Extra Boards Study Material -- Kalena

1.41

3 phase 12 pulse HU

1.35

3 phase 6 pulse HU

base of the 5th metatarsal

Jones fx

2 and 3

An increase in technical factors is likely to be required for the following condition(s): 1. Emphysema 2. Pleural effusion 3. Ascites

d

Cerebrovascular Syndrome is expected to occur at a whole-body dose threshold level of a) .05 Gy b) 1 Gy c) 10 Gy d) 50 Gy

ionic

Comparing ionic and non-ionic iodine contrast media, which one is considered to have higher osmolarity?

c

During a barium enema exam the enema tip should be inserted in the ________ direction initially and while the patient is ________. a) posterior; exhaling b) posterior; inhaling c) anterior; exhaling d) anterior; inhaling

c) Sievert (Sv)

Effective Dose is measured in units of a) Coulombs per kilogram b) Gray (Gy) c) Sievert (Sv) d) Becquerel (Bq)

incomplete fx (bowing of the bone)

Greenstick

2) 99 percent

How much protection is provided from a 75-kVp x-ray beam while using a 1.0 mm lead equivalent apron? 1) 51 percent 2) 99 percent 3) 88 percent 4) 66 percent

humeral head (compression fx)

Hill Sachs fx

a) 2-4 oz

How much barium would be required for an 8-month-old patient undergoing a upper GI series? a) 2-4 oz b) 1-2 oz c) 6-8 oz d) 5-6 oz

45-60 degrees

How much do you rotate the patient for the supraspinatous outlet?

1) 88%

How much protection is provided from a 75 kVp x-ray beam when using a 0.50-mm lead equivalent apron? 1) 88% 2) 65% 3) 75% 4) 99%

d) 45º

How much was this patient rotated (if they were rotated the typical amount)? a) 15-20º b) 10º c) 55-60º d) 45º

a) 1%

In scoliosis imaging, breast tissue dose for PA imaging is approximately ____ of the dose for AP imaging. a) 1% b) 5% c) 10% d) 50%

b) Above 2.0 mg/dl

Injection of iodinated contrast media may be contraindicated when a patient's creatinine level is: a) Above 0.6 mg/dl b) Above 2.0 mg/dl c) Below 0.6 mg/dl d) Below 2.0 mg/dl

b

Inpatient billing, diagnostic report generation, imaging order entry, and scheduling of all diagnostic service visits occurs in the: a) picture archiving and communications system (PACS). b) hospital information system (HIS). c) electronic health record (EHR). d) acquisition workstation.

c) C/kg

air KERMA is meausred in units of a) Gy b) Sv c) C/kg d) Bq

b

Modern automatic exposure control (AEC) sensors are of the ________ type. a) scintillator b) ionization chamber c) autotransformer d) phototimer

ulna fx and dislocation of the radial head

Monteggia

Upper outer quadrant (UOQ)

Most carcinomas of the breasts are found in the ________ of the breast.

c

Most cell damage from ionizing radiation occurs when x-rays interact with a) free radicals b) DNA c) water molecules d) electrons

4) One year

OSL dosimeters may be worn for as long as: 1) One quarter 2) One month 3) One week 4) One year

pediatric fx of the epiphyseal plate

Salter-Harris fx is

d

Scatter production is affected by: a) grid ratio. b) object-to-image distance. c) patient motion. d) filtration.

kVp

differential absorption is controlled by

shows the distribution of pixel values (indicating low, proper, or high)

histogram

a

how do modern fluoroscopic systems record images a) digital capture technologies and processing b) light-tight film magazines c) mirror-optics and lenses, focusing the image d) television and cathode ray tube (CRT) technolgy

an unhealthy pale appareance

pallor

narrow

patients experience angina pectoris when the coronary arteries are too ___

around

peri-

abnormal accumulation of fluid around or near the orbit

periorbital edema

d) annually

personnel monitoring reports must be available for occupational worker's reviews a) every 3 months b) once a month c) twice a year d) annually

to have education; be wise

prudent

false

pseudo-

an excess accumulation of fluid in the lungs

pulmonary edema

puss in the urine

pyuria

operation of equipment

quality control

lateral

sphenoid sinus is best seen in

sella turcica

sphenoid sinus is located immediately under the

kVp

subject contrast is controlled by

b) free electrons

the primary by-product of x-ray interactions in air is a) visible light b) free electrons c) thermal energy d) radioactivity

front

vent-

10%

what % do the asthenic make

C

what magnifies the strength of the electrical signal?

A

what represents the electromagnets of the induction motor assembly?

d) bone

what tissue type tends to experience the highest absorbed dose during a radiographic exposure? a) air b) muscle c) fat d) bone

B

circuit breaker

B

high-voltage

patella

The ___ is the largest sesamoid in the body

c) Emphysema

"Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions? a) Pneumothorax b) Pneumonia c) Emphysema d) Ascites e) Pleural effusion

like

-oid

300 mA

100 mA at 3/5 second produces an optimum exposure. In order to achieve the same exposure, what mA would be needed if the time is reduced to 1/5 second?

Acetabulum

A

SI joint

A

bony nasal septum

A

crest of the ilium

A

bone to bone

A ligament connects ____ to ____

0.0236 Sv

A patient received a thyroid ablation treatment using an intravenously injected radionuclide. If the absorbed dose to the thyroid is 0.59 Gy, calculate the effective dose. Assume the thyroid has a tissue-weighting factor of 0.04 and the emitted radiation has a radiation-weighting factor of 1.0.

2) Lithium fluoride

A thermoluminescent dosimetry system uses which of the following crystals? 1) Gadolinium 2) Lithium fluoride 3) Cesium iodide 4) Aluminum oxide

45

AP oblique ankle with ___ degree medial rotation?

15-20

AP oblique ankle with ___-___ degrees medial rotation?

1, 2, and 3

Acceptable method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is (are): 1. Suspended respiration 2. Shorten exposure time 3. Utilize the 15% rule and increase kVp

a) quantity of radiation directed at the patient

Air KERMA is commonly used to describe which of the following? a) quantity of radiation directed at the patient b) quantity of radiation absorbed in the patient c) quantity of radiation passing through the patient d) quantity of ions created in air

a

All of the following affect the spatial resolution of an image EXCEPT FOR: a) kVp b) part size c) tube angle d) SID

1,600 mGy

An exposure is made using 32 mAs at a SID of 100 cm resulting in an exposure of 400 mGy. If the SID is changed to 50 cm, what would the new exposure be?

1 and 2

An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the 1. percentage of high-energy photons produced. 2. beam intensity. 3. patient absorption.

2 only

An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the: 1. x-ray wavelength 2. exposure rate 3. patient absorption

d

Approximately what percentage of the public's annual exposure to ionizing radiation is attributed to medical and dental radiographic procedures? a) 25 percent b) 85 percent c) 11 percent d) 50 percent

Right SI joint

B

acromion

B

clavicle

B

a

B is: a) low-voltage AC b) low-voltage DC c) high-voltage AC d) high-voltage DC

c

Because of its high reproductive activity, which of the following tissues will show the greatest sensitivity to radiation? a) Cardiovascular tissue b) Central nervous tissue c) Alimentary tract tissue d) Muscular tissue

beneficial

Beneficence

base of the first metacarpal

Bennett's fx

0.25 mm

Bucky slot cover Pb

IVD space of C6-C7

C

common hepatic duct

C

coracoid process

C

8 hours

CR plates should be processed within

0.23 mm

Calculate the pixel size given these variables: Matrix size = 512 x 512 Field-of-View = 12 cm mA = 5 kVp = 78

c

Cancer of the reproductive organs would be considered a a) genetic effect b) deterministic effect c) somatic effect d) short-term effect

1, 2, and 3

Characteristics of the metallic element tungsten include 1. ready dissipation of heat 2. high melting point 3. high atomic number

b

Charge created in the amorphous silicon layer is collected at the: a) bias line. b) capacitor. c) scintillator. d) display.

ileum

Chrohn's disease is the chronic inflammation of the terminal ____

b

Consider this scenario: One radiographer acquires an image of the chest using 100 kVp and 2 mAs. A different radiographer acquires an image of the chest on the same patient using 120 kVp and 2.5 mAs. both exposures resulted in an optimal image and an acceptable patient dose. a) spatial resolution b) exposure latitude c) dynamic range d) automatic exposure control

common bile duct

D

lateral condyle

D

d) Compression fracture of L1

Diagnose this patient. a) Spondylolisthesis b) Compression fracture of T12 c) AAA d) Compression fracture of L1

c) The ARRT Rules of Ethics

Disclosure of radiography examination content using significantly similar language would result in sanctions against the offending party for violation of: a) State licensing laws b) Laws of copyright infringement c) The ARRT Rules of Ethics d) The ARRT Code of Ethics

2 mSv

During a surgical procedure using 12 minutes of fluoroscopy time, a radiographer receives an effective dose of 1 mSv. What effective dose would be experienced by the radiographer if the fluoroscopy time is doubled?

three

During an EKG, a patient is connected to a minimum of how many leads?

c) D x WR

Equivalent Dose is calculated as a) Coulombs/kilogram b) Joules/kilogram c) D x WR d) D x WR x WT

c) Sievert (Sv)

Equivalent Dose is measured in units of a) Coulombs per kilogram b) Gray (Gy) c) Sievert (Sv) d) Becquerel (Bq)

inverse

Exposure indicators have an ___ relationship with image receptor exposure

1 and 2 only

Exposure rate increases with an increase in: 1. mA 2. kVp 3. SID

ampulla of Vater

F

1 and 3

Film badges utilize filters composed of which materials? 1. Aluminum 2. Cesium oxide 3. Copper 4. Cobalt

0.15

Find the missing factor: 300 mA, 0.4 s, 60 kVp changed to 400 mA, _____ s, 70 kVp

sphenoid sinus

G

3 only

Gamma rays can be described as having 1. Very little mass 2. Negative charge 3. Low LET

c

Generally speaking, the dose to staff standing 1 meter from the patient is approximately ______ of the incident exposure. a) 1/10 b) 1/100 c) 1/1,000 d) 1/10,000

1 and 3

Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include which of the following? 1-Clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated areas 2-Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward 3-Clean from the top down.

petrous ridge

H

Hospital Information System blends pt care information, reporting, and billing

HIS

d

How does an increase in kVp affect the keV of the characteristic interaction? a) Increasing kVp slightly increases keV. b) Increasing kVp decreases keV. c) Doubling kVp doubles keV. d) Increasing kVp does not affect the keV of the interaction.

22

How many bones in the skull?

descending colon

I

Reid's baseline

IOML aka

8

IOML and GML make a ____-degree angle

lower

Increasing kVp will ____ image contrast.

c) increased quantity of bremsstrahlung photons.

Increasing the kVp from 60 to 68 will result in: a) increased energy of characteristic photons. b) an increase in the number of characteristic photons. c) increased quantity of bremsstrahlung photons. d) a leftward shift of the emission spectrum.

b) the rate at which radiation deposits energy in matter

LET is defined as a) the direction in which radiation travels through matter b) the rate at which radiation deposits energy in matter c) the total energy radiation deposits in matter d) the maximum energy deposited at the surface of matter

dislocation of metatarsals

LaFranc

2, 3, 5, 6

Late effects of ionizing radiation include the following (select the 4 correct responses): 1. Erythema 2. Cataracts 3. Leukemia 4. Epilation 5. Carcinogenesis 6. Genetic mutations

a

Leakage radiation is: a) monoenergetic. b) remnant radiation. c) primary radiation. d) a contributor to dose in uncontrolled areas.

a

Leukemia has a typical latency period of a) 5 -7 years b) 12 -20 years c) 10 - 60 years d) 7 - 15 years

b) Smoothing

Low-pass filtering is another name for which processing function? a) Equalization b) Smoothing c) Quantization d) Edge enhancement

image display monitors

Luminance is a QC test for

1 and 2 only

Methods that help reduce the production of scattered radiation include using: 1. Compression 2. Beam restriction 3. Grids

highest spatial resolution that can be recorded; controlled by pixel pitch

Nyquist frequency

2) 1/10

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is likely that an individual will receive more than what fraction of the annual dose limit? 1) 1/2 2) 1/10 3) 1/20 4) 1/4

b) bone

Of the following following, the greatest attenuator of x-rays is a) air b) bone c) muscle d) fat

data drop

Overexposure creates a condition known as

d

Patients often arrive in the radiology department with trauma to the shoulder. Which position is recommended for these patients? a) Lateral recumbent b) Lateral decubitus c) Supine d) Upright

d

Personnel cumulative radiation monitoring is NOT performed with a(n): a) film badge. b) thermoluminescent dosimeter badge. c) optically stimulated luminescence badge. d) pocket ion chamber.

a. foreshortening

Placing the object parallel to the IR will avoid: a. foreshortening b. size distortion c. magnification d. elongation

0.2

Plate uniformity: expose IR, process image; areas of the image should have brightness within ____ of each other

1) Causation and damage

Proving malpractice includes: 1) Causation and damage 2) Standard of care 3) Breach of care 4) All of the above

radiology department and customers

Quality assurance

Radiology Information System used for ordering procedures and reporting results

RIS

1, 2, and 4

Radiation-induced hair loss is classified as (select all that apply) 1) somatic effect 2) short term effect 3) stochastic effect 4) deterministic effect

level of ASIS

S1 topography

2 and 4

Stochastic effects can be described by which of the following terms? (Select all that apply) 1) predictable 2) random 3) inverse 4) probabilistic

1%

The CR and center of the Bucky tray must align within _____ of the SID

40 mGya/min

The exposure rate is 10 mGya/min at 40 inches. What will be the rate at 20 inches?

1

The inherent aluminum equivalence of the mirror within the collimator housing is approximately ___ mm.

c

The major calyces unite to form the expanded, funnel-shaped structure called the: a) Minor calyx b) Renal pyramid c) Renal pelvis d) Glomerulus

a

The period of time from initial exposure to the development of cancer is referred to as a) the latency period b) the waiting period c) the mutation period d) the carcinogenic period

a

The plate reader used in CR is also called the a) digitizer b) Thin-film transistor (TFT) c) scintillator d) charged-coupled device (CCD)

c

The ratio of a pixel's total size to its actual collection area is known as the: a) Nyquist frequency. b) pixel pitch. c) fill factor. d) charge modulation.

c) reduce repeats and improve image quality.

The rationale behind the development of automatic exposure control (AEC) is to: a) decrease the need for technique charts. b) make the technologist more of a button pusher. c) reduce repeats and improve image quality. d) increase productivity and patient dose.

d) 10 to 20

The typical flow rate for drip infusion drug administration is ________ drops per minute. a) 20 to 30 b) 5 to 10 c) 30 to 40 d) 10 to 20

a) gray

The unit of measurement for absorbed dose is the: a) gray. b) sievert. c) becquerel. d) coulomb/kg.

b. Line focus principle

This diagram demonstrates which of the following? a. Inverse square law b. Line focus principle c. Anode heel effect d. Ohm's law

Inverse square law

This diagram represents which of the following?

AP Ankle

This is a?

75%

Two half-value layers would result in a decrease in beam intensity by what percent?

24"

Using a 48" SID, how much OID must be introduced to magnify an object 2 times?

b

Using a 75 kVp x-ray beam with a 0.25 mm lead-equivalent apron provides protection from _______ of the beam. a) 55% b) 66% c) 77% d) 88%

a

Visually, dynamic range refers to which of the following? a) The number of shades of gray that can be represented b) The size of the area of an image intensifier tube c) The range of numbers in a computer memory d) The number of pixels in a matrix

4%

Voltage ripple of three-phase, twelve-pulse

c

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest. There are no breath sounds and he has no pulse. How should you proceed? a) Proceed with the Heimlich maneuver b) Begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths c) Begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/minute d) Begin external chest compressions at a rate of 80 to 100 compressions/minute

calyces

___ are irregular saclike structures tat collect the urine from all portions of the kidneys

a

a cost-effective feature of a digital, flat panel fluoroscopic system that positions the x-ray tube above the patient during fluoroscopy, is that these systems designs typically: a) use a single digital detector for both radiography and fluoroscopy b) do not require lead aprons for the fluoroscopist c) produce higher image quality d) are easier to operate

drugs intravenous solutions syringes stethoscope blood pressure cuff

a crash cart has

c

a radiation dose of 100 mGy may result in which of the following? a) epilation b) skin erythema c) cancer d) low sperm count

b

a waveform with large gaps between positive voltage peaks is a result of a) full-wave rectification b) half-wave rectification c) non-rectification

away from

ab-

tungsten-rhenium alloy

anode target made of

front

ante-

against

anti-

d) lower intensity

as a result of the anode heel effect, the anode side of the x-ray field demonstrates: a) lower energy b) lower contrast c) lower spatial resolution d) lower intensity

decreases

as grid frequency increases, lead strip thickness ____

56

barium atomic number

c

children develop a fear of illness and death during which stage of childhood? a) toddler b) preschool age c) school age d) adolescence

neck

cerv

together

co-

involuntary spasm or contraction of muscles

convulsions

Benadryl

diphenhydramine

b

electronically, the functional unit of digital fluoro detectors is the a) voltage gate b) Detector element (DEL) c) multiplexer d) dead space of the pixel

a

fluoroscopic digital flat panel detectors electronically combine detector elements into multiple-units through a process known as a) binning b) saturation c) termination d) sequencing

b

from the ventricles, blood is pushed into the: a) pulmonary veins and aorta b) pulmonary artery and aorta c) atria d) inferior and superior vena cava

b) 61.20"

if the indicated SID is 60", the actual SID should be no more than a) 60.06" b) 61.20" c) 66.0" d) 63.0"

inability to retain urine

incontinence

fairness

justice

mandible

letter D

white

leuk

nasogatric tubes

levin catheters are

intramuscular

longer needles are used for ___ injections

histogram of pixel values from image acquisition that can be used to correct or enhance luminance values

look-up-table

general feeling of discomfort

malaise

d

modesty and personal independence are most important to a child in which stage of development? a) toddler b) preschool age c) school age d) adolescence

14 to 28

needle gauge varies from

0.25 to 5 inches

needle lengths vary from

dilator

nitroglycerine is a vaso_____

d

non-ionic iodine contrast media will be less toxic to the body than ionic solutions due to: a) lower osmolarity b) stable chemical forms that does not break apart into ions c) osmolarity that is closer to that of human blood d) all of the above

do no harm

non-maleficence

A

primary circuit

D

primary side of the step-down

abiltiy to assign a value to each pixel corresponding to the gray shade determined by its bit depth

quantization

a

quantization is a digital radiography process through which detector readings are a) converted to specific brightness levels b) amplified for processing c) normalized across the exposure field d) compared to expected exposure values

few

quantum mottle is caused by too ___ x-rays hitting the IR

D

rectifier bridge

irritation and swelling of the mucous membrane in the nose

rhinitis

d

scintillation is a process that creates a) radioactivity b) x-ray photons c) an electrical current d) visible light

a

scintillation is a process that creates a) visible light b) x-ray photons c) an electrical current d) ultraviolet light

hard

scler-

B

secondary circuit

C

secondary side of the step-up

dyspnea shock cyanosis pulmonary edema convulsions cardiac arrest vascular collapse vaso-vagal effect

severe reactions to contrast

foreshortening elongation

shape distortion is caused by

subcutaneous

short needles are used for ____ injections

c) drowsiness

side effects of diphenhydramine (benadryl) include a) diarrhea b) tremor c) drowsiness d) dyspnea

decreases 1/3

single phase to three phase 6 pulse mAs:

goes down 12%

single phase to three phase kVp:

upright

sinuses are always performed ___ for air/fluid levels

OID SID

size distortion is caused by

2%

spatial resolution should be no more than ____ image blur

C

technique was 80 kVP and 10 mAs. what represent k-shell characteristic photons?

b

the amount of time the kilovoltage potential is applied to the x-ray tube is controlled by which of the following devices? a) autotransformer b) exposure timer c) kVp meter d) step-up transformer

d

the autotransformer includes which of the following devices? a) kVp meter b) circuit breaker c) exposure timer d) kVp selector

c

the esophagus is a continuation of what structure? a) oropharynx b) trachea c) laryngopharynx d) thyroid cartilage

d) anode angle and the effective focal spot size

the line-focus principle describes the geometric relationship between which of the following factors within an x-ray tube? a) focusing cup voltage and x-ray energy spectrum b) tube voltage and x-ray energy spectrum c) filament size and the actual focus spot size d) anode angle and the effective focal spot size

d) collimation

the lowest exposure readings on a radiographic histogram usually represent areas of a) soft tissue b) calcification c) unattenuated exposure d) collimation

a) cartilaginous

the pubic symphysis is classified as which type of joint? a) cartilaginous b) fibrous c) synovial d) synarthroidal

d

the step-up transformer in the x-ray circuit converts a) amps to kilo-amps b) low-frequency to high-frequency c) single-phase to three-phase d) volts to kilo-volts

d) abdominal imaging on a bariatric pt

the technical limitations of a stationary anode x-ray system may be inadequate for which of the following procedures? a) spinal iamging on a pediatric pt b) chest imaging on a neonatal pt c) extremity imaging on a trauma pt d) abdominal imaging on a bariatric pt

diode

the type of rectifier used in modern x-ray equipment is called a:

0.4 inches

(centering) if the SID is 40 inches, tolerance is ____ inches

0.72 inches

(centering) if the SID is 72", tolerance is _____ inches

+/- 2 cm 98 - 102

(collimation) if the SID is 100 cm, tolerance _____ cm

+/- 0.8" 39.2 - 40.8

(distance) if the SID is 40", tolerance is _____

+/- 1.44" 70.56 - 73.44

(distance) if the SID is 72", tolerance is _____ inches

pain

-algia

puncture

-centesis

expansion

-ectasis

excision

-ectomy

blood

-emia

origin

-genic

condition

-iasis

spinal cord

-myel

benign

-oma

condition

-osis

surgical condition

-plasty

lung

-pulm

suture

-rhaphy

malignant

-sarcoma

inspection

-scopy

incision

-tomy

cystic duct connected to the gallbladder

A

diaphragm

A

femoral head

A

frontal sinus

A

medial femoral condyle

A

patella

A

right kidney

A

1, 2, and 3

A "controlled area" is defined as one: 1. That is occupied by people trained in radiation safety 2. That is occupied by people who wear radiation monitors 3. Whose occupancy factor is 1

4 inches

A 3-inch object to be radiographed at a 36-inch SID lies 9-inches from the image receptor. What will be the image width?

b

A 51-year-old female patient has been experiencing pain in her abdominal area, unusual bowel movements, and recurrent urinary tract infections. The referring physician has ordered a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG), upper GI, and barium enema for the patient. The patient wants to have the studies completed over 2 days. In what order should the studies be conducted? a) barium enema, upper GI, VCUG b) VCUG, barium enema, upper GI c) VCUG, upper GI, barium enema d) upper GI, VCUG, barium enema

d

A 58-year-old man is in the radiology department for an upper GI series (UGI). He has followed nothing by mouth (NPO) instructions and has diabetes. When the radiographer stands the patient to position him for the upright portion of the study, the patient says he is dizzy and feeling weak. He took his morning medications along with his normal dose of insulin. The patient MOST likely is experiencing ________, and the radiographer should ________. a) hyperglycemia; give the patient a cup of water to drink b) hypoglycemia; give the patient a carbonated drink such as seltzer water or a soda c) hyperglycemia; give the patient something salty to eat d) hypoglycemia; give the patient something sweet such as fruit juice

a

A 59-year-old man with acute diverticulitis is in the radiology department for a barium enema. The patient is in pain and is complaining of a fever. For this patient, a ________ contrast medium should be used. a) water-soluble iodinated b) barium sulfate, single c) barium sulfate, double d) glucagon

a

A 70-year-old man is scheduled for pelvic radiography. He is in a wheelchair and the patient tells the technologist that he can move from the wheelchair to the table with the radiographer's assistance. This type of transfer is called: a) an assisted standing pivot transfer. b) a standby assist transfer. c) the 2-person lift. d) hydraulic lift assist.

a

A Baker's cyst is associated with: a) Popliteal area of the bursa b) Carpal tunnel syndrome c) Quadriceps femora d) Collateral ligaments of the ankle

1, 2, and 3

A PACS network is used to connect which of the following devices? (Select all that apply) 1) PACS servers 2) Imaging equipment 3) Radiologist 4) EMR

c

A PTT result of 50 seconds would indicate which of the following? a) shorter than normal blood clotting b) normal clotting time c) longer than normal clotting time

1, 2, and 3

A Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) network consists of which of the following? (select all that apply) 1) archive server 2) display workstations 3) imaging equipment

b

A ________ can be used to create even exposure across an image receptor when imaging anatomy with uneven thickness. a) collimator b) compensating filter c) shadow shield d) positioning sponge

c

A cathartic is used to: a) Promote elimination on urine b) Induce vomiting c) Stimulate defecation d) Inhibit coughing

c

A common vehicle transmission involves which of the following? a) The spread of infection in crowded forms of public transportations such as trains b) Plants c) Food, water, medications, equipment d) Animals

d) Pneumothorax

A condition, often resulting from chest trauma by motor vehicle accident or falling, in which the pleural space is filled with air, is called: a) Atelectasis b) Pneumoperitoneum c) Cardiac tamponade d) Pneumothorax

80 mAs

A diagnostic image is produced with a 36-inch SID, 80 kVp, and 20 mAs. What new mAs should be used to maintain IR exposure if a 72-inch SID is now used?

c

A digital image is composed of rows and columns known as a: a) Cyborg assimilator b) Digital c) Matrix d) Photonic image

d) skeletal anomalies

A dose of 0.25 Gy to the fetus during 3rd or 4th week of the first trimester of pregnancy can potentially cause: a) spontaneous abortion b) neurologic anomalies c) gastrointestinal anomalies d) skeletal anomalies

a) genetically significant dose

A dose used to measure the effects of gonadal radiation exposure in the offspring of those exposed is called the: a) genetically significant dose b) doubling dose c) effective genetic dose d) biological effective dose

c

A form of ARS called Gastrointestinal Syndrome will occur at a dose threshold level of: a) .05 Gy b) 1 Gy c) 10 Gy d) 50 Gy

Automatic Brightness Control (ABC)

A function of the fluoroscopic unit that maintains the overall appearance of the fluoroscopic image by automatically adjusting the kVp, mA or both

b

A graphic display that is constructed to show the radiographer the distribution of pixel values is called: a) A voxel display b) A histogram c) A pixel outline d) A sensitometric display

d. decreased receptor exposure along the periphery of the image

A grid used with the SID set at the wrong focal distance will produce: a. increased receptor exposure across the entire image b. decreased receptor exposure across the entire image c. increased receptor exposure along the periphery of the image d. decreased receptor exposure along the periphery of the image

d

A half-value layer (HVL) is thickness of material required to reduce the a) kVp b) patient dose by half c) x-ray beam energy by half d) x-ray beam intensity by half

a

A hysterosalpingogram (HSG) may be used to indicate which of the following? a) A suspected fistula b) The absence of the menstrual cycle c) Multiple abortions or miscarriages d) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

to draw a drug or a solution into a syringe but is seldom used to inject the drug into the patient

A large-diameter needle such as an 18-gauge needle is often used for what?

600 mA

A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine was made at 40 inches using 200 mA and a 0.2 s exposure. If it is desired to increase the distance to 72 inches, what should be the new mA, all other factors remaining the same?

2 only

A lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine was made using 200 mA, 1 s exposure, and 90 kVp. If the exposure factors were changed to 200 mA, 1/2 s, and 104 kVp, there would be an obvious change in which of the following? 1. Beam intensity 2. Patient dose 3. Distortion

4) 0.50-mm Pb equivalent

A lead apron of at least what thickness should be worn while being exposed to scatter radiation using 110 kVp or higher? 1) 0.50-mm Al equivalent 2) 0.10-mm Al equivalent 3) 0.25-mm Pb equivalent 4) 0.50-mm Pb equivalent

d

A look-up table maps _______. a) Latent images b) Subject contrasts c) Optical Density d) Image gray scale values

d) osteosarcoma

A malignant primary tumor of bone is a(n): a) chondrosarcoma b) enchondroma c) metastasis d) osteosarcoma

a

A malignant tumor arising from cartilage cells is a(n): a) chondrosarcoma. b) enchondroma. c) Ewing sarcoma. d) osteosarcoma.

c

A material that allows light to be transmitted nearly unaltered is considered to be: a) Transmission b) Translucent c) Transparent d) Radiolucent

b) Coulomb/kg

A measure of the number of ion pairs produced in air by a quantity of x-rays defines which of these? a) Sievert b) Coulomb/kg c) Gray d) Rad

c

A negative charge is applied to the _______to minimize electrostatic repulsion. a) stator b) induction motor c) focusing cup d) anode

a) Left arm in a neutral position

A patient arrives at the emergency room by ambulance with a possible left humeral fracture. Due to the patient's condition, a transthoracic lateral projection will be performed to assess the proximal humerus. Which of the following is the correct position of the patient's left arm? a) Left arm in a neutral position b) Left arm in an internal rotation c) Left arm in an external rotation d) Left arm is elevated above the patient's head

c

A patient has the right to review his or her medical records and access information to ensure everything is correct and complete under the document created by which hospital affiliation? a) American Medical Association (AMA) b) The Joint Commission (TJC) c) American Hospital Association (AHA) d) American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT)

a

A patient is having a severe anaphylactic reaction to iodinated contrast media. Her face is beginning to swell and her speech is becoming hoarse and she says it feels like her "throat is closing up." An appropriate medication for this emergency would be: a) epinephrine. b) glucose. c) diazepam (Valium). d) furosemide (Lasix).

d

A patient is positioned for an AP axial projection of the skull (Towne method). The IOML is adjusted to be perpendicular to the IR. The central ray should be angled a) 0 degrees (perpendicular) b) 15 degrees caudad c) 30 degrees caudad d) 37 degrees caudad

b

A patient is rotated ________ for contrast urography oblique positions. a) 15° b) 30° c) 45° d) 60°

b

A patient is scheduled for a barium swallow. As the technologist begins to review the instructions with the patient, it is evident that the patient seems lethargic. The technologist should: a) continue with the examination. b) reschedule the examination because the patient will not be able to swallow properly. c) wait until the patient is more alert before administering barium. d) use an alternative contrast medium for the examination.

b

A patient suffering from chronic dyspnea may also suffer from a) Chron's disease b) emphysema c) rhinorrhea d) pharyngitis

d

A plane passing through the body perpendicular to the longitudinal axis is termed: a) Oblique b) Coronal c) Sagittal d) Horizontal

2.5 mGy

A radiation worker received a radiation dose of 5 mGy while participating in a fluoroscopy procedure for 10 minutes. What radiation dose would have been received by the worker if they reduced their time in the radiation field to only 5 minutes?

d

A radiograph that demonstrates acceptable brightness along one side of the image but NOT on the opposite side represents a(n) ________ error. a) grid motion too slow b) upside-down focused grid c) incorrect grid ratio d) off-level grid

b

A radiograph that demonstrates acceptable brightness in the middle of the image but shows gradually increasing brightness bilaterally further from the center represents a(n) ________ error. a) grid motion-failed b) upside-down focused grid c) incorrect grid ratio d) off-level grid

10 mAs

A radiograph was produced using 6 mAs and 110 kVp with a 6:1 ratio grid. The radiograph is to be repeated using a 12:1 ratio grid. What new mAs will maintain receptor exposure?

d

A radiographer acquires an optimal image of the wrist using 60 kVp and 2.5 mAs;. acquiring the same projection using a technique of 72 kVp and 5 mAs will result in a) quantum mottle on the radiograph b) saturation artifact on the radiograph c) loss of spatial resolution d) excessive patient dose

5.6 mSv/hour

A radiographer is exposed to a dose rate of 10 mSv/hour while standing 3 feet from the patient during c-arm procedures. What is the approximate dose rate if the radiographer stands 4 feet from the patient?

b

A radiographer receives an order from the emergency department for a right hand radiograph on a 62-year-old man. The indication is to rule out a third metacarpophalangeal joint fracture. The patient is unable to extend his fingers fully when trying to position the hand for the PA projection. The radiographer should: a) leave the hand positioned for the PA projection with the fingers flexed. b) consider an AP projection of the hand. c) force the fingers into extension by taping the hand flat to the image receptor. d) skip the PA projection and obtain only lateral and oblique images.

