Exam Simulation Practice

for bandura

cognition is most important part of learning. how we perceive and interpret the behavior self-efficacy beliefs prior experiences

Intercept bias is occurring when scores on a predictor:

consistently underpredict or overpredict the criterion performance of a particular group of examinees.

by the end of middle childhood

sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.

Akinesia

slow muscle movements

ANCOVA

statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable

Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through are the three phases of which of the following interventions?

stress inoculation training

parkinsonism

tremor, muscle rigidity, and akinesia.

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder share which of the following symptoms

both involve rituals but the goal of rituals is different for OCD and OCPD. In OCD, rituals are performed to reduce anxiety; in OCPD, rituals are related to perfectionism.

Rosenthal Effect

(self-fulfilling prophecy) effect refers to the impact of a teacher"s expectations about the performance of his/her students on their actual performance.

performance appraisal

a person sits down with a supervisor who tells you how you are doing and what you should do better

the primacy effect

The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list. a. CORRECT The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list (primacy effect) is believed to be due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items in the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that they are still present in short-term memory.

Which of the following sleep abnormalities have been linked to Major Depressive Disorder? A. increased Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep B. decreased duration of REM sleep early in the night C. early onset of REM sleep D. shortened sleep latency

early onset of REM sleep

Hans Eysnek

effects of psychotherapy are small or nonexistent and are due primarily to spontaneous remission.

The Hawthorne effect is the tendency

for the performance of research participants to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance

hen a newly developed test consists of 100 true/false items, the ______________ can be used as an alternative to coefficient alpha for evaluating its internal consistency reliability.

kruder richardson

Baltes et al.'s (1999) meta-analysis of research on the compressed (four-day) workweek found that it results in: A. an increase in job satisfaction but a decrease in supervisor ratings of performance. B. increases in job satisfaction and supervisor ratings of performance. C. increases in objective measures of productivity and organizational commitment. D. a decrease in objective measures of productivity and an increase in absenteeism.

A

Conger's (1956) tension reduction hypothesis emphasizes the role of which of the following in substance addiction? A. anxiety and other negative emotions B. environmental cues C. higher-order conditioning D. heredity

A

Recovery of cognitive ability following head trauma follows a predictable pattern in most patients. For example, with regard to disorientation, recovery usually occurs in which sequence? A. orientation to personal information, then to place, and finally to time B. orientation to time and place followed by orientation to personal information C. orientation to place, then to personal information, and finally to time D. orientation to personal information, then to time, and finally to place

A

__________ drugs are sometimes used to alleviate the extrapyramidal symptoms produced by an antipsychotic drug but are themselves associated with a number of undesirable side effects including dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and tachycardia. Select one: A. Anticholinergic B. Adrenergic C. Cholinergic D. Antiserotonergic

A

When creating an acrostic: A. a sentence or rhyme is formed using words that begin with the first letter of the words to be memorized. B. a word or pronounceable sequence of letters is created from the first letter of the words to be memorized. C. a word or phrase is constructed from another word by rearranging the letters of that word. D. an image is created from the images of two or more words.

A An acrostic is a phrase that is formed from words that begin with the first letter of each word to be memorized. "See Piaget creep forward" is an acrostic for Piaget's four stages of cognitive development (sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational).

With regard to fees in forensic settings, the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology: A. states that psychologists should avoid providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of "contingent fees." B. states that psychologists should avoid providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of "contingent fees" except when those services are court-ordered. C. recommends that psychologists not provide services to participants involved in a legal proceeding on the basis of "contingent fees" except when such fees are compatible with current standards of practice. D. does not explicitly address the issue of providing services to participants in a legal proceeding on the basis of "contingent fees."

A Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees."

A new job selection test with a validity coefficient of .30 will most likely improve decision-making accuracy when: A. the job applicant pool is very large. B. the job applicant pool is very small. C. the number of successful employees hired without the new test is very large. D. the number of successful employees hired without the new test is very small.

A A predictor is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy when there are many applicants for each job (i.e., when there is a low selection ratio).

