes three facilitative conditions: unconditional positive regard, accurate empathic understanding, and genuineness or congruence

Neurolinguistic programming (NLP)

__________ suggests that a therapist's ability to communicate effectively with a client will be influenced by his or her ability to identify and then work with the client's preferred sensory mode; for example, if a client prefers a visual mode, the therapist should use terms such as "I see," if a client prefers an auditory mode, the therapist should use expressions such as "I hear you.

D. An allele is an alternative form of a gene that is one member of a pair that determines a genetic trait. Heterozygous means a person has two different alleles or genes for each trait. An example is a person with Bb has a "B" gene for brown eyes and the small "b" gene for blue eyes. The individual will have brown eyes because the gene for brown eyes is dominant. If a person inherits identical genes from each parent then it would result in either a homozygous dominant "BB" or homozygous recessive "bb" gene. Blue eyes, blond hair, nearsightedness, and Rh-negative blood are examples of results from a pair of homozygous recessive genes. Genotype (a.) is the genetic makeup of an individual, whereas phenotype (b.) is the physical and physiological traits of an individual resulting from genotype and environment.

___________ means possessing two different alleles, one dominant and one recessive, for single trait. A. genotype. B. phenotype. C. homozygous. D. heterozygous.

D. Piaget's developmental theory, also referred to as the theory of genetic epistemology, proposes individuals build cognitive structures in active and adaptive ways, such as through assimilation and accommodation. Dewey's (a.) theory proposes that learning is the result of our experiences and attempts to make sense of those experiences and emphasizes the experiential aspects of learning. Vygotsky's (b.) sociocultural theory, also known as the theory of socially mediated learning, states learning is first socially mediated, then self-mediated or individual. Gagne's (c.) approach is sometimes categorized as an information processing approach and focuses on instruction, learning outcomes (cognitive, affective, or psychomotor) and the conditions that facilitate each type of outcome

_______________ theory of genetic epistemology is based on the premise that individuals build cognitive structures in active and adaptive ways. A. Dewey's B. Vygotsky's C. Gagne's D. Piaget's

B. On the basis of the previous work of Canon and Bard, James Papez (1937) was one of the first to propose a neuroanatomical circuit mediating emotion. The essential error of the Cannon-Bard theory was to consider the existence of an initial "center" for emotions (the thalamus). James Papez (1937) demonstrated that emotion is not a function of any specific brain center but of a circuit that involves four basic structures, interconnected through several nervous bundles: the hypothalamus with its mamillary bodies, the anterior thalamic nuclei, the cingulate gyrus and the hippocampus. Specifically, the cingulate gyrus projects to the hippocampus, the hippocampus projects to the hypothalamus by way of the bundle of axons called fornix and then the hypothalamic impulses reach the cortex via relay in the anterior thlamic nuclei. The Papez circuit, one of the major pathways of the limbic system, acts in a synchronized manner and is responsible for the central functions of emotion or affect and its peripheral expressions or symptoms.

_____________________ demonstrated that emotion is not a function of any specific brain center but of a circuit that involves four basic structures. A. James B. Papez C. Canon D. Bard

Akathisia

a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of restlessness, an inability to sit or keep still, a pressing need to be in constant motion, and behaviors such as fidgeting, crossing and uncrossing the legs while sitting, rocking from foot to foot, marching in place and pacing.