c

A radiographer who refuses to perform exams on patents who are of a particular race or culture may be guilty of: a) tort b) malpractice c) a professional ethics violation d) none of the above

d) frequency of specific exposure values

A radiographic histogram is a graphic representation of a) spatial resolution relative to contrast resolution b) SNR c) pt dose estimations d) frequency of specific exposure values

625 mSv

A radiologist receives an equivalent dose of 100 mSv while standing 25 cm from a patient during a fluoroscopy procedure. Estimate the equivalent dose if the radiologist stood 10 cm from the patient.

a. greater magnification

A satisfactory lateral radiograph of the skull has been produced using the technical factors that follow. One factor has been changed. Indicate the result that will be seen on the radiograph as a result of the factor change. 0.25s 1.0-mm FSS65 kVp 10 x 12 in field size40" SID 2" OID8:1 GR Changing the OID to 4 inches would result in: a. greater magnification b. lower contrast c. reduced magnification d. better spatial resolution

a. decreased receptor exposure and more scatter clean-up

A satisfactory lateral radiograph of the skull has been produced using the technical factors that follow. One factor has been changed. Indicate the result that will be seen on the radiograph as a result of the factor change. 0.25s 1.0-mm FSS65 kVp 10 x 12 in field size40" SID 2" OID8:1 GR Changing the grid ratio to 12:1 would result in: a. decreased receptor exposure and more scatter clean-up b. decreased receptor exposure and less scatter clean-up c. increased receptor exposure and less scatter clean-up d. increased receptor exposure and more scatter clean-up

c

A small bowel series on a patient with normal intestinal motility usually is completed within approximately: a) 10 minutes. b) 30 minutes. c) 2 hours. d) 4 hours.

a

A sterile tray must always be opened in a specific order. The last flap to be opened should be: a) The side closest to you b) The flap farthest away from you c) The right side of the tray d) The left side of the tray

d

A student radiographer who is under 18 years of age must not receive an annual occupational dose greater than a) 50 mSv b) 15 mSv c) 5 mSv d) 1 mSv

muscle to bone

A tendon connects ______ to ____

c

A test of GFR would provide information on which of the following? a) amount of creatinine in the blood b) amount of waste products that the kidneys can filter c) rate at which the kidneys filter waste from the blood d) rate of urine production

2) Solid arc, with the angle [in degrees] representative of the exposure time

A three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning top. The resulting image looks like a: 1) Series of gray tones, from white to black 2) Solid arc, with the angle [in degrees] representative of the exposure time 3) Series of dots or dashes , each representative of a radiation pulse 4) Multitude of small, mesh-like squares of uniform sharpness

12

A total of ________ dots on the receptor is the proper number during a spinning top test of a single-phase, fully rectified generator at 0.10 seconds.

d

A typical cervical vertebra will have a spinous process that: a) is long and projects inferiorly. b) is thick and blunt. c) contains a foramen. d) has a bifid tip.

c

A(n) ________ is MOST helpful in demonstrating suspected vesicoureteral reflux. a) intravenous urogram b) cystogram voiding c) cystourethrogram d) retrograde urogram

c

AC is best described as a current that alternated between a) high and low voltage b) high and low frequency c) positive and negative polarity d) high and low amperage

1) 0.25-mm Pb equivalent

According to NCRP recommendations, what should be the minimum thickness of protection for the tower drape on a fluoroscopic unit? 1) 0.25-mm Pb equivalent 2) 1.5-mm aluminum (Al) equivalent 3) 2.5-mm Al equivalent 4) 0.15-mm lead (Pb) equivalent

4) 88 mGy/min

According to NCRP regulations, leakage radiation from the x-ray tube of a fluoroscopy unit shall not exceed: 1) 1 mGy/min 2) 10 mGy/min 3) 200 mGy/min 4) 88 mGy/min

4) Twice

According to the NCRP, how many times should the primary beam scatter before reaching the operator behind a control booth? 1) Once 2) Never 3) Four times 4) Twice

d) 1 mSv

According to the NCRP, what is the annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure? a) 15 mSv b) 0.5 mSv c) 5 mSv d) 1 mSv

d) 0.5 mSv

According to the NCRP, what is the embyro-fetus equivalent dose limit per month? a) 0.05 mSv b) 0.1 mSv c) 5 mSv d) 0.5 mSv

d

Adrenalin is used: a) To decrease blood pressure b) To prevent a heart attack c) To relieve pain from angina pectoris d) As a vasoconstrictor

c

All fluoroscopic machines must have an exposure switch that is of a deadman type. This type of switch is one that stops: a) automatically b) after a pre-set time c) when the pressure on it is released d) after a five-minute cumulative time has been reached

a

All of the following EXCEPT ________ minimize patient exposure. a) compensating filters b) lead aprons c) communication d) collimation

b) increasing the focal spot size

All of the following EXCEPT ________ will result in an increase in AEC response time. a) decreasing the kVp b) increasing the focal spot size c) increasing the SID d) increasing the part thickness

b

All of the following EXCEPT _______________can be used to monitor occupational exposure. a) optically stimulated luminescent dosimeters b) dose-area product meters c) thermoluminescent dosimeters d) film badges

d

All of the following affect patient dose, EXCEPT for: a) inherent filtration b) added filtration c) source-to-image distance (SID) d) focal spot size

b) the dorsal side of the wrist

All of the following are inappropriate sites for venipuncture EXCEPT FOR: a) arms on the side of a mastectomy b) the dorsal side of the wrist c) edematous areas d) sites above an intravenous drip device

c

All of the following are located in the secondary x-ray circuit EXCEPT for: a) rectifiers. b) the anode. c) filaments. d) stators.

c

All of the following are quality control (QC) tests for photostimulable imaging detectors EXCEPT FOR: a) uniformity b) spatial resolution c) luminance d) erasure thoroughness

b) Photostimulable phosphor plate

All of the following can be used in image intensification systems except: a) Complementary metal oxide semiconductor b) Photostimulable phosphor plate c) Flat panel detectors d) Charge coupled device

b

All of the following conditions can be classified as an early somatic effect from a radiation exposure except: a) nausea b) lifespan shortening c) epilation d) leukopenia

d

All of the following forms the ankle mortise, except: a) lateral malleolus of the fibula b) medial malleolus of the tibia c) inferior surface of the tibia d) medial surface of the tibia

b

All of the following positions are used to demonstrate the hand in the lateral projection, except: a) radial surface on IR, hand extended b) radial surface on IR, digits in "fan lateral" c) ulnar surface on IR, hand extended d) ulnar surface on IR, digits in "fan lateral"

a

All of the following statements are true regarding x-rays, except: a) X-rays travel in bundles of charged particles called photons b) X-rays scatter and produce secondary radiation c) X-rays travel at the speed of light d) X-rays possess wavelengths between 0.1-0.5 angstroms

d) Excessive SNR is associated with underexposure

All of the following statements regarding SNR are true, except: a) SNR is directly related to image quality b) SNR is directly related to patient dose c) Insufficient SNR results in quantum noise d) Excessive SNR is associated with underexposure

2) Following x-ray exposure, TLDs are exposed to and emit light

All of the following statements regarding TLDs are true except: 1) The TLD's response is proportional to the quantity of radiation received 2) Following x-ray exposure, TLDs are exposed to and emit light 3) TLDs are reusable 4) TLDs restore energy

b) Smoothing

All of the following terms can be defined as the removal of the most extreme shades from the grayscale of an image except: a) Dynamic range compression (DCR) b) Smoothing c) Contrast equalization d) Tissue equalization

3 and 4

All short-term effects of radiation are described as (select all that apply) 1) probabilistic 2) stochastic 3) deterministic 4) threshold

c) leukemia

All the following radiation-exposure responses exhibit a nonlinear threshold dose-response relationship except: a) skin erythema b) radiation lethality c) leukemia d) hematologic depression

c) Trapezium

All thumb images should include the ________ carpal bone within the collimated field. a) Scaphoid b) Triquetrum c) Trapezium d) Trapezoid

1 and 4

Along with complete information on the potential risks and benefits of the procedure, valid informed consent is not complete without which of the following: 1) Suggested alternatives 2) Warning that consent is not revocable 3) Blanket disclaimer for any deviations from customary protocol 4) An offer to answer question about the procedure 5) Documentation of prescription for narcotics if the patient signs the consent under the influence of narcotic medication

d

An 89-year-old male outpatient has a barium swallow. After completing the study and exiting the examination room, the patient suddenly collapses to the floor and is unconscious. He strikes his hand on the way down and is bleeding from a laceration on his palm. The radiographer calls in a code, but before anyone arrives, the first priority in this emergency situation is to: a) provide emotional support by talking to and gently touching the patient. b) attend to wounds or fractures. c) control bleeding. d) evaluate for and establish an open airway.

a) 200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp

An acceptable PA chest exam is taken using 300 mA, 0.008 seconds, and 110 kVp. If this examination is repeated using an AEC that has a minimum response time of 10 ms, which of the following exposure factors would be appropriate? a) 200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp b) 400 mA, 0.006 seconds, 110 kVp c) All of the above would be appropriate d) 600 mA, 0.004 seconds, 110 kVp

1 and 2 only

An average lateral tib/fib technique requires 3 mAs at 68 kVp for a patient measuring 10 cm. If a patient measures 14 cm, how should the technique be adjusted in order to achieve proper image quality? 1. 6 mAs at 68 kVp 2. 3 mAs at 76 kVp 3. 2.5 mAs at 65 kVp 4. 3 mAs at 60 kVp

c) fracture where a tendon or ligament pulls off a piece of bone

An avulsion fracture is characterized as a/an: a) fracture resulting in three or more bone pieces b) fracture that pierces the skin c) fracture where a tendon or ligament pulls off a piece of bone d) incomplete fracture

c) Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial

An emergency room physician has ordered ankle and lower leg images on a patient with an open fracture of the distal fibula. What is the best way to obtain the mortise image? a) Central ray is angled 45 degrees lateromedial b) Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 45 degrees c) Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial d) Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 15 to 20 degrees

6 mAs

An exposure was made using 12 mAs and 60 kVp. If the kVp was changed to 70 in order to reduce patient dose, what should be the new mAs?

d

An increase in ___ will decrease image contrast a) OID b) bit depth c) sampling frequency d) kVp

1 and 3

An increase in collimation in fluoroscopy decreases: 1. integral dose. 2. image quality. 3. scatter production.

a

An increase in image contrast will result from increasing which of the following? a) OID b) SID c) kVp d) focal spot size

d

An increase in total filtration of the x-ray beam will increase a) image contrast b) patient skin dose c) milliroentgen (mR) output d) beam HVL

f) All but A

An increase in which of the following would result in an increase in penumbra? a) SID b) OID c) FSS d) mA e) A and B f) All but A

20 or 21

An intravenous injection generally uses a ____- or ___-gauge needle

125%

An object is radiographed measuring 18 inches in diameter and lies 8 inches above the image receptor. The SID is 40 inches. What is the percentage of magnification of this radiographic image?

3) Aluminum oxide

An optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter contains which of the following detectors? 1) Lithium fluoride 2) Gadolinium 3) Aluminum oxide 4) Silver halide

1 and 2

An underexposed image might produce an image artifact called: (Select two) 1) noise 2) quantum mottle 3) saturation 4) ghosting

4,400 volts

An x-ray machine transformer has a primary voltage of 220 volts. If the primary coil has 200 turns of wire and the secondary coil has 4,000 turns, what is the voltage on the secondary side of the transformer?

a

Anteroposterior (AP) oblique images of the chest can be used when a patient is too ill for upright or prone positioning. When the patient is in a 45° right posterior oblique (RPO) position: a) the right lung field is best displayed. b) the left lung field is best displayed. c) both lungs are well displayed. d) neither lung is well displayed.

a

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the: a) Right main bronchus b) Proximal stomach c) Left main bronchus d) Esophagus

coronoid process

B

ilium

B

maxillary sinus

B

neck of femur

B

right hepatic duct

B

right obturator foramen

B

a

Beam penetrability is affected by: a) filtration. b) collimation. c) receptor size. d) milliamperage.

1 only

Beam quality is inversely related to: 1. wavelength 2. milliamperage 3. kilovoltage

c

Blood vessels, the ureters, nerves, and lymphatic vessels enter and exit the kidney through the: a) renal cortex. b) renal corpuscle. c) hilum. d) renal pelvis.

necks of the 5th metacarpal

Boxer's fx

d

Bq is the SI unit of measure for a) radiation intensity b) photon energy c) patient dose d) radioactivity

greater trochanter

C

sphenoid sinus

C

spinous process of L3

C

c

C is: a) low-voltage AC b) low-voltage DC c) high-voltage AC d) high-voltage DC

mastoid tip

C1 topography

gonion

C2,C3 topography

thyroid cartilage

C5 topography

a) solid-state computer chip

CCD video imaging uses what type of technology? a) solid-state computer chip b) video scanning that is progressive c) interlaced video scanning with an electron stream d) optical lenses with the output phosphor

b

Cassette-less radiography systems do not use which of the following? a) x-rays b) plate readers c) buckies d) radiation

a) Incorrect processing algorithm

Cause of graininess on a digital image can be the result of: a) Incorrect processing algorithm b) Not enough scattered radiation c) Modulation transfer function d) Overexposure

c

Charges separate in amorphous silicon when: a) light interacts with the array. b) the charge-coupled device (CCD) activates the array. c) an electric field is applied to the array. d) the capacitor is activated.

1 only

Chest drainage systems should always be kept: 1-Below the level of the patient's chest; 2-Above the patient's chest; 3-At the level of the patient's diaphragm.

c

Chron's disease is the inflammation of the terminal ileum and is best demonstrated in which of the following types of radiographs? a) Axial of the colon b) Left lateral decubitus c) Spot image of the cecum d) Upright abdomen

3, 1, 2

Classify the following tissues in order of increasing radiosensitivity: 1. Liver cells 2. Intestinal crypt cells 3. Muscle cells

b) Contact

Clostridium difficile, a spore-forming bacterium that can cause sepsis in susceptible patients, is spread by what mode of transmission? a) Droplet b) Contact c) Airborne d) Vector

2 and 3 only

Common types of grid interspace material include: a. Lead b. Aluminum c. Plastic fiber

a) Lower and more anterior

Compared to centering for the lateral cervical spine, centering for the lateral upper airway is: a) Lower and more anterior b) Higher and more posterior c) Higher and more anterior d) Lower and more posterior

b

Contrast resolution of a CR/DR image is determined by the ________ of the system. a) matrix size b) bit depth c) sampling frequency d) dynamic range

neck of radius

D

transverse process of L5

D

Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine standard protocol for blending PACS and various imaging modalities

DICOM

1 and 2

DR imaging equipment may include which of these image receptor designs? (select 2) 1) wires flat panel receptor 2) wireless flat panel receptor 3) cassette-based imaging plates

b

Death resulting from radiation damage to the stem cells of the gastrointestinal tract is most likely to occur within: a) 5 hours b) 5 days c) 4 weeks d) 3 months

b

Decreasing the detector element size will affect which of the following? a) bit depth b) spatial resolution c) dynamic range d) signal-to-noise ratio

c

Defecography is used to measure and study the: a) length of the transverse colon. b) angles of the right and left colic flexures. c) anorectal angle. d) length of the sigmoid colon.

b

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart via the: a) Pulmonary artery b) Superior vena cava c) Thoracic aorta d) Pulmonary veins

b) AP

Describe the position that was utilized to create this image. a) Lateral b) AP c) Prone d) AP in external rotation e) AP in internal rotation

d) Right upper rib fractures

Diagnose this patient. a) Hiatal hernia b) Cardiomegaly c) Pneumothorax of the right lung d) Right upper rib fractures e) Pleural effusion of the left lung

d) Anteriorly dislocated humeral head

Diagnose this patient. a) Normal shoulder b) Medially dislocated humeral head c) Superiorly dislocated humeral head d) Anteriorly dislocated humeral head e) Posteriorly dislocated humerus

c

Digital flat panel detectors used for fluoroscopy are a) typically heavier and larger than image intensifiers b) not capable of video image display c) indirect in design and used a scintillating phosphor d) limited in field size to no larger than 9"

1 and 2

Disease spread by direct or indirect contact include: 1-MRSA 2-Conjunctivitis 3-Rhinovirus

b) L3/L4

During myelography, contrast medium is introduced at the vertebral level of: a) L5/S1 b) L3/L4 c) L1/L2 d) Sacrum/coccyx joint

b

During myelography, the patient's neck should be hyperextended when the contrast medium nears the cervical region of the spine to: a) make the patient more comfortable. b) prevent the contrast medium from entering the cerebral ventricles. c) prevent the contrast medium from entering the subarachnoid space. d) prevent the contrast medium from entering the thoracic region of the spine.

b

During the ____ stage of gestation, prenatal death can result for exposure to ionizing radiation a) implantation b) preimplantation c) fetal d) organogenesis

d

During the ________ stage of gestation, prenatal death can result from exposure to ionizing radiation. a) fetal b) organogenesis c) implantation d) preimplantation

b

During the organogenesis period, what fetal effects of radiation are most likely to occur? a) cerebral effects b) teratogenic effects c) lethal effects d) genetic effects

a) range of exposures that can be captured by a detector

Dynamic range in radiographic imaging is defines as the a) range of exposures that can be captured by a detector b) range of exposure that produces quality images at an appropriate patients dose c) number of x-ray photons striking the image receptor d) sharpness of structural lines recorded in the radiographic image

lunate

E

mastoid process

E

medial tibial plateau

E

pancreatic duct

E

c

E a) low-amperage AC b) low-amperage DC c) high-amperage AC d) high-amperage DC

d

EKG Gating is used to obtain diagnostic images of the heart: a) during ventricular contraction b) during atrial contraction c) after ventricular contraction when the ventricles are resetting for the n contraction d) when the heart is at rest between beats

d

EKG Gating is used to obtain diagnostic images of the heart: a) during ventricular contraction b) during atrial contraction c) after ventricular contraction when the ventricles are resetting for the next contraction d) when the heart is at rest between beats

b

Each of these images was acquired using a DIFFERENT mA. This series of images is an example of: a) dynamic range b) exposure latitude c) spatial resolution d) DQE

A

Each of these images was acquired with a different exposure technique. Which image demonstrates an error called "quantum mottle"?

d) D x WR x WT

Effective Dose (EfD) is calculated as: a) Coulombs/kilogram b) Joules/kilogram c) D x WR d) D x WR x WT

d

Examples of COPD include:1-Bronchitis;2-Pulmonary emphysema;3-Asthma. a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

intravenous urography (IVU) intravenous pyelography (IVP) descending urography

Excretory Urography (EXU) is also known as

b

Exposure latitude is defines as the a) range of exposures that can be captured by a detector b) range of exposures that produces quality images at an appropriate patient dose c) number of x-rays photons striking the image receptor d) sharpness of structural lines recorded in the radiographic image

c

Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from ____ is MOST likely to result in a skeletal abnormality a) 0 days to 9 days of development b) 10 days to 2 weeks of development c) 3 weeks to 20 weeks of development d) 21 weeks to term

b

Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from ________________ can result in congenital abnormalities. a) 0 days to 9 days of development b) 10 days to 6 weeks of development c) 6 weeks to 20 weeks of development d) 21 weeks to term

d

Fluoroscopic spot film images are controlled by a) artificial intelligence (AI) algorithms b) dosed are product (DAP) calculations c) grid reciprocation rate and frequency d) automatic exposure control (AEC) termination

d

For a PA axial projection of the large intestine following the fluoroscopic portion of a barium enema the central ray is angled: a) 20-25 degrees cephalad b) 20-25 degrees caudad c) 30-40 degrees cephalad d) 30-40 degrees caudad

a

For a lateral projection of the chest, the longitudinal central ray entrance level is ________ and the transverse entrance level is ________. a) T7; the midcoronal plane b) T7; the midsagittal plane c) the midcoronal plane; T7 d) the midsagittal plane; T7

d) the right arm is resting on the top of the wall bucky

For a patient in the LAO position: a) the left arm is resting on the top of the wall bucky b) the right shoulder is in contact with the wall bucky c) the right hand is resting low on the hip with the palm facing out d) the right arm is resting on the top of the wall bucky

c

For a submentovertical projection of the zygomatic arches, the ________ line should be as close as possible to parallel with the image receptor for accurate extension. a)acanthiomeatal (AML) b) glabellomeatal (GML) c) infraorbitomeatal (IOML) d) orbitomeatal (OML)

b

For a submentovertical projection of the zygomatic arches, the central ray is perpendicular to the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) and enters the throat at: a) the level of the outer canthus. b) a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthus. c) the level of the external acoustic meatus (EAM). d) a level 1 inch posterior to the EAM.

d

For all AP projections of the shoulder, the CR should enter: a) 2 inches superior to the coracoid process b) 2 inches inferior to the coracoid process c) 1 inch superior to the coracoid process d) 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process

a

For conventional fluoroscopy, the light intensities must be converted by the ________ to be viewed on a television monitor. a) CCD b) electrostatic lenses c) output phosphor d) focal point

a) Reduced thyroid dose

For oblique positioning of the cervical spine, why are anterior oblique positions preferred over posterior oblique positions? a) Reduced thyroid dose b) Better visualization of intervertebral foramina on the side furthest from the IR c) Less rotation needed d) Better visualization of pedicles furthest from IR

b) Superior to the foramen magnum

For the AP axial projection of the skull, if the patient extends their neck, how would the dorsum sellae appear in the radiograph? a) Within the foramen magnum b) Superior to the foramen magnum c) Inferior to the mandible d) Inferior to the maxillary sinuses

a) 7 degrees caudal

For the AP axial projection of the skull, when utilizing the IOML as a landmark instead of the OML for positioning, what difference exists in the CR angulation? a) 7 degrees caudal b) 5 degrees cephalic c) 7 degrees cephalic d) 5 degrees caudal

b

For the AP axial, Town method, skull radiograph, if the patient is unable to flex their neck, which cranial positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR? a) orbitomeatal line (OML) b) infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) c) acanthiomeatal line (AML) d) mentomeatal line (MML)

a

For the AP axial, Towne method, skull radiograph, if the patient is able to depress their chin enough to align the orbitomeatal line (OML) perpendicular to the IR, what degree and direction of angulation should be used on the CR? a) 30 degrees caudal b) 37 degrees caudal c) 30 degrees cephalad d) 37 degrees cephalad

d) 40-50 degrees caudal

For the PA axial projection of the knee, Camp Coventry method, which CR angulation is utilized? a) 15-20 degrees cephalic b) 25-30 degrees caudal c) 25-30 degrees cephalic d) 40-50 degrees caudal

b

For the PA axial, Caldwell method, skull radiograph, what degree and direction of angulation should be used? a) 15 degrees cephalad b) 15 degrees caudal c) 25 - 30 degrees cephalad d) 25 - 30 degrees caudal

c

For the PA oblique projection (scapular Y) of the shoulder, the body is rotated how many degrees? a) 35 to 45 b) 45 c) 45 to 60 d) 25

c

For the right anterior oblique (RAO) position during an upper GI examination, the patient should be rotated approximately: a) 10° to 20°. b) 20° to 30°. c) 40° to 70°. d) 70° to 90°.

the thickness or diameter of the needle

Gauge refers to

1 and 3 only

Greater latitude is available to the radiographer in which of the following circumstances? 1. Using a high kVp 2. Using a small FSS 3. Using a low grid ratio

a

How does increasing x-ray beam energy influence the attenuation properties of shielding materials? a) decreased attenuation b) increased attenuation c) increased energy does not influence attenuation

d

How does radiation dose change if a technologist increases their distance from a radiation source by a factor of 2? a) dose increases by a factor of 2 b) dose increases by a factor of 2 squared c) dose decreases by a factor of 2 d) dose decreases by a factor of 2 squared

c

How far above the humeral head should the upper margin of the IR be placed for an AP humerus? a) 1/2 inch b) 2 inches c) 1.5 inches d) 1 inch

a

How is a three phase 12 pulse generator arranged? a) In a star, delta, or Y pattern b) In an arch c) In a row d) In a diamond shape

b

How is gross exposure error demonstrated in a digital image? a) overall graininess b) missing data points c) increased contrast d) increased brightness

b

How is the CR directed for an inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence) of the shoulder joint? a) 5 degrees horizontally b) 15 to 30 degrees horizontally and medially c) 15 to 30 degrees cephalic d) 5 degrees cephalic

a) 3

How many HVLs are required in order to reduce the intensity of a beam of monoenergetic photons to less than 25 percent of its original value? a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4

four

How many bones does the talus articulate with?

b

How many degrees and toward which direction should the central ray be angled for this AP projection? a) 30-40 degrees caudad b) 30-40 degrees cephalic c) 45 degrees cephalic d) 45 degrees caudad

a) 45 degrees toward the shoulder

How many degrees and toward which direction was the x-ray tube angled for the projection seen below? a) 45 degrees toward the shoulder b) 90 degrees toward the shoulder c) 45 degrees toward the hand d) 45 degrees away from the shoulder

a) 45

How many degrees are the femurs bent to the IR for the PA axial standing knees? a) 45 b) 30 c) 15 d) 20

b

How many degrees is the CR angled for both of the axiolateral projections (Coyle method) of the elbow? a) 35 b) 45 c) 40 d) 30

b

How many degrees is the body rotated for the AP oblique projection (Grashey method) of the shoulder joint? a) 45 to 60 degrees toward affected side b) 35 to 45 degrees toward affected side c) 35 to 45 degrees away from affected side d) 20 degrees toward affected side

a

How many degrees of angulation are required to open the IP joint spaces of the toes on an AP projection? a) 15 b) 20 c) 0 d) 10

d

How many diodes are need for a high frequency generator? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 12

3

How many half-value layers will it take to reduce an x-ray beam whose intensity is 78 R/min to an intensity of less than 10 R/min?

10,575 HU

How many heat units (HU) are generated when setting a technique of 75 kVp, 400 mA, 250 milliseconds, on a 3-phase, 12-pulse generator?

10

How many thoracic vertebrae articulate with the tubercles of the ribs?

d) 40° caudad

How much angulation of the central ray would be required for a tangential projection of the os calcis (dorsal plantar)? a) 40° cephalad b) 30° caudad c) 20° cephalad d) 40° caudad

7

IOML and OML make a ____-degree angle

c

Identify the projection and the structure shown in this image: a) PA projection, scaphoid b) PA projection, ulnar styloid process c) AP projection, carpal interspacing d) AP projection, pisiform

c

Identify the structure labeled "2" a) Posterior longitudinal ligament b) Conus medullaris c) Cauda equina d) Choroid plexuses

c

Identify the structure labeled "8" a) right atrium b) left atrium c) left ventricle d) right ventricle

a

Identify the structure labeled "9" a) Tentorium cerebelli b) Cistern magnum c) Occipital lobe d) Cerebellum

c

Identify the structure labeled "D": a) Pancreatic duct b) Cystic duct c) Common bile duct d) Common hepatic duct

c) coronoid process

Identify the structure that is identified by the letter (D): a) petrous ridge b) mandibular angle c) coronoid process d) maxillary sinus

distal phalanx

Identify the structure that is represented by the letter (A):

b) head of the first metatarsal

Identify the structure that is represented by the letter (B): a) first cuneiform b) head of the first metatarsal c) shaft of second metatarsal d) talus

d

Identify the structure that is represented by the letter (C): a) sphenoid sinus b) petrous ridge c) frontal sinus d) ethmoid sinus

b

Identify the structure that tis represented by the letter (A): a) clavicle b) first rib c) spinous process of C3 d) body of C2

d

Identify the structures that is represented by the letter (M): a) heart b) left atrium c) pulmonary trunk d) aortic arch

c) Syndesmosis

Identify the type of joint located within the circle. a) Synchondrosis b) Symphysis c) Syndesmosis d) Suture

c

Identify the type of projection and the position of the patient in this image: a) AP oblique projection, LPO position b) PA oblique projection, LAO position c) PA oblique projection, RAO position d) AP oblique projection, RPO position

a. 1/10 s

If 300 mA has been selected for a particular exposure, what exposure time would be required to produce 30 mAs? a. 1/10 s b. 1/5 s c. 1/30 s d. 1/60 s

0

If 90 kVp is used with a single-phase generator, the minimum electron voltage across the tube is ________ keV.

service recovery

If I keep a patient waiting a really long time and they are very upset, if I get them to understand what has happened and they aren't mad anymore what have you just work on? What are the terms called for your actions?

c. IR exposure is reduced to one-fourth

If SID is doubled, what may be said about IR exposure? a. IR exposure is doubled b. IR exposure is reduced to one-third c. IR exposure is reduced to one-fourth d. IR exposure is reduced by half

b

If a high-voltage transformer has 100 primary turns and 50,000 secondary turns and is supplied by 220 V and 100 A, what are the secondary voltage and current? a) 20 A and 100V b) 200 mA and 110 kV c) 20 mA and 100 kV d) 200 A and 110V

2.0 mGy/min

If a patient received 0.014 Gy during a 7-minute fluoroscopic exam, what was the dose rate?

a) 5 mSv

If a person's office is situated adjacent to the wall of a radiographic room, this person's annual dose-equivalent limit as recommended by the NCRP should not exceed: a) 5 mSv b) 10 mSv c) 50 mSv d) 1 mSv

a. Decrease the mAs

If a radiograph produced at 72" is of good quality and the SID is decreased to 56", what change must be made to keep the original radiographic quality? a. Decrease the mAs b. Increase the mA c. Decrease the OID d. Increase the exposure time

4 times the mAs

If a radiograph was taken without a grid and then repeated using a 8:1 grid, what would the milliampere-seconds (mAs) need to be in order to obtain the same image receptor exposure?

1, 2, and 4

If a radiologic examination must be performed during pregnancy, what safeguards can be used for both patient and fetal protection? 1. Accurate collimation 2. Double-shielding 3. Use of low kVp techniques 4. Limited protocols

a) Underexposure

If a structure having less tissue density than the part of interest, is positioned over the AEC detector, which of the following will result? a) Underexposure b) Overexposure c) Distorted image d) Correct exposure

0.18 mGy

If an exposure of 1.5 mGy/h is delivered from a distance of 3 feet, what would be the dose delivered after 20 minutes at a distance of 5 feet from the source?

3) Standing 5 feet from the source for 1 minute

If an individual received 45 mSv while standing at 4 feet from a source of radiation for 2 minutes, which of the options listed below will most effectively reduce his or her radiation exposure? 1) Standing 3 feet from the source for 2 minutes 2) Standing 4 feet from the source for 3 minutes 3) Standing 5 feet from the source for 1 minute 4) Standing 6 feet from the source for 2 minutes

2) Standing 8 ft from the source for 2 min

If an individual receives 50 mGy while standing 4 ft from a source of radiation for 2 min, which of the options listed below will most effectively reduce his or her radiation exposure to that source of radiation? 1) Standing 5 ft from the source for 1 min 2) Standing 8 ft from the source for 2 min 3) Standing 3 ft from the source for 2 min 4) Standing 6 ft from the source for 2 min

d

If an individual receives an acute, high dose of radiation to the forearm, what is the correct order in which the following effects will occur? a) desquamation, epilation, erythema b) erythema, desquamation, epilation c) epilation, erythema, desquamation d) erythema, epilation, desquamation

D

If exposure factors of 85 kVp, 400 mA, and 12 ms yield an output exposure of 150 mR, what is the milliroentgens per milliampere-seconds (mR/mAs)? A. 0.32 B. 3.1 C. 17.6 D. 31

800

If technical factors of 70 kVp and 40 mAs were selected, and if the time setting was 50 ms, the mA must have been:

3) 0.001 mGy

If the ESE for a particular exposure is 1.1 mGy, what will be the intensity of the scattered beam perpendicular to and 1 m from the patient? 1) 1.0 mGy 2) 0.01 mGy 3) 0.001 mGy 4) 0.1 mGy

d) 12.5% of the original quantity

If the HVL of shielding material is equal to 2 mm, how much radiation will transmit through 6 mm of this material? a) 75% of the original quantity b) 50% of the original quantity c) 25% of the original quantity d) 12.5% of the original quantity

b

If the IR and wrist are placed flat on the table for the PA axial projection of the wrist (Stecher method), what CR angle is required? a) 10 degrees toward the elbow b) 20 degrees toward the elbow c) 20 degrees away from the elbow d) 10 degrees away from the elbow

55 inches

If the OID is 15 inches and the SOD is 40 inches, what is the SID?