According to George Kelly (1995), a fully functioning person is one: A. whose predictions about events and other people are usually . B. whose self and self-image are in a state of congruence. C. who is able to first identify and then achieve realistic goals in a responsible manner. Incorrect D. who routinely experiences events with here-and-now immediacy.

A Knowing that Kelly's personal construct theory focuses on how a person "construes" (perceives, interprets, and predicts) events would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The primary goals of personal construct therapy are to identify and then revise the client's maladaptive personal constructs so that he/she makes better predictions about events and other people.

s part of a peer review, an insurance company requests that you provide it with information about a client whose fee is being paid in part by the insurance company. In this situation, you should: A. release information to the company only after determining that company personnel are aware of the importance of maintaining the clients confidentiality. B. release information to the company only after obtaining a waiver from the client. C. release information to the company as requested since regulations regarding client confidentiality do not apply to this situation. D. refuse to release information to the company.

A Of the answers given, this is the best one. Although psychologists are required to provide an insurance company with the information it has requested for a peer review, the best course of action would be to remind the company of the need to maintain the information in a way that will minimize violations of the client's confidentiality.

Bona fide

A woman's clothing store hires only females as sales clerks because one of the clerks' tasks is to assist women in the store's dressing room. In this case, the store would use which of the following standards to justify hiring only women as sales clerks?

In his studies on obedience, Stanley Milgram (1963) found that research participants assigned the role of teacher would deliver electric shock to another person when the experimenter: A. let them know they were not really harming the learner. B. took responsibility for the teacher's actions. C. modeled the behavior by delivering high levels of shock to the learner. D. rewarded them for doing so

B

According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, a manager will be most effective with an employee who is low in both ability and motivation when the manager: A. provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee's work. B. encourages the employee to take responsibility for decision-making. C. shares ideas with the employee and supports the employee's participation in decision-making. D. acts as a supportive coach. Feedback

A-- telling

Research on theory of mind has found that it is not until about ______ years of age that children understand that another person's actions depend on that person's beliefs (which may be false) rather than on the reality of the situation. A. two to three B. four to five C. six to seven D. eight to nine

B By four to five years of age, children understand that a person's beliefs about a situation may be false and that the person will act upon the false belief rather than the reality of the situation.

When do children become aware of their cultural identity?

Age 3-4 they can start to describe differences in skin color, clothing around age 10 is when they can accurately apply labels to themselves and others

A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer (2006) found that scores on which of the following personality traits continue to increase into later adulthood? Select one:

Agreeableness and conscientiousness

Several days after losing an important customer, David D., a 41-year-old sales representative, develops feelings of sadness and hopelessness. He tells his therapist that he has trouble even thinking about going out and "drumming up more business" and is concerned that his attitude may be having a negative effect on his relationships with other customers. David's symptoms have lasted for nearly three weeks, and he has no history of a previous mental disorder. The most likely diagnosis for David is: Select one: A. Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood. B. Adjustment Disorder, unspecified. C. Major Depressive Disorder. D. Acute Stress Disorder.

Answer A is correct: The nature and duration of David's symptoms and the fact that they are apparently related to the loss of an important customer are consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Adjustment Disorder. Because his symptoms are those associated with depression (sadness and hopelessness), the correct diagnosis is Adjustment Disorder with depressed mood.

Research on the effects of the SSRI fluoxetine for individuals with Bulimia Nervosa has found that: A. it is useful only for reducing comorbid symptoms of depression. B. it is useful for reducing symptoms of Bulimia and comorbid symptoms of depression. C. it is more effective than cognitive-behavioral therapy for reducing symptoms of Bulimia. D. it has a paradoxical effect that reduces the likelihood of a positive response to cognitive-behavioral therapy.x

Answer B is correct: Several studies have found that the antidepressant fluoxetine is effective for alleviating the symptoms of comorbid depression and for reducing the symptoms of Bulimia regardless of the presence or absence of depressive symptoms. However, it has not been found to be more effective than CBT although, for some patients, a combination of CBT and fluoxetine is more effective than CBT alone.

