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A pregnant woman wants to breastfeed her infant; however, her husband is not convinced that there are any scientific reasons to do so. The nurse can give the couple printed information comparing breastfeeding and bottle feeding. Which statement regarding bottle feeding using commercially prepared infant formulas might influence their choice? a. Bottle feeding using a commercially prepared formula increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies. b. Bottle feeding helps the infant slee

A. Bottle feeding using a commercially prepared formula increases the risk that the infant will develop allergies. Exposure to cows milk poses a risk of developing allergies, eczema, and asthma. Newborns should be fed during the night, regardless of the feeding method. Iron is better absorbed from breast milk than from formula. Commercial formulas are designed to meet the nutritional needs of the infant and to resemble breast milk. No supplements are necessary.

A nurse providing couplet care should understand the issue of nipple confusion. In which situation might this condition occur? a. Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings. b. Baby is too abruptly weaned. c. Pacifiers are used before breastfeeding is established. d. Twins are breastfed together.

A. Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings. Nipple confusion can result when babies go back and forth between bottles and breasts, especially before breastfeeding is established in 3 to 4 weeks; bottle feeding and breastfeeding require different skills. Abrupt weaning can be distressing to the mother and/or baby but should not lead to nipple confusion. Pacifiers used before breastfeeding is established can be disruptive but do not lead to nipple confusion. Breastfeeding twins require some logistical adaptations but should not lead to nipple confusion.

A new mother asks whether she should feed her newborn colostrum, because it is not real milk. What is the nurses most appropriate answer? a. Colostrum is high in antibodies, protein, vitamins, and minerals. b. Colostrum is lower in calories than milk and should be supplemented by formula. c. Giving colostrum is important in helping the mother learn how to breastfeed before she goes home. d. Colostrum is unnecessary for newborns.

A. Colostrum is high in antibodies, protein, vitamins, and minerals. Colostrum is important because it has high levels of the nutrients needed by the neonate and helps protect against infection. Supplementation is not necessary and will decrease stimulation to the breast and decrease the production of milk. It is important for the mother to feel comfortable in this role before discharge; however, the importance of the colostrum to the infant is the top priority. Colostrum provides immunities and enzymes necessary to cleanse the gastrointestinal system, among other things.

10. A mother is changing the diaper of her newborn son and notices that his scrotum appears large and swollen. The client is concerned. What is the best response from the nurse? a. A large scrotum and swelling indicate a hydrocele, which is a common finding in male newborns. b. I dont know, but Im sure it is nothing. c. Your baby might have testicular cancer. d. Your babys urine is backing up into his scrotum.

ANS: A Explaining what a hydrocele is and its characteristics is the most appropriate response by the nurse. The swelling usually decreases without intervention. Telling the mother that the condition is nothing important is inappropriate and does not address the mothers concern. Furthermore, if the nurse is unaware of any abnormal-appearing condition, then she should seek assistance from additional resources. Telling the mother that her newborn might have testicular cancer is inaccurate, inappropriate, and could cause the new mother undue worry. Urine will not back up into the scrotum if the infant has a hydrocele. Any nurse caring for the normal newborn should understand basic anatomy.

16. Which explanation will assist the parents in their decision on whether they should circumcise their son? a. The circumcision procedure has pros and cons during the prenatal period. b. American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that all male newborns be routinely circumcised. c. Circumcision is rarely painful, and any discomfort can be managed without medication. d. The infant will likely be alert and hungry shortly after the procedure.

ANS: A Parents need to make an informed choice regarding newborn circumcision, based on the most current evidence and recommendations. Health care providers and nurses who care for childbearing families should provide factual, unbiased information regarding circumcision and give parents opportunities to discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure. The AAP and other professional organizations note the benefits but stop short of recommending routine circumcision. Circumcision is painful and must be managed with environmental, nonpharmacologic, and pharmacologic measures. After the procedure, the infant may be fussy for several hours, or he may be sleepy and difficult to awaken for feeding.

21. A 3.8-kg infant was vaginally delivered at 39 weeks of gestation after a 30-minute second stage. A nuchal cord occurred. After the birth, the infant is noted to have petechiae over the face and upper back. Based on the nurses knowledge, which information regarding petechiae should be shared with the parents? a. Petechiae (pinpoint hemorrhagic areas) are benign if they disappear within 48 hours of childbirth. b. These hemorrhagic areas may result from increased blood volume. c. Petechia

ANS: A Petechiae that are acquired during birth may extend over the upper portion of the trunk and face. These lesions are benign if they disappear within 2 days of birth and no new lesions appear. Petechiae may result from decreased platelet formation. In this infant, the presence of petechiae is more likely a soft-tissue injury resulting from the nuchal cord at birth. Unless the lesions do not dissipate in 2 days, no reason exists to alarm the family. Petechiae usually occur with a breech presentation vaginal birth.

5. The nurse is using the New Ballard Scale to determine the gestational age of a newborn. Which assessment finding is consistent with a gestational age of 40 weeks? a. Flexed posture b. Abundant lanugo c. Smooth, pink skin with visible veins d. Faint red marks on the soles of the feet

ANS: A Term infants typically have a flexed posture. Abundant lanugo; smooth, pink skin with visible veins; and faint red marks are usually observed on preterm infants.

8. The nurse is preparing to administer a hepatitis B virus (HBV) vaccine to a newborn. Which intervention by the nurse is correct? a. Obtaining a syringe with a 25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle for medication administration b. Confirming that the newborns mother has been infected with the HBV c. Assessing the dorsogluteal muscle as the preferred site for injection d. Confirming that the newborn is at least 24 hours old

ANS: A The HBV vaccine should be administered in the vastus lateralis muscle at childbirth with a 25-gauge, 5/8-inch needle and is recommended for all infants. If the infant is born to an infected mother who is a chronic HBV carrier, then the hepatitis vaccine and HBV immunoglobulin should be administered within 12 hours of childbirth.

25. The nurse should be cognizant of which important statement regarding care of the umbilical cord? a. The stump can become easily infected. b. If bleeding occurs from the vessels of the cord, then the nurse should immediately call for assistance. c. The cord clamp is removed at cord separation. d. The average cord separation time is 5 to 7 days.

ANS: A The cord stump is an excellent medium for bacterial growth. The nurse should first check the clamp (or tie) and apply a second one. If bleeding occurs and does not stop, then the nurse should call for assistance. The cord clamp is removed after 24 hours when it is dry. The average cord separation time is 10 to 14 days.

28. Nursing follow-up care often includes home visits for the new mother and her infant. Which information related to home visits is correct? a. Ideally, the visit is scheduled within 72 hours after discharge. b. Home visits are available in all areas. c. Visits are completed within a 30-minute time frame. d. Blood draws are not a part of the home visit.

ANS: A The home visit is ideally scheduled within 72 hours after discharge. This timing allows early assessment and intervention for problems with feedings, jaundice, newborn adaptation, and maternal-infant interaction. Because of geographic distances, home visits are not available in all locales. Visits are usually 60 to 90 minutes in length to allow enough time for assessment and teaching. When jaundice is found, the nurse can discuss the implications and check the transcutaneous bilirubin level or draw blood for testing.

17. The most serious complication of an infant heelstick is necrotizing osteochondritis resulting from lancet penetration of the bone. What approach should the nurse take when performing the test to prevent this complication? a. Lancet should penetrate at the outer aspect of the heel. b. Lancet should penetrate the walking surface of the heel. c. Lancet should penetrate the ball of the foot. d. Lancet should penetrate the area just below the fifth toe.

ANS: A The stick should be made at the outer aspect of the heel and should penetrate no deeper than 2.4 mm. Repeated trauma to the walking surface of the heel can cause fibrosis and scarring that can lead to problems with walking later in life. The ball of the foot and the area below the fifth toe are inappropriate sites for a heelstick.

12. A client is warm and asks for a fan in her room for her comfort. The nurse enters the room to assess the mother and her infant and finds the infant unwrapped in his crib with the fan blowing over him on "high." The nurse instructs the mother that the fan should not be directed toward the newborn and the newborn should be wrapped in a blanket. The mother asks why. The nurse's best response is: a. "Your baby may lose heat by convection, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the c

ANS: A "Your baby may lose heat by convection, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him" is an accurate statement. Conduction is the loss of heat from the body surface to cooler surfaces, not air, in direct contact with the newborn. Evaporation is loss of heat that occurs when a liquid is converted into a vapor. In the newborn heat loss by evaporation occurs as a result of vaporization of moisture from the skin. Cold stress may occur from excessive heat loss, but this does not imply that the infant will become stressed if not bundled at all times. Furthermore, excessive bundling may result in a rise in the infant's temperature.