4 inches

If the SID is 72 inches and the SOD is 68 inches, what is the OID?

c. Reduce mAs by 2

If the SID is reduced from 80" to 60", what adjustment to mAs will maintain IR exposure? a. Increase mAs by 4 b. Reduce mAs by 4 c. Reduce mAs by 2 d. Increase mAs by 2

d

If the SID is reduced from 80" to 60", what adjustment to mAs will maintain receptor exposure? a) Reduce mAs by 4 b) Increase mAs by 4 c) Increase mAs by 2 d) Reduce mAs by 2

b. increase proportionally

If the distance between the object and the image receptor is decreased by a factor of 2, the amount of image blur will: a. remain unchanged b. increase proportionally c. decrease proportionally d. increase by a factor of 4

5.4 mGy

If the exposure rate at 3 ft from the fluoroscopic table is 30 mGy/h, what will be the exposure rate for 30 minutes at a distance of 5 ft from the table?

5.62 mGy/m

If the exposure rate to a body standing 6 ft from a radiation source is 10 mGy/m, what will be the dose to that body at a distance of 8 ft from the source?

7.5 Gy

If the exposure rate to an individual standing 2 m from a source of radiation is 15 Gy/m, what will be the dose received after 2 minutes at a distance of 4 m from the source?

Beneath coracoid (subcoracoid)—in chest wall

If the shoulder is dislocated anteriorly, where will the humeral head be demonstrated?

Beneath acromion (subacromial)—behind scapula

If the shoulder is dislocated posteriorly, where will the humeral head be demonstrated?

1, 2, 5, and 6

If the technique is not changed in order to compensate, which of the following can be used to reduce patient exposure? 1. Increased beam restriction 2. Increased kVp and decreased mAs 3. Increased exposure time 4. Increased mAs 5. Increased SID 6. Increased filtration

b) ⊥

If this patient measured 20.5 cm from the x-ray table to the ASIS, which of the following would apply? a) 3-5º cephalic b) ⊥ c) 3-5º caudad d) 20º caudad

d

If using a single phase unit with a technique of 70 kVp and 24 mAs, what is the new technique on a 3 phase 6 pulse unit? a) 70 kVp and 12 mAs b) 70 kVP and 8 mAs c) 70 kVp and 4 mAs d) 70 kVp and 16 mAs

misdemenor

If you are convicted of a crime, you can still work with patients if you have a

d

Imaging and archiving system in radiology communicate using a digital format called: a) JPEG File Interchange Format (JFIF) b) Tagged IMage FIle Format (TIFF) c) Electronic Health Record (EMR) d) Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM)

9.5 cm

In a PA projection of the chest being used for cardiac evaluation, the heart measures 15.2 cm between its widest points. If the magnification factor is 1.6, what is the actual diameter of the heart?

c) RAO

In a contrast study of the esophagus, which patient position is recommended to best visualize the esophagus projected between the thoracic vertebrae and cardiac anatomy? a) RPO b) LAO c) RAO d) AP or PA

3 and 4

In a server-based Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) network, what are two main advantages of accessing the archive server through a dedicated PACS network? (Select two) 1) Images are duplicated in the PACS archive server and at the reading workstation 2) If the network goes down, the archive server is still accessible through the internet 3) prior studied are immediately accessible 4) only one radiologist can access the study for interpretation

c) Between T12 and L3

In a sthenic patient, the kidneys are found: a) Between the manubrial notch and the xiphoid process b) Between T12 and L1 c) Between T12 and L3 d) Between T10 and T12

c) The patient should be positioned with their head under the anode side of the x-ray tube

In order to best visualize the spine in this projection, which of the following apply? a) The patient should be placed in a prone position b) The patient should be positioned with their head under the cathode side of the x-ray tube c) The patient should be positioned with their head under the anode side of the x-ray tube d) The patient should be instructed to breath normally

a. cathode

In order to compensate for the anode heel effect, the upper chest should be placed under which aspect of the x-ray tube for a PA projection? a. cathode b. anode c. central ray d. mirror

d) 6pm

In order to prepare the small bowel for a contrast exam, the patient should be NPO after_______ the night before the exam. a) Noon b) 8am c) midnight d) 6pm

IOML

In panoramic tomography of the mandible, what positioning line should be parallel to the floor?

e

In the AP axial projection of the skull, with the central ray directed 30º caudad, which baselines should be placed perpendicular to the IR? a) IOML & MSP b) MML & MSP c) IP & MSP d) AML & MSP e) OML & MSP

1, 2, and 3

In the PA oblique projection of the wrist, which of the carpals will be demonstrated distal and lateral to the lunate? 1. Scaphoid 2. Trapezium 3. Trapezoid 4. Triquetrum

B

In the illustration below, what component represents the photocathode of the scintillation detector?

C

In the illustration below, what component represents the photomultiplier tube of the scintillation detector?

A

In the illustration below, what component represents the scintillation layer of the scintillation detector?

B

In the image below, which letter represents the talofibular joint?

1 and 3

In the scapular Y lateral shoulder projection, which bony structures would be projected medial to the humeral head? 1. Coracoid process 2. Acromion 3. Clavicle

a

In this radiographic histogram, what does the x-axis represent? a) specific exposure values captures by the receptor b) frequency of specific exposure values c) number of line-pairs recorded by the receptor d) range of x-ray energies absorbed by the receptor

b

In this radiographic histogram, what does the y-axis represent? a) specific exposure values captured by the receptor b) frequency of specific exposure values c) number of line-airs recorded by the receptor exposure d) range of x-ray energies absorbed by the receptor

LPO

In what AP oblique was this patient?

AP

In what position was this patient?

LPO

In what position was this patient?

PA

In what position was this patient?

1, 3, and 4

In what ways can a radiographer reduce patient dose? 1. Improve technical factor selection through observation of patient habitus, positioning, and department protocols 2. Increase uniform IR exposure by utilizing compensating filters 3. Properly dress-down the patient for the exam, including removal of any jewelry or clothing items that could cause an artifact 4. Use clear breathing instructions to improve patient compliance and decrease motion

b

In which chamber of the heart does the pulmonary trunk come out of? a) Left ventricle b) Right ventricle c) Right atrium d) Left atrium

d) 45º towards the elbow

In which direction was the central ray angled for this image? a) 30º towards the fingers b) It was not angled. c) 25º towards the shoulder d) 45º towards the elbow e) 45º towards the shoulder

c. Fat

In which of the following tissue types does the least amount of absorption occur when the body is exposed to diagnostic x-rays? a. Muscle b. Soft tissue c. Fat d. Bone

a) posteroanterior (PA) skull

In which projection of the skull are the petrous ridges completely superimposing the orbits? a) posteroanterior (PA) skull b) anteroposterior (AP) axial skull (Towne) c) parietoacanthial skull (Waters) d) lateral skull

c) right lower quadrant

In which quadrant of the abdomen is the vermiform appendix? a) right upper quadrant b) left upper quadrant c) right lower quadrant d) left lower quadrant

d) Mammography

In which setting would the use of microfocus tubes be most appropriate? a) Fluoroscopy b) CT c) General radiography d) Mammography

3) Pocket dosimeter

In which type of monitoring device do photons release electrons by their interaction with air? 1) Optically simulated lumescence dosimeter (OSL) 2) Film badge 3) Pocket dosimeter 4) Thermolumescent dosimeter (TLD)

d

Increasing the kVp from 70 to 80 will result in an increase in all of the following EXCEPT the ____ of _____ photons. a) quantity; bremsstrahlung b) quantity; characteristic c) quality; bremsstrahlung d) quality; characteristic

b) death

Irradiation of the embryo during the first week of development to equivalent doses exceeding 200 mSv will frequently result in: a) no effect b) death c) sensory organ damage d) microcephaly

no

Is there any evidence of injury in this image?

ala of ilium

J

zygomatic arch

K

3, 2, 1, 4

List the following tissues in order from the most radiolucent to the most radiopaque. 1. muscle 2. fat 3. lung 4. bone

b

Mammography of the augmented breast is best accomplished using: a) The Grashey method b) The Eklund method c) The cleavage view d) The Cleopatra method

2 and 3

Methods of decreasing patient exposure during fluoroscopic procedures include 1. positioning the image intensifier as far from the patient as possible 2. using the last-image hold feature 3. using the smallest FOV

c

Most long-term effects of radiation exposure can be defined as which of the following? a) predictable b) deterministic c) stochastic

1 and 2

Moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy 1. decreases patient dose 2. improves image quality 3. decreases the SID

a

Mutual induction occurs only with transformers that are supplied with a) alternating current b) direct current c) fluctuating current d) current that flows in one direction

d

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible that the individual might receive more than a) 0.05 mSv b) 0.1 mSv c) 50 mSv d) 5 mSv

d. 200 mA, 0.06 s, 36" SID

Of the following groups of exposure factors, which will produce the greatest exposure to the IR? a. 100 mA, 0.06 s, 36" SID b. 200 mA, 0.03 s, 72" SID c. 200 mA, 0.06 s, 72" SID d. 200 mA, 0.06 s, 36" SID

b

Of the following, which would be considered a sever systemic effect of anaphylaxis? a) diffuse hives b) raid onset of hypotension c) raid onset of nausea d) vomiting within 2 minutes of the contrast injection

b

On a PA axial projection of the mandibular rami, the central ray is angled 20° in a _________ direction and should exit the ________. a) caudal; acanthion b) cephalic; acanthion c) caudal; mental point of the mandible d) cephalic; mental point of the mandible

a) be projected just below the maxillary sinuses

On a parietoacanthial projection of the paranasal sinuses, Waters method the petrous ridges should a) be projected just below the maxillary sinuses b) be projected in the lower third of the orbits c) completely fill the orbits d) not be demonstrated

c) patient's foot was externally rotated

On an AP hip or pelvis image, if the lesser trochanter is seen in profile medially what, if any, positioning mistake was made? a) this is the correct appearance, no mistake has been made b) patient's foot was internally rotated c) patient's foot was externally rotated d) patient's knee was flexed

a

On an axiolateral oblique projection of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs), the patient's head begins in a lateral position and is then rotated so that the midsagittal plane moves approximately 15° toward the image receptor. The central ray is angled caudally about 15°. The TMJ of interest is closest to the image receptor. On the image, the TMJ of interest will be projected ________ and ________ to the other TMJ. a) superiorly; posteriorly b) superiorly; posteriorly b. inferiorly; posteriorly c) superiorly; anteriorly d) inferiorly; anteriorly

a

On an axiolateral projection of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs), the patient's head is placed in a lateral position with the TMJ of interest closest to the image receptor. The central ray is angled caudally about 30°. On the image, the TMJ of interest will be projected ________ to the other TMJ. a) superiorly b) inferiorly c) anteriorly d) posteriorly

625,000 V

On one side of the x-ray unit, the information states that the unit's circuit has 250 amps (A) and 2,500 ohms. Using this information, what is the total voltage?

capitate

On this wrist image, the red arrow points to the:

c

Organogenesis in the fetus takes place during which of the following periods? a) 6 weeks after birth b) 0 - 10 days after conception c) 10 days - 6 weeks after conception d) 6 - 10 days after conception

c) Intravenous routes

Parenteral drug administration includes which of the following? a) Topical routes b) all of these c) Intravenous routes d) Oral routes

a

Patient demographics and examination information are stored with a digital radiography image in the image's. a) metadata. b) radiology information system (RIS). c) study ID. d) modality worklist.

b

Patient records are shared between medical providers using which of the following? a) Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) b) Electronic Health Record (EMR) c) International Classification of Diseases, ICD-10 d) Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM)

2 and 4

Positioning of the cervicothoracic (Swimmer's) lateral for the cervical spine requires: 1. Placement of patient's arm furthest from IR above their head 2. Placement of patient's arm closest to IR above their head 3. Slight cephalic angulation of the CR to separate shoulders 4. CR placement directed at T1

in the ankle

Potts fx

a

Pre-established guidelines that a radiographer can use to select exposure factors for a radiographic examination are listed on a(n): a) technique chart. b) generator control panel. c) examination requisition. d) accreditation standard.

c

Premedication is required for which type of patient undergoing IV injection of contrast media? a) patient with diabetes b) patient with elevated BUN or creatinine c) patient with known allergy to iodine d) patient with chronic or acute renal failure

4) 7 feet

Primary protective barriers, if in the wall, must extend to a height of at least? 1) 5 feet 2) 10 feet 3) 6 feet 4) 7 feet

b

Processing a tibia-fibula radiograph as an abdomen may result in: a) Reduced dynamic range b) Incorrect brightness and contrast c) Excessive dose to the patient d) Loss of spatial resolution

L

R or L lung

R

R or L lung

1 and 2 only

Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by which of the following exposure control cord guidelines? 1-Exposure cords on fixed equipment must be very short 2-Exposure cords on mobile equipment should be fairly long 3-Exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should of the coiled expandable type.

a) radiation output of x-ray machines

Radiation equipment survey devices are designed to evaluate a) radiation output of x-ray machines b) radioactive contamination c) occupational radiation dose d) non-ionizing radiation dose

a

Radiographic detectors are responsible for capturing the aerial image and converting x-rays to a(n): a) electrical signal b) digital matrix c) picture element d) pixel

flux gain

Ratio of the number of light photons at the output phosphor to the number of x-rays at the input phosphor

d

Recommendations for dietary instruction prior to an exam involving injection of iodine contrast media include which of the following? a) no restrictions are recommended b) nothing by mouth (NPO) after midnight prior to the day of the exam c) Nothing by mouth (NPO) for one hour prior to the exam d) Increased hydration the day before the exam and nothing by mouth (NPO) for one hour prior to the exam

2) 7 feet

Secondary protective barriers must extend to a height of? 1) 6 feet 2) 7 feet 3) 5 feet 4) 10 feet

1, 2, 5, and 6

Select the statements that correctly describe the image seen below. 1. An axial projection of the calcaneus is seen 2. The talocalcaneal joint is visualized 3. The sinus tarsi is visualized 4. The tibiotalar joint is visualized 5. The ankle is dorsiflexed 6. The sustentaculum tali is visualized

b) head of the first metatarsal.

Sesamoid bones of the foot are usually located beneath the: a) head of the fifth metatarsal. b) head of the first metatarsal. c) base of the first metatarsal. d) third metatarsophalangeal joint.

d

Soft tissue radiographs of the elbow in the lateral position are often ordered to demonstrate: a) fractures b) nerves c) veins d) fat pads

2 and 3

Sources of natural background radiation contributing to whole-body radiation dose include: 1. dental x-rays 2. terrestrial radionuclides 3. internal radionuclides

1, 2, and 3

Sources of natural background radiation exposure include: 1. The food we eat 2. Air travel 3. Uranium

2 and 3

Sources of secondary radiation include: 1. Background radiation 2. Leakage radiation 3. Scattered radiation

d

Step down transformers reduce voltage and increase current in response to the use of the variable resistor. What is the variable resistor? a) Rotor of the tube b) Step up transformer c) Rectification system d) Rheostat

1, 5, 7

Stochastic effects of ionizing radiation are associated with which of the following? 1) No threshold 2) All early effects 3) Nonlinear 4) Genetic effects 5) Cancer 6) Most late effects 7) No safe dose

25

Subcutaneous injections often use a ____-gauge needle

b

Subject contrast is affected by a) mAs b) barium c) OID d) all of the above

1, 2, and 3

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include: 1-Sneezing 2-Voice appearing hoarse 3-Wheezing.

T

T/F Iodine contrast media that is described as non-ionic is also associated with lower osmolarity

F

T/F Removing a resistor within a circuit can act to increase the total voltage of a circuit

T

T/F The lateral side of the ascending colon is best demonstrated in the left lateral decub

F

T/F The lateral side of the ascending colon is best demonstrated in the right lateral decub

F

T/F The lateral side of the descending colon is best demonstrated in the left lateral decub

T

T/F The lateral side of the descending colon is best demonstrated in the right lateral decub

F

T/F The medial side of the ascending colon is best demonstrated in the left lateral decub

T

T/F The medial side of the ascending colon is best demonstrated in the right lateral decub

T

T/F The medial side of the descending colon is best demonstrated in the left lateral decub

F

T/F The medial side of the descending colon is best demonstrated in the right lateral decub

T

T/F motion can be caused by reciprocating grid

F

T/F negligence is intentional

T

T/F the Good Samaritan Law covers you when you help a patient who slipped on the floor and they twist their back when they get up?

F

T/F the prostate is considered a urinary organ

F

T/F within a parallel circuit, the breaking of a single path will stop the flow of electricity throughout the entire circuit

F

T/F you can apply uretic compression on a hydrated patient

2" above sternal notch

T1 topography

a) RIS

Technologists must be able to schedule medical imaging exams, view orders, track patients, and store imaging reports. Which imaging informatics system is responsible for these tasks? a) RIS b) PACS c) DICOM d) HL7

d

The 3 projections taken for a long-bone measurement (scanography technique) of the lower extremity include: a) AP hip, lateral femur, and AP lower leg b) AP hip, lateral knee, and AP lower leg c) AP femur, AP lower leg, and AP foot d) AP hip, AP knee, and AP ankle

c

The AEC controls which of the following exposure variables? a) kVp b) focal spot size c) seconds d) mA

2 only

The AP external oblique projection of the elbow will best demonstrates which of the following bony structures? 1. Coronoid process 2. Radial head 3. Styloid process of the radius 4. Coracoid process

e) Pisiform

The AP oblique of the wrist will best demonstrate which of the following carpal bones? a) Scaphoid b) Hamate c) Trapezium d) Capitate e) Pisiform

b) to be parallel MML

The AP projection of C1-C2 (dens) Fuchs method requires a CR angulation: a) 15-20 degrees cephalic b) to be parallel MML c) 15-20 degrees caudal d) to be parallel IOML

c

The Bucky slot cover is in place to protect the 1. patient 2. fluoroscopist 3. technologist a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

c) 15 to 30

The CR angle for an AP axial projection of the clavicle when performed on a patient in the supine position is _____ degrees. a) 5 to 10 b) 15 to 25 c) 15 to 30 d) 10 to 25

c

The CR angle for the tangential projection of the carpal canal is ____ degrees. a) 35 to 45 b) 15 c) 25 to 30 d) 20

d

The Doubling Dose in humans us estimated to be: a) 2.5 Sv b) 1.5 mSv c) 2.5 mSv d) 1.5 Sv

d

The Hematopoietic Syndrome of Acute Radiation syndrome (ARS) will occur at a whole-body dose of: a) 10 Gy b) 0.5 Gy c) 50 Gy d) 1 Gy

c

The LD50/60 dose in humans is a) 1 -2 Gy b) 2 -3 Gy c) 3 -4 Gy d) 4 -5 Gy

a) abdomen and outer thighs

The MOST common subcutaneous sites for drug injections are the a) abdomen and outer thighs b) outer thighs and deltoid muscle c) deltoid muscle and abdomen d) gluteal folds and outer thighs

c) full onset of illness

The Manifest Illness phase of ARS is characterized by which of the following? a) initial onset of illness b) temporary relief from illness c) full onset of illness d) full recovery from illness

c

The National Council for Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP) requires that leakage radiation from the fluoroscopic tube must be below a) 10 miligray/hour at 1 meter from the source b) 100 miligray/hour at 1 meter from the source c) 1 miligray/hour at 1 meter from the source d) 0.1 miligray/hour at 1 meter from the source

b

The Nyquist Theorem describes: a) the theory of relativity b) sampling frequency necessary to convert the analog to digital signal c) the detecting element's ability to convert light photons into electrons d) the theory of gravity

a

The P wave of an EKG pattern represents the a) electrical activity through the atria b) electrical activity through the ventricles c) resetting of the ventricles d) contraction of the ventricles without electrical impulse

d

The TMJ is a ____ joint a) fibrous suture b) fibrous hinge and gliding c) synovial suture d) synovial hinge and gliding

a

The ________ detector consists of a thin-film transistor array. a) flat-panel b) photostimulable phosphor plate (PSP) c) charge coupled device (CCD) d) complementary metal-oxide semidonductor (CMOS)

c

The ________ foramina house the spinal cord. a) transverse b) intervertebral c) vertebral d) sacral

d

The ________ generator component converts DC current to high-frequency AC. a) capacitor b) rectifier c) transformer d) inverter

b

The ________ is a collection of disc drives that perform together as a single unit and improve reliability of data storage. a) random access memory (RAM) b) redundant array of independent disks (RAID) c) radiology information system (RIS) d) read-only memory (ROM)

a

The ________ of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with the heads of the ribs. a) bodies b) laminae c) pedicles d) transverse processes

d) relative

The ________ risk model predicts that excess cancer deaths from irradiation will increase over time as the naturally occurring risk increases with age in the nonirradiated population. a) absolute b) lethal dose (LD) 50/30 c) threshold response d) relative

c

The ________ tendon inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus. a) supraspinatus b) infraspinatus c) subscapularis d) deltoid

c

The ___________ mode of transmission spreads pathogens through contaminated objects such as a patient's belongings. a) direct contact b) endogenous c) indirect contact d) vector

c) transthoracic projection (Lawrence method)

The ____________ is useful for obtaining a lateral projection of the shoulder in trauma patients. a) tangential projection (Neer method) b) AP oblique projection (Apple method) c) transthoracic projection (Lawrence method) d) AP oblique projection (Grashey method)

d) inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence method)

The _____________ shows the lesser tubercle of the humerus in profile and directed anteriorly. a) AP oblique projection (Apple method) b) AP oblique projection (Grashey method) c) tangential projection (Neer method) d) inferosuperior axial projection (Lawrence method)

b. differential absorption

The ability of a body part to absorb x-rays differently depending on its average atomic number and density is called: a. attenuation b. differential absorption c. radiographic contrast d. subject density

a. grid cutoff

The absorption of useful radiation by a grid is called: a. grid cutoff b. contrast improvement factor c. grid frequency d. grid selectivity

1 and 4

The accompanying illustration depicts which of the following? 1) Recoil electron 2) Coherent scatter 3) Total transfer of x-ray photon energy 4) Interaction with a loosely bound electron

c

The actual focal spot is controlled by the a) angle of the focusing cup b) anode rotation speed c) length of the filament d) effective focal spot

c

The advantage of the dose area product (DAP) meter as a dose measuring device is: a) it measures dose at the level of the collimator. b) the DAP meter terminates exposure after a certain dose is reached. c) technologists do not have to place it into the field. d) regular calibration is required

c. a large SID and large OID

The air-gap technique uses: a. a small SID and small OID b. a large SID and small OID c. a large SID and large OID d. a large OID an small SID

1) Use factor

The amount of time that x-rays are being produced and directed toward a particular wall is referred to as the: 1) Use factor 2) Controlling factor 3) Occupancy factor 4) Workload

d

The anatomic snuffbox overlies the ________ bone and the radial artery. Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox is a clinical sign suggesting fracture of this bone, the MOST commonly fractured carpal bone. a) capitate b) lunate c) trapezium d) scaphoid

d) Gamma, x-ray, and beta

The annual dose limit for occupationally-exposed individuals is valid for? a) All ionizing radiations b) Gamma, x-ray, and alpha c) Alpha, beta, and x-ray d) Gamma, x-ray, and beta

1) 5 mSv

The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure, is? 1) 5 mSv 2) 1 mSv 3) 50 mSv 4) 15 mSv

d. In the last portion of the Duodenum

The ascending region of the Duodenum is located: a. Immediately after the pyloric sphincter of the stomach b. Within the C Loop of the Duodenum c. In the superior portion of the Duodenum d. In the last portion of the Duodenum

c

The atlantoaxial joint between the dens of the axis and the anterior arch of the atlas is a(n) ________ joint. a) ellipsoidal b) gliding c) pivot d) saddle

3 only

The attenuation of x-ray photons is not influenced by: 1. pathology 2. atomic number of the structure 3. photon quantity

c

The available gray scale of an imaging system is determined by: a) pixel pitch b) exposure latitude c) bit depth d) matrix size

2) 2.0 mSv

The average U.S. resident receives approximately _______ per year from indoor and outdoor levels of radon. 1) 3.0 mSv 2) 2.0 mSv 3) 5 mSv 4) 1.0 mSv

1) Mean marrow dose

The average dose to active bone marrow as an indicator of somatic effects on population is called? 1) Mean marrow dose 2) GSD 3) Doubling dose 4) Bone dose

d

The average temporal artery temperature for a patient is: a) 97° b) 98.6° c) 99.5° d) 100°

a

The base layer of a flat-panel detector is made of: a) glass. b) lead. c) thorium. d) molybdenum.

b) used only for radiation protection purposes.

The basic difference between the sievert and other units that measure radioactivity is that the sievert is: a) the only international system (SI) unit for radiation dose. b) used only for radiation protection purposes. c) used to indicate the activity level of radionuclides. d) used to indicate the exposure rate for a given exposure.

1 only

The best method to check for cracks in lead aprons is/are? 1-To fluoroscope them once a year 2-To radiograph them at low kilovoltage twice a year 3-By visual inspection.

1 and 2

The bones that make up the shoulder girdle are the: 1. Scapula 2. Clavicle 3. Humerus

d

The bony structure in which the pituitary sits is the ___, which is in the ___ bone. a) clivus; sphenoid b) cribriform plate; ethmoid c) sphenoid strut; ethmoid d) sella turcica; sphenoid

c

The central ray enters the ________ when performing an AP axial projection of the toes. a) third metacarpophalangeal joint b) distal interphalangeal joint of the third phalanx c) third metatarsophalangeal joint d) head of the first metatarsal

a

The central ray entrance point for an AP oblique projection, or Grashey method, of the shoulder is: a) 2 inches medial and 2 inches inferior to the superolateral border of the scapula. b) at the coracoid process. c) 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process. d) at the acromion.

b

The central ray is angled ________ in a ________ direction for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the lumbosacral junction. a) 5° to 8°; caudad b) 30° to 35°; cephalad c) 45°; cephalad d) 45°; caudad

a

The central ray is directed to the ________ joint when performing a lateral projection of the fourth toe. a) proximal interphalangeal b) distal interphalangeal c) metatarsophalangeal d) tarsometatarsal

2%

The collimator light must be aligned to the radiation field to within what percent of the SID?

a

The concept used in barrier design that describes the total beam-on time for a radiography room per week is: a) workload. b) use factor. c) weighting factor. d) occupancy factor.

c

The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to have to consciously exhale, is: a) TB b) Bronchitis c) Emphysema d) Bronchial asthma

1, 2, and 3

The degree of x-ray beam attenuation is affected by: 1. Muscle development 2. Z number of tissue 3. Tissue pathology

c

The direction of electron travel in the x-ray tube is determined by: a) the thermal energy b) actual focal spot to effective focal spot c) composition of anode target and its electrical charge d) effective focal spot to actual focal spot

1) below the collimators

The dose area product (DAP) meter is generally placed 1) below the collimators 2) between the ionization chamber and grid 3) between the anode and cathode 4) between the part and ionization chamber

1, 2, and 3

The effect described as differential absorption is: 1. Responsible for radiographic contrast 2. A result of attenuating characteristics of tissue 3. Minimized by the use of high kVp

1 and 2 only

The effective energy of an x-ray beam is increased by increasing the 1. added filtration 2. kilovoltage 3. milliamperage

anode angle and filament size

The effective focal spot size is affected by both the ____ and ____

c

The effective focal spot size is affected by which of the following? a) anode rotation speed b) filament composition c) target angle d) anode heel effect

d

The effects of radiation on biologic material depend on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect: a) will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time b) has no relation to how it is delivered in time c) depends solely on the radiation quality d) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time

B

The electron cloud within the x-ray tube is the product of a process called A. electrolysis B. thermionic emission C. rectification D. induction

b. 3 ½ - 4"

The enema tip should be inserted into the rectum: a. at least 5" b. 3 ½ - 4" c. 1" d. after the patient exhales e. more than 1 of these

b

The exposure field size and image receptor size selected must be within ______ of the source-to-image distance. a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 5%

8 ft

The exposure rate to a body 4 ft from a source of radiation is 16 Gy/h. What distance from the source would be necessary to decrease the exposure to 4 Gy/h?

c

The feature that maintains image quality at the lowest dose in fluoroscopy is abbreviated as: a) AEC. b) ABC. c) AERC. d) ATCM.

a

The fetal period of pregnancy takes place during which of the following time frame a) 6 weeks - births b) 0 - 10 days after conception c) 2 - 10 weeks after conception d) 6 - 10 days after conception

a

The filament wires are kept warm by a) a standby current from the time the x-ray machine is turned on b) the current produced only during exposure c) the lead tube housing d) the dielectric insulating oil

b

The first commercial CT scanners could image the ________. a) Head and Abdomen b) Head only c) Total Body d) Abdomen only

d

The first step in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is to: a) perform rescue breathing. b) position the patient. c) use the automated external defibrillator (AED). d) determine unresponsiveness.

c (Automatic Exposure Rate Control)

The fluoroscopic feature that maintains the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) is abbreviated as: a) MTF b) DQE c) AERC d) AEC

a

The fluoroscopic foot switch is a: a) positive-pressure switch. b) negative-pressure switch. c) toggle switch. d) variable resistor.

b

The formula Ei = Es + (Eb + EKE) is for calculating the energy of a scattered photon created during a(n) ________ scattering interaction. a) unmodified b) Compton c) coherent d) classical

a) Joule/kilogram

The gray is a unit of absorbed dose defined as being equal to a) Joule/kilogram b) Joule x kilogram c) Kerma/kilogram d) (Joule/kilogram) x 100

a

The higher the gauge number of an intravenous [IV] needle: a) The smaller its diameter b) The larger its diameter c) The shorter its length d) The greater its length

a

The immediate symptoms that appears after an acute radiation exposure are termed the: a) prodromal syndrome b) latent syndrome c) proportional syndrome d) chronic syndrome

a

The intensity of the x-ray beam can be checked using which of these detection devices? a) equipment survey device b) environment survey device c) personal dosimetry device d) occupational dosimetry device

b

The interspaces between the third, fourth, and fifth cuneiforms are best demonstrated in which of the following projections? a) Lateral foot b) Medial oblique foot c) Weight-bearing foot d) Lateral oblique foot

a

The joints formed by the superior and inferior articulating processes of the thoracic vertebrae can be best demonstrated with a(n): a) 70° AP oblique projection b) 60 ° AP oblique projection c) 45 ° AP oblique projection d) Lateral projection

10 cm

The kidneys can move up to ____ on deep inspiration

5 cm

The kidneys move ___ from the recumbent to erect position

b

The latent phase of ARS is characterized by which of the following? a) full onset of symptoms b) temporary subsiding of symptoms c) initial onset of symptom d) full recovery from illness

RPO

The left kidney is placed parallel to the image receptor in the ________ position.

c

The left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the IR when the patient is positioned in a: a) Left lateral position b) 30° to 40° LPO position c) 25° to 30° LAO position d) 25° to 30° LPO position

4) Virulence

The likelihood that a microorganism will cause disease is termed: 1) Colonization 2) Pathogenicity 3) Infection 4) Virulence

A

The line-focus principle refers to the fact that A. the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot B. the effective focal spot is larger than the actual focal spot C. x-rays travel in straight lines D. x-rays cannot be focused

c

The liver has a WT of: a) 0.20. b) 0.12. c) 0.05. d) 0.01.

b

The lung field portions of the image demonstrate the technical problem of: a) quantum mottle. b) saturation. c) size distortion. d) motion.

a

The main difference between ionic and non-ionic iodine contrast media is: a) non-ionic solutions contain molecules that do not break apart upon injection b) non-ionic solutions do not contain iodine c) non-ionic solutions are considered more toxic to the body d) non-ionic solutions are not water-soluble

a. absorb scatter radiation from the exit beam

The main purpose of radiographic grids is to: a. absorb scatter radiation from the exit beam b. decrease the exposure to the patient c. decrease radiographic contrast d. increase receptor exposure

1 and 3

The majority of occupational radiation exposure is received during: 1. bedside radiography 2. general radiography 3. fluoroscopy

a

The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the: a) T2-3 interspace b) T4-5 interspace c) Mid-sternum d) Costal margin

b) Temporal bone

The mastoid air cells are located posterior to the EAM within a large, bony prominence of the: a) Occipital bone b) Temporal bone c) Sphenoid bone d) Malar bone

d

The medical term for a congenital condition of clubfoot is: a) Muscular dystrophy b) Coxa plana c) Osteochondritis d) Talipes

a

The most common effect from exposure to ionizing radiation is? a) Nothing b) Cell death c) Mutations d) Ionization of atoms in the cells

d

The most common effects of exposure to radiation during the fetal period include: a) microcephaly b) intellectual disability c) decreased IQ d) all of the above

ionic and non-ionic

The most commonly used contrast media for urinary system is

b

The neck of the "Scottie dog" seen on the oblique projections of the lumbar spine series is formed by: a) Laminae b) Pars interarticularis c) Pedicle d) Superior articulating process

b

The neck of the femur is angled anteriorly from the femoral body by approximately: a) 5° to 10°. b) 15° to 20°. c) 30° to 40°. d) 40° to 60°.

b

The normal range for BUN is: a) 5-10 mg/dl b) 7-21 mg/dl c) 20-35 mg/dl d) 30-50 mg/dl

a

The normal range for prothrombin time (PT) tests is: a) 11-13.5 seconds b) 15-25 seconds c) 35-45 seconds d) 50+ seconds

a

The normal range for the international normalized ratio (INR) for reporting prothrombin time (PT) is: a) 0.8-1.2 b) 1.5-2.0 c) 2.0-2.5 d) 2.5-5.0

b

The normal range of BUN values for adults is: a) 4-8 b) 7-21 c) 10-20 d) 15-30

b

The nucleolus of a typical cell contains which of the following? a) Ribosomes b) RNA c) Lysosomes d) DNA

4) 50 mSv

The occupational radiation dose-equivalent limit for stochastic effects of the whole body is now determined to be? 1) 0.5 mSv 2) 5 mSv 3) 500 mSv 4) 50 mSv

1, 2, and 3

The operation of personnel radiation monitoring devices depends on which of the following? 1. Ionization 2. Luminescence 3. Thermoluminescence

b

The patient is appropriately positioned for an AP axial skull projection (Towne). The central ray enters a) at the glabella b) 2.5 inches superior to the glabella c) at the nasion d) 2.5 inches superior to the nasion

c

The portion of the anode that stops the stream of electrons during x-ray production is the a) rotor b) stem c) target d) focusing cup

b

The portion of the light localizing collimator that reduces off-focus radiation striking the patient is the: a) filtration added at the lower shutter. b) shutter closest to the tube port. c) reflective mirror. d) dose area product (DAP) meter.

c

The posterior fat pad lies within the: a) radial fossa b) radial notch c) olecranon fossa d) coronoid fossa

d

The primary function of analog-to-digital converter (ADC) within the CR digitizer is to a) convert light photons into an electrical signal b) convert x-rays into a cosmic signal c) convert electrical signals to x-ray energy d) convert electrical signals into a digital signal

a

The primary means of hepatitis B transmission is via a) blood or bodily fluid b) sneezing or coughing c) vectors d) fomites

d

The probability of x-ray attenuation is affected by all of the following EXCEPT: a) atomic number. b) photon energy. c) part thickness. d) milliamperage.

d) Disinfection

The process by which a contaminated object, such as a portable x-ray machine, is cleaned, first by mechanical means and then by wiping or soaking in chemical solutions is called what? a) Sterilization b) Antisepsis c) Asepsis d) Disinfection

b

The projection of the shoulder demonstrated in this figure is the: a) inferosuperior axial (West Point) b) inferosuperior axial (Lawrence) c) axiolateral d) Superoinferior axial

b

The purpose of item 3 is to: a) conduct electrons. b) maintain a vacuum. c) provide shielding. d) focus light photons.

d

The purpose of the rheostat in the x-ray circuitry is to: a) minimize electron repulsion b) monitor tube current c) alter anode rotation speed d) adjust filament temperature

a. inherent filtration

The pyrex glass of the x-ray tube, the beryllium port, and the insulating oil through which the x-rays pass through all constitute part of the: a. inherent filtration b. added filtration c. anode heel effect d. compensating filtration

d

The quality of a digital image depends on which of the following? 1. Spatial resolution 2. Brightness 3. Contrast a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1,2 and 3

posteriorly

The radial tuberosity should face ______ in the axiolateral projection of the radial head.

c) reducing field size.