In terms of drug use, a person is exhibiting "habituation" when he/she: A. has developed physical dependence on the drug. B. requires higher and higher doses of the drug to achieve the same effects. C. has a desire to continue using the drug with little or no desire to increase the amount of the drug. D. experiences reduced symptoms following cessation of the drug due to multiple withdrawal experiences.

Answer C is correct: The meaning of the term "habituation" depends on the context in which it is used. From the perspective of pharmacology, habituation occurs when repeated use of a drug results in a desire for continued use with little or no desire to increase the amount or dose of the drug and no physical dependence on the drug.

: Of the intermittent schedules of reinforcement, the variable ratio schedule produces the quickest acquisition of a behavior and the greatest resistance to extinction once reinforcement is terminated. This is because reinforcement is presented: A. after a predictable number of responses. B. after an unpredictable number of responses. C. after a predictable interval of time. D. after an unpredictable interval of time.

B

Dr. Greg Gallant meets 28-year-old Sally S. at a holiday party and is sexually attracted to her. The feelings seem mutual. However, during their conversation, he learns that Sally's sister is one of his therapy clients. In this situation: Select one: A. it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally. B. it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if her sister is a former therapy client. C. it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if he discusses the implications with the client before doing so. D. it would be acceptable for Dr. Gallant to date Sally only if he believes that doing so will not be harmful to his client.

B The Ethics Code states that "psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with individuals they know to be close relatives, guardians, or significant others of current therapy clients/patients," which implies that it may be acceptable to become involved with a relative of a former therapy client. The Canadian Code of Ethics does not explicitly distinguish between relatives of current versus former clients, but this is still the best answer of those given since the other answers state or imply that the sister is a current client.

Research investigating the relationship between ADHD and substance abuse has found that: A. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is not associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood. B. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood. C. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual was treated with stimulant drugs in childhood. D. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual had comorbid conduct symptoms.

B ADHD with or without comorbidity is a risk factor for substance abuse in adulthood.

Which of the following best describes a psychologist's ethical obligation with regard to obtaining an informed consent from a research participant? A. An informed consent is always required. B. An informed consent may be unnecessary when the study is unlikely to cause the participant harm or distress. C. An informed consent is unnecessary only when the study involves an anonymous survey or questionnaire or naturalistic observation. D. An informed consent is unnecessary only when the study involves deception and the deception meets ethical requirements.

B The potential for harm is a primary consideration when determining whether an informed consent is needed.

The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is: Select one: A. covert sensitization. B. exposure with response prevention. C. stimulus control. D. self-control therapy.

B The treatment-of-choice for Specific Phobia is exposure with response prevention (especially in vivo exposure) that exposes the individual to the feared object or situation while preventing him or her from engaging in cognitive or behavioral avoidance.

Which of the following would most likely maximize the magnitude of a test's reliability coefficient? A. increase the length of the test and increase the homogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test Incorrect B. decrease the length of the test and increase the homogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test C. increase the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test D. decrease the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test

C A test's reliability coefficient is affected by several factors including its length and the range of test scores. Longer tests tend to be more reliable (assuming that the added items are similar in terms of quality and content to the original items). In addition, the reliability coefficient (like all correlation coefficients) is larger when the range of scores is unrestricted, which occurs when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute(s) being measured by the test.

Alfred Adler believed that a client's earliest memories provide information about his/her: A. defense mechanisms. B. internal working models. C. basic mistakes. D. ego-state.

Basic mistakes Basic mistakes are distorted beliefs and attitudes that contribute to a person's style of life and may be revealed in the client's earliest memories.

A test developer would be interested in the selection ratio, base rate, and validity coefficient of a test when she is evaluating the test's: A. differential validity. B. external validity. C. incremental validity. D. concurrent validity.