20. As related to the normal functioning of the renal system in newborns, nurses should be aware that: a. The pediatrician should be notified if the newborn has not voided in 24 hours. b. Breastfed infants likely will void more often during the first days after birth. c. "Brick dust" or blood on a diaper is always cause to notify the physician. d. Weight loss from fluid loss and other normal factors should be made up in 4 to 7 days.

ANS: A A newborn who has not voided in 24 hours may have any of a number of problems, some of which deserve the attention of the pediatrician. Formula-fed infants tend to void more frequently in the first 3 days; breastfed infants void less during this time because the mother's breast milk has not come in yet. Brick dust may be uric acid crystals; blood spotting could be caused by withdrawal of maternal hormones (pseudomenstruation) or a circumcision. The physician must be notified only if there is no apparent cause of bleeding. Weight loss from fluid loss may take 14 days to regain.

7. A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the baby's hands and feet are blue. The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called: a. Acrocyanosis. c. Harlequin color. b. Erythema neonatorum. d. Vernix caseosa.

ANS: A Acrocyanosis, or the appearance of slightly cyanotic hands and feet, is caused by vasomotor instability, capillary stasis, and a high hemoglobin level. Acrocyanosis is normal and appears intermittently over the first 7 to 10 days. Erythema toxicum (also called erythema neonatorum) is a transient newborn rash that resembles flea bites. The harlequin sign is a benign, transient color change in newborns. Half of the body is pale, and the other half is ruddy or bluish red with a line of demarcation. Vernix caseosa is a cheeselike, whitish substance that serves as a protective covering.

34. The nurse should immediately alert the physician when: a. The infant is dusky and turns cyanotic when crying. b. Acrocyanosis is present at age 1 hour. c. The infant's blood glucose level is 45 mg/dL. d. The infant goes into a deep sleep at age 1 hour.

ANS: A An infant who is dusky and becomes cyanotic when crying is showing poor adaptation to extrauterine life. Acrocyanosis is an expected finding during the early neonatal life. This is within normal range for a newborn. Infants enter the period of deep sleep when they are about 1 hour old.

31. Nurses can prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn by: a. Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket. b. Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners. c. Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows. d. Warming the stethoscope and the nurse's hands before touching the baby.

ANS: A Because the infant is wet with amniotic fluid and blood, heat loss by evaporation occurs quickly.Heat loss by convection occurs when drafts come from open doors and air currents created by people moving around. If the heat loss is caused by placing the baby near cold surfaces or equipment, it is referred to as a radiation heat loss. Conduction heat loss occurs when the baby comes in contact with cold objects or surfaces.

29. A collection of blood between the skull bone and its periosteum is known as a cephalhematoma. To reassure the new parents whose infant develops such a soft bulge, it is important that the nurse be aware that this condition: a. May occur with spontaneous vaginal birth. b. Happens only as the result of a forceps or vacuum delivery. c. Is present immediately after birth. d. Will gradually absorb over the first few months of life.

ANS: A Bleeding may occur during a spontaneous vaginal delivery as a result of the pressure against the maternal bony pelvis. The soft, irreducible fullness does not pulsate or bulge when the infant cries. Low forceps and other difficult extractions may result in bleeding. However, cephalhematomas can also occur spontaneously. The swelling may appear unilaterally or bilaterally and is usually minimal or absent at birth. It increases over the first 2 to 3 days of life. Cephalhematomas disappear gradually over 2 to 3 weeks. A less common condition results in calcification of the hematoma, which may persist for months.

2. Part of the health assessment of a newborn is observing the infant's breathing pattern. A full-term newborn's breathing pattern is predominantly: a. Abdominal with synchronous chest movements. b. Chest breathing with nasal flaring. c. Diaphragmatic with chest retraction. d. Deep with a regular rhythm.

ANS: A In normal infant respiration the chest and abdomen rise synchronously, and breaths are shallow and irregular. Breathing with nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic breathing with chest retraction is a sign of respiratory distress. Infant breaths are not deep with a regular rhythm.

39. Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot? a. Babinski c. Stepping b. Tonic neck d. Plantar grasp

ANS: A The Babinski reflex causes the toes to flare outward and the big toe to dorsiflex. The tonic neck reflex (also called the fencing reflex) refers to the posture assumed by newborns when in a supine position. The stepping reflex occurs when infants are held upright with their heel touching a solid surface and the infant appears to be walking. Plantar grasp reflex is similar to the palmar grasp reflex: when the area below the toes is touched, the infant's toes curl over the nurse's finger.

16. With regard to the respiratory development of the newborn, nurses should be aware that: a. The first gasping breath is an exaggerated respiratory reaction within 1 minute of birth. b. Newborns must expel the fluid from the respiratory system within a few minutes of birth. c. Newborns are instinctive mouth breathers. d. Seesaw respirations are no cause for concern in the first hour after birth.

ANS: A The first breath produces a cry. Newborns continue to expel fluid for the first hour of life. Newborns are natural nose breathers; they may not have the mouth-breathing response to nasal blockage for 3 weeks. Seesaw respirations instead of normal abdominal respirations are not normal and should be reported.

27. The nurse caring for the newborn should be aware that the sensory system least mature at the time of birth is: a. Vision. c. Smell. b. Hearing. d. Taste.

ANS: A The visual system continues to develop for the first 6 months. As soon as the amniotic fluid drains from the ear (minutes), the infant's hearing is similar to that of an adult. Newborns have a highly developed sense of smell. The newborn can distinguish and react to various tastes.

23. The cheeselike, whitish substance that fuses with the epidermis and serves as a protective coating is called: a. Vernix caseosa. c. Caput succedaneum. b. Surfactant. d. Acrocyanosis.

ANS: A This protection, vernix caseosa, is needed because the infant's skin is so thin. Surfactant is a protein that lines the alveoli of the infant's lungs. Caput succedaneum is the swelling of the tissue over the presenting part of the fetal head. Acrocyanosis is cyanosis of the hands and feet that results in a blue coloring.

1. Pain should be regularly assessed in all newborns. If the infant is displaying physiologic or behavioral cues that indicate pain, then measures should be taken to manage the pain. Which interventions are examples of nonpharmacologic pain management techniques? (Select all that apply.) a. Swaddling b. Nonnutritive sucking c. Skin-to-skin contact with the mother d. Sucrose e. Acetaminophen

ANS: A, B, C, D Swaddling, nonnutritive sucking, skin-to-skin contact with the mother, and sucrose are all appropriate nonpharmacologic techniques used to manage pain in neonates. Acetaminophen is a pharmacologic method of treating pain.

3. The Period of Purple Crying is a program developed to educate new parents about infant crying and the dangers of shaking a baby. Each letter in the acronym PURPLE represents a key concept of this program. Which concepts are accurate? (Select all that apply.) a. P: peak of crying and painful expression b. U: unexpected c. R: baby is resting at last d. L: extremely loud e. E: evening

ANS: A, B, E P: peak of crying; U: unexpectedcomes and goes; R: resists soothing; P: painline face; L: longlasting up to 5 hours a day; and E: evening or late afternoon. Many hospitals now provide parents with an educational DVD and provide education before discharge.

2. As recently as 2005, the AAP revised safe sleep practices to assist in the prevention of SIDS. The nurse should model these practices in the hospital and incorporate this information into the teaching plan for new parents. Which practices are ideal for role modeling? (Select all that apply.) a. Fully supine position for all sleep b. Side-sleeping position as an acceptable alternative c. Tummy time for play d. Infant sleep sacks or buntings e. Soft mattress

ANS: A, C, D The back to sleep position is now recommended as the only position for every sleep period. To prevent positional plagiocephaly (flattening of the head) the infant should spend time on his or her abdomen while awake and for play. Loose sheets and blankets may be dangerous because they could easily cover the babys head. The parents should be instructed to tuck any bedding securely around the mattress or use sleep sacks or bunting bags instead. The side-sleeping position is no longer an acceptable alternative position, according to the AAP. Infants should always sleep on a firm surface, ideally a firm crib mattress covered by a sheet only. Quilts and sheepskins, among other bedding, should not be placed under the infant.

14. The transition period between intrauterine and extrauterine existence for the newborn: a. Consists of four phases, two reactive and two of decreased responses. b. Lasts from birth to day 28 of life. c. Applies to full-term births only. d. Varies by socioeconomic status and the mother's age.