The radiographer can best control the production of scatter radiation by: a) increasing the kVp. b) adding filtration. c) reducing field size. d) using a grid.

1) 10 days following the onset of menses

The recommendation of "elective booking" states that elective abdominal radiographic examinations on women of reproductive age should be limited to the? 1) 10 days following the onset of menses 2) 10 days following the menses 3) 10 days before the onset of menses 4) Last 10 days of the menstrual cycle

c) ohms

The resistance of electrical flow through a circuit is measured in a) Volts b) amperes c) ohms d) Joules

c

The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi is the: a) Hilum b) Larynx c) Carina d) Epiglottis

b

The right kidney is placed perpendicular to the image receptor in the ________ position. a) left posterior oblique (LPO) b) right posterior oblique (RPO) c) lateral d) supine

LAO

The right upper anterior axillary ribs are best demonstrated by placing the patient in the __________ position.

4 (everything but thorium which is used in the filament)

The rotating anode target material that is responsible for helping to cool and conduct electrons through the x-ray circuitry is comprised of how many materials from the list below? - tungsten -thorium -rhenium -molybdenum -graphite

a

The sampling frequency of an imaging system determines the: a) pixel size b) bit depth c) dynamic range d) detective quantum efficiency

1) 1/2 inch

The secondary protective barrier must overlap the primary protective barrier by at least? 1) 1/2 inch 2) 1⁄10 inch 3) 1 inch 4) 1 foot

b

The smallest resolvable area in a digital imaging device is: a) matrix size b) detector element c) focal spot size d) detector size

a

The spatial resolution of a detector is controlled by the: a) sampling frequency. b) matrix size. c) milliampere-seconds (mAs). d) analog-to-digital converter (ADC).

c

The specifications for an x-ray imaging system indicate that the detector can capture exposure values from 0.1 microgray to 1,000 microgray. the quality of the x-ray system is called: a) spatial resolution b) exposure latitude c) dynamic range d) quantum mottle

b

The sutures of the skull are classified as: a) Amphiarthrodial joints b) Synarthrodial joints c) Ambiarthrodial joints d) Diarthrodial joints

b

The tangential projection, or Gaynor-Hart method, of the wrist evaluates the: a) carpal bridge. b) carpal canal. c) trapezium. d) styloid tip of the radius.

a

The terminal end of the spinal cord is called the: a) conus medullaris b) sacral plexuses c) cauda equina d) Lumbar plexuses

5,000 to 20,000

The total brightness gain ranges from:

d) exposure.

The total electrical charge generated by an x-ray beam per unit mass of air is called: a) the absorbed dose. b) the equivalent dose. c) air kerma. d) exposure.

d

The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on the 1. tube current 2. target material 3. square of the kilovoltage a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

b

The transformer core is typically composed of a) copper b) iron c) plastic d) rubber

1) Sievert

The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is the: 1) Sievert 2) Gray in air 3) Gray in tissue 4) Coulomb per kilogram

d) effective dose limit

The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed that carries a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual defines a) maximum permissible dose b) ALARA c) Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau d) effective dose limit

1) off-focus radiation

The uppermost collimator shutter functions to eliminate: 1) off-focus radiation 2) leakage radiation 3) primary radiation 4) scatter radiation

b

The waveform of commercial power supply to the x-ray circuit is a(n) a) direct current b) alternating current

d) 25 lbs

The weight of a full-body protective apron with 1 mm lead equivalent is approximately: a) 5 lbs b) 18 lbs c) 12 lbs d) 25 lbs

d) T9-T10

The xiphoid tip of the sternum is located at approximately what corresponding vertebral level? a) T11-T12 b) T7-T8 c) T5-T6 d) T9-T10

c

The zig-zag lines in the following image represent which of the following? a) diodes b) transformers c) resistors d) power sources

b) Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors

There are several types of DR image receptors used in digital imaging. All of the following use indirect capture except: a) A charge coupled device b) Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors c) Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors d) Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors

no

There is ____ relationship between beam restriction and beam filtration

a

There must be ___________ for current to flow. a) voltage b) a vacuum c) resistance d) potential capacitance

b) the greater tubercle

This image best demonstrates: a) the lesser tubercle b) the greater tubercle c) the glenoid fossa d) the A/C joint

e) the small bowel

This image demonstrates an exam of: a) the sigmoid colon b) the esophagus c) the colon d) the duodenum e) the small bowel

c

This system allows for multiple users to view the same image at the same time at different locations is: a) LUT b) HIS c) PACS d) RIS

1 and 3

Tilting of the head during positioning for the lateral skull would result in: 1. Superior and inferior separation of orbital roofs 2. Anterior and posterior separation of EAM 3. Superior and inferior separation of sphenoid wings 4. Anterior and posterior separation of mandibular rami

LAO

To adequately demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae using an PA oblique projection, the ________ position should be used.

d

To be in compliance with radiation safety standards, the fluoroscopy exposure switch must: q) sound during fluoro on-time b) be on a six-foot long cord c) terminate fluoro after 5 minutes d) be the dead-man type

b

To demonstrate the coronoid process in the axiolateral projection of the elbow (Coyle method), the elbow is flexed ____ degrees. a) 30 b) 90 c) 45 d) 80

b

To demonstrate the radial head in the axiolateral projection of the elbow (Coyle method), the elbow is flexed ____ degrees. a) 45 b) 90 c) 30 d) 80

B

To eject a K-shell electron from a tungsten atom, the incoming electron must have an energy of at least A. 60 keV. B. 70 keV. C. 80 keV. D. 90 keV.

b

To enter an operating room, a technologist MUST be wearing "scrubs" (shirt and pants acquired in the surgical suite) and: a) a sterile gown, sterile gloves, and a hat or cap. b) a hat or cap, shoe covers, and a mask. c) a mask, sterile gloves, and a sterile gown. d) a hat or cap and shoe covers.

1, 2, and 3

Types of secondary radiation barriers include? 1-The control booth 2-Lead aprons 3-The x-ray tube housing

b

Typical grid ratios found in fluoroscopic units are: a) 5:1 to 6:1. b) 6:1 to 10:1. c) 10:1 to 12:1. d) 12:1 to 16:1.

d) 30

Typically, ___kVp is utilized in mammography. a) 120 b) 50 c) 75 d) 30

recurrent

Ulcerative colitis is a _____ disorder

c

Until a photostimulable phosphor plate (PSP) is processed, electrons freed upon irradiation are stored in the: a) valence band. b) photodetector. c) conduction band. d) conductive layer.

a. increase the anode heel effect

Using a short (25-30 inch) SID with a large (14x17 inch) image receptor is likely to: a. increase the anode heel effect b. cause malfunction to the AEC c. increase the scale of contrast d. cause premature termination of the exposure

3) Line voltage compensator

Voltage coming to the x-ray machine is kept constant through the use of a[n]: 1) Rectifier 2) Autotransformer 3) Line voltage compensator 4) Step-down transformer

2 and 3

What advantages do film badges present for personnel monitoring? 1. They can be worn for up to 3 months 2. Inexpensive for production and utilization 3. Simple processing methods

c. Increase of 4 kVp

What alteration of technical factors is required for an extremity in a fiberglass cast as compared with one with no cast? a. A 50% decrease in mAs b. Double the mAs c. Increase of 4 kVp d. Increase of 10 kVp

b

What anatomy is best demonstrated in the projection pictured below? a) Trochlea b) Radial head c) Coronoid process d) Ulnar head

cuboid

What anatomy is demonstrated within the circle?

psoas muscle

What anatomy is found within the oval?

b

What anatomy should be demonstrated free of superimposition on an AP oblique projection of the elbow in lateral rotation? a) Trochlea b) Radial head and neck c) Capitulum d) Olecranon process

a

What anatomy should be projected free of superimposition for an AP oblique projection of the elbow with medial rotation? a) Coronoid process b) Lateral epicondyle c) Olecranon process d) Olecranon fossa

3 and 4

What are the 2 advantages of accessing the archive server through a dedicated PACS network in a server-based PACS? (select two) 1) it allows for multiple radiologists to assess the study 2) if the network goes down, the archive server is still accessible through the internet 3) prior studies are immediately accessible 4) only one radiologist can access the study for interpretation

c

What are the proper positoning guidelines for an AP axial (Beclere) knee radiograph? a) seated with the body rotated 15 degrees b) prone with the body rotated 10 degrees c) supine with no body rotation d) supine with the body rotated 5 degrees

a) Lower extremities

What area of the body is more frequently imaged for long bone measurement? a) Lower extremities b) Pelvis c) Upper extremities d) Wrist

b

What breathing instructions should be given to a patient for a lateral projection of the sternum? a) Breathing instructions are not necessary for a lateral sternum b) Respiration should be suspended on full inspiration c) Tell the patient to breathe quietly for a breathing technique d) Respiration should be suspended on full expiration

d) Trapezoid

What carpal bone is located in the distal row, second bone in from the radial side? a) Lunate b) Trapezium c) Triquetrum d) Trapezoid

d) all of the above

What characteristics of lead makes it a valuable material for radiation shielding devices? a) high atomic number b) high density c) high attenuation d) all of the above

c

What does it mean to direct capture a digital image? a) A CT or MRI image is reconstructed b) The digital image is captured by a scintillator c) The x-ray image is captured by a photoconductor d) A film digitizer converts an x-ray to a digital image

b

What form of ARS includes symptoms such as fever, lethargy, and anorexia? a) gastrointestinal syndrome b) hematopoietic syndrome c) cerebrovascular syndrome

d) Edge enhancement

What form of filtering amplifies high frequencies to increase contrast of large structures? a) Window level b) Smoothing c) Window width d) Edge enhancement

g. a and b

What is (are) the function(s) of the a-Si in the pixel of a flat panel detector? a. convert light into electrons b. move electrons to storage c. convert x-rays in electrons d. amplify the number of light photons e. convert electrons into binary code f. all of these g. a and b h. a and d i. c and e

c

What is 14? a) mitral valve b) aortic valve c) tricuspid valve d) pulmonary valve

parietal bone

What is A:

humeral head

What is B

lateral tibial plateau

What is D

trapezoid

What is G

adrenaline

What is another name for epinephrine?

Duct of Wirsung

What is another name for the pancreatic duct?

a) AP Clavicle

What is depicted in this image? a) AP Clavicle b) AP externally rotated shoulder c) Grashey view of the shoulder d) AP Axial Clavicle e) AP scapula

B

What is responsible for converting light photons into an electrical signal

c) 10 to 15 degrees caudad

What is the CR angle for the tangential projection of the supraspinatus outlet? a) 0 degrees b) 10 to 15 degrees cephalic c) 10 to 15 degrees caudad d) 15 to 30 degrees cephalic

a) 3-4 Gyt

What is the LD 50/30 for adult humans without medical support? a) 3-4 Gyt b) 4-5 Gyt c) 1-2 Gyt d) 2-3 Gyt

d

What is the annual dose-equivalent limit for the lens of the eye for the general public? a) 500 mSv b) 150 mSv c) 50 mSv d) 15 mSv

a) 0 degrees (perpendicular)

What is the appropriate degree and direction of central ray angulation for a PA projection of the skull? a) 0 degrees (perpendicular) b) 15 degrees caudad c) 30 degrees cephalad d) 37 degrees caudad

20 inches

What is the area of the image if the area of an object is 10 inches when using a magnification factor (MF) of 2?

e) Base of the 3rd metatarsal

What is the centering point for this image? a) 1" inferior to the medial malleolus b) 3rd MTP c) Base of the 5th metatarsal d) Medial malleolus e) Base of the 3rd metatarsal

d

What is the central ray entrance point for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the lower ribs? a) Midsagittal plane (MSP) at the level of T7 b) Midsagittal plane (MSP) at the level of the sternal angle c) Midsagittal plane (MSP) at the level of the xiphoid d) Midsagittal plane (MSP) halfway between the xiphoid process and the lower rib margin

b) nasion

What is the central ray exit point for a PA skull radiograph, when the frontal bone is of primary interest, done with a horizontal beam? a) glabella b) nasion c) acanthion d) mental point

a) 30-degrees cephalad

What is the correct angulation for an AP axial sacroiliac image on a male patient? a) 30-degrees cephalad b) 35-degrees caudal c) 30-degrees caudal d) 35-degrees cephalad

a) 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch

What is the correct central ray placement for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? a) 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch b) At the jugular notch c) 5 to 6 inches below the jugular notch d) 1 to 2 inches below the jugular notch

0.17 mm

What is the correct pixel size for a 17cm FOV and a matrix size of 1024 mm?

0.2 amps (A)

What is the electrical current for the circuit in the following diagram?

1) 5 mSv

What is the established fetal dose limit guideline for pregnant radiographers during the entire gestation period? 1) 5 mSv 2) 1 mSv 3) 2.5 mSv 4) 10 mSv

female

What is the gender of this patient?

c) release of light photons

What is the initial response of the phosphor when the phosphor layer of a CR imaging pate stimulated by x-rays? a) release of an electrical signal b) release of a magnetic field c) release of light photons d) release of x-ray photons

2) 0.1 percent

What is the intensity of scattered radiation perpendicular to and 1 m from the patient, compared to the useful beam at the patient's surface? 1) 0.01 percent 2) 0.1 percent 3) 10.0 percent 4) 1.0 percent

b

What is the main function of the endocrine portion of the pancreas? a) Initiates the production of RBCs for circulation b) Produces insulin for metabolic balance with sugar levels c) Produce pancreatic juices for digestion d) Produces bile to break down fats

Neer

What is the method name for supraspinatous "outlet"

4) 12 inches

What is the minimum source-to-skin distance for mobile fluoroscopic equipment? 1) 15 inches 2) 8 inches 3) 20 inches 4) 12 inches

c

What is the most common effect of DNA molecule damage from exposure to ionizing radiation? a) double strand breaks b) small base pair lesions c) single strand breaks d) large chromosomal aberrations

a

What is the name of the only variable transformer in the circuitry system? a) Autotransformer b) Rheostat c) Step down transformer d) Step up transformer

d

What is the normal GFR rate for an adult? a) 7-15 b) 20-35 c) 50-90 d) 90-120

the patient

What is the primary absorber of x-ray photons during fluoroscopic procedures?

a

What is the primary advantage of an internet-based PACS network? a) The PACS archive server can be accessed from any internet-connected computer b) Images can be sent directly to specific PACS reading stations c) If the internet is down, images can still be sent to PACS reading stations d) If the network is down, images can still be sent to the PACS archive server

b) 2 inches superior to the EAM

What is the proper centering point of the CR for a lateral skull radiograph? a) 1 inch superior to the EAM b) 2 inches superior to the EAM c) 1 inch inferior to the EAM d) 2 inches inferior to the EAM

d

What is the proper rotation of a RAO of the esophagus? a) 40-60 degrees b) 15-20 degrees c) 20-30 degrees d) 35-40 degrees

a

What is the proper rotation of a RAO of the sternum? a) 15-20 degrees b) 40-60 degrees c) 30-60 degrees d) 35-40 degrees

16:1

What is the ratio of a grid whose lead strips are 0.25 mm thick, 1.6 mm high, and are separated by 0.10 mm aluminum space?

d

What is the reason for performing the AP axial projection of the clavicle in the lordotic position? a) Less dose b) Less magnification c) Moves the clavicle lower in the lung field d) Moves the clavicle above the ribs

a

What is the relationship between kV and HVL? A. As kV increases, the HVL increases. B. As kV increases, HVL decreases C. If the kV is doubled, the HVL doubles. D. If the kV is doubled, the HVL is squared.

d

What is the secondary (output) voltage of the autotransformer when the assigned tube potential is 76 kVp? a) 220 kV b) 220 V c) 76 kV d) 76 V

b

What is the term for female germ cell a) ovary b) egg c) uterus d) fallopian tube

b

What is the term for the male germ cell? 1) testicle b) sperm c) semen d) testosterone

b. Superimposition

What is the term referring to a condition in which all of the anatomic structures are layered on top of each other in the image? a. Foreshortening b. Superimposition c. Elongation d. Spatial distortion

b

What is the term used to describe x-ray photon interaction with matter and the transference of part of the photon's energy to matter? a) Differential absorption b) Scattering c) Absorption d) Divergence

1.3 ohms

What is the total resistance of a parallel circuit with three resistors of 6 ohm, 12 ohm, and 2 ohm?

2.5 V

What is the voltage of a parallel circuit with a total resistance of 5 ohms and total current of 0.5 amps?

brems

What is this

lateral scapula

What is this projection?

1 only

What is used to account for differences in tissue characteristics when determining effective dose to biologic material? 1. Tissue weighting factors (Wt) 2. Radiation weighting factors (Wr) 3. Absorbed dose

a) equipment survey device

What kind of radiation detection instrument must be used to evaluate exposure reproducibility and linearity of an x-ray imaging system? a) equipment survey device b) environment survey device c) personal dosimetry device d) occupational dosimetry device

b

What layer of a CR imaging plate captures x-ray energy transmitted through the patient? a) protective layer b) phosphor layer c) conductive layer d) light shield layer

a

What lower limb position is required to obtain the image below? a) 45-degree lateral rotation b) Tibial epicondyles perpendicular to IR c) Anatomic position d) 45-degree medial rotation

c) Excess noise

What may occur if a high-pass filtering function is used on an image with high contrast? a) Increase in overall grays b) Long-scale contrast c) Excess noise d) Decreased noise

Beclere

What method is this

Holmblad Method

What method is this

Rosenberg

What method is this

c

What organ is responsible for glucose metabolism? a) stomach b) kidney c) pancreas d) galbladder

b. the lead shutters

What part of the collimator absorbs the edges of the x-ray beam? a. the window b. the lead shutters c. the mirror d. the light bulb

b

What portion of the patient's head should be resting on the imaging surface for a SMV projection of the skull? a) mentum b) vertex c) nose d) forehead

a) AP oblique, medial rotation

What projection and position is demonstrated in the image below? a) AP oblique, medial rotation b) AP oblique, lateral rotation c) Partial flexion, distal humerus d) AP, anatomic position

d

What projection and position is depicted in the image below? a) Partial flexion, proximal forearm b) AP oblique, medial rotation c) AP, anatomic position d) AP oblique, lateral rotation

b

What projection of the elbow is depicted in the image below? a) AP medial oblique b) AP c) Partial flexion distal humerus d) AP lateral oblique

c

What projection of the third digit is demonstrated in the image below? a) Lateral b) AP oblique c) PA d) PA oblique

c) X-ray photons

What releases electrons from the atoms in the barium fluorohalide crystals? a) Red neon laser light b) Bright, white light c) X-ray photons d) PMT

1, 2, and 3

What safeguards are taken to prevent inadvertent irradiation in early pregnancy? 1-Patient postings 2-Radiation shielings 3-Elective booking.

c

What structure is demonstrated in profile on a lateral projection of the elbow? a) Radial neck b) Radial head c) Olecranon process d) Humeral epicondyle

c

What structure of the brain connects the cerebrum to the cerebellum? a) Corpus collosum b) Falx cerebri c) Pons d) Tentorium cerebelli

b) Lambdoidal

What suture separates the two parietal bones from the occipital bone? a) Coronal b) Lambdoidal c) Sagittal d) Squamosal

1 and 2

What two other radiologic examinations require the patient to have nothing by mouth (NPO) for 8 to 12 hours prior to the procedure? (Select two) 1) barium enema 2) small bowel follow through 3) modified esophagram 4) barium swallow

d

What type of complication can occur with the administration of negative contrast agents? a) shock b) seizures c) congestion d) air emboli

d) Comminuted

What type of fracture is characterized by separation of the bone into numerous fragments at the midshaft? a) Torus b) Impacted c) Compound d) Comminuted

c

What type of personnel radiation monitoring device has a gas-filled ionization chamber and provides a reading at any time via an internet connection? a) Pocket dosimeter b) Thermoluminescent dosimeter c) Direct ion storage dosimeter d) Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter

b

What type of projection is it when the fifth digit is extended and resting on its ulnar (medial) aspect? a) Inferosuperior b) Lateromedial c) Mediolateral d) Superoinferior

a

What type of projection is it when the second digit is extended and resting on its radial (lateral) aspect? a) Mediolateral b) Inferiosuperio c) Superoinferior d) Lateromedial

1) High LET

What type of radiation will produce the greatest amount of biologic damage in human tissue? 1) High LET 2) Low quality factor 3) Low LET 4) Highly penetrating

a

What type of wave form (current) comes out of a step up transformer? a) High voltage AC b) Low voltage AC c) High voltage DC d) Low voltage DC

4) Gy

What unit of measure expresses the amount of energy deposited in tissue? 1) C/kg 2) Rem 3) Sv 4) Gy

c) Sv

What unit of measure is used to express ionizing radiation dose to biologic material? a) Air kerma (Gya) b) RBE c) Sv d) Gyt

b

What venous device can be used for a patient requiring IV injections at frequent or regular intervals? a) Butterfly needle b) Heparin lock c) IV infusion d) Hypodermic needle

T9

What vertebrae has a demifacet on the top only?

T1

What vertebrae has a single whole facet and 1 demifacet?

a

When a patient has just had a barium enema and is preparing to leave the examination room, the patient should be told: a) to drink plenty of fluids to keep the barium moving through the colon to avoid impaction. b) the preliminary results of the examination by the technologist. c) to resume the prep instructions for 1 more day to expel the barium from the colon. d) that bed rest for the remainder of the day is recommended.

b) 20 times greater

When a technologist is wearing a lead apron, compared to the trunk, the collar region is exposed to radiation levels: a) 5 times greater b) 20 times greater c) 50 times less d) 10 times less

a

When acquiring an AP projection of the knee on a patient who measures 18 cm from the anterior superior iliac spine to the tabletop, the central ray should be: a) directed 3° to 5° caudad. b) perpendicular to the image receptor. c) directed 3° to 5° cephalad. d) directed 5° to 7° cephalad.

2, 1, 3

When an image is extracted from a flat-panel detector the following occurs. Put these events in order. 1. Data is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter 2. Data is read from the columns and rows, line by line 3. A histogram is created and analyzed by software

a. toward the thinner anatomy

When compensating wedge filters are used, the thickest end of the filter should always be placed: a. toward the thinner anatomy b. toward the patient's head c. toward the thicker anatomy d. toward the patient's feet

d) Achieve a more uniform tissue density of the vertebrae above diaphragm

When imaging the lateral thoracic spine, and using suspended respiration technique, exposure upon full inspiration can be used to: a) Reduce production of scatter radiation b) Blur superimposed rib and lung markings c) Demonstrate anatomy below the diaphragm d) Achieve a more uniform tissue density of the vertebrae above diaphragm

d) Is more sensitive

When irradiated in an oxygenated (aerobic) state, biologic tissue _______________to radiation compared to when it is exposed to radiation under anoxic or hypoxic conditions. a) Is less sensitive b) Becomes more immune c) Has the same sensitivity d) Is more sensitive

1, 2, 3, and 4

When patient dose cannot be estimated using patient radiation monitors, what other resources are available for ESE estimations? 1. Nomograms 2. Output intensity of the x-ray equipment in use 3. kVp used during the examination 4. mAs used during the examination

3 only

When performing a GI series, which of the following structures is (are) not demonstrated with the use of oral barium? 1. Duodenal bulb 2. Pyloric antrum 3. Splenic flexure 4. C-loop of duodenum

a. shape distortion

When performing a portable radiograph on a fractured hip, the IR was misaligned with the central ray. The resultant image would display: a. shape distortion b. size distortion c. magnification d. anode heel effect

1 and 3

When performing an PA oblique projection of the lungs in an RAO position, which of the following is true? 1. The maximum area of the left lung is demonstrated 2. The maximum area of the right lung is demonstrated 3. The anterior surface of the right lung is superimposed with the spine

1.18

When performing magnification radiography, if the SID is 40 inches and the OID is 6 inches, how much would the object be magnified?

a) 24

When performing radiographic exams on a patient after pacemaker placement, the radiographer should avoid abducting or elevating the left arm for how many hours after the pacemaker placement procedure? a) 24 b) 12 c) 48 d) 8

a

When performing the AP projection of the clavicle, what is the proper breathing instructions for the patient? a) Expiration b) Rapid breathing c) Breathing technique d) Full inspiration

4

When performing the Rafert-Long method scaphoid series, the radiographer positions the patient's wrist in extreme ulnar deviation and acquires a series of ______ PA and PA axial images with varying central ray angulations.

d) MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion

When performing the parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones, which of the following is the correct patient position and exit point for the central ray (CR)? a) LML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion b) OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion c) OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the nasion d) MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion

d) 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS

When positioning for a lateral coccyx image, what is the correct placement of the central ray? a) 3 to 4 inches posterior to the ASIS b) 2 inches posterior to the ASIS c) 3 to 4 inches posterior and inferior to the ASIS d) 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS

1 only

When positioning for an AP projection of the elbow, which of the following statements is/are accurate? 1. The shoulder, elbow, and wrist are in the same plane 2. The CR enters at the level of the humeral epicondyles 3. The hand is pronated

c) Manubrium

When positioning for the soft-tissue lateral neck, where should the CR enter if the area of interest is the distal larynx and superior mediastinum? a) Xiphoid Process b) Laryngeal Prominence c) Manubrium d) C1/C2

a

When positioning the patient for a parietoacanthial transoral (Open-mouth Waters method) view of the sinuses, which cranial positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR when the patient's mouth is closed? a) MML b) AML c) OML d) IOML

b

When positioning the patient for an AP projection of the scapula, the central ray should pass through the ________, which is located about 2 inches inferior to the coracoid process. a) medial border of the scapula b) midscapular area c) acromion process d) inferior angle of the scapula

b. the kVp should be increased and the mAs decreased

When the 15% rule is used to control motion: a. the 15% rule cannot be used to control motion b. the kVp should be increased and the mAs decreased c. the kVp should decreased and the mAs increased

c

When the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement is between 19 and 24 cm, the central ray angulation for an AP knee is: a) 5 degrees cephalad b) 7 degrees cephalad c) 0 degrees d) 5 degrees caudad

c

When the x-ray beam is NOT properly aligned with the grid strips the ___ is changed a) spatial resolution b) sampling frequency c) receptor exposure d) distortion

d) Base of the third metatarsal

Where does the CR enter for an AP or AP axial projection of the foot? a) Base of the fourth metatarsal b) Head of the second metatarsal c) Head of the third metatarsal d) Base of the third metatarsal

d

Where does the central ray enter for this projection? a) MSP & T7 b) MCP and 3" below the jugular notch c) MCP & T7 d) MSP and 3" below the jugular notch

b

Where does the central ray for the PA oblique of the 1st digit? a) IP joint b) MCP joint c) DIP joint d) PIP joint

c

Where is the central ray directed for an AP projection of the knee? a) 1/2 inch above the patellar apex b) 1 inch below the patellar apex c) 1/2 inch below the patellar apex d) 1 inch above the patellar apex

b) Proximal femur

Where is the fovea capitis located? a) Distal tibia b) Proximal femur c) Occipital bone d) Innominate bone

c) Low voltage side

Where is the prereading voltmeter located in the circuitry system? a) High voltage side b) Filament circuit c) Low voltage side d) In the x-ray tube

a) first metacarpophalangeal joint

Where is the proper central ray entrance point for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the thumb? a) first metacarpophalangeal joint b) interphalangeal joint of the first digit c) distal interphalangeal joint of first digit d) base of first metacarpal

d

Where should the center of the IR be positioned for a transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder? a) MCP and greater tubercle b) MCP and anatomical neck c) MCP and acromion d) MCP and surgical neck

a

Where should the central ray enter the recumbent patient for this projection? a) Halfway between MCP and the anterior surface of the abdomen at the level of L1/L2 b) Halfway between MSP and the left border of the abdomen @ L4/L5 c) MSP and L1/L2 d) MCP and L1/L2

c

Which ankle projection must be acquired to see an open distal tibiofibular joint? a) AP b) AP oblique with 15°to 20° medial rotation c) AP oblique with 45° medial rotation d) AP oblique with 45° lateral rotation

a

Which artery comes branches off of the ascending aorta? a) Coronary arteries b) Left subclavian c) Left common carotid artery d) Brachycephalic artery e) Right common carotid artery

e

Which baseline should be adjusted perpendicular to the IR when performing a PA projection of the skull? a) Mentomeatal line (MML) b) Glabellomeatal line (GML) c) Acanthomeatal line (AML) d) Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) e) Orbitomeatal line (OML)

c) Sthenic

Which body habitus comprises 50% of the population? a) Hyposthenic b) Hypersthenic c) Sthenic d) Asthenic

trapezium

Which bone is the arrow pointing to in the figure below?

c) Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

Which bones are located in the distal row of the carpals? a) Scaphoid, lunate, pisiform, triquetrum b) Trapezium, trapezoid, pisiform, triquetrum c) Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate d) Scaphoid, lunate, capitate, hamate

a

Which component of the PACS houses all of the historic digital image data as well as the current digital data being generated by the modalities? a) archive server b) display workstation c) radiologist reading station d) administrative workstation

b

Which cranial position line should be aligned perpendicular to the IR for a PA skull radiograph? a) infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) b) orbitomeatal line (OML) c) acanthiomeatal line (AML) d) glabellomeatal line (GML

b

Which device may be used in place of the PMT within a CR image reader system? a) thin-film transistor (TFT) b) charge-coupled device (CCD) c) kyber crystal d) analog-to-digital convert (ADC)

a) Reduced number of ribs visualized due to inspiration limitations

Which difference may be present in a semi-erect AP chest projection if the patient cannot stand for PA chest imaging? a) Reduced number of ribs visualized due to inspiration limitations b) Better visualization of the bony thorax c) The heart will appear smaller due to reduced OID d) Less risk of chin superimposition over apices

d

Which digit will demonstrate the trapezium entirely? a) PA oblique projection of the 3rd digit b) AP projection of the 2nd digit c) Lateral projection of the 5th digit d) PA projection of the thumb

fraud

Which doctrine(s) would be this scenario... You the technologist take the x-ray of the wrong body part

a

Which ethical principle is related to truthfulness? a) Veracity b) Fidelity c) Beneficence d) Automomy

b) cathode ray tube

Which image display monitor works by accelerating electrons toward a fluorescent screen? a) liquid crystal display b) cathode ray tube c) thin-film transistor d) photostimulable phosphor plate

a

Which imaging informatics system is a communication network of computers for image acquisition, display, and storage? a) picture archiving and communications system (PACS) b) radiology information system (RIS) c) health information system (HIS) d) electronic health record (EHR)

d) DICOM

Which imaging informatics system is a universal standard regarding how images are communicated between PACS and imaging modalities? a) HL7 b) HIS c) RIS d) DICOM

c

Which is the most common class of genetic disease caused by radiation exposure? a) chromosomal b) Mendelian c) multifactorial

L

Which letter in the image below represents the site of attachment for the patellar ligament?

b. 80" SID, 30" OID

Which of the follow sets of technical factors would result in the greatest magnification? a. 60" SID, 10" OID b. 80" SID, 30" OID c. 72" SID, 25" OID d. 40" SID, 5" OID

d) Dorsal decubitus

Which of the following abdomen projections will best demonstrate an umbilical hernia? a) AP supine b) Lateral decubitus c) AP upright d) Dorsal decubitus

c. Bone

Which of the following anatomic tissues has the greatest tissue density? a. Water b. Muscle c. Bone d. Fat

d) Inversion of the lower limb is not evident

Which of the following applies to this image? a) Appropriate positioning is evident b) The tube was angled 40º caudad c) The tube was angled 25-30º cephalic d) Inversion of the lower limb is not evident e) It is evident that the patient was not instructed to hold breath on inspiration f) More than 1 of these applies

1 and 3

Which of the following are advantages of digital systems over film-screen systems? 1. Increased dynamic range 2. Higher spatial resolution 3. More contrast resolution

b

Which of the following are arranged in order of highest to lowest radiosensitivity? a) Gastrointestinal System, Cerebrovascular System, Hematopoietic System b) Hematopoietic System, Gastrointestinal System, Cerebrovascular System c) Cerebrovascular System, Gastrointestinal System, Hematopoietic System d) Hematopoietic System, Cerebrovascular System, Gastrointestinal System

d

Which of the following are byproducts of the interaction demonstrated below? 1. Photoelectron 2. Characteristic ray 3. Ionized atom a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

2 and 3

Which of the following are considered moderate reactions to iodinated contrast media?1. Nausea and vomiting 2. Wheezing 3. Pronounced skin reactions

2, 4, and 5

Which of the following are correct statements regarding molecular effects of ionizing radiation? 1. The direct effect involves radiolysis of water 2. Potential molecular effects include impaired function and cell death 3. Most interactions between ionizing radiation and tissue cells involve direct interaction with a DNA molecule 4. Cell death or impaired function occurs as a result of damage to chemical bonds 5. The indirect effect usually occurs with low LET radiations

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following are functions of the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)? 1. To provide the public with data involving radiation measurement and protection methods 2. To organize and support studies surrounding radiation protection 3. To create guidelines in which radiation protection should be applied

1 and 2 only

Which of the following are recommended for the pregnant radiographer? 1. Continue monthly dosimeter readings 2. Wear a second dosimeter under the lead apron 3. Wear two dosimeters and switch their position periodically

1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following are tools that can be used for kVp calibration? 1. Filtered ion chambers 2. Filtered photodiodes 3. Voltage diodes 4. Oscilloscopes

2, 3, and 4

Which of the following are true regarding bone marrow dose? 1) Bone marrow dose can be directly measured 2) It is relevant for measurement due to the association between bone marrow and radiation-induced leukemia 3) Bone marrow dose is estimated utilizing the ESE 4) The mean marrow dose is typically lower in children

1 and 3

Which of the following areas of a radiography room requires a primary protective barrier? (select all that apply) 1) the wall behind the upright Bucky 2) the wall of the control console 3) floor under the table Bucky

1 and 3

Which of the following attributes do personnel monitoring devices include? 1. They must not be susceptible to environmental conditions. 2. Devices are designed to record only small exposures. 3. The device must reflect human tissue absorption characteristics.

b) As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases

Which of the following best describes the relationship between bit depth and contrast resolution? a) As bit depth increases, contrast resolution decreases b) As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases c) As bit depth decreases, contrast resolution increases d) Bit depth does not affect contrast resolution

b

Which of the following blood vessels brings nutrient rich blood to the liver from the stomach, intestines, and the pancreas? a) Hepatic Vein b) Portal Vein c) Hepatic Artery d) Pancreatic artery

b

Which of the following blood vessels is the 2nd branch off of the aortic arch? a) Right common carotid artery b) Left common carotid artery c) Brachycephalic artery d) Left subclavian artery e) Left vertebral artery

1 and 2 only

Which of the following body parts is/are included in whole-body dose? 1. Gonads 2. Blood-forming organs 3. Extremities

a) Scapula & Clavicle

Which of the following bones makes up the shoulder girdle? a) Scapula & Clavicle b) Scapula, Humerus, & Clavicle c) Scapula & Humerus d) Humerus & Clavicle

a) Osteocytes

Which of the following cells do not undergo cell division, are mature bone cells, and maintain the metabolism of bone tissue? a) Osteocytes b) Osteoblasts c) Chondroblasts d) Osteoclasts

b

Which of the following changes increases the severity of the anode heel effect? a) increasing SID b) decreasing SID c) increasing OID d) decreasing OID

c

Which of the following characteristics describes the female pelvis? a) a heavy bony structure b) a deep shape c) an oval-shaped inlet d) a narrow shape to the outlet

a) Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size

Which of the following combination of factors will cause the anode heel effect to be more pronounced? a) Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size b) Larger anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size c) Larger anode angle, longer SID, and smaller field size d) Smaller anode angle, longer SID, and larger field size

b

Which of the following combinations of factors will cause the anode heel effect to be more pronounced? a) Small anode angle, longer SID, and smaller field size b) Small anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size c) Large anode angle, longer SID, and smaller field size d) Large anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size

a) High SNR and high CNR

Which of the following combinations will provide better visibility of detail and the least amount of noise in a digital image? a) High SNR and high CNR b) High SNR and low CNR c) Low SNR and high CNR d) Low SNR and low CNR

e

Which of the following components runs on electromagnetic induction? a) Step up transformer b) Step down transformer c) Stator and rotor d) Autotransformer e) All of the above

d) Intussusception

Which of the following conditions can be possibly corrected with a contrast enema procedure? a) Ulcerative colitis b) Diverticulitis c) Adenocarcinoma d) Intussusception

b) Osteopenia

Which of the following conditions presents as reduced bone mass? a) Osteomyelitis b) Osteopenia c) Osteoarthritis d) Osteomalacia

c

Which of the following conditions would be classified as a Mendelian disease? a) heart disease b) cancer c) sickle cell anemia d) down syndrome

a

Which of the following conditions would be classified as a Multifactorial Disease? a) diabetes b) cancer c) down syndrome

1 and 2 only

Which of the following conditions would require an increase in exposure factors? 1. Cystic fibrosis 2. Pleural effusion 3. Emphysema

e. All but C

Which of the following contrasts might be utilized for a patient with a suspected bowel perforation? a. Non-ionic b. Ionic c. Barium d. Iodinated e. All but C

1 and 2

Which of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration? 1. X-ray tube glass envelope 2. X-ray tube port window 3. Aluminum between the tube housing and collimator

1 only

Which of the following correctly describes positioning for an upright AP projection of the humerus? 1. Abduct the arm slightly from the body 2. Pronate the arm so back of hand rests against hip 3. Adjust humeral epicondyles to be perpendicular to the IR

d

Which of the following defines standards for radiology image formatting? a) Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) b) Electronic Health Record (EMR) c) International Classification of Diseases, ICD-10 d) Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM)

c) Single contrast lower GI

Which of the following describe(s) this image? a) Double contrast lower GI b) Single contrast small bowel c) Single contrast lower GI d) Single contrast upper GI

c. Lying on left side with right leg bent over left leg

Which of the following describes the Sim's position? a. Supine with knees bent b. Head lower than the feet c. Lying on left side with right leg bent over left leg d. Right anterior shoulder is touching IR with the left shoulder elevated away from the IR

a) Fill factor

Which of the following describes the amount of the detector element that is dedicated to absorbing x-ray photons? a) Fill factor b) Pixel size c) Pixel pitch d) Pixel density

d

Which of the following describes the legal doctrine of Respondent Superior? a) The thing speaks for itself. b) A thing or matter settled by justice. c) A matter settled by precedent. d) Vicarious liability

b) This graph depicts an imaging plates that all possess the same dynamic range

Which of the following describes this graph? a) Bar 1 has a higher dynamic range than bar 7 b) This graph depicts an imaging plates that all possess the same dynamic range c) This graph depicts an imaging plates that all possess the same bit depth d) Bar 1 has a higher bit depth than bar 7

d

Which of the following devices is located within the filament circuit of the x-ray system? a) kVp meter b) exposure timer c) kVp selector d) mA selector

D

Which of the following diagrams demonstrates 10% of the population?

d) All of these

Which of the following digital imaging processes is considered a pre-processing function? a) Pixel interpolation b) Flat fielding c) Lag correction d) All of these

a

Which of the following drugs would most likely be administered to a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media? a) diphenhydramine b) naproxen c) cephalexin d) hydromorphone

c

Which of the following drugs would most likely be used as emergency treatment for a severe allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media? a) benadryl b) diazepam c) epinephrine d) atropine

1 only

Which of the following events will normally occur during the 2nd exposure stage of a normal radiographic exposure? 1. The induction of a high potential difference between the filament and the anode disk 2. Activations of the induction motor for the anode 3. The activation of an oil pump around the anode disk 4. The induction of a high filament current

2 only

Which of the following examinations is/are likely to increase personnel dose? 1. Remote fluoroscopy 2. Mobile imaging 3. General radiography

d) AP supine

Which of the following examinations of the abdomen require the image to be centered to include the pubic symphysis? a) AP erect b) Lateral decubitus c) Dorsal decubitus d) AP supine

d

Which of the following factors affects subject contrast? a) grids b) OID c) mAs d) filtration

1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following factors can affect patient ESE? 1. Efficiency of x-ray production 2. Technical factors 3. Beam filtration 4. SID

d) ADC

Which of the following functions to round values of inputted data into allowable digits of a computer system? a) CCD b) DQE c) CNR d) ADC

c. 600 mA, 0.02 s

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would be most appropriate to control involuntary motion? a. 400 mA, 0.03 s b. 100 mA, 0.12 s c. 600 mA, 0.02 s d. 200 mA, 0.06 s

c. 25 mA, 7/10 s, 70 kVp

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would be most effective in eliminating the pulmonary vasculature markings in an RAO position of the sternum? a. 200 mA, 0.04 s, 80 kVp b. 300 mA, 1/10 s, 80 kVp c. 25 mA, 7/10 s, 70 kVp d. 500 mA, 1/30 s, 70 kVp

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following image artifacts will appear as an area of increased brightness? 1. nasogastric tube. 2. Swan-Ganz catheter. 3. IV port (Port-A-Cath).

a) Less than 12 breaths per minute

Which of the following indicates bradypnea a) Less than 12 breaths per minute b) More than 20 breaths per minute c) More than 25 breaths per minute d) Less than 18 breaths per minute

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following instructions are a part of patient education following myelography? 1. Increase fluid intake 2. Avoid bending for a couple of days 3. Notify a physician if unable to urinate 4. Seizures are a possible complication and are not concerning 5. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors must be discontinued for 2 weeks after the procedure

b

Which of the following interactions is the primary source of diagnostic x-rays? a) Compton b) Bremsstrahlung c) Characteristic d) Photoelectric

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) method(s) that would enable the radiographer to reduce the exposure time required for a particular radiograph? 1. Use higher mA 2. Use higher kV 3. Use a shorter SID

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) shown in both the right and left dorsal decubitus positions of the abdomen? 1. Diaphragm 2. Posterior border of iliac wings 3. Air-fluid levels

a

Which of the following is FALSE about Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)? a) MSDS information should be provided to patients near hazardous material storage. b) MSDS information is on file and should be available and accessible to all personnel. c) MSDS information indicates the required equipment and procedure for safe handling in the event of a spill. d) MSDS information is required by OSHA.

b

Which of the following is FALSE about the laboratory value GFR? a) GFR stands for glomerular filtration rate. b) GFR is calculated from the results of a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test. c) GFR estimates how much blood passes through the glomeruli of the kidney. d) GFR is a measure of kidney function and estimation of degree of kidney disease.

c

Which of the following is NOT a component of the ARRT Standards of Ethics for Radiologic Technologists? a) statement of purpose b) code of ethics c) practice standards d) rules of ethics

c

Which of the following is NOT a means of delivering oxygen to a patient? a) nasal cannula b) mechanical ventilator c) chest tube d) non-rebreathing mask

c

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of beam restriction? a) reduced scatter radiation production b) need to irradiate less biologic material c) need for less total filtration d) improved image contrast

d. Diuretics

Which of the following is NOT utilized to prep the colon for a barium enema? a. Cleansing enemas b. Low residue diet c. Laxatives d. Diuretics e. All of these are preps for the colon f. None of these are preps for the colon

d

Which of the following is [are] composed of non-dividing, differentiated cells? 1. Nerve 2. Erythrocytes 3. Spermatozoa a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

a

Which of the following is a disadvantage when using a falling load generator? a) Breathing technique b) Efficiency to reaching required mAs c) Shortest exposure times d) Maximum tube heat load potential

b

Which of the following is a guideline used to reduce personnel and patient dose during fixed fluoroscopy? a) 30 Roentgens (R)/min maximum tabletop exposure rate b) 15-inch minimum SSD c) minimum filtration of 1.5 mm aluminum equivalent d) 0.5 mm primary protective barrier

b) Smoothing

Which of the following is a low-pass filtering function that can make images appear more blurry? a) Quantization b) Smoothing c) Subtraction d) Equalization

b) Retrograde urography

Which of the following is a nonfunctional examination used to demonstrate the urinary system? a) Retrograde urethrography b) Retrograde urography c) Voiding cystourethrography d) Retrograde cystography

d

Which of the following is a type of primary shielding? a) lead apron b) shadow shield c) shaped contact shield d) collimation

e) None of these are acceptable

Which of the following is an acceptable form of electronic data manipulation? a) Shuttering or masking out areas of the acquired image b) Consistently adding annotation when the lead marker is collimated out of the image field c) Overwriting an image acquired under the correct processing algorithm with an image reprocessed under an alternative processing algorithm that improves the grayscale d) Applying smoothing to an image that demonstrates quantum mottle if it produces an image that appears acceptable e) None of these are acceptable

b) They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids

Which of the following is an advantage of crossed grids? a) They require a lower beam intensity b) They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids c) There is low risk of grid cutoff d) They are easily utilized in exams requiring tube angulations

c

Which of the following is an advantage of digital imaging over film/screen imaging? a) Less noise b) Less exposure time c) More exposure latitude d) Better resolution

d) Pneumoperitoneum

Which of the following is best demonstrated with an upright projection of the abdomen? a) Intussusception b) Ascites c) Pneumothorax d) Pneumoperitoneum

b

Which of the following is considered a side effect of iodinated contrast media injected into the vascular system? a) itching b) metallic taste c) shaking d) wheezing

b

Which of the following is considered to be a structured scintillator? a) Gd2O2S b) CsI(TH) c) a-Si d) a-Se

c) As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases

Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between pixel size, pixel pitch, and spatial resolution? a) As pixel size increases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution decreases b) As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases c) As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases d) As pixel size increases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases

d) Contrast

Which of the following is increased when image latitude is decreased during post-processing? a) Window width b) Long-scale contrast c) Overall grays d) Contrast

B

Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of using a 30-in. SID with a 14 × 17 in. IR to radiograph a fairly homogeneous structure? A. Production of quantum mottle B. Density variation between opposite ends of the IR C. Production of scatter radiation fog D. Excessively short-scale contrast

c. Increased photon energy

Which of the following is most likely to produce the most scatter? a. Increased mAs b. Increased SID c. Increased photon energy d. Increased beam intensity

a

Which of the following is not a reason for performing a PA chest on expiration? a) Pleural effusion b) Foreign body placement within the lungs c) Diaphragm fixation d) Pneumothorax

c

Which of the following is not clearly demonstrated on an a) AP projection of the ankle? b) Lateral malleolus Tibiofibular overlapping c) Ankle mortise d) Tibiotalar joint

a) Window width

Which of the following is responsible for correcting the contrast of a digital image in post processing? a) Window width b) Window level c) Edge Enhancement d) Smoothing

d) 2.5 inches distal to the midpoint between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

Which of the following is the appropriate central ray entrance point for a unilateral AP projection of the hip? a) midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis b) midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis c) 1 inch distal to the midpoint between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis d) 2.5 inches distal to the midpoint between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

c) 15 degrees

Which of the following is the correct angle for an intradermal injection? a) 45 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 15 degrees d) 30 degrees

d

Which of the following is the correct circuitry sequence for incoming voltage in a high-frequency generator? a) transformer, inverter, capacitor, rectifier, capacitor, rectifier b) capacitor, transformer, rectifier, inverter, capacitor, rectifier c) inverter, rectifier, transformer, capacitor, rectifier, capacitor d) rectifier, capacitor, inverter, transformer, rectifier, capacitor

b) 40 degrees

Which of the following is the correct degree of knee flexion for the tangential Merchant method? a) 50 to 60 degrees b) 40 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 5 to 10 degrees

b. Splenic flexure

Which of the following is the highest point of the colon? a. Hepatic flexure b. Splenic flexure c. Sigmoid colon d. Transverse colon

d) Window level

Which of the following is the post-processing function responsible for adjusting the brightness of a digital image? a) Smoothing b) Window width c) Edge enhancement d) Window level

2

Which of the following is the standard electrical symbol for a rectifier?

a

Which of the following is true of a Colles fracture? a) It's a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement b) It's a fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement c) It's a fracture of the proximal radius with posterior displacement d) It's a fracture of the proximal radius with anterior displacement

4) Diarrhea

Which of the following is typically NOT a complication that could occur following a barium enema? 1) Constipation 2) Impaction 3) Perforation of the bowel 4) Diarrhea

b) DQE

Which of the following is used to express the effectiveness of a detector's absorption of x-ray photons? a) PPI b) DQE c) FPD d) DXA

d) Look-up table

Which of the following is used to modify the brightness and contrast of the original pixel values as the image is processed? a) Smoothing b) Automatic rescaling c) Edge enhancement d) Look-up table

c) Right intervertebral foramina

Which of the following is visualized in a left posterior oblique position of the cervical spine? a) Right zygapophyseal joint b) Left zygapophyseal joint c) Right intervertebral foramina d) Left intervertebral foramina

1 and 3 only

Which of the following is/are considered long-term somatic effect(s) of radiation exposure? 1) Carcinogenesis 2) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 3) Cataractogenesis

1 and 2 only

Which of the following is/are important for patient protection during fluoroscopic procedures? 1. Intermittent fluoroscopy 2. Fluoroscopic field size 3. Bucky slot cover

1 only

Which of the following is/are likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose? 1. Beam restriction 2. Low kVp and high mAs 3. Grids

1 and 2

Which of the following joints should be clearly demonstrated on the AP projection of the forearm? 1. Wrist 2. Elbow 3. Proximal humerus

b

Which of the following joints would be classified as a synarthroidal joint? a) pubic symphysis b) coronal suture c) sacroiliac joint d) proximal radioulnar joint

1, 3, and 4

Which of the following lab tests are important for evaluating renal function before the injection of iodine contrast media? (Select all that apply) 1) creatinine 2) complete blood count (CBC) 3) glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 4) blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

c

Which of the following materials is essential to latent image production within computed radiography (CR) imaging systems? a) carbon fibers b) rare-earth metals c) photostimulable phosphor (PSP) d) amorphous selenium (a-Se)

1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following materials would make an acceptable secondary barrier? 1. Lead acrylic 2. Glass 3. Gypsum board 4. Concrete

c

Which of the following medications should be withheld from patients who have diabetes on the day of their iodinated contrast study and for at least 48 hours afterward to avoid the potential development of lactic acidosis? a) furesomide (Lasix) b) insulin c) metformin d) diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl)

2 and 3 only

Which of the following methods are limiting the production of scattered photons? 1. Using moderate grid ratios 2. Using the prone position for abdominal exams 3. Restricting the field size to the smallest practical size

b) decreasing the field size

Which of the following might cause an increase in quantum mottle? a) increasing the mAs b) decreasing the field size c) increasing the filament size d) decreasing the grid ratio

c) MRI

Which of the following modalities has, in many cases, replaced the need for post arthrogram images? a) Sonography b) Nuclear medicine c) MRI d) CT

1 and 3

Which of the following must be clearly demonstrated on a lateral projection of the humerus? 1. Elbow joint 2. Glenoid cavity 3. Shoulder joint

d

Which of the following needs to be in effect to intercept the fluoroscopic primary beam? a) lead curtains must be employed b) x-ray beam must be collimated to the smallest field possible c) patient d) primary barrier, such as the image receptor (IR), is required

c

Which of the following occurs during Bremsstrahlung radiation production? a) A low-energy photon ejects an inner-shell electron b) A high-energy photon ejects an outer-shell electron c) An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy d) An electron makes a transition from an outer to an inner electron shell

a) Plunger

Which of the following parts is NOT part of a needle? a) Plunger b) Hub c) Bevel d) Cannula

b

Which of the following pathological conditions is best demonstrated with a double contrast study of the colon? a) Zenker's Diverticulum b) Ulcerative colitis c) Volvulus d) Intussusception

3) Pocket dosimeter

Which of the following personnel monitoring devices used in diagnostic radiography is considered to be the most sensitive? 1) OSL 2) Film badge 3) Pocket dosimeter 4) TLD

d) The patient has a fractured 3rd proximal left phalanx

Which of the following pertains to this image? a) The patient has a fractured 3rd metacarpal b) The patient has a fractured 2nd distal left phalanx c) The patient has a fractured 3rd middle left phalanx d) The patient has a fractured 3rd proximal left phalanx

d

Which of the following positions can be used to perform a lateral projection of the humerus on a patient who has a suspected fracture? a) Standing b) Prone c) Lateral decubitus d) Lateral recumbent

c) Lateral decubitus, affected side down

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity? a) Lateral decubitus, affected side up b) AP Trendelenburg c) Lateral decubitus, affected side down d) AP supine

e. A and B

Which of the following positions would typically NOT be included in a single- contrast BE? a. Ventral decub b. Right lateral decub c. Lateral d. AP Axial e. A and B f. C and D

d) Edge enhancement

Which of the following processing functions increases the sharpness of the details in an image? a) Equalization b) Smoothing c) Look-up table d) Edge enhancement

b) AP oblique in medial rotation

Which of the following projections of the foot will clearly demonstrate the cuboid? a) AP b) AP oblique in medial rotation c) Lateral d) AP oblique in lateral rotation

b

Which of the following projections of the knee demonstrates the femoral intercondylar fossa? a) Tangential projection (Merchant method) b) PA axial projection (Camp-Coventry method) c) AP oblique projection (medial rotation) d) AP projection

a

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid? a) PA wrist projection in Ulnar flexion b) PA wrist projection in Radial flexion c) Lateral wrist projection d) AP bilateral hand projection e) Gaynor-Hart method of imaging the wrist f) All of these

d) Left lateral decubitus chest

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the extent of a small left-sided pleural effusion? a) PA chest b) Left lateral chest c) Right lateral decubitus chest d) Left lateral decubitus chest

c) PA Axial

Which of the following projections will free a majority of the clavicle from superimposition and decrease the OID? a) AP Axial b) AP c) PA Axial d) PA

1 only

Which of the following projections would best demonstrate a right lower posterior rib injury? 1. RPO 2. LPO 3. RAO 4. LAO

a

Which of the following projections would not demonstrate the ulnar styloid process? a) AP oblique hand b) PA oblique wrist c) PA wrist d) PA hand

a

Which of the following radiographic evaluation criterion demonstrates NO rotation on a PA projection of the chest? a) sternal ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column b) T4 superimposed on the manubrium c) scapulae projected outside of the lung field d) 10 posterior ribs visible above diaphragm

b

Which of the following radiographic evaluation criterion demonstrates NO tilt on a PA projection of the chest? a) sternal ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column b) T4 superimposed on the manubrium c) scapulae projected outside of the lung field d) 10 posterior ribs visible above diaphragm

a

Which of the following radiographs would demonstrate the olecranon process free of superimposition? a) Lateral b) AP c) AP medial oblique d) AP lateral oblique

c) Embryo resorption

Which of the following responses is most likely to occur if the fetus is exposed to at least 250 mGy of radiation during the first two weeks of the first trimester? a) Neurologic deficiencies b) Malignant disease in childhood c) Embryo resorption d) Skeletal deformities

c) PA and RAO

Which of the following rib positions are recommended for a patient who complains of left-sided anterior rib pain? a) AP and LPO b) PA and LAO c) PA and RAO d) AP and RPO

a

Which of the following runs on mutual induction? a) Step up and step down transformers b) Rectification unit and rheostat c) Autotransformer and step up transformer d) Autotransformer and step down transformer

d

Which of the following sets of technical factors will result in the image with the least amount of scatter reaching the IR? a. 400 mAs, 76 kVp, 6:1 grid ratio, 150 cm SID, 15 cm OID, 1 mm FSS b. 200 mAs, 80 kVp, 12:1 grid ratio, 200 cm SID, 25 cm OID, 0.5 mm FSS c. 100 mAs, 75 kVp, 8:1 grid ratio, 100 cm SID, 30 cm OID, 1 mm FSS d. 200 mAs, 70 kVp, 16:1 grid ratio, 200 cm SID, 40 cm OID, 2 mm FSS

b

Which of the following sets of technical factors would result in an image with the greatest spatial resolution? a. 600 mA, 0.01 s, 65 kVp, 180 cm SID, 30 cm OID, 2 mm FSS b. 200 mA, 0.01 s, 75 kVp, 150 cm SID, 25 cm OID, 1 mm FSS c. 400 mA, 0.05 s, 70 kVp, 200 cm SID, 60 cm OID, 2 mm FSS d. 500 mA, 0.01 s, 80 kVp, 100 cm SID, 20 cm OID, 1 mm FSS

b. 40 mAs, 82 kVp, 25 cm OID, 200 cm SID, 0.5 mm FSS

Which of the following sets of technical factors would result in the best spatial resolution? a. 60 mAs, 74 kVp, 15 cm OID, 170 cm SID, 2.0 mm FSS b. 40 mAs, 82 kVp, 25 cm OID, 200 cm SID, 0.5 mm FSS c. 40 mAs, 84 kVp, 30 cm OID, 180 cm SID, 1.0 mm FSS d. 20 mAs, 78 kVp, 20 cm OID, 100 cm SID, 2.0 mm FSS

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following shoulder projections is/are contraindicated when a fracture or dislocation is suspected? 1. AP Projection-External Rotation 2. AP Projection-Internal Rotation 3. Inferiosuperior Axial Projection-Lawrence Method

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following situations could arise from over-flexing the knee in the lateral projection? 1. Obscured soft tissue 2. Fat pad displacement 3. Patellar fracture separation 4. Increased joint space visualization

b) Osteoporosis

Which of the following skeletal pathologies requires a decrease in technical factors? a) Osteopetrosis b) Osteoporosis c) Osteoarthritis d) Acromegaly

1 and 3

Which of the following statements are true regarding radiographic pathology? 1-Certain pathology may actually increase tissue mass and density 2-Metastasis makes the tissue density more radiopaque 3-Atrophy makes the tissue more radiolucent.

b

Which of the following statements concerning kidney function is correct? a) a high creatinine level is associated with a high GFR level b) high BUN an creatinine levels are associated with a low GFR c) high BUN and creatinine levels are indicators that iodine contrast media is OK for a patient d) lower than normal creatinine and BUN levels indicated that the kidneys are filtering insufficient amounts of waste

c

Which of the following statements correctly describes how and why technical factors MUST be changed from an anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine to an oblique lumbar spine image? a) the abdomen becomes denser; technique must increase b) the abdomen becomes less dense; technique must decrease c) the abdomen becomes thicker; technique must increase d) the abdomen becomes less thick; technique must decrease

c

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding venipuncture for a normal adult? a) The vein is stabilized by placing a thumb on the tissue just below the site and gently pulling the skin and vein toward the patient's hand. b) The needle should be held with the bevel facing upward. c) The needle should be inserted into the vein at a 45° angle. d) A tourniquet should be applied above the site using sufficient tension to impede the flow of blood in the vein.

d

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding anatomically programmed radiography (APR)? a) It can be used in conjunction with automatic exposure control (AEC). b) APR allows for specific anatomical part selection. c) It displays manual exposure factors. d) APR prevents making adjustments to mAs.

d) Higher radiation doses to bone marrow increase blood cell depletion

Which of the following statements is true? a) Lymphocytes have the longest life span of all blood cell types b) Most red blood cells are manufactured in the lymph nodes c) Radiation causes an increase in the number of mature blood cells d) Higher radiation doses to bone marrow increase blood cell depletion

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the pregnant radiographer? 1. She should declare her pregnancy to her supervisor 2. She should be assigned a second personnel monitor 3. Her radiation history should be reviewed

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to radiation safety in fluoroscopy? 1. Tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 21 mGya/min/mA 2. Tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 100 mGya/min 3. In high-level fluoroscopy, tabletop intensity should be up to 200 mGya/min

2, 4, 5, and 6

Which of the following statements regarding fluoroscopy are true? 1. The bucky slot cover must have at least 0.5 mm Pb/Eq 2. The protective curtain should be positioned between the fluoroscopist and patient 3. A thyroid shield should have at least 0.25 mm Pb/Eq 4. Protective aprons with lead equivalent of 0.5 mm are recommended 5. The lowest amount of scatter radiation is 90 degrees from the patient 6. The protective curtain must have at least 0.25 mm Pb/Eq

1, 3, and 4

Which of the following statements regarding pregnant radiographers are true? 1.Due to back problems associated with pregnancy, aprons using 0.5 mm Pb equivalent are more desirable than 1 mm Pb equivalent despite lower attenuation percentages 2. A second dosimeter can be worn outside of a lead apron at waist level 3. A dose limit of 0.5 mSv per month is established for the length of pregnancy 4. The pregnancy should be declared as soon as possible

d

Which of the following structures is located in the mediastinum? a) right middle lobe and esophagus b) left upper lobe and heart c) aorta and thyroid d) trachea and thymus

e

Which of the following structures is not located within the mediastinum? a) Esophagus b) Thymus gland c) Trachea d) Heart e) Lungs