C

From about ________ of age, children use telegraphic speech (two-word utterances) to communicate an entire sentence. A. 8 to 12 months B. 12 to 18 months C. 18 to 24 months D. 24 to 30 months

C

The use of implosive therapy is based on the assumption that: Select one: A. pairing stimuli associated with an undesirable response with a stimulus that produces a more adaptive response will result in elimination of the undesirable response. B. consistently withholding reinforcement from an undesirable conditioned response will eventually result in extinction of that response. C. repeatedly presenting stimuli associated with an undesirable conditioned response without the unconditioned stimulus will eventually result in extinction of that response. D. consistently applying an aversive (unconditioned) stimulus following an undesirable conditioned response will eventually eliminate that response.

C

According to Carol Gilligan, adolescent females tend to score at lower stages than adolescent males on Kohlbergian tasks because: A. there are biases in the way that raters score the responses of females. B. females are more concerned than males with being judged positively by the rater. C. Kohlberg's theory focuses on individual rights, while the moral reasoning of girls reflects concerns about responsibility toward others. D. Kohlberg's theory focuses on instrumentality, while the moral responses of girls are based more on socioemotional concerns.

C According to Gilligan, males and females use different moral criteria in judging moral dilemmas, with females emphasizing mutual caring and responsibility for others and males focusing more on individual rights.

Dr. Smith is renting office space from Dr. Jones and providing him with secretarial services. Dr. Jones charges Dr. Smith on a "per patient" basis. Dr. Jones will be receiving occasional referrals from Dr. Smith. This arrangement is: Select one: A. unethical because it represents "fee-splitting." B. unethical because it represents a "multiple relationship." C. ethical as long as the per patient fee is based on Dr. Jones's actual costs. D. ethical as long as the per patient fee does not include a referral fee

C Although "fee-splitting" is not explicitly prohibited by the Ethics Code, certain restrictions apply when client fees will be shared. The per-patient fee must reflect Dr. Smith's actual costs and can include any costs involved in making a referral. A referral fee is acceptable as long as it represents the costs involved in making the referral (e.g., the time Dr. Smith spends preparing a client's file or discussing the case with Dr. Jones).

19264: In a research study, each participant was given a vague description of themselves that was supposedly based on an analysis of his/her handwriting. In fact, all participants received the same randomly derived description. When asked about the accuracy of the description, the majority of participants agreed that it was "highly accurate." These results support the predictions of which of the following? Select one: A. self-serving bias B. looking-glass self C. Barnum effect D. Zeigarnik effect

C The Barnum effect predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate descriptions. It has been used to explain why people believe that astrological predictions or descriptions are perceived as accurate by many people.

For Miller and Dollard (1941), the approach-approach conflict: Select one: A. is a dilemma because as soon as the individual approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal increases in strength. B. is a dilemma that is often resolved by "leaving the field" and choosing a third goal. C. is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases. D. is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected.

C According to Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating.

Dr. Best is attempting to set the optimal cutoff score for a new screening test designed to identify people at risk for drug abuse. Using the data he collected when evaluating the test's criterion-related validity, he finds that lowering the cutoff score on the screening test: Select one: A. increases the number of true positives and true negatives. B. decreases the number of true positives and true negatives. C. increases the number of true and false positives. D. decreases the number of true and false positives.

C CORRECT "Positives" are individuals who are identified by a predictor as having the attribute being assessed - in this case, people who are at risk for drug abuse. Lowering the predictor cutoff increases the number of true and false positives.

An assumption underlying item response theory is that the standard error of measurement: Select one: A. is larger for shorter tests than for longer tests. B. is larger for examinees with average ability. C. is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability. D. is not affected by the test length or the ability level of the examinees.

C Classical test theory is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement is a constant that applies to all examinees, regardless of their level of ability. In contrast, IRT is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement increases at the extremes of a distribution -- i.e., is larger for individuals with very high or low ability than for those with average ability.

In therapy, an object relations family therapist would be most interested in which of the following? A. distinguishing between positive and negative connotations B. integrating attitudes, feelings, and behaviors C. interpreting focused and contextual transferences D. expanding awareness and self-responsibility

C addressing transferences and countertransferences is a primary focus of object relations family therapy

: For adolescents who are hospitalized with Major Depressive Disorder, which of the following is LEAST predictive of future Bipolar Disorder? Select one: A. a family history of a mood disorder B. tricyclic-induced hypomania C. a gradual onset of depressive symptoms D. psychotic features during the depressive episode

C an acute onset is least predictive

Chaining

Chaining, which is believed to account for the acquisition of complex behaviors, involves the association of responses such that each response acts as a secondary reinforcer and as a discriminative stimulus for the following response. The final reinforcer (the reinforcer that is delivered at the end of the "chain") is a primary reinforcer.