ANS: B Changes begin right after birth; the cutoff time when the transition is considered over (although the baby keeps changing) is 28 days. The transition period has three phases: first reactivity, decreased response, and second reactivity. All newborns experience this transition regardless of age or type of birth. Although stress can cause variation in the phases, the mother's age and wealth do not disturb the pattern.

38. The process in which bilirubin is changed from a fat-soluble product to a water-soluble product is known as: a. Enterohepatic circuit. c. Unconjugation of bilirubin. b. Conjugation of bilirubin. d. Albumin binding.

ANS: B Conjugation of bilirubin is the process of changing the bilirubin from a fat-soluble to a water-soluble product. This is the route by which part of the bile produced by the liver enters the intestine, is reabsorbed by the liver, and then is recycled into the intestine. Unconjugated bilirubin is fat soluble. Albumin binding is to attach something to a protein molecule.

4. A newborn is placed under a radiant heat warmer, and the nurse evaluates the infant's body temperature every hour. Maintaining the newborn's body temperature is important for preventing: a. Respiratory depression. b. Cold stress. c. Tachycardia. d. Vasoconstriction.

ANS: B Loss of heat must be controlled to protect the infant from the metabolic and physiologic effects of cold stress, and that is the primary reason for placing a newborn under a radiant heat warmer. Cold stress results in an increased respiratory rate and vasoconstriction.

25. An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skin folds during the Ortolani maneuver would then: a. Tell the parents that one leg may be longer than the other, but they will equal out by the time the infant is walking. b. Alert the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip. c. Inform the parents and physician that molding has not taken place. d. Suggest that, if the condition does not change, surgery to correct vision problems may be needed.

ANS: B The Ortolani maneuver is a technique for checking hip integrity. Unequal movement suggests that the hip is dislocated. The physician should be notified.

18. By knowing about variations in infants' blood count, nurses can explain to their clients that: a. A somewhat lower than expected red blood cell count could be the result of delay in clamping the umbilical cord. b. The early high white blood cell (WBC) count is normal at birth and should decrease rapidly. c. Platelet counts are higher than in adults for a few months. d. Even a modest vitamin K deficiency means a problem with the ability of the blood to clot properly.

ANS: B The WBC count is high the first day of birth and then declines rapidly. Delayed clamping of the cord results in an increase in hemoglobin and the red blood cell count. The platelet count essentially is the same for newborns and adults. Clotting is sufficient to prevent hemorrhage unless the vitamin K deficiency is significant.

1. A woman gave birth to a healthy 7-pound, 13-ounce infant girl. The nurse suggests that the woman place the infant to her breast within 15 minutes after birth. The nurse knows that breastfeeding is effective during the first 30 minutes after birth because this is the: a. Transition period. b. First period of reactivity c. Organizational stage. d. Second period of reactivity.

ANS: B The first period of reactivity is the first phase of transition and lasts up to 30 minutes after birth. The infant is highly alert during this phase. The transition period is the phase between intrauterine and extrauterine existence. There is no such phase as the organizational stage. The second period of reactivity occurs roughly between 4 and 8 hours after birth, after a period of prolonged sleep.

33. Cardiovascular changes that cause the foramen ovale to close at birth are a direct result of: a. Increased pressure in the right atrium. b. Increased pressure in the left atrium. c. Decreased blood flow to the left ventricle. d. Changes in the hepatic blood flow.

ANS: B With the increase in the blood flow to the left atrium from the lungs, the pressure is increased, and the foramen ovale is functionally closed. The pressure in the right atrium decreases at birth. It is higher during fetal life. Blood flow increases to the left ventricle after birth. The hepatic blood flow changes, but that is not the reason for the closure of the foramen ovale.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn girl who is 2 hours old. Which finding warrants a call to the health care provider? a. Blood glucose of 45 mg/dl using a Dextrostix screening method b. Heart rate of 160 beats per minute after vigorously crying c. Laceration of the cheek d. Passage of a dark black-green substance from the rectum

ANS: C Accidental lacerations can be inflicted by a scalpel during a cesarean birth. They are most often found on the scalp or buttocks and may require an adhesive strip for closure. Parents would be overly concerned about a laceration on the cheek. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dl and a heart rate of 160 beats per minute after crying are both normal findings that do not warrant a call to the physician. The passage of meconium from the rectum is an expected finding in the newborn.

13. Which statement accurately describes an appropriate-for-gestational age (AGA) weight assessment? a. AGA weight assessment falls between the 25th and 75th percentiles for the infants age. b. AGA weight assessment depends on the infants length and the size of the newborns head. c. AGA weight assessment falls between the 10th and 90th percentiles for the infants age. d. AGA weight assessment is modified to consider intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).

ANS: C An AGA weight falls between the 10th and 90th percentiles for the infants age. The AGA range is larger than the 25th and 75th percentiles. The infants length and head size are measured, but these measurements do not affect the normal weight designation. IUGR applies to the fetus, not to the newborns weight.

1. An infant boy was delivered minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. When should the Apgar assessment be performed? a. Only if the newborn is in obvious distress b. Once by the obstetrician, just after the birth c. At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth d. Every 15 minutes during the newborns first hour after birth

ANS: C Apgar scoring is performed at 1 minute and at 5 minutes after birth. Scoring may continue at 5-minute intervals if the infant is in distress and requires resuscitation efforts. The Apgar score is performed on all newborns. Apgar score can be completed by the nurse or the birth attendant. The Apgar score permits a rapid assessment of the newborns transition to extrauterine life. An interval of every 15 minutes is too long to wait to complete this assessment.

22. A mother expresses fear about changing her infants diaper after he is circumcised. What does the client need to be taught to care for her newborn son? a. Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours. b. Apply constant, firm pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for at least 5 minutes if bleeding occurs. c. Gently cleanse the penis with water and apply petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change. d. Wash off the yellow exudate that forms

ANS: C Gently cleansing the penis with water and applying petroleum jelly around the glans after each diaper change are appropriate techniques when caring for an infant who has had a circumcision. With each diaper change, the penis should be washed with warm water to remove any urine or feces. If bleeding occurs, then the mother should apply gentle pressure to the site of the bleeding with a sterile gauze square. Yellow exudates are part of normal healing and cover the glans penis 24 hours after the circumcision; yellow exudates are not an infective process and should not be removed.

15. The nurse is teaching new parents about metabolic screening for the newborn. Which statement is most helpful to these clients? a. All states test for phenylketonuria (PKU), hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell diseases. b. Federal law prohibits newborn genetic testing without parental consent. c. If genetic screening is performed before the infant is 24 hours old, then it should be repeated at age 1 to 2 weeks. d. Hearing screening is now mandated by federal law.

ANS: C If testing is performed before the infant is 24 hours old, then genetic screening should be repeated when the infant is 1 to 2 weeks old. All states test for PKU and hypothyroidism but not for other genetic defects. Federal law mandates newborn genetic screening; however, parents can decline the testing. A waiver should be signed, and a notation made in the infants medical record. Federal law does not mandate screening for hearing problems; however, the majority of states have enacted legislation mandating newborn hearing screening. In the United States, the majority (95%) of infants are screened for hearing loss before discharge from the hospital.

6. A newborn is jaundiced and is receiving phototherapy via ultraviolet bank lights. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia and receiving phototherapy? a. Applying an oil-based lotion to the newborns skin to prevent dying and cracking b. Limiting the newborns intake of milk to prevent nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea c. Placing eye shields over the newborns closed eyes d. Changing the newborns position every 4 hours

ANS: C The infants eyes must be protected by an opaque mask to prevent overexposure to the light. Eye shields should completely cover the eyes but not occlude the nares. Lotions and ointments should not be applied to the infant because they absorb heat and can cause burns. The lights increase insensible water loss, placing the infant at risk for fluid loss and dehydration. Therefore, adequate hydration is important for the infant. The infant should be turned every 2 hours to expose all body surfaces to the light.

18. If the newborn has excess secretions, the mouth and nasal passages can be easily cleared with a bulb syringe. How should the nurse instruct the parents on the use of this instrument? a. Avoid suctioning the nares. b. Insert the compressed bulb into the center of the mouth. c. Suction the mouth first. d. Remove the bulb syringe from the crib when finished.

ANS: C The mouth should always be suctioned first to prevent the infant from inhaling pharyngeal secretions by gasping as the nares are suctioned. After compressing the bulb, the syringe should be inserted into one side of the mouth. If it is inserted into the center of the mouth, then the gag reflex is likely to be initiated. When the infants cry no longer sounds as though it is through mucus or a bubble, suctioning can be stopped. The nasal passages should be suctioned one nostril at a time. The bulb syringe should remain in the crib so that it is easily accessible if needed again.