B

Which of the following terms describes the amount of electric charge flowing per second? A. Voltage B. Current C. Resistance D. Capacitance

a

Which of the following terms refers to the program used for long-term storage of medical imaging data? a) Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) b) Electronic Health Record (EMR) c) International Classification of Diseases, ICD-10 d) Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM)

c) Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors

Which of the following types of DR image receptors uses a photoconductor? a) A charge coupled device b) Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors c) Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors d) Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors

d) Boomerang filter

Which of the following types of compensating filters would primarily be used for shoulder images? a) Trough filter b) Bowtie filter c) Wedge filter d) Boomerang filter

c) Inadequate consent

Which of the following types of patient consent can lead to charges of negligence against a radiographer? a) Express consent b) Implied consent c) Inadequate consent d) Written consent

1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following types of radiation is/are considered electromagnetic? 1. X-ray 2. Visible light 3. Gamma 4. Ultraviolet light 5. Beta

c

Which of the following types of wave forms will drop to zero? a) Three phase 6 pulse b) Three phase 12 pulse c) Single phase d) High frequency

a) intravenous urography

Which of the following urography examinations demonstrates the physiologic function of the urinary system? a) intravenous urography b) percutaneous antegrade pyelography c) retrograde urography d) cystography

2) Hepatic artery

Which of the following vessels do not branch off of the celiac trunk? 1) Left gastric artery 2) Hepatic artery 3) Pancreatic artery 4) Splenic artery

c

Which of the following will NOT affect the effective focal spot size? a) filament size b) anode angle c) target material d) actual focal spot size

b

Which of the following will produce grid cutoff? a. Using a SID that is within the focal range b. Positioning the CR 3" to the left of the center of the grid c. Positioning the grid so that the center line faces the x-ray tube d. Angling the beam along the grid lines

2 and 3

Which of the following will result as subject tissue thickness increases? 1. Beam attenuation decreases 2. Absorption increases 3. Transmission decreases

2 and 3 only

Which of the following will result as subject tissue thickness increases? 1. Beam attenuation decreases 2. Absorption increases 3. Transmission decreases

1 and 2

Which of the following will result if magnification is used in a 20/9/6 inch image intensifier? 1. Spatial resolution improves 2. Patient dose increases 3. Focal point shifts closer to the output phosphor

d

Which of the following would NOT be a part of a direct capture flat-panel detector? a) Glass substrate b) Photoconductive layer c) TFT d) Fluorescent layer

b. Complete Reflux

Which of the following would be considered a retrograde exam of the small bowel? a. Enteroclysis b. Complete Reflux c. Intubation d. Oral

e. Decreased SOD

Which of the following would contribute to increased geometric blur? a. Increased SID b. Decreased FSS c. Increased filtration d. Increased OID e. Decreased SOD f. Increased grid ratio

A decrease in kVp

Which of the following would decrease the production of scatter radiation? a. An increase in SID b. An increase in mAs c. A decrease in kVp d. Use of a grid

a. Both sides of the image are underexposed

Which of the following would demonstrate off-focus grid cutoff? a. Both sides of the image are underexposed b. Bottom of the image is underexposed c. One side of the image is underexposed d. Top of the image is underexposed

3) Short SID

Which of the following would most likely result in the greatest skin dose? 1) Increased filtration 2) High kVp 3) Short SID 4) Increased mA

a. 300 mA, 0.33 s, 80 kVp

Which of the following would produce the greatest receptor exposure? a. 300 mA, 0.33 s, 80 kVp b. 100 mA, 0.50 s, 80 kVp c. 400 mA, 250 ms, 70 kVp d. 200 mA, 500 ms, 70 kVp

a. Hemothorax

Which of the following would require an increase in technical factors to produce a diagnostic radiograph? a. Hemothorax b. Osteoporosis c. Emphysema d. Osteolytic lesion

1 and 3 only

Which of these is the purpose of the grid? 1. Absorb scattered radiation 2. Allow scattered radiation to pass through 3. Allow primary radiation to pass through 4. Absorb primary radiation

d) lead

Which of these materials requires the smallest half value layer (HVL) to effectively attenuate the x-ray beam? a) glass b) aluminum c) concrete d) lead

d

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of fluoroscopy equipment designed specifically to reduce the amount of scatter radiation striking personnel? a) a protective curtain b) a Bucky slot cover c) collimation d) a cumulative timer

c. Focused

Which one of these grid patterns best matches the pattern of the primary beam? a. Parallel b. Crossed c. Focused

OID

Which one of these is the major factor for controlling size distortion? a. SID b. FSS c. mAs d. OID

c. Bowel obstruction

Which pathological condition requires a decrease in exposure factors? a. Ascites b. Acromegaly c. Bowel obstruction d. Paget's disease

b

Which physical condition affecting knees is often the reason that weight-bearing AP projections are performed? a) Torn ligament b) Arthritis c) Dislocation d) Fracture

c

Which plane of the body should be perpendicular to the IR to prevent rotation and/or tilt of the head during a PA axial, Caldwell method, skull radiograph? a) coronal plane b) transverse plane c) midsagittal plane d) frontal plane

a) AP oblique (lateral rotation)

Which projection of the foot demonstrates the navicular bone in profile with the least bony superimposition? a) AP oblique (lateral rotation) b) AP c) Lateral d) AP oblique (medial rotation)

b

Which projection of the knee best demonstrates the femoropatellar space open? a) AP oblique projection (medial rotation) b) Lateral projection c) AP oblique projection (lateral rotation) d) PA axial projection (Holmblad method)

c

Which projection of the shoulder is demonstrated in the image below? a) PA oblique (Scapular Y) b) Lateral scapula c) Tangential supraspinatus (Outlet) d) AP oblique (Scapular Y)

a

Which projection of the toes is demonstrated below? a) AP axial b) PA c) AP d) AP oblique

d) Dorsalis pedis

Which pulse point would a radiographer use to take a pulse when there is questionable compromised peripheral circulation following catherization of the femoral artery or casting of a lower extremity? a) Apical b) Brachial c) Carotid d) Dorsalis pedis

1) Thermoluminescent detector (TLD)

Which radiation measuring and detection device has a wide range and is accurate in measuring radiation exposure for personnel, patients, and stationary area monitoring? 1) Thermoluminescent detector (TLD) 2) Proportional counter 3) Ionization chamber 4) Scintillation detector

a) Radial head

Which structure is best demonstrated when the patient's hand is supinated and a coronal plane passing through the epicondyles of the distal humerus form a 45 degree angle to the IR ? a) Radial head b) Coronoid process c) Olecranon process d) Coracoid process

T10-T12

Which thoracic vertebrae have a single whole facet only?

T2-T8

Which thoracic vertebrae have demifacets on the top and bottom?

1, 2, and 3

Which three of the following are necessary to generate fluoroscopy? (select 3) 1) x-radiation 2) image receptor 3) conversion of x-ray to visible light 4) patient

1, 2, and 3

Which three of the following positions would place the midsagittal plane perpendicular to the image receptor (select three) 1) posteroanterior (PA) 2) anteroposterior (AP) 3) posteroanterior (PA) axial 4) right posterior oblique 5) lateral

1, 3, 4

Which three of the following statements correctly describe the exposure indicator (EI)? 1) EI reflects the amount of image receptor exposure to a digital image receptor 2) EI has a direct relationship with image receptor exposure 3) EI is useful in determining patient exposure 4) EI is used to assess image quality

b

Which tube interaction results in the target atom being ionized? a) Photoelectric b) Characteristic c) Bremsstrahlung d) All of the above

1 and 3

Which two of the following variables would result in the smallest effective focal spot size? (Select two) 1) anode angle of 5 degrees 2) anode angle of 20 degrees 3) filament size of 0.3 mm 4) filament size of 2 mm

2 and 3

Which two variables are responsible for the difference in spatial resolution demonstrated within each of the following images? (select two)

b

Which type of compensating filter is the MOST appropriate to use for an AP or AP axial projection of the foot? a) boomerang b) wedge c) trough d) bilateral wedge

b

Which type of iodine contrast media is closer to the osmolarity of human blood? a) ionic b) non-ionic

2) TLD

Which type of personal monitor may be worn for the longest period of time? 1) Pocket dosimeter 2) TLD 3) Cutie pie 4) Film badge

c) Tonic-clonic seizure

Which type of seizure is sometimes preceded by an aura? a) Focal seizure b) Absence seizure c) Tonic-clonic seizure d) Petite mal seizure

c

Which type of tissue listed below is the least radiosensitive? a) blood forming tissues b) gastrointestinal tissue c) cerebrovascular tissue

d

Which type of urography involves a urologist catheterizing the ureters and instilling a water-soluble iodinated contrast medium? a) cystourethrography b) intravenous urography c) cystoureterography d) retrograde urography

1) Coulomb per kilogram

Which unit of measure would be most appropriate for stating the quantity of radiation exposure as measured by an ionization chamber? 1) Coulomb per kilogram 2) Curie 3) Sievert 4) Gray

a

While in the x-ray tube, x-rays travel at: a) 3 x 10^8 m/s. b) 3.4 x 10^2 m/s. c) 2 x 10^5 m/s. d) 1.5 x 10^4 m/s.

a

While performing intravenous drug injections, it is necessary to decrease the angle of the needle once a flashback is seen in the intravenous catheter to: a) avoid passing through the vein. b) avoid puncturing a vein. c) stabilize the vein. d) release pressure on the vein.

a

While reviewing a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph of a 72-year-old male patient, the radiographer notices that the image does NOT show the right heart border because the right middle lobe is consolidated. This is described as the ________ sign. a) silhouette b) cardiac c) pneumonia d) halo

a) It can measure doses as low as 50µGyt

Why is lithium fluoride the most widely used material for TLD? a) It can measure doses as low as 50µGyt b) It is relatively resistant and can therefore prevent detection of background radiation c) It has attenuation properties similar to bone d) It emits heat in response to light stimulation

c) To better demonstrate upper esophagus

Why would the Swimmer's position be used during an esophagram study to replace the lateral position? a) To reduce motion b) To reduce OID c) To better demonstrate upper esophagus d) To better demonstrate lower esophagus

d

With a table Bucky device, the appearance of grid lines on the radiograph could indicate: a) the milliamperage is too low b) the kilovoltage is too low c) the grid frequency is too low d) the exposure time is too short

a. the exposure time is too short

With a table Bucky device, the appearance of grid lines on the radiograph could indicate: a. the exposure time is too short b. the milliamperage is too low c. the grid frequency is too low d. the kilovoltage is too low

2 and 3

With three-phase equipment, the voltage across the x-ray tube 1. drops to zero every 180 degrees 2. is 87% to 96% of the maximum value 3. is at nearly constant potential

b

Within a series circuit, total resistance can be calculated by a) multiplying the ohms of all resistors within the circuit b) summing the ohms of all resistors within the circuit c) subtracting the ohms of all resistors within the circuit

a) movement of electrons through the circuit

Within an electrical circuit, the term current refers to the a) movement of electrons through the circuit b) electrical force creating electron movement in the circuit c) resistance of electron movement through the circuit d) temporary storage of electrical charge in the circuit

b) electrical force creating electron movement in the circuit

Within an electrical circuit, the term voltage refers to the a) movement of electrons through the circuit b) electrical force creating electron movement in the circuit c) resistance of electron movement through the circuit d) temporary storage of electrical charge in the circuit

b

Within the CR system, what is the role of the photomultiplier tube (PMT)? a) convert light photons to a digital image b) collect and multiply the light photons c) release the latent image from the image receptor d) convert the analog data to a digital signal

c

Within the imaging plate, what device is needed to transfer the latent image to a viewable ddigital radiograph a) photo-stimulable phosphor (PSP) b) developer c) digitizer d) scintillator

d) Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases

Without changing any other factors, which of the following best describes the impact on the final image when SID is increased? a) Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution increases b) Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution decreases c) Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution decreases d) Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases

neutral

X-rays are electrically ____

1, 3, and 4

X-rays that possess energy levels below 10 keV can interact with matter through classic scattering. Classical scattering is also known as which of the following? 1. Thompson 2. Compton 3. Unmodified 4. Coherent

effective

____ dose is the only dose that can be used to understand and control the risk of cancer.

geriatric

____ patients have veins that tend to roll and may be more fragile

a

____ releases electrons when struck by light photons and _____ releases electrons when struck by x-ray photons in digital imaging. a) Amorphous silicon, Amorphous selenium b) Gd2O2S, CsI c) Silver halide, Barium fluorohalide d) Amorphous selenium, Amorphous silicon

higher

_____ SNR results in a higher quality image

d

________ is the local processing function of renumbering pixel values for an entire image domain. a) The look-up table (LUT) b) The histogram c) Equalization d) Windowing

b

________ scattering is another term for classical scattering. a) Compton b) Coherent c) Characteristic d) Photoelectric

a) Collective effective

__________ dose is the sum of the individual doses received in a given period by a specific population from exposure to a specified source of radiation. a) Collective effective b) Effective c) Genetically significant d) Bone marrow

a

a "histogram" in digital radiography refers to the a) frequency of recorded exposure values recorded by the image receptor b) number brightness levels that can be assigned to a pixel c) size of the digital matrix d) range of exposure values that can be detected by the receptor

b) the right because it is more vertical

a 6 year old child has aspirated a coin. which bronchus would the coin most likely enter and why a) the right because it is more horizontal b) the right because it is more vertical c) the left because it is shorter d) the left because it has a larger diameter

d) reader calibration

a CR cassette is exposed using 5 mAs and 75 kVp, and the resulting exposure indicator is 202. the same cassette is exposed using the same technique and processed in a different reader, and the resulting exposure indicator is 436. this is a quality control issue related to a) erasure thoroughness b) plate uniformity c) spatial resolution d) reader calibration

b

a benign tumor consisting of cartilage is a(n): a) chondrosarcoma b) enchondroma c) Ewing sarcoma d) osteosarcoma

b) plate uniformity

a blank exposure is made using a 5 mAs and 75 kVp. if the outer edges of the receptor demonstrate increased exposure, this may be a quality control issue related to: a) erasure thoroughness b) plate uniformity c) spatial resolution d) reader calibration

c

a circuit with a single path for electric current flow is defines as a(n): a) parallel circuit b) closed circuit c) series circuit d) open circuit

a) repeating the exposure with a different image receptor

a dead DEL is visible within a radiograph of the orbits performed for MRI screening. this error should be corrected by a) repeating the exposure with a different image receptor b) repeating the exposure with a different x-ray tube c) reprocessing the aw data with a different histogram protocol d) repeating the exposure after cleaning both the x-ray tube housing and the image receptor

b

a decrease in renal function following administration of IV contrast media is called a) renal failure b) nephrotoxicity c) nephrolithiasis d) iodine hypersensitivity

d

a major distinction between digital and flat panel fluoroscopy system designs is the position of the a) fluoroscopic grid b) image intensifier c) video display monitor d) fluoroscopic x-ray tube

17.0 mSv

a nuclear medicine tech received an absorbed dose of 1.8 mGy. Assume that 1.0 mGy came from beta radiation, and the remainder, 0.8 mGy, came from alpha particles. what is their equivalent dose?

90%

a patient could be considered hypoxic if the blood oxygen saturation falls below

0.24 mSv (1 x 1 x (0.12 + 0.12)

a patient received an absorbed dose of 1 mGy to their lungs and breasts from a chest x-ray. calculate their effective dose.

d) an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity

a patient who has ascites is suffering from a) liver enlargement b) gallstones c) renal hyperplasia d) an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity

a) high density barium and air

a patient with a history of ulcerative colitis is scheduled for a LGI study. what type of contrast media will be required for the examination? a) high density barium and air b) thin barium c) a water soluble iodinated agent d) carbon dioxide

a

a patient's history states there is a possible torus fracture of the radius. which of the following describes a torus fracture? a) incomplete fracture of the shaft impaction and bulging of the periosteum b) incomplete fracture with on side of cortex fractured and displaced c) fracture of radius associated with dislocation of ulna d) fracture through diseased section of bone

2, 3, 5

a patient's pulse may be obtained by palpating which 3 of the following vessels? 1) cephalic vein 2) axillary artery 3) common carotid artery 4) inferior vena cava 5) brachial artery 6) basilica vein

a) convert x-rays into an electrical signal

a photoconductive material is used in radiation detectors to a) convert x-rays into an electrical signal b) convert electrons into sound waves c) convert light into an electrical signal d) convert x-rays into light

a) display contrast

a photometer is used to measure the difference in brightness between two areas of a test pattern displayed on a PACS monitor. this may be done to evaluate a) display contrast b) ambient lighting c) spatial resolution d) geometric distortion

a

a pocket ion chamber is generally used to determine a) total occupational dose over several minutes or hours b) occupational dose rate from acute exposures c) total patient dose over several years d) radioactive contamination

c

a pocket ionization chamber is used for a) equipment calibrations b) gamma spectroscopy c) personal dosimetry d) contamination evaluations

a) decrease mA

a portable chest x-ray demonstrates excessive exposure. how can the technologist decrease the intensity of the x-ray beam while maintaining the same beam energy? a) decrease mA b) decrease kVp c) increase kVp d) increase mA

d

a potential effect of using a three-phase, six-pulse technique chart for high-frequency x-ray system is increased a) distortion b) image contrast c) spatial resolution d) receptor exposure

b) Sieverts per hour (Sv/hr)

a radiation detection instrument measuring the equivalent dose rate will display units of a) miligray (mGy) b) Sieverts per hour (Sv/hr) c) Coulombs per kilogram (C/kg) d) Gray (Gy)

c

a radiation measurement is acquired by an ionization chamber when a) radation passes thorough the chamber without interacting b) radation interacts with the metal housing of the chamber c) radiation ionizes the air in the chamber d) radiation discharged electrical components in the chamber

20.4 Sv

a radiation worker inhales a large volume of alpha emitting radon gas, resulting in an absorbed dose of 1.02 Gy to the lungs. calculate the equivalent dose.

c) 100 mGy

a radiograph is acquired using an AEC unit with an exposure setting of 200 mA and 60 kVp. if the initial receptor exposure is measured as 100 mGy, increasing the kVp by 15% will result in a receptor exposure of approximately a) 200 mGy b) 115 mGy c) 100 mGy d) 85 mGy

101 mAs

a radiograph is initially created with 125 mAs at a 40 SID. If the exam is repeated using a 36 SID, what new mAs should be used to maintain image receptor exposure.

d

a radiograph was acquired using 10 mAs and 80 kVp on a single-phase half-wave rectified x-ray system. what new technique should be used to maintain the same receptor exposure using a single-phase full-wave rectified system? a) 20 mAs and 80 kVp b) 10 mAs and 90 kVp c) 5 mAs and 90 kVp d) 5 mAs and 80 kVp

10 mSv

a radiologic technologist received an absorbed dose of 10 mGy to their extremities from scatter radiation in surgery. calculate their equivalent dose.

4 Gy

a series of x-ray exposures result in a patient's skin absorbing 2.0 joules of energy. the exposed area of the skin has a mass of 0.5 kilograms. calculate the absorbed dose to the skin.

b) move the radiograph to the correct patient and correct requisition

a tech accidentally performs a radiograph under the wrong patient name. how should this error be corrected? a) annotate the image with the correct patient name b) move the radiograph to the correct patient and correct requisition c) repeat the exposure under the correct patient name d) no action is needed

c) repeat the exam on the correct body part

a tech received a requisition for a two-view knee radiograph, but the tech performed a two-view tibia-fibula series. how should this error be corrected? a) request a new order to include the exam performed b) adjust the order to match the exam performed c) repeat the exam on the correct body part d) no action is needed

b) move the radiograph to the correct requisition number

a tech received requisitions for a thoracic spine series and lumbar spine series on the same patient. the tech accidently performs the lumbar series under the thoracic requisition. how should this error be corrected? a) annotate the image with the correct requisition number b) move the radiograph to the correct requisition number c) repeat the exposure under the correct requisition number d) no action is required

d) reprocess the raw data using the correct histogram protocol

a technologist accidentally processes a chest radiograph under the abdomen histogram protocol. how should this mistake be corrected? a) no action is necessary b) adjust the brightness and contrast in PACS c) repeat the exposure using the correct histogram protocol d) reprocess the raw data using the correct histogram protocol

d) no visible errors

a technologist is using variable kVp chart to set the exposure technique for a table-top radiograph. if the technique chart calls for 87 kVp but the technologist uses 82 kVp, the resulting image will likely demonstrate a) saturation b) quantum mottle c) loss of contrast d) no visible errors

d) no visible errors (difference isnt too far off)

a technologist is using variable mAs chart to set the exposure technique for a portable radiograph. if the technique chart calls for 1.5 mAs but the technologist uses 2.0 mAs, the resulting image will likely demonstrate a) saturation b) quantum mottle c) loss of contrast d) no visible errors

c) spatial resolution

a test pattern is displayed on a PACS monitor displaying several line-pair combinations. this display pattern is used to evaluate what aspect of the monitor? a) grayscale standard display function b) geometric distortion c) spatial resolution d) room lighting

a

a transformer has 100 primary turns and 50,000 secondary turns. how will this transformer change voltage? a) increase b) decrease c) remain unchanged

b

a transformer is described as having a turns ratio of 40:1. how will this transformer change amperage? a) amperage will increase b) amperage will decrease c) amperage will not be affected

without

a-, an-

b) quantity of radiation absorbed in the patient

absorbed dose (D) is commonly used to describe which of the following? a) quantity of radiation directed at the patient b) quantity of radiation absorbed in the patient c) quantity of radiation passing through the patient d) quantity of radiation scattered from the patient

b) Joules/kilogram

absorbed dose is calculated as a) Coulombs/kilogram b) Joules/kilogram c) D x WR d) D x WR x WT

5%

accuracy of the AEC is tested using a variety of exposures to ensure they are consistent; should be within

c) kinetic energy absorbed by ions in air

air KERMA is a radiation measurement that describes the a) radiation energy deposited in tissue b) absolute number of ionization events in air c) kinetic energy absorbed by ions in air d) speed of radiation in air

a) fomite

an IR is use don multiple patients without being cleaned. one of the patients develops a serious skin infection. what term might be applied to the IR? a) fomite b) host c) vector d) vehicle

d

an acceptable radiograph of the femur is obtained using a high-frequency radiographic system. if the same exposure settings are used to produce a radiograph on a three-phase system, this image is likely to demonstrate what change in image quality? a) increased distortion b) decreased spatial resolution c) decreased contrast d) decreased receptor exposure

d

an acceptable radiographic image of the ankle obtained using 4 mAs and 65 kVp on a single-phase full-wave radiographic system. which of the following settings will produce the same receptor exposure on a high frequency system? a) 8 mAs and 65 kVp b) 8 mAs and 75 kVp c) 4 mAs and 75 kVp d) 2 mAs and 65 kVp

d

an autotransformer is used to control which aspect of the x-ray circuit electrical supply? a) resistance b) rectification c) power d) voltage

14.4 mSv

an elderly female patient in fluoroscopy received an absorbed dose of 40 mGy to the colon, stomach, and breasts, each having a tissue weighting-factor of 0.12. calculate the effective dose.

2, 4, 5

an example of a moderate allergic reaction to a contrast agent is which three of the following (select three) 1) metallic taste in the mouth 2) bronchospasm 3) cyanosis 4) urticaria 5) erythema

30 keV (40%)

an exposure is created with a technique of 80 kVp and 10 mAs. what is the approximate energy of photons at position (B) of the spectrum?

80 keV

an exposure is created with a technique of 80 kVp and 10 mAs. what is the approximate energy of photons at position (D) of the spectrum?

4 min

an exposure is taken resulting in 200,000 HU. how long will it take the anode to cool to 50,000?

2 min

an exposure is taken resulting in 250,000 HU. how long will it take the anode to cool to 100,000?

1 min

an exposure is taken resulting in 300,000 HU. how long will it take the anode to cool to 200,000?

196

an image intensifier has an input phosphor diameter of 14" and an output phosphor diameter of 1". its minification gain is:

13 minutes

an image was taken resulting in the creation of 200,000 HU. approximately how long will it take the anode to cool down completely?

11 min

an image was taken resulting in the creation of 75,000 HU. approximately how long will it take the anode to cool down completely?

1 and 3

an imaging system that converts x-rays directly into an electrical signal will include which two of these components? (select 2) 1) thin-film transistor (TFT) array 2) photodiode 3) amorphous selenium detector

3.3 Gy

an individual's thyroid absorbed 0.1 joule of energy from a radiology procedure. the thyroid has a mass of 0.03 kilograms. calculate the absorbed dose to the thyroid.

a) 1-6 liters/min

an otherwise healthy patient is having difficulty breathing and is in need of oxygen. he correct flow rate through the nasal cannula should be a) 1-6 liters/min b) 7-10 liters/min c) 11-15 liters/min d) 16-20 liters/min

770

an x-ray was taken using 110 kVp and 5 mAs on a high-frequency machine. how many heat units were produced is the rectification constant is 1.40?

2, 3, 4

anaphylactic shock may be seen in imaging after the injection of iodinated contrast media. which three of the manifestations below would be early signs or symptoms of impending anaphylactic shock? 1) seizure 2) bronchospasm 3) itching, especially of the palms or soles of the feet 4) tightness in the chest 5) onset of hypertension

c

as the radiographer for a patient having an Upper GI exam, you notice that the patient history states that there is a possibility of a bowel perforation. which of the following situations would most likely be a result of this information? a) perform the exam as usual with no modifications b) perform the exam with a less toxic form of barium sulfate c) perform the exam with an iodine-based contrast media d) do not perform the exam at al since no contrast media could be used

c) approximately 69 keV

assuming a tungsten target is being used and incident electrons are produced using 110 keV, what is the maximum energy of the characteristic x-rays? a) greater than 110 keV b) approximately 110 keV c) approximately 69 keV d) less than 69 keV

b) absorbed dose decreases

assuming there are no other technical changes, how will decreasing kVp affect the absorbed dose to the patient? a) absorbed dose increases b) absorbed dose decreases c) no change in absorbed dose

C6

at approximately what level does the esophagus begin?

b

at very low doses of radiation, the probability of stochastic effects are a) impossible b) unlikely c) highly likely

a) 2nd sacral segment

at what level is the ASIS? a) 2nd sacral segment b) L5 c) junction of sacrum and coccyx d) sacral promontory

self

autonomy

A

autotransformer

d

barium sulfate contrast media is categorized as a suspension. because of this fact, the radiographer must follow which practice regarding the use of it? a) it must be kept chilled to keep the particles suspended in the liquid b) it must be mixed with distilled water to evenly distribute the particles c) it has very short shelf-life since the particles will not dissolve in the liquid d) it must be shaken or mixed prior to use to redistribute the particles within the solution

a

bit depth is defined as: a) total number of brightness levels that can be produced by the digital system b) total line-pairs per cm that cam be resolved by the digital system c) smallest exposure difference that can be detected by the digital system d) total number of photons striking the digital receptor

c) electric field of the nucleus

bremsstrahlung radiation is created within the x-ray tube when high-energy electrons interact with a) outer shell electrons b) shell electrons c) electric field of the nucleus d) nuclear force of the nucleus

1.2 mSv

calculate the effective dose for a patient receiving an absorbed dose of 10 mGy to the lungs from x-rays. assume the lungs have a tissue-weighting factor of 0.12.

a) 0.023 cm

calculate the pixel size given these variables: matrix size = 512 x 512 FOV = 12 cm mA = 5 kVp = 78 a) 0.023 cm b) 42 cm c) 0.000046 cm d) 0.117 cm

c) connective tissue

cartilage and bone are considered what type of tissue? a) adipose tissue b) epithelial tissue c) connective tissue d) squamous tissue

b) inner shell electrons

characteristic radiation is created within the x-ray tube when high-energy electrons interact with a) outer shell electrons b) inner shell electrons c) electric field of the nucleus d) nuclear force field

bile

chole

C7 spinous fx

clay shovelers fx

level of pubic symphysis and greater trochanter

coccyx topography

c) increased spatial resolution and decreased anode heat capacity

compared to a tube with a large angle and same size actual focal spot, utilizing an x-ray tube with a small anode angle will result in which of the following? a) increased spatial resolution and increased anode heat capacity b) decreased spatial resolution and increased anode heat capacity c) increased spatial resolution and decreased anode heat capacity d) decreased spatial resolution and decreased anode heat capacity

severed vessel or organ

complicated fx

2 and 4

consider a PACS network in which imaging studies are distributed directly to specific reading stations and the PACS archive server. What is/are the advantage(s) of the distribution system? (select all that apply) 1) any exam can be open from any workstation 2) if the archive server goes down, images can still be sent to specific reading stations 3) it allows for multiple radiologists to view the study simultaneously 4) images are duplicated in the PACS archive server and at the reading workstation

2 and 3

consider a technologist that accidentally uses a lower mAs than normal on a radiograph of the chest. what to digital processes is used to display the image as if it was exposed correctly? (select 2) 1) histogram analysis 2) rescaling 3) lookup table (LUT) adjustments 4) digitization

c

consider a transformer that has 10 times more turns on the secondary side than on the primary side. how will this transformer change the voltage? a) increase by 10 b) decrease by 10 c) increase by a factor 10 d) decrease by a factor 10

3 and 4

consider this scenario: a server-based PACS system is designed with a back-up distribution network used to send imaging studies to specific reading stations. in the even the PACS server becomes inaccessible, what is/are the main DISADVANTAGE(S) of sending images to specific reading stations? (select all that apply) 1) is the internet is slow, images take longer to access 2) there are no disadvantages 3) imaging studies are not accessible at all PACS reading stations 4) prior imaging studied are not accessible

a) alpha particles

consider two people that both received an absorbed dose of 10 mGy. One person received their dose form alpha particles, the other person received their dose form gamma rays. Which dose caused the most biological harm? a) alpha particles b) gamma rays c) both cause the same amount of biological harm

against

contra-

unusual sensitivity to contrast media renal failure with elevated BUN pregnancy multiple myeloma

contraindications to intravenous urography

measure of ability of a grid to increase contrast

contrast improvement factor

a

conventional fluoro mA uses what type of miliamperage doses for continuous fluoro a) low range from 0.5 - 5.0 mA b) low range from 5 -10 mA c) high range from 25 - 150 mA d) high range from 50 - 1200 mA

d

converting a 3-phase unrectified current to 3-phase 6-pulse current requires which of the following devices? a) autotransformer b) step-up transformer c) line-voltage compensator d) diodes

c

critical thinking skills used during patient instruction include kinesthetic, which means learning by which method? a) visual b) auditory c) tactile d) evaluation

d) nonlinear threshold curve

curve 4 is a) linear threshold curve b) nonlinear nonthreshold curve c) linear nonthreshold curve d) nonlinear threshold curve

bladder

cysto

a

decreased sperm count is a likely response to radiation exposure after receiving a radiation dose of at least a) 150 mGy b) 1500 mGy c) 300 mGy d) 3000 mGy

side

decub-

c

digital fluoro systems use a) mA that are much lower than continuous fluoro systems b) single phase x-ray generators exclusively c) a pulsed, intermittent x-ray exposure sequence d) lower kVp values due to the decrease in scatter radiation

E

direct high-voltage current

c

direct radiography systems typically use a thin-film transistor (TFT). this device functions to a) convert x-rays into light b) convert light into electrons c) collect electrical charge d) convert electrical into a digital signal

d) over-exposure of the upper chest

directing the anode side of the x-ay field toward the lower chest during an AP projection of the chest will result in a) increased contrast within the lower chest b) decreased contrast within the lower chest c) under-exposure of the upper chest d) over-exposure of the upper chest

-pathy

disease

d

during CPR of an adult, the cardiac compression rate should be about a) 10 - 20 compressions per minute b) 40 - 60 compressions per minute c) 60 - 80 compressions per minute d) 100 -120 compressions per minute

d

during a fluoroscopic examination of the upper GI tract, a patient receives a radiation dose equal to 30 mGy to the face, neck, chest, and upper abdomen. what is the most likely adverse effect from this procedure? a) skin erythema b) epilation c) diminished sperm count d) leukemia