Research comparing the personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms of women reporting repressed versus continuous memories of childhood sexual abuse has found that: A. the two groups of women do not differ significantly in terms of personality characteristics or psychiatric symptoms. B. women reporting repressed memories differ from those with continuous memories in terms of dissociation but not with regard to other characteristics or symptoms. C. women reporting continuous memories exhibit more symptoms of PTSD than those reporting repressed memories but the two groups do not differ with regard to other characteristics or symptoms. D. the two groups of women show significant differences with regard to both personality characteristics and psychiatric symptoms.

D

A practitioner of cognitive therapy is most likely to conceptualize a personality disorder as a consequence of: A. impulsive action tendencies. B. cognitive enactments. C. maladaptive life scripts. D. compelling schemata.

D "compelling" might be unfamiliar, the word "schemata" is one you want to have associated cognitive therapy

At age 8, a girl receives a WISC FSIQ score of 144. When she is retested at age 12, she obtains a score of 138. Which of the following best accounts for this decline in her IQ score? Select one: A. demand characteristics B. cohort effects C. normal aging effects D. statistical regression

D

You are currently treating a man who has received a diagnosis of Alcohol Use Disorder. With his permission, you invite his wife to participate in couple's therapy. Inviting the wife to participate in therapy is: A. unacceptable because, in this situation, the husband is "vulnerable to undue influence." B. unacceptable because this situation represents a "conflict of interest." C. acceptable as long as the husband is not receiving treatment from another professional. D. acceptable as long as you believe her participation will benefit the husband's progress in treatment.

D Although it is generally unacceptable to solicit business from individuals who are "vulnerable to undue influence" (answer a), there are exceptions. For example, Standard 5.06 states that inviting family members to participate in collateral treatment that will benefit a current client is acceptable.

A veteran of the Iraq war complains about tremor in his right hand and weakness in his left arm. He has been examined by several doctors who have been unable to find a cause for his symptoms, and the last doctor he saw told him that his symptoms aren't consistent with any known neurological disease. The man's wife tells you that he accidentally shot and seriously wounded a fellow soldier while in Iraq but that he has no memory of doing so. The most likely diagnosis for this man is: A. Factitious Disorder. B. PTSD. C. Malingering. D. Conversion Disorder.

D Answer D is correct: Conversion Disorder involves a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning that suggests a serious neurological or other medical condition with evidence of an incompatibility between the symptom and recognized neurological and medical conditions.

As used by Lorenz (1965), the term "critical period" refers to: Select one: A. the period from ages three to six months during which the basic structure of the personality is formed. B. periods when the infant shows predictable "growth spurts." C. the third trimester when the brain is at greatest vulnerability to structural damage. D. a period shortly after birth during which an infant ordinarily bonds with its mother.

D Lorenz found that the "critical period" for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, geese will stay close (attach) to stimuli that they are exposed to two to three days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.

n most people, the left hemisphere is dominant for which of the following functions? A. perceiving whole shapes from parts B. recognizing emotions in facial expressions C. perceiving direction and distance D. controlling complex and precise movements

D n the majority of people, the left hemisphere is dominant for fine motor functioning, which is evident in the fact that most people are right-handed. Knowing that the right (nondominant) hemisphere is responsible for processing emotional and spatial information would have helped you eliminate responses a, b, and c as correct answers to this question.

In a scatterplot, the regression lines for a test for two different groups of examinees differ substantially in terms of slope. This suggests that the test has: A. a lack of factorial validity. B. a lack of convergent validity. C. divergent validity D. differential validity.

D A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different groups, which is what is suggested by different regression line slopes in a scatterplot.