9. The nurse is performing a gestational age and physical assessment on the newborn. The infant appears to have an excessive amount of saliva. This clinical finding may be indicative of what? a. Excessive saliva is a normal finding in the newborn. b. Excessive saliva in a neonate indicates that the infant is hungry. c. It may indicate that the infant has a tracheoesophageal fistula or esophageal atresia. d. Excessive saliva may indicate that the infant has a diaphragmatic hernia.

ANS: C The presence of excessive saliva in a neonate should alert the nurse to the possibility of a tracheoesophageal fistula or esophageal atresia. Excessive salivation may not be a normal finding and should be further assessed for the possibility that the infant has an esophageal abnormality. The hungry infant reacts by making sucking motions, rooting, or making hand-to-mouth movements. The infant with a diaphragmatic hernia exhibits severe respiratory distress.

4. What is the rationale for the administration of vitamin K to the healthy full-term newborn? a. Most mothers have a diet deficient in vitamin K, which results in the infant being deficient. b. Vitamin K prevents the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver and must be administered by injection. c. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborns intestinal tract. d. The supply of vitamin K in the healthy full-term newborn is inadequate for at least 3 to 4 months and must

ANS: C Vitamin K is provided because the newborn does not have the intestinal flora to produce this vitamin for the first week. The maternal diet has no bearing on the amount of vitamin K found in the newborn. Vitamin K promotes the formation of clotting factors in the liver and is used for the prevention and treatment of hemorrhagic disease in the newborn. Vitamin K is not produced in the intestinal tract of the newborn until after microorganisms are introduced. By day 8, normal newborns are able to produce their own vitamin K.

11. What is the primary rationale for nurses wearing gloves when handling the newborn? a. To protect the baby from infection b. As part of the Apgar protocol c. To protect the nurse from contamination by the newborn d. Because the nurse has the primary responsibility for the baby during the first 2 hours

ANS: C With the possibility of transmission of viruses such as HBV and the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) through maternal blood and amniotic fluid, the newborn must be considered a potential contamination source until proven otherwise. As part of Standard Precautions, nurses should wear gloves when handling the newborn until blood and amniotic fluid are removed by bathing. Proper hand hygiene is all that is necessary to protect the infant from infection. Wearing gloves is not necessary to complete the Apgar score assessment. The nurse assigned to the mother-baby couplet has primary responsibility for the newborn, regardless of whether or not she wears gloves.

21. With regard to the gastrointestinal (GI) system of the newborn, nurses should be aware that: a. The newborn's cheeks are full because of normal fluid retention. b. The nipple of the bottle or breast must be placed well inside the baby's mouth because teeth have been developing in utero, and one or more may even be through. c. Regurgitation during the first day or two can be reduced by burping the infant and slightly elevating the baby's head. d. Bacteria are already present in the infant's G

ANS: C Avoiding overfeeding can also reduce regurgitation. The newborn's cheeks are full because of well-developed sucking pads. Teeth do develop in utero, but the nipple is placed deep because the baby cannot move food from the lips to the pharynx. Bacteria are not present at birth, but they soon enter through various orifices.

11. While assessing the integument of a 24-hour-old newborn, the nurse notes a pink, papular rash with vesicles superimposed on the thorax, back, and abdomen. The nurse should: a. Notify the physician immediately. b. Move the newborn to an isolation nursery. c. Document the finding as erythema toxicum. d. Take the newborn's temperature and obtain a culture of one of the vesicles.

ANS: C Erythema toxicum (or erythema neonatorum) is a newborn rash that resembles flea bites. This is a normal finding that does not require notification of the physician, isolation of the newborn, or any additional interventions.

37. A meconium stool can be differentiated from a transitional stool in the newborn because the meconium stool is: a. Seen at age 3 days. b. The residue of a milk curd. c. Passed in the first 12 hours of life. d. Lighter in color and looser in consistency.

ANS: C Meconium stool is usually passed in the first 12 hours of life, and 99% of newborns have their first stool within 48 hours. If meconium is not passed by 48 hours, obstruction is suspected. Meconium stool is the first stool of the newborn and is made up of matter remaining in the intestines during intrauterine life. Meconium is dark and sticky.

24. What marks on a baby's skin may indicate an underlying problem that requires notification of a physician? a. Mongolian spots on the back b. Telangiectatic nevi on the nose or nape of the neck c. Petechiae scattered over the infant's body d. Erythema toxicum anywhere on the body

ANS: C Petechiae (bruises) scattered over the infant's body should be reported to the pediatrician because they may indicate underlying problems. Mongolian spots are bluish-black spots that resemble bruises but fade gradually over months and have no clinical significance. Telangiectatic nevi (stork bites, angel kisses) fade by the second year and have no clinical significance. Erythema toxicum is an appalling-looking rash, but it has no clinical significance and requires no treatment.

32. A first-time dad is concerned that his 3-day-old daughter's skin looks "yellow." In the nurse's explanation of physiologic jaundice, what fact should be included? a. Physiologic jaundice occurs during the first 24 hours of life. b. Physiologic jaundice is caused by blood incompatibilities between the mother and infant blood types. c. The bilirubin levels of physiologic jaundice peak between the second and fourth days of life. d. This condition is also known as "breast milk jaundice."

ANS: C Physiologic jaundice becomes visible when the serum bilirubin reaches a level of 5 mg/dL or greater, which occurs when the baby is approximately 3 days old. This finding is within normal limits for the newborn. Pathologic jaundice occurs during the first 24 hours of life. Pathologic jaundice is caused by blood incompatibilities, causing excessive destruction of erythrocytes, and must be investigated. Breast milk jaundice occurs in one third of breastfed infants at 2 weeks and is caused by an insufficient intake of fluids.

6. While examining a newborn, the nurse notes uneven skin folds on the buttocks and a click when performing the Ortolani maneuver. The nurse recognizes these findings as a sign that the newborn probably has: a. Polydactyly. b. Clubfoot. c. Hip dysplasia. d. Webbing

ANS: C The Ortolani maneuver is used to detect the presence of hip dysplasia. Polydactyly is the presence of extra digits. Clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) is a deformity in which the foot turns inward and is fixed in a plantar-flexion position. Webbing, or syndactyly, is a fusing of the fingers or toes

3. While assessing the newborn, the nurse should be aware that the average expected apical pulse range of a full-term, quiet, alert newborn is: a. 80 to 100 beats/min. b. 100 to 120 beats/min. c. 120 to 160 beats/min. d. 150 to 180 beats/min.

ANS: C The average infant heart rate while awake is 120 to 160 beats/min. The newborn's heart rate may be about 85 to 100 beats/min while sleeping. The infant's heart rate typically is a bit higher when alert but quiet. A heart rate of 150 to 180 beats/min is typical when the infant cries.

36. In administering vitamin K to the infant shortly after birth, the nurse understands that vitamin K is: a. Important in the production of red blood cells. b. Necessary in the production of platelets. c. Not initially synthesized because of a sterile bowel at birth. d. Responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin and prevention of jaundice.

ANS: C The bowel is initially sterile in the newborn, and vitamin K cannot be synthesized until food is introduced into the bowel. Vitamin K is necessary to activate blood clotting factors. The platelet count in term newborns is near adult levels. Vitamin K is necessary to activate prothrombin and other clotting factors.

17. With regard to the newborn's developing cardiovascular system, nurses should be aware that: a. The heart rate of a crying infant may rise to 120 beats/min. b. Heart murmurs heard after the first few hours are cause for concern. c. The point of maximal impulse (PMI) often is visible on the chest wall. d. Persistent bradycardia may indicate respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).

ANS: C The newborn's thin chest wall often allows the PMI to be seen. The normal heart rate for infants who are not sleeping is 120 to 160 beats/min. However, a crying infant temporarily could have a heart rate of 180 beats/min. Heart murmurs during the first few days of life have no pathologic significance; an irregular heart rate past the first few hours should be evaluated further. Persistent tachycardia may indicate RDS; bradycardia may be a sign of congenital heart blockage.

19. As part of the infant discharge instructions, the nurse is reviewing the use of the infant car safety seat. Which information is the highest priority for the nurse to share? a. Infant carriers are okay to use until an infant car safety seat can be purchased. b. For traveling on airplanes, buses, and trains, infant carriers are satisfactory. c. Infant car safety seats are used for infants only from birth to 15 pounds. d. Infant car seats should be rear facing and placed in the back se

ANS: D An infant placed in the front seat could be severely injured by an air bag that deploys during an automobile accident. Infants should travel only in federally approved, rear-facing safety seats secured in the rear seat and only in federally approved safety seats even when traveling on a commercial vehicle. Infants should use a rear-facing car seat from birth to 20 pounds and to age 1 year.