1, 2, and 3

during a radiography procedure, dose to a pt tissues outside of the primary exposure field is a result of: (select all that apply) 1) scatter radiation 2) off-focus radiation 3) leakage radiation 4) on-focus radiation

d) breakage of the cathode filament

during an attempted x-ray exposure, the x-ray tube fails to create any x-ray photons. which of the following conditions is most likely to explain this failure? a) inadequate mA setting b) excessive kVp setting c) improper warm-up sequence d) breakage of the cathode filament

c) 110 keV

during an x-ray exposure, an incident electron strikes the anode with an energy of 110 kiloelectron voltage (keV) and passes very close to the tungsten nucleus. what is the approximate energy of the photon created by this interaction? a) 0 keV b) 69 keV c) 110 keV d) >110 keV

a) 1 keV

during an x-ray exposure, an incident electron strikes the anode with an energy of 130 keV and passes very far from the tungsten nucleus. what is the approximate energy of the photon created by this interaction? a) 1 keV b) 69 keV c) 130 keV d) >130 keV

b) 55 keV

during an x-ray exposure, an incident electron strikes the anode with an energy of 55 keV and passes very far from the tungsten nucleus. what is the approximate energy of this electron as it exits the atom? a) 0 keV b) 55 keV c) 69 keV d) >100 keV

a) 1 keV

during an x-ray exposure, an incident electron strikes the anode with an energy of 84 kiloelectron voltage (keV) and passes very close to the tungsten nucleus. what is the approximate energy of this electron as it exits the atom? a) 1 keV b) 69 keV c) 86 keV d) >100 keV

d) electron transfer from outer shell to inner shell

during the process of characteristic x-ray production, the cascade effect refers to which of the following events/ a) interaction of the incident electron with the electric field of the nucleus b) ejection of an inner shell electron c) deflection of the incident electron d) electron transfer from outer shell to inner shell

difficult

dys-

labored or difficulty breathing

dyspnea

painful or difficult urination

dysuria

outside

ect-

50%

effective FSS should be within ____ of the size stated in equipment specifications

c

electrical current is measured in units of a) watts b) volts c) amperes d) ohms

d) R

electrical resistance, measured in Ohms, can e represented by which letter? a) I b) A c) O d) R

d) heat

electron interactions within the x-ray tube anode primarily create a) ultraviolet rays b) x-rays c) visible light d) heat

in

en-

brain

encephal

within

endo-

intestine

enter

b

environmental radiation survey instruments are deigned to evaluate a) radiation output of x-ray machines b) radioactive contamination c) occupational radiation dose d) non-ionizing radiation dose

on

epi-

d) 3000 mGy

epilation is a likely response to radiation exposure after receiving a radiation dose of at least a) 150 mGy b) 1500 mGy c) 100 mGy d) 3000 mGy

tests to validate a CR system is completely erasing, ensuring there are no ghosting artifacts

erasure thoroughness

anterior middle posterior

ethmoid air cells are found:

3

ethmoid sinus has __ group of air cells

caldwell and SMV

ethmoid sinus is best seen in

the labryniths of ethmoid

ethmoid sinus is located within

b) 1"

every item inside of a sterile kit is considered sterile except for the outer border. the border that is safe to touch is how wide? a) 0.5" b) 1" c) 1.5" d) 2"

out

ex-

b) absolute number of ionization events in air

exposure is a radiation measurement used to quantify which of the following? a) radiation energy deposited in tissue b) absolute number of ionization events in air c) kinetic energy absorbed by ions in air d) speed of radiation in air

c) Coulombs per kilogram (C/kg)

exposure is measured in units of a) Gray (Gy) b) Sievert (Sv) c) Coulombs per kilogram (C/kg) d) Becquerel (Bq)

10%

exposure linearity variance

b) kVp

exposure of obese patients results in inadequate receptor exposure. what technical factor should be modified to increase the energy and penetrability of the x-ray beam? a) mA b) kVp c) exposure time (s) d) tube current

5%

exposure reproducibility variance

E

exposure timer

0.35 mm

eyeglasses Pb minimum

d) decreased spatial resolution

failure of the focusing cup within the x-ray tube will result in which of the following? a) excessive leakage radiation b) excessive scatter radiation c) low energy x-ray beam d) decreased spatial resolution

b

failure of the rheostat within the x-ray circuit would result in the inability to a) supply adequate voltage to the x-ray tube b) modify the filament current c) modify the exposure timer d) supply direct current to the x-ray tube

a

failure of the step-up transformer within the x-ray tube circuit would result in an inability to a) supply adequate voltage to the x-ray tube b) modify the exposure time c) supply the adequate current tot eh filament d) modify the x-ray tube voltage

C

filament circuit

tungsten-thorium

filaments are made of

inverse

film and spatial resolution have a(n) ____ relationship

d

fluoroscopic grids used for pediatric studies generally feature: a) unfocused grid strips to reduce weight b) higher grid ratios due to the amount of scatter c) aluminum interspace material for manufacturing precision d) lower grids ratio with carbon-fiber interspacing

b

fluoroscopic grids used with image intensified fluoroscopy: a) will not impact flux gain b) must match the size of the input phosphor c) cannot be removed d) reciprocate at a rate that is controlled by the SID

100 mGya

fluoroscopy exposure rate should not exceed ___ per minute

wide, narrow

focal range is ____ for low-ratio grids focal range is ____ for high-ratio grids

a) orthostatic hypotension

following a sudden change of posture from the recumbent to the erect position, the patient complains of dizziness and may experience syncope or fainting due to a condition known as a) orthostatic hypotension b) neurogenic shock c) hypoglycemia d) hypoxemia

c) front edge of the IR

for a lateral radiograph of the nasal bones, the IOML should be positioned perpendicular to what part of the IR? a) center of the IR b) back edge of the IR c) front edge of the IR d) the IOML is not a cranial positioning line used for a lateral radiograph of the nasal bones

c

for an AP axial (Beclere) knee radiograph, the affected knee should be flexed to place the femur at an angle of a) 10 - 20 degrees b) 25 - 35 degrees c) 40 - 60 degrees d) 90 - 110 degrees

b) Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches inferior to the upside ASIS

for the posterior oblique pelvis, during the Judet method, when the anatomy of interest is the anterior rim of the acetabulum, proper positioning requires the CR to enter: a) Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches superior and 1 inch medial to the downside ASIS b) Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches inferior to the upside ASIS c) Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches distal and 2 inches medial to the downside ASIS d) Perpendicular to the IR and centered 2 inches directly superior the upside ASIS

c

for the x-ray circuit to function properly, the rectifiers must be located between the a) main power supply and the step-up transformer b) main power supply and the step-down transformer c) step-up transformer and the x-ray tube d) step-down transformer and the filament

b) epistaxis

for which of the conditions below would it be helpful to pace the patient in the Trendelenburg? a) asthma b) epistaxis c) vasovagal reaction d) shortness of breath

1, 3, 4, 6

for which of the following projections should the entire colon be included (flexures to sigmoid)? 1. AP 2. AP Axial 3. RPO 4. LPO 5. Lateral 6. Right lateral decubitus

1, 2, 4

from the following options, choose three structures that are normally located in the RUQ of the abdomen? 1) galbladder 2) liver 3) tail of pancreas 4) adrenal gland 5) appendix

caldwell method

frontal sinuses are best seen in

0.25 mm

gloves Pb minimum

distance at which focused grids may be used (aka focal distance or focal range)

grid radius

H/D (Height of lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips)

grid ratio formula

blood

hem

blood in the urine

hematuria

half

hemi-

liver

hepat

1%

high frequency voltage ripple

C

high-amperage

C

high-voltage side of step-up

a) exposure increases and air kerma increases

how are exposure and air KERMA affected if the intensity of the x-ray beam increases? a) exposure increases and air kerma increases b) exposure increases and air kerma decreases c) exposure decreases and air kerma increases d) exposure decreases and air kerma decreases

c) no change in energy in k-shell characteristic x-rays

how does increasing kVp affect he energy of k-shell characteristic x-ray photons? a) increased energy in k-shell characteristic x-rays b) decreased energy in k-shell characteristic x-rays c) no change in energy in k-shell characteristic x-rays

b

how does radiation dose change if a technologist decreases their distance from a radiation source by a factor of 3 a) dose increases by a factor of 3 b) dose increases by a factor of 3 c) dose decreases by a factor of 3 d) dose decreases by a factor of 2 squared

2 and 3

how does the anode heel effect manifest itself on a radiographic image? 1) higher exposure on the anode side of the image 2) higher exposure on the cathode side of the image 3) increased detail on the anode side of he image 4) increased detail on the cathode side of the image

b) increased pixel size

how is pixel size within a radiographic image affected by increasing the exposure field size? a) no effect b) increased pixel size c) decreased pixel size

8

how many bones in the cranium

14

how many facial bones

4

how many paranasal sinus groups should be visible on a lateral view of the sinuses?

256 shades

how many shades of gray can be displayed by an 8-bit radiography system?

c) +/- 4.25 kVp

how much tube potential variance is allowed when the assigned technique for an exposure is 85 kVp? a) +/- 0.85 kVp b) +/- 1.7 kVp c) +/- 4.25 kVp d) +/- 8.5 kVp

d) spatial resolution increases

how would decreasing the fluoroscopic field size affect the multi-field image intensifier? a) minification gain increases b) flux gain decreases c) patient dose is unaffected d) spatial resolution increases

b

identify A a) metacarpals b) phalanges c) carpals d) ulna

c) intravenously

if a dose of Benadryl is needed for an anaphylactic reaction to intravascular iodinated contrast, what is the best route of administration a) orally b) intramuscular c) intravenously d) subcutaneously

b) repeat the radiograph using a smaller exposure technique

if a radiograph demonstrates an S number of 12 with loss of soft tissue differentiation, the technologist should consider which of the following actions? a) repeat the radiograph using a larger exposure technique b) repeat the radiograph using a smaller exposure technique c) repeat the radiograph using a larger grid ratio d) submit the radiograph as-is without repeating the exposure

d) submit the radiograph as-is without repeating the exposure

if a radiograph demonstrates an S number of 430 with no visible exposure errors, the technologist should consider which of the following actions? a) repeat the radiograph using a larger exposure technique b) repeat the radiograph using a smaller exposure technique c) repeat the radiograph using a larger grid ratio d) submit the radiograph as-is without repeating the exposure

d) submit the radiograph as-is without repeating the exposure

if a radiograph demonstrates an S number of 80 with no visible exposure errors, the technologist should consider which of the following actions? a) repeat the radiograph using a larger exposure technique b) repeat the radiograph using a smaller exposure technique c) repeat the radiograph using a larger grid ratio d) submit the radiograph as-is without repeating the exposure

a) repeat the radiograph using a larger exposure technique

if a radiograph demonstrates an S number of 880 with severe mottle, the technologist should consider which of the following actions? a) repeat the radiograph using a larger exposure technique b) repeat the radiograph using a smaller exposure technique c) repeat the radiograph using a larger grid ratio d) submit the radiograph as-is without repeating the exposure

c) assault

if a technologist states to the patient, "if you don't still, I will have to stick you again with this needle!" the technologist may be accused of: a) false imprisonment b) battery c) assault d) negligence

a) left lateral decub

if an acute abdominal series is ordered for a patient who cannot stand or sit upright, which projection should be included in place of the erect abdomen? a) left lateral decub b) right lateral decub c) AP supine d) left lateral

decreases

if filtration is added, subject contrast _____.

a

if positioned properly, which paranasal sinus group will not be demonstrated on a SMV view of the sinuses with a horizontal beam? a) frontal sinuses b) ethmoid sinuses c) sphenoid sinuses d) maxillary sinuses

a

if the distance between the ASIS and the tabletop is 22 cm, what central ray direction should be used for an AP knee radiograph? a) 0 degrees (perpendicular) b) 5 degrees cephalad c) 10 degrees cephalad d) 15 degrees cephalad

d

if the fluoro image is "smearing" or lagging in its visual display when performing a procedure using pulsed fluoro, corrective action would include which of the following? a) decreasing the pulse frequency b) decreasing the mA c) increasing the pulse intervcal d) increasing the pulse rate

+/- 5 ms 95 - 105

if the prescribed time is 100 ms, tolerance is ____ ms

c) increase by a factor of 2

if the primary beam area is doubles by opening the collimator, pt dose and exposure to the operator will a) increase by a factor of 4 b) increase by a factor of 3 c) increase by a factor of 2 d) remain the same

a) rotation of the patient to the right

if the right obturator foramen appears foreshortened or closed on an AP radiograph of the pelvis, what is this indicative of? a) rotation of the patient to the right b) rotation of the patient to the left c) right lower limb not internally rotated d) left lower limb not internally rotated

c

image intensifier input phosphor and photocathode surface are: a) circular and convex in shape b) rectangular and concave in shape c) concave in shape d) flat and circular in shape

b

immediately after Mr. Miller receives an IV injection of iodinated contrast media, he complains of pruritis and you observe that he has two hives on his neck. what should your response to this situation be? a) no response is necessary since these are signs of a mild reaction b) monitor Mr. Miller's vital signs and be alert for further reactions for at least 20 - 30 minutes c) recognize a moderate reaction and make sure that IV access is maintained d) recognize the onset of a severe reaction and alert the radiologist immediately

d) maxillary sinuses

in a properly positioned parietoacanthial (Waters method) view of the sinuses with a horizontal beam, the petrous ridges should appear just inferior to which paranasal sinus group? a) ethmoid sinuses b) sphenoid sinuses c) frontal sinuses d) maxillary sinuses

1 and 4

in a trauma situation, which two of the following arteries are best for assessing fa patient's pulse due to their larger size and more accurate representation of the heart's activity? (select two) 1) carotid 2) radial 3) popliteal 4) femoral

a

in an ionization chamber, the radiation measurement is provided based on radiation interactions with a) air in the chamber b) metal housing around the chamber c) a solid material within the chamber d) electrical circuits within the chamber

1, 4, 5

in order to best demonstrate the splenic flexure, which of the following would apply? 1. Rotate the patient 40° from AP 2. Place the patient in either an RAO or LPO position 3. Center 1-2" lateral to the MSP on the side closest to the IR 4. Place the patient in either an LAO or RPO position 5. More than 1 of these

d

in order to create a steady flow of highly penetrating x-rays, power arriving at the x-ray tube must be a) low-voltage AC b) low-voltage DC c) high-voltage AC d) high-voltage DC

c

in order to create sufficient heat within the cathode filament, the power supplied to the filament must be a) high frequency b) high voltage c) high amperage

b

in order to reduce the visibility of grid lines during fluoroscopy, technologists should do which of the following? a) use a grid Bucky b) use a high frequency grid c) position grid lines at a right angle to the incident x-ray beam d) grid lines are removed post-fluoroscopic procedure

d

in order to shift the electron stream focal point to the correct position in a multi-field image intensifier, the a) position of the input phosphor shifts b) photocathode changes form a concave shape to a convex shape c) output phosphor shifts its position back two inches d) stronger negative charge is placed on electrostatic focusing plates

a

in pulsed fluoro, the fluoro mA value is expressed as the pulse a) height b) interval c) width d) rate

c

in scintillation detector, the radiation measurement is provided based on radiation interactions with a) air in the chamber b) metal housing around the chamber c) a solid material within the chamber d) electrical circuits within the chamber

d

in the absence of the autotransformer, the step-up and step-down transformers would be supplied with a continuous voltage of a) 60 volts b) 110 volts c) 440 volts d) 220 volts

a

in the fluoroscopic imaging chain of components, which of the following components affects image quality? a) television viewing monitor b) image intensifier c) CCD d) fluoroscopic x-ray tube

c) provide a topical anesthetic for invasive procedures

in the imaging department, Lidocaine (Xylocaine) is often used to a) relax the colon b) counteract the effects of histamine reaction c) provide a topical anesthetic for invasive procedures d) provide medical asepsis for invasive procedures

B

in the semi-conductor detector, what component magnifies the strength of the electrical signal?

d

in the x-ray circuit, rectifiers are located in the a) primary circuit b) filament circuit c) low voltage circuit d) secondary circuit

d

in which of the following projections is the head positioned so that the OML forms a 37 degree angle with the plane of the IR a) AP skull b) PA skull c) AP axial (Towne method) d) Parietoacanthial (Waters method)

d) ghost image

incomplete erasure of a CR image receptor may produce an artifact called a) quantum mottle b) loss of contrast c) radiation fog d) ghost image

b

increased hydration prior to an injection of iodine contrast media is recommended for what reason? a) decrease the chance of nausea and vomiting b) ease the burden on the kidneys when the contrast media is filtered through the kidneys c) lessen the chance of an anaphylactic response to the iodine d) decrease the concentration of the contrast media after it is injected

increases, increases

increasing bit depth, ____ contrast resolution, _____ brightness

a) decreased spatial resolution

increasing the OID from 1 inch to 2 inches will result in a) decreased spatial resolution b) increased spatial resolution c) increased scatter production d) decreased scatter production

below

infero-

d) subcutaneous

injections of medication under the skin and dermis are referred to as which type of injections? a) intramuscular b) intravenous c) intradermal d) subcutaneous

c

iodine contrast media is made less toxic and more tolerable to the human body by which of the following methods a) removing the iodine content from the molecules b) binding the iodine atoms to ionic molecules c) binding the iodine atoms to a benzene ring d) breaking the molecule into individual ions

yes

is this a good pelvis

1, 2, 3, and 4

it is important that medical physicists perform tests annually on x-ray equipment as it ensures: (select all that apply) a) accurate kVp settings 2) that the -ray machine is functioning properly 3) that the right amount of radiation is being produced for each exam 4) collimation is within parameters

c) less than 69.5 keV

k-shell characteristic photons will NOT be produced in a tungsten target when the incident electron energy is a) greater than 69.5 keV b) less than 100 keV c) less than 69.5 keV d) greater than 110 keV

a

kVp is selected at the a) autotransformer b) rheostat c) step-up transformer d) rectifier

D

kVp meter

5%

kVp must be accurate within

A

low-voltage of step-up

B

low-voltage side of the step-up

tests the uniformity of brightness across the screen

luminance uniformity

20%

luminance uniformity readings should be within ____ of each other

current

mA meter (milliammeter) measures tube ____

D

mA selector (rheostat)

c) bremsstrahlung radiation

majority of x-ray photons in an x-ray beam are classified as a) discrete radiation b) characteristic radiation c) bremsstrahlung radiation d) charged particle radiation

professional negligence (difficult to prove)

malpractice

ethmoid sinus is best seen in Parietoacanthial (Waters)

maxillary sinus is best seen in

nausea vomiting salivation sneezing pallor urticaria rhinitis periorbital edema pain at injection site

mild reactions to contrast

1, 2, and 3

off-focus radiation is the product of electron interactions occurring within which component(s) of the x-ray tube (select all that apply) 1) cathode assembly 2) vacuum envelope 3) anode disk

c) semiconductors do not produce visible light

one difference between scintillation detectors and semiconductors is a) scintillator detectors do not produce an electrical signal b) scintillators use a gas chamber c) semiconductors do not produce visible light d) semiconductors cannot detect gamma radiation

secretes pancreatic juices to neutralize stomach acid

pancreatic duct does what?

diaphragm

phren

d) hyperdense artifact

physicals damage to the structure of a CR image receptor is likely to manifest on a radiograph as a) loss of contrast b) loss of spatial resolution c) geometric distortion d) hyperdense artifact

d) hyperdense artifact

pixel malfunction within a CR or DR image receptor is likely to manifest on a radiograph as a) loss of contrast b) loss of spatial resolution c) geometric distortion d) hyperdense artifact

CR plates must be tested regularly to to ensure accurate representation of images

plate reader calibration

d) incorrect contrast and brightness

processing a radiographic image using the wrong histogram protocol may result in visible errors such as a0 inadequate spatial resolution b) increased image noise c) saturation artifact d) incorrect contrast and brightness

b) 37 degrees

proper positioning of the patient's head for a parietoacanthial (Waters method) view for the nasal bones places the orbitomeatal line (OML) at what angle with the imaging surface? a) 30 degrees b) 37 degrees c) 45 degrees d) 90 degrees

b) air KERMA

radiation intensity is most commonly measured as exposure or a) effective dose b) air KERMA c) absorbed dose d) equivalent dose

radiopaque = positive radiolucent = negative

radiopaque are +/-? radiolucent are +/-?

scaphoid

red arrow

acromion

red arrow pointing to

d

spatial resolution of digital images using a flat panel detector, is principally controlled by the a) phosphor layer thickness b) incident x-ray kVp c) miliamperage (mA) d) detector element (DEL) dimension

removal of superimposed or unwanted structures from the image

subtraction

heart monitor

swan ganz

immovable

synarthroidal joints are ____ joints

b) filament size

techs can reduce the chance of excessive heat production and x-ray tube damage by modifying which of the following a) anode angle b) filament size c) anode rotation speed d) anode size

c

teratogenic effects of radiation can be defined as a) fetal death b) childhood cancer c) fetal deformities d) mental retardation

b

the Beclere method of IC fossa is not a preferred position because of distortion from the CR angle and what other disadvantages of an AP axial view? a) increased SID b) increased OID c) increased technique required d) increased discomfort for the pt

d) radiographic marker

the Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) data associated with a radiographic image usually does NOT include a) exposure indicator b) name of the facility c) patient's name d) radiographic marker

b

the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau states that the following characteristics make a cell more sensitive to radiation exposure EXCEPT a) immaturity b) dimensions c) rate of division d) degree of specialization

2.0

the MF for a 12"/9"/6" image intensifier used in the six inch mode would be

c

the Settegast method should not be attempted until what has been ruled out by other projections? a) fx of the tibial plateau b) fx of the distal femur c) fx of the patella d) fx of the proximal femur

output, input

the ____ phosphor is smaller than the ____ phosphor

b

the ____ pleura closely adheres to the surface of the lung a) parietal b) visceral c) lingula d) cardiac

b

the ability of an image intensifier to increase fluoroscopic image illumination is referred to as a) minification gain b) brightness gain c) amplification d) automatic gain

d) x-ray absorption within the anode

the anode heel effect is caused by a) excessive filament temperature b) inadequate anode rotation speed c) excessive heat production d) x-ray absorption within the anode

d) beam quantity across the x-ray field

the anode heel effect is defined as a variation in a) distortion across the x-ray field b) contrast resolution across the x-ray field c) beam quality across the x-ray field d) beam quantity across the x-ray field

d) post-processing shuttering

the appearance of off-focus radiation can be corrected by: a) decreasing collimation b) window leveling c) increasing kVp d) post-processing shuttering

d) off-focus radiation

the appearance of pt tissues outside the collimated borders is the effect of a) inadequate collimation b) excessive kVp c) incorrect density setting d) off-focus radiation

c) effective focal spot

the area of the x-ray beam projected towards the patient is described as the a) tungsten filament b) cathode filament c) effective focal spot d) actual focal spot

main power supply, step-up transformer

the autotransformer s located between the ___ and the ___ within the x-ray circuit.

d) allow for low-friction rotation of the anode

the bearings of the induction motor assembly are designed to do which of the following? a) stop the anode rotation when the exposure is complete b) provide thermal insulation to the anode c) conduct electricity to the anode d) allow for low-friction rotation of the anode

a) repeating the exposure with a different image receptor

the bright-white artifact within this radiograph should be corrected by a) repeating the exposure with a different image receptor b) repeating the exposure with a different x-ray tube c) reprocessing the raw data with a different histogram protocol d) no action is required

d) physical damage within the image receptor

the bright-white artifact within this radiograph was most likely caused by a) incorrect image processing b) an immobilizing device within the exposure field c) pixel malfunction within the image receptor d) physical damage within the image receptor

a

the brightness of a digital display device is measured in a) candela per square meter b) light per square meter c) mole per square meter d) watts per square meter

d

the central portion of the output phosphor of the image intensifier tube possesses the greatest a) distortion b) brightness c) magnification d) spatial resolution

b) kVp

the charge difference between the cathode and anode within the x-ray tube is controlled by the a) mA b) kVp c) exposure time (s) d) tube current

c

the degree of resistance provided by an individual resistor within a circuit is measured in a) volts b) watts c) ohms d) amperes

c

the device in the image is typically used for a) equipment calibrations b) gamma spectroscopy c) personal dosimetry d) contamination evaluations

c

the diastolic pressure is a measurement of the pressure exerted on the arterial walls during a) atrial contraction b) right ventricle contraction c) relaxation of the left ventricle d) relaxation of the atria

d

the difference in electrical charge between two points in a circuit is called the a) current b) frequency c) resistance d) voltage

1, 2, 3, and 4

the effects of ARS can be studied from (select all that apply) 1) hiroshima survivors 2) nagasaki survivors 3) patients who have undergone radiation therapy 4) nuclear power plant accidents

b) tube current

the electrons flowing from the cathode to the anode inside the x-ray tube may be defined as the a) voltage b) tube current c) electrical charge d) penetration

1 and 2

the energy of a bremsstrahlung photon is dependent om which of the following? (choose 2) 1) energy of the incident electron 2) proximity of the incident electron to the nucleus 3) binding energy of orbital electrons in the target atom 4) number of orbital electrons in the target atom

d) the difference between the incoming and outgoing electron energy

the energy of a bremsstrahlung x-ray photon is equal to a) the energy of the incoming electron b) the energy of the outgoing electron c) the difference between the inner and outer electron binding energies d) the difference between the incoming and outgoing electron energy

d) anode material

the energy of characteristic photons will change when which of the following variables is modified? a) tube voltage b) tube current c) filtration thickness d) anode material

d

the filament current is controlled by the technologist through a device called a(n): a) autotransformer b) circuit breaker c) rectifier d) rheostat

electrons x-rays

the filament is the source of ______. the actual focal spot is the source of _____.

c

the first phase of contraction of the heart involves contraction of the: a) left atrium only b) right atrium only c) right and left atria d) right and left ventricles

btwn 1 and 2: yes btwn 2 and 3: no btwn 3 and 4: no

the following exposures were acquired on the same radiographic machine. is this machine compliant? 1: 100 kVp, 10 mAs, 1.0 mGy 2: 100 kVp, 20 mAs, 2.1 mGy 3: 100 kVp, 30 mAs, 3.6 mGy 4: 100 kVp, 40 mAs, 4.2 mGy

b

the function of the rectifier(s) within the x-ray circuit is to convert: a) direct current to alternating current b) alternating current to direct current c) high voltage to lower voltage d) low voltage to higher voltage

a) RUQ

the gallbladder of a sthenic patient would normally be found in which of the following quadrants? a) RUQ b) LUQ c) RLQ d) LLQ

shorter

the greater the dose, the ___ the period of latency

60 to 150 lines per inch

the grid frequency ranges from

c) unattenuated exposure

the highest exposure readings on a radiographic histogram usually represent areas of a) soft tissue b) calcification c) unattenuated exposure d) collimation

d) physical damage within the image receptor

the hyper-dense artifact within the radiograph was most likely caused by a) incomplete erasure of the pervious radiograph b) an immobilization device within the exposure field c) pixel malfunction within the image receptor d) physical damage within the image receptor

a) repeating the exposure with a different image receptor

the hyper-dense artifact within this radiograph should be corrected by a) repeating the exposure with a different image receptor b) repeating the exposure with a different x-ray tube c) reprocessing the raw data with a different histogram protocol d) no action is required

twice

the incidence of reactions in a patient with a history of allergy is ___ that of the general population

flux gain

the increase in brightness caused by acceleration of electrons is called

1.78X

the increase in dose for a multi-field image intensifier used in the Mag 1 mode would be

a) period of initial contact prior to the appearance of signs or symptoms

the incubation stage of infection refers to the a) period of initial contact prior to the appearance of signs or symptoms b)N period when there is a feeling of discomfort c) period when most severe signs and symptoms are present d) period during which here is a decline of signs and symptoms

a

the introduction of carbon dioxide with barium sulfate-based examinations of the stomach is required for visualization of the a) stomach mucosa b) stomach size c) position of the stomach d) mobility of the stomach

b) travel in all directions

the isotropic nature of the x-ray beam indicated that the photons a) have different qualities b) travel in all directions c) scatter exponentially d) have different intensities

c) the degree of angle placed on the anode target directly effects the effective focal spot

the key principle behind the line-focus principle is a) the size of the effective focal spot effects the size of the actual focal spot b) a small actual focal spot is needed for large exposure outputs c) the degree of angle placed on the anode target directly effects the effective focal spot d) as effective focal spot size increases, spatial resolution increases

a

the lack of contrast resolution in the following image can be improved by increasing which aspect of the radiography system? a) bit depth b) exposure altitude c) signal-to-noise ratio d) grid ratio

convex

the lateral border of the kidney is

the measurement in inches of the shaft portion

the length of the needle refers to

b) excessive receptor exposure

the loss of soft tissue differentiation in the image below is caused by a) inadequate receptor exposure b) excessive receptor exposure c) incorrect post-processing d) small matrix size

d) spatial resolution

the loss of structural sharpness form off-focus radiation within the primary beam is describes as decreased a) receptor exposure b) contrast c) bit depth d) spatial resolution

b) contrast

the loss of visually distinct brightness levels from off-focus radiation within the primary beam is described as decreased: a) receptor exposure b) contrast c) bit depth d) spatial resolution

c) exposed tissue

the main purpose of effective dose is to project the risk of biological harm based on the a) patient's age b) patient's gender c) exposed tissue d) exposure rate

17 cm, 4 cm

the male urethra is about ___ long. the female urethra is about ___ long.

a) the energy of the incident electron

the maximum energy of a bremsstrahlung photon that can be created during an x-ray exposure is equal to a) the energy of the incident electron b) the binding energy of the k-shell electrons c) the binding energy of the outer shell electrons d) the tube current used for exposure

b) tube potential

the maximum energy of bremsstrahlung photons is controlled by which technical factor? a) tube current b) tube potential c) exposure time d) SID

hilus

the medial border of the kidney contains a slit like aperture called the

concave

the medial border of the kidney is

c) acute hyperglycemia

the medical condition "ketoacidosis" refers to which of the following? a) chronic hypotension b) acute hypertension c) acute hyperglycemia d) chronic hypoglycemia

19, 20, 21, 23, 25

the most common gauge needles are

hives

the most common reaction to iodinated contrast media is

a

the most effective method of sterilization is: a) Steam heat b) Boiling c) Dry heat d) Chemical

2 only

the most useful characteristic x-ray photons are produced when incident electrons interact with 1) outer-shell electrons 2) inner-shell electrons 3) atomic nuclei

b

the normal body temperature taken orally for a healthy adult is: a) 97.6 F b) 98.6 F c) 99.6 F d) 100.6 F

a

the normal range for adult diastolic blood pressure is a) 60-80 b) 80-100 c) 100-120 d) 120-140

b

the normal range for adult pulse rate is a) 40 - 60 bpm b) 60 - 100 bpm c) 80 - 100 bpm d) 100 - 120 bpm

c

the normal range for adult systolic blood pressure is: a) 60-80 b) 80-100 c) 100-120 d) 120-140

a

the normal range for creatinine levels in a healthy adult is a) 0.7 - 1.5 mg/dl b) 1.5 - 3.0 mg/dl c) 7.0 - 20.5 mg/dl d) 20.0 - 35.0 mg/dl

c

the normal range for platelet count is a) 1000 - 4000 b) 50,000 - 150,000 c) 150,000 - 400,000 d) 300,000 - 500,000

a

the photocathode in an image intensifier converts: a) visible light to electrons b) electrons to visible light c) x-rays to visible light d) visible light to x-rays

b

the practice of stopping and starting fluoro using a manual control of exposures is commonly referred to as a) progressive imaging b) intermittent fluoro c) grid-controlled fluoro d) low-frequency

d

the primary function of the autotransformer within the x-ray circuit is to a) supply adequate voltage to the x-ray tube b) modify the exposure time c) supply the adequate current tot eh filament d) modify the x-ray tube voltage

b) rescaling

the process of converting the original radiographic histogram to the expected histogram is called a) histogram analysis b) rescaling c) LUT conversion d) post-processing

a) histogram analysis

the process of identifying the values of interest in a radiographic histogram is called a) histogram analysis b) rescaling c) LUT conversion d) post-processing

a

the purpose of EKG Gating is to: a) obtain images of the heart without motion blur b) obtain images of the heart during contraction c) eliminate the need for continuous EKG monitoring d) ensure the patient is closely monitored during imaging exams

anteriorly

the radial tuberosity should face _____ in a lateral forearm

c

the radiation-sensitive portion of a scintillation detector is composed of a) kyber crystal b) electron-emissive crystal c) light-emissive crystal d) ionized air or gas

b) electron-emissive crystal

the radiation-sensitive portion of a semiconductor detector is composed of a) kyber crystal b) electron-emissive crystal c) light-emissive crystal d) ionized air or gas

d

the radiation-sensitive portion of an ionization chamber is composed of a) vibranium b) semi-conductor crystal c) scintillation crystal d) air

b) Joules/kilogram

the radiological unit called the Gray (Gy) is equal to a) Coulombs/kilogram b) Joules/kilogram c) Exposure x Radiation Weighting Factor d) Coulombs/hour

d

the rectification bridges within the x-ray circuit function to modify the electrical power within the x-ray system by converting a) volts to kilovolts b) low-frequency to high-frequency c) single-phase to three-phase d) alternating current to direct current

b

the red highlighted segment of this electrocardiogram (EKG) pattern is the a) T wave b) QRS complex c) P wave d) ST segment

d) effective dose limits to the whole body

the risk of radiation-induced stochastic effects is reduced by adherence to which of the following dose limits? a) Equivalent dose limits to the skin and extremities b) absorbed dose limits to the skin and extremities c) equivalent dose limits to the whole body d) effective dose limits to the whole body

d) lateral thoracic

the shallow breathing technique is commonly used for which of the following projections of the spine? a) AP cervical b) AP thoracic c) lateral lumbar d) lateral thoracic

larger

the smaller the diameter of the shaft or the finer the needle is, the ____ the gauge number will be.

a

the smallest exposure difference that can be detected and displayed by the imaging system is called: a) contrast resolution b) spatial resolution c) receptor exposure d) subject contrast

d) actual focal spot

the source of x-ray emission within an x-ray tube is called the a) tungsten filament b) cathode filament c) effective focal spot d) actual focal spot

d) 1,000 mA

the space charge effect limits the functional mA of the x-ray tube to approximately a) 10 mA b) 100 mA c) 10,000 mA d) 1,000 mA

c) vidicon or plumbicon tube

the television camera pick-up tube commonly used with video-fluoroscopy is a(n) a) cathode ray tube (CRT) b) solid state computer chip c) vidicon or plumbicon tube d) color picture tube for color video

d

the term "phase" in an x-ray circuit refers to the a) direction of current flow within the circuit b) amplitude of waves within the circuit c) number of wave cycles per second in the circuit d) number of distinct wave cycles in the circuit

b) free electrons

the term "space charge" within the x-ray tube refers to which of the following? a) current induction b) free electrons c) x-ray emission d) thermal radiation

c) heat energy created in the x-ray tube

the term "tube loading" refers to which of the following? a) x-ray intensity created within the x-ray tube b) electron quantity produced within the x-ray tube c) heat energy created in the x-ray tube d) leakage radiation escaping the x-ray tube

b

the term osmolarity refers to a) how a substance dissolves in water b) the concentration of particles in a solution c) whether a molecule separates into ions in a solution d) the thickness of a liquid

b

the turns ratio of a transformer is described as the a) number of primary coils to the number of secondary coils b) number of secondary coils to the number of primary coils c) strength of the primary magnetic field to the strength of the secondary magnetic field d) strength of the secondary magnetic field to the strength of the primary field

pelvis, pubic symphysis

the urinary bladder lies in the ___ behind the ____.