A 36-year-old woman has extensive deficits in declarative memory as the result of a severe head trauma. This means that she will have trouble recalling: A. what she ate for dinner the previous evening. B. how to ride a bicycle and what she ate for dinner. C. the definition of amnesia. D. what she ate for dinner and the definition of amnesia.

D Episodic memory is memory for personally experienced events (e.g., what one had for dinner the previous evening). Semantic memory is memory for factual knowledge (e.g., the definition of amnesia). Extensive impairment in declarative memory would, therefore, involve both types of memory, so this is the best answer.

Following a severe closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 26-year-old male exhibits anterograde and retrograde amnesia. Most likely, which of the following memories will return first during his recovery? A. memory for the events that occurred just after the accident B. memory for events immediately before the accident Incorrect C. memory for his birthday dinner six months prior to the accident D. memory for his high school graduation

D Following moderate to severe head injury, a person is likely to show some degree of both anterograde and retrograde amnesia. In this situation, recovery of long-term memories typically involves a predictable pattern.

As defined by Herek (2004), __________ promotes hostility and violence toward homosexuals and consists of beliefs about gender, identity, and sexuality that define sexual minorities as deviant or threatening. Select one: A. homophobia B. sexual stigma C. sexual prejudice D. heterosexism

D Herek considers homophobia to be an imprecise term and recommends that it be replaced with the terms listed in answers b, c, and d. The description in this question is consistent with Herek's definition of heterosexism.

As defined by Piaget, egocentrism during the preoperational stage of cognitive development is a manifestation of: A. primary circular reactions. B. transduction. C. horizontal decalage. D. centration.

D Knowing that Piaget described centration as a primary limitation of the preoperational stage would have helped you identify this as the correct answer. Piaget believed that egocentrism is a form of centration - i.e., young children cannot take into account their own point of view and the point of view of another person at the same time.

A "cover story" that causes research participants to think that the purpose of the study they are participating in is something other than what it really is would be most helpful for controlling which of the following? Select one: A. Hawthorne effect Incorrect B. Rosenthal effect C. demand characteristics D. differential attrition

In the situation described in this question, participants will not know the real purpose of the study. As long as you're familiar with the phenomena listed in the answers, you should have been able to recognize which phenomenon would be impacted by this lack of knowledge.

Research on the impact of mental practice on athletic performance has found that it is: Select one: A. more beneficial for experienced (skilled) individuals than for novices and when it makes use of internal imagery. B. more beneficial for novices than for experienced individuals and when it makes use of external imagery. C. equally as beneficial for experienced individuals and novices when it makes use of internal imagery. D. equally as effective for experienced individuals and novices regardless of the type of imagery used

Mental practice refers to the use of mental images in the absence of any overt physical activity to learn or improve one's skills. It is frequently used to enhance athletic performance. a. CORRECT Studies on mental practice have confirmed that it is useful for improving athletic performance when added to physical practice but that its effects are moderated by the skill level of the individual, the type of imagery, and the type of task. Specifically, the research has shown that mental practice is less effective for novices than for skilled individuals; is more effective when it makes use of internal imagery (i.e., imagining the behavior as though one is actually performing it rather than observing oneself performing it); and is more effective for sports that have cognitive elements (e.g., dance and gymnastics) than for sports that rely primarily on strength or motor skills.

item difficulty (p) represents which scale of measurement

Ordinal To understand why the item difficulty index represents an ordinal scale, assume that items 1, 2, and 3 of a test are passed by 10, 20, and 30 percent of examinees, respectively, which will result in p values for these items of .10, .20, and .30. Although these values indicate that item 1 is more difficult than item 2 which, in turn, is more difficult than item 3, it is not possible to say that item 2 is twice as difficult as item 1 or that the difference in difficulty between items 1 and 2 is equal to the difference between items 2 and 3. Moreover, an item difficulty index of 0 would not mean that the item completely lacks difficulty (which doesn"t really make any sense). In other words, p values represent an ordinal scale because they do not have the property of equal intervals or an absolute zero point.