24. How should the nurse interpret an Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth? a. The infant is having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needs no further testing. b. The infant is in severe distress and needs resuscitation. c. The nurse predicts a future free of neurologic problems. d. The infant is having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth.

ANS: D An initial Apgar score of 10 is a good sign of healthy adaptation; however, the test must be repeated at the 5-minute mark.

29. Screening for critical congenital heart disease (CCHD) was added to the uniform screening panel in 2011. The nurse has explained this testing to the new mother. Which action by the nurse related to this test is correct? a. Screening is performed when the infant is 12 hours of age. b. Testing is performed with an electrocardiogram. c. Oxygen (O2) is measured in both hands and in the right foot. d. A passing result is an O2 saturation of 95%.

ANS: D Screening is performed when the infant is between 24 and 48 hours of age. The test is performed using pulse oximetry technology. O2 is measured in the right hand and one foot. A passing result is an O2 saturation of 95% with a 3% absolute difference between upper and lower extremity readings.

26. As part of their teaching function at discharge, nurses should educate parents regarding safe sleep. Based on the most recent evidence, which information is incorrect and should be discussed with parents? a. Prevent exposure to people with upper respiratory tract infections. b. Keep the infant away from secondhand smoke. c. Avoid loose bedding, water beds, and beanbag chairs. d. Place the infant on his or her abdomen to sleep.

ANS: D The infant should be laid down to sleep on his or her back for better breathing and to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Grandmothers may encourage the new parents to place the infant on the abdomen; however, evidence shows back to sleep reduces SIDS. Infants are vulnerable to respiratory infections; therefore, infected people must be kept away. Secondhand smoke can damage lungs. Infants can suffocate in loose bedding and in furniture that can trap them. Per AAP guidelines, infants should always be placed back to sleep and allowed tummy time to play to prevent plagiocephaly.

7. Early this morning, an infant boy was circumcised using the PlastiBell method. Based on the nurses evaluation, when will the infant be ready for discharge? a. When the bleeding completely stops b. When yellow exudate forms over the glans c. When the PlastiBell plastic rim (bell) falls off d. When the infant voids

ANS: D The infant should be observed for urination after the circumcision. Bleeding is a common complication after circumcision, and the nurse will check the penis for 12 hours after a circumcision to assess and provide appropriate interventions for the prevention and treatment of bleeding. Yellow exudate covers the glans penis in 24 hours after the circumcision and is part of normal healing; yellow exudate is not an infective process. The PlastiBell plastic rim (bell) remains in place for approximately a week and falls off when healing has taken place.

20. A nurse is responsible for teaching new parents regarding the hygienic care of their newborn. Which instruction should the nurse provide regarding bathing? a. Avoid washing the head for at least 1 week to prevent heat loss. b. Sponge bathe the newborn for the first month of life. c. Cleanse the ears and nose with cotton-tipped swabs, such as Q-tips. d. Create a draft-free environment of at least 24 C (75 F) when bathing the infant.

ANS: D The temperature of the room should be 24 C (75 F), and the bathing area should be free of drafts. To prevent heat loss, the infants head should be bathed before unwrapping and undressing. Tub baths may be initiated from birth. Ensure that the infant is fully immersed. Q-tips should not be used; they may cause injury. A corner of a moistened washcloth should be twisted into shape so that it can be used to cleanse the ears and nose.

5. An African-American woman noticed some bruises on her newborn girl's buttocks. She asks the nurse who spanked her daughter. The nurse explains that these marks are called: a. Lanugo. b. Vascular nevi. c. Nevus flammeus. d. Mongolian spots.

ANS: D A Mongolian spot is a bluish black area of pigmentation that may appear over any part of the exterior surface of the body. It is more commonly noted on the back and buttocks and most frequently is seen on infants whose ethnic origins are Mediterranean, Latin American, Asian, or African. Lanugo is the fine, downy hair seen on a term newborn. A vascular nevus, commonly called a strawberry mark, is a type of capillary hemangioma. A nevus flammeus, commonly called a port-wine stain, is most frequently found on the face.

28. During life in utero, oxygenation of the fetus occurs through transplacental gas exchange. When birth occurs, four factors combine to stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla. The initiation of respiration then follows. Which is not one of these essential factors? a. Chemical c. Thermal b. Mechanical d. Psychologic

ANS: D A psychologic factor is not one of the essential factors in the initiation of breathing; the fourth factor is sensory. The sensory factors include handling by the provider, drying by the nurse, lights, smells, and sounds. Chemical factors are essential for the initiation of breathing. During labor, decreased levels of oxygen and increased levels of carbon dioxide seem to have a cumulative effect that is involved in the initiation of breathing. Clamping of the cord may also contribute to the start of respirations. Prostaglandins are known to inhibit breathing, and clamping of the cord results in a drop in the level of prostaglandins. Mechanical factors also are necessary to initiate respirations. As the infant passes through the birth canal, the chest is compressed. With birth the chest is relaxed, which allows for negative intrathoracic pressure that encourages air to flow into the lungs. The profound change in temperature between intrauterine

22. Which statement describing physiologic jaundice is incorrect? a. Neonatal jaundice is common, but kernicterus is rare. b. The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours or beyond day 7 indicates a pathologic process. c. Because jaundice may not appear before discharge, parents need instruction on how to assess it and when to call for medical help. d. Breastfed babies have a lower incidence of jaundice.

ANS: D Breastfeeding is associated with an increased incidence of jaundice. Neonatal jaundice occurs in 60% of newborns; the complication called kernicterus is rare. Jaundice in the first 24 hours or that persists past day 7 is cause for medical concern. Parents need to know how to assess for jaundice in their newborn.

10. While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a "C" with the thumb and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse would document this finding as a positive: a. Tonic neck reflex. c. Babinski reflex. b. Glabellar (Myerson) reflex. d. Moro reflex.

ANS: D The characteristics displayed by the infant are associated with a positive Moro reflex. The tonic neck reflex occurs when the infant extends the leg on the side to which the infant's head simultaneously turns. The glabellar reflex is elicited by tapping on the infant's head while the eyes are open. A characteristic response is blinking for the first few taps. The Babinski reflex occurs when the sole of the foot is stroked upward along the lateral aspect of the sole and then across the ball of the foot. A positive response occurs when all the toes hyperextend, with dorsiflexion of the big toe.

30. A nursing student is helping the nursery nurses with morning vital signs. A baby born 10 hours ago by cesarean section is found to have moist lung sounds. What is the best interpretation of these data? a. The nurse should notify the pediatrician stat for this emergency situation. b. The neonate must have aspirated surfactant. c. If this baby was born vaginally, it could indicate a pneumothorax. d. The lungs of a baby delivered by cesarean section may sound moist for 24 hours after birth.

ANS: D The condition will resolve itself within a few hours. For this common condition of newborns, surfactant acts to keep the expanded alveoli partially open between respirations. In vaginal births, absorption of remaining lung fluid is accelerated by the process of labor and delivery. Remaining lung fluid will move into interstitial spaces and be absorbed by the circulatory and lymphatic systems. This is a particularly common condition for infants delivered by cesarean section. Surfactant is produced by the lungs, so aspiration is not a concern.

15. Which statement describing the first phase of the transition period is inaccurate? a. It lasts no longer than 30 minutes. b. It is marked by spontaneous tremors, crying, and head movements. c. It includes the passage of meconium. d. It may involve the infant's suddenly sleeping briefly.

ANS: D The first phase is an active phase in which the baby is alert. Decreased activity and sleep mark the second phase. The first phase is the shortest, lasting less than 30 minutes. Such exploratory behaviors include spontaneous startle reactions. In the first phase the newborn also produces saliva.

8. The nurse assessing a newborn knows that the most critical physiologic change required of the newborn is: a. Closure of fetal shunts in the circulatory system. b. Full function of the immune defense system at birth. c. Maintenance of a stable temperature. d. Initiation and maintenance of respirations.

ANS: D The most critical adjustment of a newborn at birth is the establishment of respirations. The cardiovascular system changes markedly after birth as a result of fetal respiration, which reduces pulmonary vascular resistance to the pulmonary blood flow and initiates a chain of cardiac changes that support the cardiovascular system. The infant relies on passive immunity received from the mother for the first 3 months of life. After the establishment of respirations, heat regulation is critical to newborn survival.

19. What infant response to cool environmental conditions is either not effective or not available to them? a. Constriction of peripheral blood vessels b. Metabolism of brown fat c. Increased respiratory rates d. Unflexing from the normal position

ANS: D The newborn's flexed position guards against heat loss because it reduces the amount of body surface exposed to the environment. The newborn's body is able to constrict the peripheral blood vessels to reduce heat loss. Burning brown fat generates heat. The respiratory rate may rise to stimulate muscular activity, which generates heat.

26. One reason the brain is vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies and trauma in early infancy is the: a. Incompletely developed neuromuscular system. b. Primitive reflex system. c. Presence of various sleep-wake states. d. Cerebellum growth spurt.

ANS: D The vulnerability of the brain likely is to the result of the cerebellum growth spurt. The neuromuscular system is almost completely developed at birth. The reflex system is not relevant. The various sleep-wake states are not relevant.

The breastfeeding mother should be taught a safe method to remove the breast from the babys mouth. Which suggestion by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Slowly remove the breast from the babys mouth when the infant has fallen asleep and the jaws are relaxed. b. Break the suction by inserting your finger into the corner of the infants mouth. c. A popping sound occurs when the breast is correctly removed from the infants mouth. d. Elicit the Moro reflex to wake the baby and remove the breast w

B. Break the suction by inserting your finger into the corner of the infants mouth. Inserting a finger into the corner of the baby's mouth between the gums to break the suction avoids trauma to the breast. The infant who is sleeping may lose grasp on the nipple and areola, resulting in chewing on the nipple that makes it sore. A popping sound indicates improper removal of the breast from the baby's mouth and may cause cracks or fissures in the breast. Most mothers prefer the infant to continue to sleep after the feeding. Gentle wake-up techniques are recommended.

The nurse is explaining the benefits associated with breastfeeding to a new mother. Which statement by the nurse would provide CONFLICTING information to the client? a. Women who breastfeed have a decreased risk of breast cancer. b. Breastfeeding is an effective method of birth control. c. Breastfeeding increases bone density. d. Breastfeeding may enhance postpartum weight loss.

B. Breastfeeding is an effective method of birth control. Although breastfeeding delays the return of fertility, it is not an effective birth control method. Women who breastfeed have a decreased risk of breast cancer, an increase in bone density, and a possibility of faster postpartum weight loss.

A new father is ready to take his wife and newborn son home. He proudly tells the nurse who is discharging them that within the next week he plans to start feeding the infant cereal between breastfeeding sessions. Which information should the nurse provide regarding this feeding plan? a. Feeding solid foods before your son is 4 to 6 months old may decrease your sons intake of sufficient calories. b. Feeding solid foods between breastfeeding sessions before your son is 4 to 6 months old will le

B. Feeding solid foods between breastfeeding sessions before your son is 4 to 6 months old will lead to an early cessation of breastfeeding. Think: If they are eating something else in addition to drinking milk, they won't drink as much because the baby is full. The introduction of solid foods before the infant is 4 to 6 months of age may result in overfeeding and decreased intake of breast milk. The belief that feeding solid foods helps infants sleep through the night is untrue. The proper balance of carbohydrate, protein, and fat for an infant to grow properly is in the breast milk or formula.

A new mother recalls from prenatal class that she should try to feed her newborn daughter when she exhibits feeding readiness cues rather than waiting until her infant is crying frantically. Which feeding cue would indicate that the baby is ready to eat? a. Waves her arms in the air. b. Makes sucking motions. c. Has hiccups. d. Stretches her legs out straight.

B. Makes sucking motions. Sucking motions, rooting, mouthing, and hand-to-mouth motions are examples of feeding readiness cues. Waving her arms in the air, having the hiccups, and stretching out her extremities are not typical feeding readiness cues.

Which instruction should the nurse provide to REDUCE the risk of nipple trauma? a. Limit the feeding time to less than 5 minutes. b. Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth. c. Assess the nipples before each feeding. d. Wash the nipples daily with mild soap and water.

B. Position the infant so the nipple is far back in the mouth. If the infants mouth does not cover as much of the areola as possible, the pressure during sucking will be applied to the nipple, thus causing trauma to the area. Stimulating the breast for less than 5 minutes will not produce the extra milk the infant may need and will also limit access to the higher-fat hindmilk. Assessing the nipples for trauma is important; however, this action alone will not prevent sore nipples. Soap can be drying to the nipples and should be avoided during breastfeeding.

As the nurse assists a new mother with breastfeeding, the client asks, If formula is prepared to meet the nutritional needs of the newborn, what is in breast milk that makes it better? What is the nurses best response? a. More calories b. Essential amino acids c. Important immunoglobulins d. More calcium

C. Important immunoglobulins Breast milk contains immunoglobulins that protect the newborn against infection. The calorie count of formula and breast milk is approximately the same. All the essential amino acids are in both formula and breast milk; however, the concentrations may differ. Calcium levels are higher in formula than in breast milk, which can cause an excessively high renal solute load if the formula is not properly diluted.

Which action by the mother will initiate the milk ejection reflex (MER)? a. Wearing a firm-fitting bra b. Drinking plenty of fluids c. Placing the infant to the breast d. Applying cool packs to her breast

C. Placing the infant to the breast Oxytocin, which causes the MER reflex, increases in response to nipple stimulation. A firm bra is important to support the breast; however, it will not initiate the MER reflex. Drinking plenty of fluids is necessary for adequate milk production, but adequate intake of water alone will not initiate the MER reflex. Cool packs to the breast will decrease the MER reflex.

Which type of formula is NOT diluted with water, before being administered to an infant? a. Powdered b. Concentrated c. Ready-to-use d. Modified cows milk

C. Ready-to-use Ready-to-use formula can be poured directly from the can into the babys bottle and is good (but expensive) when a proper water supply is not available. Formula should be well mixed to dissolve the powder and make it uniform in consistency. Improper dilution of concentrated formula may cause malnutrition or sodium imbalances. Cows milk is more difficult for the infant to digest and is not recommended, even if it is diluted.

Which information should the nurse provide to a breastfeeding mother regarding optimal self-care? a. She will need an extra 1000 calories a day to maintain energy and produce milk. b. She can return to prepregnancy consumption patterns of any drinks as long as she gets enough calcium. c. She should avoid trying to lose large amounts of weight. d. She must avoid exercising because it is too fatiguing.

C. She should avoid trying to lose large amounts of weight. Large weight loss releases fat-stored contaminants into her breast milk, and it also involves eating too little and/or exercising too much. A breastfeeding mother needs to add only 200 to 500 extra calories to her diet to provide the extra nutrients for her infant. However, this is true only if she does not drink alcohol, limits coffee to no more than two cups (including caffeine in chocolate, tea, and some sodas, too), and carefully reads the herbal tea ingredients. Although she needs her rest, moderate exercise is healthy.

In assisting the breastfeeding mother to position the baby, which information regarding positioning is important for the nurse to keep in mind? a. The cradle position is usually preferred by mothers who had a cesarean birth. b. Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the modified cradle position. c. Whatever the position used, the infant is belly to belly with the mother. d. While supporting the head, the mother should push gently on the occiput.

C. Whatever the position used, the infant is belly to belly with the mother. The infant naturally faces the mother, belly to belly. The football position is usually preferred after a cesarean birth. Women with perineal pain and swelling prefer the side-lying position because they can rest while breastfeeding. The mother should never push on the back of the head. It may cause the baby to bite, hyperextend the neck, or develop an aversion to being brought near the breast.

According to demographic research, which woman is least likely to breastfeed and therefore most likely to need education regarding the benefits and proper techniques of breastfeeding? a. Between 30 and 35 years of age, Caucasian, and employed part time outside the home b. Younger than 25 years of age, Hispanic, and unemployed c. Younger than 25 years of age, African-American, and employed full time outside the home d. 35 years of age or older, Caucasian, and employed full time at home

C. Younger than 25 years of age, African-American, and employed full time outside the home think: another racist thing said about black people, but also think if someone isnt at home near the baby they prob wont breastfeed either. Women least likely to breastfeed are typically younger than 25 years of age, have a lower income, are less educated, are employed full time outside the home, and are African-American.