In vivo exposure with response prevention has been found to be an effective treatment for Agoraphobia, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, and several other anxiety disorders. Studies investigating the effects of this treatment for this suggest that: A. frequent, brief exposures are more effective than less frequent, longer exposures to the feared stimuli. B. people with high arousability are more responsive to in vivo treatments than people with low arousability. C. high anxiety provocation is not the key factor in its effectiveness. D. counterconditioning is a necessary component of treatment.

c. CORRECT As noted in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, there is evidence that high anxiety arousal is NOT necessary for successful treatment with in vivo exposure.

The primary goal of quality assurance is best described as: Select one: A. reducing program costs and beneficiary expenditures. B. improving the health status and satisfaction of patients. C. policing the profession by detecting and dealing appropriately with incompetent psychologists. D. guaranteeing that the needs of patients belonging to a particular group or population are being met.

Quality assurance is directed toward ensuring that programs and services are effective, efficient, and available. This goal is achieved by comparing services to predefined standards.

_________________ has been used as a pharmacologic model for Schizophrenia because drugs that alleviate the former also reduce the symptoms of the latter. A. Serotonin syndrome Incorrect B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome C. Alcohol delirium tremens D. Amphetamine psychosis

Research on amphetamine psychosis has provided support for the dopamine hypothesis for Schizophrenia: First, amphetamines exert their effects by altering dopamine activity. Second, a high dose of amphetamine produces symptoms similar to those associated with Schizophrenia, and amphetamines exacerbate the symptoms of Schizophrenia. Third, drugs that reduce dopamine levels alleviate the symptoms of amphetamine psychosis and Schizophrenia.

theory of work adjustment, a worker's satisfactoriness depends on the degree to which the worker's:

Select one: A. abilities match the ability requirements of the job.

Research investigating comorbidity in children suggests that, when depression occurs in conjunction with ____________, the depression is often associated with a different course and a different family background than when it occurs alone. A. an Anxiety Disorder B. Conduct Disorder C. somatic complaints D. learning problems

Some experts suggest that depression occurring in conjunction with Conduct Disorder is actually a different type of depression since it is associated with a lower rate of depression in adulthood as well as with a lower rate of depression among relatives

If an infant is unable to focus or coordinate one eye with the other and this problem is not corrected before age one, the child will always have problems with binocular vision. This best illustrates the concept of: A. a sensitive period. B. a critical period. C. canalization. D. range of reaction.

The development of binocular vision is viewed by experts as having a critical period. Specifically, if an infant is not able to coordinate both eyes by age one, he/she will always have problems with binocular vision; and, if the problem is not corrected by age 5, binocular vision will never develop. B

A non-custodial parent asks Dr. Maxine Miller, a school psychologist, for the results of the tests she recently administered to his 5th grade son. If Dr. Miller complies with the father's request, she will have acted: Select one: A. legally and ethically. B. legally but unethically. C. illegally and unethically. D. illegally but ethically.

The rights of non-custodial parents may be limited in terms of obtaining psychological services for their children. However, custody status does not necessarily affect access to certain kinds of information. a. CORRECT The laws relevant to this situation vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, in general, non-custodial parents have the right to obtain information about their children. In California, for example, the law states that "Notwithstanding any other provision of law, access to records and information pertaining to a minor child, including but not limited to medical, dental, and school records, shall not be denied to a parent because such parent is not the child"s custodial parent" (Civil Code 4600.5).

The technique known as "protocol analysis" was derived from: A. cognitive science. B. Gestalt psychology. C. the medical model. D. social-learning theory.

The term "cognitive science" refers to a broad range of disciplines and approaches (e.g., cognitive psychology, neuroscience, computer science) that focus on the acquisition and use of knowledge. Protocol analysis involves having the individual "think aloud" while solving a cognitive problem.

The Stone Center's self-in-relation theory attributes a woman's core sense of self to which of the following? Select one: A. the development of a mutually empathic bond with her mother during early childhood B. her ability to resolve the conflicting demands of the id, ego, and superego during childhood C. her ability to separate "self" and "object" during the separation-individuation process D. the development of a unique "autonomous" self during adolescence

a. CORRECT Self-in-relation theory proposes that a woman's core self-structure is an interacting or relational self that emerges from the early mother-daughter relationship and the development of mutual empathy in that relationship.