A postpartum woman telephones the provider regarding her 5-day-old infant. The client is not scheduled for another weight check until the infant is 14 days old. The new mother is worried about whether breastfeeding is going well. Which statement indicates that breastfeeding is effective for meeting the infants nutritional needs? a. Sleeps for 6 hours at a time between feedings b. Has at least one breast milk stool every 24 hours c. Gains 1 to 2 ounces per week d. Has at least six to eight we

D. Has at least six to eight wet diapers per day After day 4, when the mothers milk comes in, the infant should have six to eight wet diapers every 24 hours. Typically, infants sleep 2 to 4 hours between feedings, depending on whether they are being fed on a 2- to 3-hour schedule or cluster-fed. The infants sleep pattern is not an indication whether the infant is breastfeeding well. The infant should have a minimum of three bowel movements in a 24-hour period. Breastfed infants typically gain 15 to 30 g/day.

Nurses should be able to teach breastfeeding mothers the signs that the infant has correctly latched on. Which client statement indicates a POOR latch? a. I feel a firm tugging sensation on my nipples but not pinching or pain. b. My baby sucks with cheeks rounded, not dimpled. c. My babys jaw glides smoothly with sucking. d. I hear a clicking or smacking sound.

D. I hear a clicking or smacking sound. The clicking or smacking sound may indicate that the baby is having difficulty keeping the tongue out over the lower gum ridge. The mother should hope to hear the sound of swallowing. The tugging sensation without pinching is a good sign. Rounded cheeks are a positive indicator of a good latch. A smoothly gliding jaw also is a good sign.

A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible. How should the client be instructed to position the infant to facilitate correct latch-on? a. The infant should be positioned with his or her arms folded together over the chest. b. The infant should be curled up in a fetal position. c. The woman should cup the infants head in her hand. d. The infants head and body should be in alignment with the mother.

D. The infants head and body should be in alignment with the mother. The infants head and body should be in correct alignment with the mother and the breast during latch-on and feeding. The infant should be facing the mother with his arms hugging the breast. The babys body should be held in correct alignment (i.e., ears, shoulder, and hips in a straight line) during feedings. The mother should support the babys neck and shoulders with her hand and not push on the occiput.

A newly delivered mother who intends to breastfeed tells her nurse, I am so relieved that this pregnancy is over so that I can start smoking again. The nurse encourages the client to refrain from smoking. However, this new mother is insistent that she will resume smoking. How will the nurse adapt her health teaching with this new information? a. Smoking has little-to-no effect on milk production. b. No relationship exists between smoking and the time of feedings. c. The effects of secondhand

D. The mother should always smoke in another room. The new mother should be encouraged not to smoke. If she continues to smoke, she should be encouraged to always smoke in another room, removed from the baby. Smoking may impair milk production. When the products of tobacco are broken down, they cross over into the breast milk. Tobacco also results in a reduction of the antiinfective properties of breast milk. Research supports the conclusion that mothers should not smoke within 2 hours before a feeding (AAP Committee on Drugs, 2001). The effects of secondhand smoke on infants include excessive crying, colic, upper respiratory infections, and an increased risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

How many kilocalories per kilogram (kcal/kg) of body weight does a breastfed term infant require each day? a. 50 to 65 b. 75 to 90 c. 95 to 110 d. 150 to 200

C. 95 to 110 The calorie requirement is lowkey similar to the a normal FHR For the first 3 months, the infant needs 110 kcal/kg/day. At ages 3 to 6 months, the requirement is 100 kcal/kg/day. This level decreases slightly to 95 kcal/kg/day from 6 to 9 months and increases again to 100 kcal/kg/day until the baby reaches 12 months.

A breastfeeding woman develops engorged breasts at 3 days postpartum. What action will help this client achieve her goal of reducing the engorgement? a. Skip feedings to enable her sore breasts to rest. b. Avoid using a breast pump. c. Breastfeed her infant every 2 hours. d. Reduce her fluid intake for 24 hours.

C. Breastfeed her infant every 2 hours. The mother should be instructed to attempt feeding her infant every 2 hours while massaging the breasts as the infant is feeding. Skipping feedings may cause further swelling and discomfort. If the infant does not adequately feed and empty the breast, then the mother may pump to extract the milk and relieve some of the discomfort. Dehydration further irritates swollen breast tissue.

While discussing the societal impacts of breastfeeding, the nurse should be cognizant of the benefits and educate the client accordingly. Which statement as part of this discussion would be INCORRECT? a. Breastfeeding requires fewer supplies and less cumbersome equipment. b. Breastfeeding saves families money. c. Breastfeeding costs employers in terms of time lost from work. d. Breastfeeding benefits the environment.

C. Breastfeeding costs employers in terms of time lost from work. Actually, less time is lost to work by breastfeeding mothers, in part because infants are healthier. Breastfeeding is convenient because it does not require cleaning or transporting bottles and other equipment. It saves families money because the cost of formula far exceeds the cost of extra food for the lactating mother. Breastfeeding uses a renewable resource; it does not need fossil fuels, advertising, shipping, or disposal.

Which statement regarding the nutrient needs of breastfed infants is correct? a. Breastfed infants need extra water in hot climates. b. During the first 3 months, breastfed infants consume more energy than formula-fed infants. c. Breastfeeding infants should receive oral vitamin D drops daily during at least the first 2 months. d. Vitamin K injections at birth are not necessary for breastfed infants.

C. Breastfeeding infants should receive oral vitamin D drops daily during at least the first 2 months. Human milk contains only small amounts of vitamin D. All infants who are breastfed should receive 400 International Units of vitamin D each day. Neither breastfed nor formula-fed infants need to be fed water, not even in very hot climates. During the first 3 months, formula-fed infants consume more energy than breastfed infants and therefore tend to grow more rapidly. Vitamin K shots are required for all infants because the bacteria that produce it are absent from the babys stomach at birth.

At a 2-month well-baby examination, it was discovered that an EXCLUSIVELY breastfed infant had only gained 10 ounces in the past 4 weeks. The mother and the nurse develop a feeding plan for the infant to increase his weight gain. Which change in dietary management will assist the client in meeting this goal? a. Begin solid foods. b. Have a bottle of formula after every feeding. c. Have one extra breastfeeding session every 24 hours. d. Start iron supplements.

C. Have one extra breastfeeding session every 24 hours. Usually the solution to slow weight gain is to improve the feeding technique. Position and the latch-on technique are evaluated, and adjustments are made. Adding a feeding or two within a 24-hour period might help. Solid foods should not be introduced to an infant for at least 4 to 6 months. Bottle feeding may cause nipple confusion and may limit the supply of milk. Iron supplements have no bearing on weight gain.

A new mother wants to be sure that she is meeting her daughters needs while feeding the baby commercially prepared infant formula. The nurse should evaluate the mothers knowledge about appropriate infant feeding techniques. Which statement by the client reassures the nurse that correct learning has taken place? a. Since reaching 2 weeks of age, I add rice cereal to my daughters formula to ensure adequate nutrition. b. I warm the bottle in my microwave oven. c. I burp my daughter during and af

C. I burp my daughter during and after the feeding as needed. Most infants swallow air when fed from a bottle and should be given a chance to burp several times during and after the feeding. Solid food should not be introduced to the infant for at least 4 to 6 months after birth. A microwave should never be used to warm any food to be given to an infant. The heat is not distributed evenly, which may pose a risk of burning the infant. Any formula left in the bottle after the feeding should be discarded because the infants saliva has mixed with it.

The nurse should be cognizant of which statement regarding the unique qualities of human breast milk? a. Frequent feedings during predictable growth spurts stimulate increased milk production. b. Milk of preterm mothers is the same as the milk of mothers who gave birth at term. c. Milk at the beginning of the feeding is the same as the milk at the end of the feeding. d. Colostrum is an early, less concentrated, less rich version of mature milk.

A. Frequent feedings during predictable growth spurts stimulate increased milk production. Growth spurts (at 10 days, 3 weeks, 6 weeks, and 3 months) usually last 24 to 48 hours, after which the infants resume normal feeding. The milk of mothers of preterm infants is different from that of mothers of full-term infants to meet the needs of these newborns. Milk changes composition during feeding. The fat content of the milk increases as the infant feeds. Colostrum precedes mature milk and is more concentrated and richer in proteins and minerals (but not fat).

A nurse is discussing the storage of breast milk with a mother whose infant is preterm and in the special care nursery. Which statement indicates that the mother requires additional teaching? a. I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months. b. I can store my breast milk in the freezer for 3 months. c. I can store my breast milk at room temperature for 4 hours. d. I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 to 5 days.

A. I can store my breast milk in the refrigerator for 3 months. Breast milk for the hospitalized infant can be stored in the refrigerator for only 8 days, not for 3 months. Breast milk can be stored in the freezer for 3 months, in a deep freezer for 6 months, or at room temperature for 4 hours. Human milk for the healthy or preterm hospitalized infant can be kept in the refrigerator for up to 8 days or in the freezer for up to 3 months, but only for 4 hours or less at room temperature.

A new mother asks the nurse what the experts say about the best way to feed her infant. Which recommendation of the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) regarding infant nutrition should be shared with this client? a. Infants should be given only human milk for the first 6 months of life. b. Infants fed on formula should be started on solid food sooner than breastfed infants. c. If infants are weaned from breast milk before 12 months, then they should receive cows milk, not formula. d. After

A. Infants should be given only human milk for the first 6 months of life. Breastfeeding and human milk should also be the sole source of milk for the first 12 months, not for only the first 6 months. Infants should be started on solids when they are ready, usually at 6 months, whether they start on formula or breast milk. If infants are weaned from breast milk before 12 months, then they should receive iron-fortified formula, not cows milk.

Which statement is the best rationale for recommending formula over breastfeeding? a. Mother has a medical condition or is taking drugs that could be passed along to the infant via breast milk. b. Mother lacks confidence in her ability to breastfeed. c. Other family members or care providers also need to feed the baby. d. Mother sees bottle feeding as more convenient

A. Mother has a medical condition or is taking drugs that could be passed along to the infant via breast milk. Breastfeeding is contraindicated when mothers have certain viruses, tuberculosis, are undergoing chemotherapy, or are using or abusing drugs. Some women lack confidence in their ability to produce breast milk of adequate quantity or quality. The key to encouraging these mothers to breastfeed is anticipatory guidance beginning as early as possible during the pregnancy. A major barrier for many women is the influence of family and friends. She may view formula feeding as a way to ensure that the father and other family members can participate. Each encounter with the family is an opportunity for the nurse to educate, dispel myths, and clarify information regarding the benefits of breastfeeding. Many women see bottle feeding as more convenient and less embarrassing than breastfeeding. They may also see breastfeeding as incompatible with an active social life. Although modesty is

Parents have been asked by the neonatologist to provide breast milk for their newborn son, who was born prematurely at 32 weeks of gestation. The nurse who instructs them regarding pumping, storing, and transporting the milk needs to assess their knowledge of lactation. Which statement is valid? a. Premature infants more easily digest breast milk than formula. b. A glass of wine just before pumping will help reduce stress and anxiety. c. The mother should only pump as much milk as the infant

A. Premature infants more easily digest breast milk than formula. Human milk is the ideal food for preterm infants, with benefits that are unique, in addition to those benefits received by full-term, healthy infants. Greater physiologic stability occurs with breastfeeding, compared with formula feeding. Consumption of alcohol during lactation is approached with caution. Excessive amounts can have serious effects on the infant and can adversely affect the mothers milk ejection reflex. To establish an optimal milk supply, the most appropriate instruction for the mother should be to pump 8 to 10 times a day for 10 to 15 minutes on each breast.

4. Hearing loss is one of the genetic disorders included in the universal screening program. Auditory screening of all newborns within the first month of life is recommended by the AAP. What is the rationale for having this testing performed? (Select all that apply.) a. Prevents or reduces developmental delays b. Reassures concerned new parents c. Provides early identification and treatment d. Helps the child communicate better e. Is recommended by the Joint Committee on Infant Hearing

ANS: A, C, D, E New parents are often anxious regarding auditory screening and its impending results; however, parental anxiety is not the reason for performing the screening test. Auditory screening is usually performed before hospital discharge. Importantly, the nurse ensures the parents that the infant is receiving appropriate testing and fully explains the test to the parents. For infants who are referred for further testing and follow-up, providing further explanation and emotional support to the parents is an important responsibility for the nurse. All other responses are appropriate reasons for auditory screening of the newborn. Infants who do not pass the screening test should have it repeated. If the infant still does not pass the test, then he or she should have a full audiologic and medical evaluation by 3 months of age. If necessary, the infant should be enrolled in an early intervention program by 6 months of age.

27. Which intervention by the nurse would reduce the risk of abduction of the newborn from the hospital? a. Instructing the mother not to give her infant to anyone except the one nurse assigned to her that day b. Applying an electronic and identification bracelet to the mother and the infant c. Carrying the infant when transporting him or her in the halls d. Restricting the amount of time infants are out of the nursery

ANS: B A measure taken by many facilities is to band both the mother and the baby with matching identification bracelets and band the infant with an electronic device that will sound an alarm if the infant is removed from the maternity unit. It is impossible for one nurse to be on call for one mother and baby for the entire shift; therefore, parents need to be able to identify the nurses who are working on the unit. Infants should always be transported in their bassinette for both safety and security reasons. All maternity unit nursing staff should have unique identification bracelets in comparison with the rest of the hospital. Infants should remain with their parents and spend as little time in the nursery as possible.

12. At 1 minute after birth a nurse assesses an infant and notes a heart rate of 80 beats per minute, some flexion of extremities, a weak cry, grimacing, and a pink body but blue extremities. Which Apgar score does the nurse calculate based upon these observations and signs? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

ANS: B Each of the five signs the nurse notes scores a 1 on the Apgar scale, for a total of 5. A score of 4 is too low for this infant. A score of 6 is too high for this infant. A score of 7 is too high for an infant with this presentation.

23. What is the nurses initial action while caring for an infant with a slightly decreased temperature? a. Immediately notify the physician. b. Place a cap on the infants head, and have the mother perform kangaroo care. c. Tell the mother that the infant must be kept in the nursery and observed for the next 4 hours. d. Change the formula; a decreased body temperature is a sign of formula intolerance.

ANS: B Keeping the head well covered with a cap prevents further heat loss from the head, and placing the infant skin-to-skin against the mother should increase the infants temperature. Nursing actions are needed first to correct the problem. If the problem persists after the interventions, physician notification may then be necessary. A slightly decreased temperature can be treated in the mothers room, offering an excellent time for parent teaching on the prevention of cold stress. Mild temperature instability is an expected deviation from normal during the first days after childbirth as the infant adapts to external life.

14. The nurse is completing a physical examination of the newborn 24 hours after birth. Which component of the evaluation is correct? a. The parents are excused to reduce their normal anxiety. b. The nurse can gauge the neonates maturity level by assessing his or her general appearance. c. Once often neglected, blood pressure is now routinely checked. d. When the nurse listens to the neonates heart, the S1 and S2 sounds can be heard; the S1sound is somewhat higher in pitch and sharper th

ANS: B The nurse is looking at skin color, alertness, cry, head size, and other features. The parents presence actively involves them in child care and gives the nurse the chance to observe their interactions. Blood pressure is not usually taken unless cardiac problems are suspected. The S2 sound is higher and sharper than the S1 sound.

2. A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infants eyes and why it is needed. How does the nurse explain the purpose of the erythromycin (Ilotycin) ophthalmic ointment? a. Erythromycin (Ilotycin) ophthalmic ointment destroys an infectious exudate caused byStaphylococcus that could make the infant blind. b. This ophthalmic ointment prevents gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infants eyes, potentially acquired from the birth canal. c. Erythromycin (Ilotycin) preve

ANS: B The nurse should explain that prophylactic erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is instilled in the eyes of all neonates to prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection that potentially could have been acquired from the birth canal. This prophylactic ophthalmic ointment is not instilled to prevent dry eyes and has no bearing on vision other than to protect against infection that may lead to vision problems.

9. The parents of a newborn ask the nurse how much the newborn can see. The parents specifically want to know what type of visual stimuli they should provide for their newborn. The nurse responds to the parents by telling them: a. "Infants can see very little until about 3 months of age." b. "Infants can track their parent's eyes and distinguish patterns; they prefer complex patterns." c. "The infant's eyes must be protected. Infants enjoy looking at brightly colored stripes." d. "It's important

ANS: B "Infants can track their parent's eyes and distinguish patterns; they prefer complex patterns" is an accurate statement. Development of the visual system continues for the first 6 months of life. Visual acuity is difficult to determine, but the clearest visual distance for the newborn appears to be 19 cm. Infants prefer to look at complex patterns, regardless of the color. Infants prefer low illumination and withdraw from bright light.

40. Infants in whom cephalhematomas develop are at increased risk for: a. Infection. c. Caput succedaneum. b. Jaundice. d. Erythema toxicum.

ANS: B Cephalhematomas are characterized by bleeding between the bone and its covering, the periosteum. Because of the breakdown of the red blood cells within a hematoma, the infants are at greater risk for jaundice. Cephalhematomas do not increase the risk for infections. Caput is an edematous area on the head from pressure against the cervix.