Investigators have found that, after engaging in strenuous physical activity, research participants tend to get angrier when provoked by an insult and tend to be more romantically or sexually attracted when they meet a potential partner. These findings provide support for which of the following? Select one: A. misattribution hypothesis B. confirmatory bias C. catharsis hypothesis D. psychological reactance

a. CORRECT You probably had trouble answering this question if you did not know that Schachter's two-factor theory is also referred to as the misattribution hypothesis because it predicts that arousal produced by one source (e.g., strenuous physical activity) can be misattributed to another source (e.g., an insult or a potential romantic or sexual partner). In other words, the arousal gets "transferred" to another source. On the exam, you may encounter a few questions that use terms you are unfamiliar with; and, for those question, the process of elimination might help you identify the correct answer.

When treating an 8-year old child who doesn't like going to bed at night because he's afraid of the dark, which of the following interventions would probably be most successful? Select one: A. a social skills technique that relies on modeling with guided participation and behavioral rehearsal B. a cognitive self-control technique that incorporates visual imagery and positive self-statements C. a behavioral technique that includes flooding (in vivo exposure with response prevention) D. a behavioral technique that includes systematic desensitization Feedback

b. CORRECT This technique has been described by A. M. Graziano and K. C. Mooney (Children and Behavior Therapy, New York, Aldine, 1984), who found it to be an effective treatment for children who fear the dark. Cognitive self-control involves several steps: At bedtime, the child first relaxes, then visualizes a pleasant scene, and then makes self-statements such as "I am brave. I can take care of myself in the dark." This technique is considered a self-control technique since it is administered by the child him/herself (although the parents are also involved in reminding the child to use the technique and in monitoring the child's progress).

Bandura's social learning theory implies that, in organizational settings, a training program will be most effective when: Select one: A. it provides immediate rewards for achieving goals. B. trainees participate in defining the program's goals. C. trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins. D. models are clearly and consistently reinforced for successful performance.

c. CORRECT Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills.

antipsychotic/antimanic drugs are more likely to be prescribed in

medical speciality offices

Research investigating the relationship between interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for: A. lower-class people. B. middle-class people. C. upper-class people. D. lower-and upper-class people.

middle class people

Research suggests that, with regard to metamemory, older adults are: Select one: A. more likely than younger adults to underestimate their actual memory deficits. B. more likely than younger adults to overestimate their actual memory deficits. C. just as able as younger adults to accurately estimate their actual memory deficits. D. better than younger adults at estimating their actual memory deficits

more likely than younger adults to overestimate their actual memory deficits. Metamemory refers to the ability to monitor one"s own memory processes. There is evidence that, compared to younger adults, older adults tend to view their memory loss as worse than it actually is.

Common side effects of ________ include stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and joint and muscle pain.

naltrexone (Revia) blocks craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol

Akathesia

neuroleptic-induced movement disorder that is characterized by a subjective feeling of restlessness accompanied by stereotypical motor movements such as fidgeting, pacing, or foot tapping.

Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) model of career development emphasizes which of the following? Select one: A. basic interests B. basic instinctual needs C. vocational identity D. locus of contro

vocational identity According to these authors, the achievement of a personal vocational identity involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness).

According to Patterson and his colleagues, aggression in children is linked to the use of coercive discipline by their parents. In turn, the parents' use of coercive discipline is directly related to:

parents personality and the child's temperament views coercive discipline as being more likely in the presence of stressful life events, certain personality characteristics in the parents, and a temperamentally difficult child.

Level of affective job committment is least likely to be predictive of

productivity

MANOVA

remove MAIN and INTERACTION effects of the extraneous variable

Erikson

role of development in personality as a process as it continues throughout the lifespan

Freud emphasized

role of id and unconscious sexual factors believed personality is almost entirely determined by early childhood experiences

Erikson emphasized

role of social factors