1 and 3

the use of an x-ray tube with a large anode angle results in (select all that apply) 1) increased FSS 2) increased heel effect 3) increased heat capacity

1, 2, and 3

the use of an x-ray tube with a small anode angle results in (select all that apply) 1) decreased FSS 2) decreased heat capacity 3) increased heel effect

c

the voltage difference between the photocathode and anode assembly in an image intensifier a) 50 - 220 volts b) 15,000 - 18,000 volts c) 25,000 - 30,000 volts d) 90 - 150 kVp

b

the waveform in the following is best described as a(n): a) direct current (DC) b) unrectified alternating current (AC) c) half-wave rectified alternating current (AC) d) full-wave rectified alternating current

a) cathode

thermionic emissions occur within the x-ray tube at the a) cathode b) glass envelop c) anode d) tube housing

0.5 mm

thyroid shielding Pb

5%

timer should be within ____ of the time chosen for exposures over 10 ms

d

to avoid damaging the x-ray tube components, the electrical power supplied to the x-ray tube must be a) high voltage b) low voltage c) alternating current d) direct current

c) AP projection with internal rotation of the arm

to demonstrate the lesser tubercle of the Humerus in profile medially, which projection of the shoulder should be obtained? a) AP axial projection b) AP projection with external rotation of the arm c) AP projection with internal rotation of the arm d) inferosuperior axial projection

b

to maintain the same brightness gain, a decrease in flux gain would require a(n): a) increase in image intensifier length b) increase in minification gain c) decrease in kVp d) decrease in photocathode charge

minification x flux gain

total brightness formula

rip off entire zygoma (frontal, maxilla, temporal)

tripod fx

d

turns ratio of a transformer is defined as the ratio of the a) current to the voltage in the primary coil b) current to the voltage in the secondary coil c) number of turns on the primary side to the number of turns on the secondary side d) number of turns on the secondary side to the number of turns on the primary side

anterior, anterior

urinary bladder is ___ to the rectum, and in the female __ to the uterus.

hives

urticaria

b) decreased spatial resolution and increased anode heat capacity

utilizing an x-ray tube with a large anode angle compared to a tube with a small angle and the same size actual focal spot results in: a) increased spatial resolution and increased anode heat capacity b) decreased spatial resolution and increased anode heat capacity c) increased spatial resolution and decreased anode heat capacity d) decreased spatial resolution and decreased anode heat capacity

a) histogram analysis

values of interest (VOI) are determined during a) histogram analysis b) grayscale analysis c) analog data analysis d) value analysis

breakdown of all vessels

vascular collapse

sudden drop in blood pressure with loss of consiousness

vaso-vagal effect

photocathode, electrons

visible light from the input phosphor strikes the _____ and releases ______

13%

voltage ripple for three phase 6 pulse

d) 1.6 mm of lead thickness and 2.1 meters (7 ft) tall

walls that are considered to be primary barriers should be a) 0.25 mm of lead thickness and 1.5 meters (5 ft) tall b) 0.4 mm of lead thickness and 1.5 meters (5 ft) tall c) 0.8 mm of lead thickness and 2.1 meters (7 ft) tall d) 1.6 mm of lead thickness and 2.1 meters (7 ft) tall

c) 0.8 mm of lead thickness and 2.1 meters (7 ft) tall

walls that are considered to be secondary barriers should be a) 0.25 mm of lead thickness and 1.5 meters (5 ft) tall b) 0.4 mm of lead thickness and 1.5 meters (5 ft) tall c) 0.8 mm of lead thickness and 2.1 meters (7 ft) tall d) 1.6 mm of lead thickness and 2.1 meters (7 ft) tall

thyroid gland and eyes

wearing your dosimeter over the apron at the collar level provides an approximate equivalent dose to the ____ and ____ of the occupationally exposed person.

5%

what % do the hypersthenic make

35%

what % do the hyposthenic make

1 and 2

what 2 effects will occur is longer widths of pulsed fluoro are used (select 2) 1) increased pt exposure 2) increased tube heat 3) lower pt exposure 4) decreased tube heat

d) a mask

what MUST be worn when entering the room of a patient in droplet isolation? a) N-95 b) disposable gown c) non-latex gloves d) a mask

b) inferior margin of the ribs

what anatomic landmark lies at the level of the interspace between L2 and L3? a) xiphoid process b) inferior margin of the ribs c) umbilicus d) 7th costal cartilage

d) 15 degrees caudad

what angle of the CR is used for a PA axial (Caldwell) view of the facial bones? a) 10 degrees cephalad b) 10 degrees caudad c) 15 degrees cephalad d) 15 degrees caudad

c

what angle should the OML be for a PA axial (Caldwell method) view of the sinuses with a horizontal beam a) 5 degrees from horizontal b) 10 degrees from horizontal c) 15 degrees from horizontal d) 20 degrees from horizontal

1, 2, and 3

what are the primary advantages f utlizing x-ray imaging equipment with minimal voltage ripple in the x-ray tube circuit? (select all that apply) 1) increased x-ray quantity 2) increase x-ray quality 3) increase x-ray penetrability

synarthroidal, amphiarthroidal, diarthroidal

what are the three functional classifications of joints?

b) scintillator layer

what aspects of a cassette-less image receptor system creates bursts of light? a) thin-film transistor (TFT) array b) scintillator layer c) photodiode d) charge-coupled device

reduced oxygenation of the blood

what causes cyanosis

d) off-focus radiation is out of alignment with the primary beam

what characteristics of off-focus radiation results in a loss of structural sharpness in a radiographic image? a) off-focus radiation is lower energy than the primary beam b) off-focus radiation is less penetrating than the primary bema c) off-focus radiation is lower intensity than the primary beam d) off-focus radiation is out of alignment with the primary beam

b

what class of radiation detection instruments are used to evaluate the effectiveness of lead shielding installed in the walls of an x-ray room? a) equipment survey device b) environment survey device c) personal dosimetry device d) handheld survey meter

b

what component of a PACS network provides permanent storage of image information? a) internet b) archive server c) imaging equipment d) reading stations

b) glass envelope

what component of the x-ray tube is responsible for creating a vacuum around the photon-producing components? a) rotor b) glass envelope c) tube housing d) focusing cup

A

what component represents the semiconductor layer of the semi-conductor detector?

b

what compound is used in flat panel radiography receptor to convert incoming x-rays directly into an electrical signal? a) cesium iodide b) amorphous selenium c) amorphous silicon d) gadolinium

b) high current

what condition is required to induce thermionic emission within the cathode filament? a) low current b) high current c) direct current d

a) IPL

what cranial positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR when positioning the patient for a lateral view of the facial bones a) IPL b) OML c) IOML d) AML

a

what digital process adjusts the original histogram of a radiograph to match the expected histogram of a radiograph? a) rescaling b) lookup table adjustments c) digitization d) histogram analysis

d) radiation type

what does EqD take into account that absorbed dose (D) does not? a) tissue type b) exposure rate c) person's age d) radiation type

b

what does the acronym PACS stand for? a) Picture Acquisition and Communication System b) Picture Archiving and Communication System c) Practitioner Archiving and Communication System d) Practitioner Acquisition and Communication System

drains the liver

what does the right hepatic duct do

a

what drugs are commonly used as premedication to prevent allergic reactions to intravenous (IV) contrast in a patient with a known allergy? a) antihistamines and corticosteroids b) antihistamines and antibiotics c) corticosteroids and antibiotics d) analgesics and anti-inflammatories

d

what exposure setting directly affects the voltage change within the autotransformer? a) mA station b) exposure time c) density setting d) kVp station

LEFT: wedge filter - common for t-spine and feet RIGHT: trough filter (aka double wedge) - common for cxr

what filters are these and what do we commonly use them for

transverse process

what id D

anterior nasal spine

what is B

interphalangeal (IP) joint

what is B

c

what is B a) petrous ridge b) anterior nasal spine of the maxilla c) nasofrontal suture d) frontal sinus

navicular

what is C

c) pyloric portion of the stomach

what is C? a) c-loop of duodenum b) gallbladder c) pyloric portion of the stomach d) left psoas muscle

a

what is D a) low-amperage AC b) low-amperage DC c) high-amperage AC d) high-amperage DC

sagittal suture

what is E

odontoid process (dens)

what is F

dorsum sellae

what is F: a) maxillary sinus b) crista galli c) dorsum sellae d) ethmoid sinus

c) gastric bubble

what is G a) air in small intestine b) air in large intestine c) gastric bubble d) spleen

d

what is a good alternative view to visualize the sphenoid sinuses when the patient cannot perform the SMV position? a) lateral view of the sinuses b) parietoacanthial (Waters) view of the sinuses c) PA axial (Caldwell) view of the sinuses d) parietoacanthial transoral (open-mouth Waters) view of the sinuses

sella turcica

what is it pointing to

b) photon energies (keV)

what is measured during the process of gamma spectroscopy? a) counts per second (CPS) b) photon energies (keV) c) Coulombs per kilogram (C/kg) d) Sieverts per hour (Sv/hr)

b) perp, entering midpoint of sternum's lateral border

what is the CR angulation and entrance point for a lateral projection of the sternum? a) perp, entering midaxillary plane at T7 b) perp, entering midpoint of sternum's lateral border c) 15 degrees caudad entering midaxillary plane at level of T7 d) 20 degrees cephalad entering lateral edge of sternum at level of sternal angle

c) third MCP joint

what is the CR entrance point for a PA projection of the hand? a) base of third metatarsal b) CMC joint c) third MCP joint d) third PIP joint

a) mesentery

what is the appropriate term for the double-walled layer of the peritoneum in which the small bowel is enveloped? a) mesentery b) greater omentum c) lesser omentum d) mesocolon

b) check to make sure the ASIS-to-tabletop distance is equal on both sides

what is the best way to ensure no rotation of the pelvis before exposing the patient for an AP axial inlet projection of the pelvis? a) have the patient bend their knees 45 degrees b) check to make sure the ASIS-to-tabletop distance is equal on both sides c) rotate the lower limbs inward 15 to 20 degrees d) have the patient place their hand sunder their pelvis

1 to 1.5 inches

what is the common length used for intravenous injections?

0.1 microgray to 1,000 microgray

what is the dynamic range exposure values

69 keV

what is the energy of photons at C?

a

what is the function of step-down transformer within the x-ray circuit a) increase current b) increase voltage c) increase frequency d) increase resistance

c

what is the function of the photocathode layer within a scintillation detector a) convert x-rays into electrons b) convert electrons into x-rays c) convert light into electrons d)convert x-rays into more x-rays

a) convert x-rays into electrons

what is the function of the semiconductor crystal within a semi-conductor detector? a) convert x-rays into electrons b) convert electrons into more electrons c) convert light into electrons d) convert x-rays into light

1

what is the highest number that DQE can be

maxillary

what is the largest sinus

a

what is the main reason barium is combined with a sulfate molecule for use as a contrast media? a) it lessens the toxicity of barium by forming a non-water-soluble solution b) it increases the attenuation characteristics of the barium c) it improves the taste of barium for drinkable forms d) it increase the water-solubility o the barium so that it is less toxic

d) pyrexia

what is the medical term for fever? a) apnea b) hypertension c) orthostatic hypotension d) pyrexia

c) deglutition

what is the medical term for swallowing? a) peristalsis b) digestion c) deglutition d) mastication

intravenous urography

what is the most common exam of the urinary tract

S phase

what is the most radioresistant phase of the cell cycle?

M phase

what is the most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle?

a

what is the normal range for GFR? a. 90-120 b. 50-80 c. 20-40 d. 10-20

d

what is the primary difference between direct current (DC) and alternating current (AC) within an electrical circuit? a) maximum power capacity b) minimum power capacity c) velocity of electron flow d) direction of electron flow

1, 2, and 3

what is the primary disadvantage of using a single-phase full-wave rectified generator for x-ray production? (select all that apply) 1) low-energy x-ray beam 2) low intensity x-ray beam 3) low penetrating x-ray beam

a

what is the primary disadvantage of viewing and interpreting diagnostic studied directly through the PACS server? a) if the PACS server goes down, all images are inaccessible b) if the internet is slow, images take longer to access c) prior imaging studied are not easily accessible d) imaging studies are not accessible at all PACS reading stations

c) increased heat capacity

what is the principal advantage of using an x-ray tube equipped with a rotating anode? a) decreased image distortion b) increased image contrast c) increased heat capacity d) increased spatial resolution

c) increased heat capacity

what is the principal advantage of using the large filament within a dual focus x-ray tube? a) decreased image distortion b) increased image contrast c) increased heat capacity d) increased spatial resolution

d) increased spatial resolution

what is the principal advantage of using the small filament within a dual focus x-ray tube? a) decreased image distortion b) increased image contrast c) increased heat capacity d) increased spatial resolution

c) enteroclysis

what is the procedure in which high density barium followed by air or methylcellulose is directly injected into the small bowel through an intestinal tube? a) percutaneous puncture b) parenteral filling c) enteroclysis d) intrathecal filling

b) place the greater trochanters in profile

what is the purpose of internally rotating the feet and lower limbs 15-20 degrees when positioning the patient for an AP pelvis radiograph? a) shorten the femoral neck b) place the greater trochanters in profile c) place the lesser trochanters in profile d) set a dislocated hip

c

what is the relationship between radiation dose and the severity of stochastic effects? a) directly proportional b) indirectly proportional c) there is no relationship

d

what is the secondary (output) voltage of the autotransformer when the assigned tube potential is 110 kVp? a) 220 kV b) 220 V c) 110 kV d) 110 V

d) free electrons

what is the source of the electrical current produced within an ionization chamber? a) acoustic waves b) scintillators c) vibrations d) free electrons

d

what is the source of x-radiation in the x-ray tube? a) tube window b) filament c) focusing cup d) actual focal spot

11 amperes

what is the total current (in amperes) of a series circuit with 220 volts and 20 ohms?

100 volts

what is the total voltage of a parallel circuit the circuit has a current of 20 amps (A) and resistance of 5 ohms?

1:50

what is the turns ratio for a transformer that has 50,000 turns on the primary side and 1000 turns on the secondary side?

ampere

what is the unit for electrical current

b

what is the voltage ripple within a 3-phase 12-pulse x-ray system a) 1% b) 4% c) 14% d) 100%

c

what is the voltage ripple within a 3-phase 6-pulse x-ray system a) 1% b) 4% c) 14% d) 100%

1 and 2

what is/are the recommended treatment(s) if your patient has experienced extravasation of IV contras media? (select all that apply? 1) elevation of the affected area 2) cold or hot compresses 3) administration of an antihistamine 4) a four hour observation of the patient

c

what kind of radiation detection instrument measures the dose to a radiographer? a) equipment survey device b) environment survey device c) personal dosimetry device d) handheld survey meter

a) inverse square law

what law describes the relationship between absorbed dose and the distance from a radiation source? a) inverse square law b) direct square law c) reciprocity law d) radiosensitvity law

Camp Coventry

what method

AP internal

what position

AP neutral

what position

Grashey

what position

left lateral decubitus abdomen

what position

AP external

what positon

a) increase mAs

what procedural change should be use to correct the exposure error visible in the radiograph? a) increase mAs b) decrease kVp c) increase SID d) increase grid ratio

c) absorbed dose

what radiation measurement describes the joules of radiation energy transferred and absorbed in tissue? a) effective dose b) air KERMA c) absorbed dose d) equivalent dose

a) high WR

what radiation weighting factor is assigned to radiation with a large RBE? a) high WR b) low WR c) WR is not influenced by RBE

input phosphor

what receives x-rays from the patient and converts them into visible light

B

what represents the amplifier of the semi-conductor detector?

a semiconductor doesn't contain a photocathode

what represents the photocathode of the semi-conductor detetcor?

b

what software program is sued for digital documentation of all patient health information within an institution? a) Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) b) Electronic Health Record (EMR) c) International Classification of Diseases, ICD-10 d) Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine (DICOM)

a

what step in digital image processing identifies the useful pixel values ("values of interest") in a radiography image? a) histogram analysis b) rescaling c) lookup table adjustments d) digitization

d

what technical factor controls the temperature of the cathode filament within the x-ray tube? a) inherent filtration b) kVp c) exposure time (s) d) mA

b) kVp

what technical factor is responsible for accelerating electrons through the x-ray tube? a) mA b) kVp c) exposure time (s) d) filament current

c) attenuation

what term describes a reduction of x-ray beam intensity through scatter and absorption? a) transmission b) fogging c) attenuation d) disintegration

d) thermionic emission

what term describes the process through which free electrons are created within the x-ray tube? a) radioactivity b) photoelectric effect c) bremsstrahlung d) thermionic emission

a

what thickness of protective shielding is required in the Bucky slot cover of a fluoroscopic imaging unit? a) 0.25 mm lead b) 0.25 mm aluminum c) 0.5 mm lead d) 0.5 mm aluminum

a

what tube angulation is normally used for an erect anteroposterior (AP) apical lordotic projection of the lungs? a) central ray is perpendicular b) central ray angled 10-15 degrees caudad c) central ray angled 25-30 degrees cephalad d) central ray angled 30-35 degrees cephalad

d

what type of device is the mA selector? a) capacitor b) inverter c) rectifier d) rheostat

film

what type of imaging has the lowest DQE

a

what type of radiation detection instrument is used to check the mA and kVp accuracy of an x-ray machine? a) equipment survey device b) environment survey device c) personal dosimetry device d) occupational dosimetry device

b

what type of rectification has occurred when the negative polarity of an alternating waveform has been inverted so that all electrons within the waveform flow in the same direction? a) half-wave rectification b) full-wave rectification c) non-rectification

b

what type of transformer must be used in the filament circuit in order for thermionic emission to be possible? a) step-up transformer b) step-down transformer c) autotransformer

d) all of the above

what variables must be known to calculate the effective dose for a patient or occupational worker? a) absorbed dose b) radiation type c) exposed tissue types d) all of the above

600,000 volts

what voltage is produced by a transformer with a 1,000:1 turns ratio is the incoming voltage is 600?

a

what waveform is represented in the following image? a) single-phase unrectified b) single-phase half-wave rectified c) three-phase six-pulse d) high-frequency

c

what waveform is represented in the following image? a) single-phase unrectified b) three-phase unrectified c) three-phase six-pulse d) high-frequency

b

what waveform is represented in the following image? a) single-phase unrectified b) single-phase half-wave rectified c) single-phase full-wave rectified d) high-frequency

b

what waveform is represented in the following image? a) single-phase unrectified b) three-phase unrectified c) three-phase six-pulse d) high-frequency

c

what waveform is represented in the image below? a) single phase unrectified b) single-phase half-wave rectified c) single-phase full-wave rectified d) three-phase six-pulse

d

what waveform is represented in the image below? a) single-phase half-wave rectified b)single-phase full-wave rectified c) three-phase six-pulse d) high-frequency

b

when a PACS network runs through a standard web-based network, this may have a negative impact in what way? a) if the PACS server goes down, all images are inaccessible b) if the internet is slow, images take longer to access c) prior imaging studies are not easily accessible d) imaging studies are not accessible at all PACS reading stations

c) danelius-miller

when a trauma hip and proximal femur need to be assessed in trauma situations and the affected leg cannot be moved, which method is preferred to obtain a lateral view? a) modified cleaves method b) clements-nakayama c) danelius-miller d) teufel

b

when all exposure factors are the same, what type of rectification will produce an x-ray beam with the greatest intensity? a) half-wave rectification b) full-wave rectification

d

when calculating the heat units for a particular exam, in addition to technical factor used, it may be necessary to consider which of the following additional factors? a) age of the patient b) speed of the anode c) focal spot size d) number of exposures

d

when compared to fluoroscopic image intensifiers, flat panel fluoroscopic digital detectors offer a) improved spatial resolution b) better low contrast resolution c) lower pt dose d) all of the above

b

when comparing flat panel fluoroscopic system designs a) radiologist preference is of little value due to cost b) image resolution is essentially the same between designs c) remote operation of system features is unnecessary d) positioning of the video display monitor must be at eye level

b) repeat the radiograph with the shoulders rolled forward

when evaluating a PA chest radiograph the tech noticed that the trachea is superimposed over the spinous processes of the spine, the clavicles are in the same horizontal plane, the aortic arch lies to the left of the vertebrae, 10 posterior ribs are visible above the level of the diaphragm, and the scapulae overlie the lateral edges of the lungs. what should the tech do? a) pass the radiograph these are acceptable evaluation criteria b) repeat the radiograph with the shoulders rolled forward c) repeat the radiograph with better inspiration d) repeat the radiograph with the patient rotated more toward the left

a) 80 cm from the x-ray tube

when measuring the intensity of the primary beam, what dosimeter position will demonstrate the highest air KERMA? a) 80 cm from the x-ray tube b) 100 cm from the x-ray tube c) 120 cm from the x-ray tube d) dosimeter position does not affect air KERMA

c) 3 meters from the patient

when measuring the quantity of scatter radiation during a fluoroscopy procedure, what dosimeter position will demonstrate the lowest exposure rate a) 1 meter from the patient b) 2 meters from the patient c) 3 meters from the patient d) dosimeter position does not affect exposure rate

a) 45

when performing a "frog-leg" lateral image of the hip using the modified Cleaves method, the femur should be abducted how many degrees? a) 45 b) 30-35 c) 25 d) 15-20

b

when performing a PA axial projection of the skull (Caldwell), what is the rationale for using a 15-degrees caudal angulation on the central ray? The petrous portions of the temporal bones are projected a) directly over the orbits b) into the lower 1/3 of the orbits c) just inferior to the orbits d) into the lower 1/3 of the maxillary sinuses

a) 2" superior to the iliac crest

when performing a dorsal decub abdomen radiograph, the central ray should enter the midcoronal plane a) 2" superior to the iliac crest b) at the level of the ASIS c) 2" inferior to IC d) at the level of IC

b

when performing a parietoacanthial sinus radiograph, Waters view, what mistake has been made if the petrous portion of the temporal bone superimposes the maxillary sinus? a) no mistake has been made, the structures should be superimposed b) the head is not tipped back far enough and the OML does not form a 37-degree angle with the IR c) the head is tipped back too far and the OML does not form a 37-degree angle with the IR d) the MSP was not perpendicular to the IR

c) OML

when performing an AP axial projection of the TMJs, modified Towne method, MSP is perpendicular to the IR. what other line should be adjusted perpendicular to the IR? a) IPL b) IOML c) OML d) MML

b) places femoral necks parallel to the IR

when performing an AP projection of the pelvis, what is the purpose for internal rotation of the legs? a) ensures patient comfort b) places femoral necks parallel to the IR c) decreases the possibility of pelvic rotation d) overcomes tilt of the pelvic girdle

a

when performing fluoroscopic procedures the x-ray beam must do which of the following? a) aligned with the center of the IR b) be positioned above the patient c) be positioned below the patient d) centered to the patient's anatomy of interest

c

when performing fluoroscopy with a fluoroscopic grid: a) the automatic brightness control (ABC) is inactivated b) the SID between the receptor and fluoroscopic x-ray tube must remained fixed c) grid cut-off is not an issue d) magnification fluoroscopy is not possible

a) photon energies

when performing gamma spectroscopy, a semiconductor detector is used to measure a) photon energies b) radioactivity c) occupation radiation dose d) patient radiation dose

a) 20-35 cephalad

when positioning a male patient for an AP axial outlet projection of the pelvis, what is the proper angulation of the CR? a) 20-35 cephalad b) 20-35 caudal c) 30-45 cephalad d) 30-45 caudal

c) acanthion

when positioning a patient for a parietoacanthial (Waters) view of the facial bones, the CR should exit which surface landmark? a) glabella b) nasion c) acanthion d) mental point

b

when positioning the patient for a PA axial (Caldwell) view of the sinuses with a horizontal beam, where should the CR exit? a) acanthion b) nasion c) glabella d) mental point

c

when positioning the patient for a Parietoacanthial (Waters method) view of the sinuses with a horizontal beam, where should the CR exit? a) glabella b) nasion c) acanthion d) mental point

b

when positioning the patient for a SMV view of the sinuses with a horizonal beam, which cranial positioning line should be parallel to the imaging surface? a) OML b) IOML c) AML d) MML

b) 15

when positioning the patient for a modified axiolateral view (Clements-Nakayama) of the hip and proximal femur, how many degrees should the IR be tilted form vertical? a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 0

b) femoral neck

when positioning the patient for an axiolateral inferosuperior trauma projection of the hip and proximal femur, the IR should be adjusted so it is parallel to what part of the femur? a) femoral head b) femoral neck c) femoral shaft d) greater trochanter

b) OML

when positioning the patient for the PA axial (caldwell) view of the facial bones, which cranial positioning line should e perpendicular to the IR? a) IOML b) OML c) IPL d) AML

c) insufficient receptor exposure

when reviewing the radiographic exposure indicator, an S number significantly above 200 indicates a) insufficient image contrast b) excessive image contrast c) insufficient receptor exposure d) excessive receptor exposure

d) excessive receptor exposure

when reviewing the radiographic exposure indicator, an S number significantly below 200 indicates a) insufficient image contrast b) excessive image contrast c) insufficient receptor exposure d) excessive receptor exposure

increase

when the LET of radiation increases, the RBE will

b) decrease

when the distance from the x-ray source is increased, air KERMA will a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same

b

when three incident photons strike the input phosphor and produce the 4,500 light photons from the output phosphor, the: a) minification gain decreases b) flux gain is 1,500 c) brightness gain is 1,500 d) flux gain is 13,500

c

when unit of measure is displayed on the output screen when using a scintillation detector to measure photon energy? a) Sieverts b) Gray c) kilo-electron volts d) counts per minute

d) 120 mGy

when using a 14 x 17 exposure field, the intensity of the CR measures 100 mGy. what is the approximate intensity of the beam within the cathode side of the x-ray field? a) 80 mGy b) 90 mGy c) 100 mGy d) 120 mGy

d

when using a scintillation detector to measure radioactivity, what unit of measurement displays on the output screen a) Sieverts b) Gray c) kilo-electron volts d) counts per minute

b) mA

when using fluoroscopy, which of the following is directly proportional to the exposure delivered to the patient? a) kVp b) mA c) thickness of the filter d) target-to-tabletop distance

a

when utilizing a multi-field intensifier in the Mag 2 mode, what should you expect to happen when switching to he Mag 1 mode a) decreased spatial resolution b) less anatomical coveage c) dramatically decreased image brightness d) increased patient dose

a

where does quantization take place during x-ray image processing? a) in the analog-to-digital converter b) in the detector assembly c) in the x-ray tube housing d) in the technologist's control console

a

where should the CR be centered for a lateral view of the sinuses a) midway between the outer canthus and the EAM b) at the EAM c) at the zygoma d) midway between the zygoma and the EAM

b

where should the CR be directed for a lateral radiograph of the nasal bones? a) 1/2 inch superior to the nasion b) 1/2 inch inferior to the nasion c) 1/2 inch posterior to the nasion d) 1/2 inch anterior to the nasion

d) acanthion

where should the CR exit when positioning a patient for a modified parietoacanthial (Waters method) view of the facial bones? a) EAM b) glabella c) nasion d) acanthion

1, 2, 6

which 3 of he following medications are considered analgesics? 1) acetaminophen 2) ibuprofen 3) lidocaine 4) valium 5) diphenhydramine 6) aspirin

1, 2, and 3

which 3 of the following are required if a study requires panning or sweeping 1) shorter pulse widths 2) faster frame rates 3) shorter pulse intervals 4) longer frame rates

1, 2, 4

which 3 of the following pathologies would be considered indications for double-contrast UGI studies 1) gastric ulcer 2) carcinoma 3) achalasia 4) gastric polyp 5) pyloric stenosis

2, 3, and 4

which 3 of the following structures is commonly seen on a correctly centered AP supine (KUB) abdomen radiograph of a hyposthenic patient? 1) diaphragm 2) femoral head 3) ischial spines 4) transverse processes of L5

a

which aspect of the x-ray circuit is primarily responsible for controlling the voltage applied to the x-ray tube? a) primary circuit b) secondary circuit c) filament circuit

systolic

which blood pressure reading is associated with the contraction of the left ventricle?

2 and 3

which bones make up the obturator foramen? 1) ilium 2) ischium 3) pubis 4) femur 5) sacrum

a

which change will increase the contrast resolution of a radiographic system? a) increased bit depth b) increased receptor size c) increased exposure latitude d) decreased pixel size

1, 2, and 3

which characteristic of tungsten metal make it an ideal material for the construction of a radiographic anode? (Select all that apply) 1) atomic number 2) thermal conductivity 3) melting point

b

which component of a scintillator detector creates the initial electrical signal? a) scintillation crystal b) photocathode layer c) photomultiplier tube d) metal housing

a) photoconductor crystal

which component of a semi-conductor detector creates the initial electrical signal? a) photoconductor crystal b) photocathode c) amplifier d) metal housing

d) rectifiers

which component of the x-ray circuit ensures that electrons flow in only one direction through the x-ray tube? a) kVp selector b) line voltage compensator c) step-up transformer d) rectifiers

a) cathode filament

which component of the x-ray tube is responsible for creating a source of free electrons? a) cathode filament b) anode target c) vacuum envelope d) lead housing

1, 2, and 3

which components in the x-ray circuit must receive AC in order to function? 1) autotransformer 2) step-up transformer 3) step-down transformer

b

which cranial positioning line should be parallel to the IR (if possible) when positioning he patient for a SMV skull radiograph? a) OML b) IOML c) MML d) AML

c) MML

which cranial positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR when positioning a patient for a parietoacanthial (Waters) view of the facial bones? a) IPL b) lips-meatal line (LML c) MML d) GML

c

which cranial positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR with no tilt of the head to ensure the head is in a true lateral position for a lateral sinus radiograph? a) OML b) IOML c) IPL d) AML

c

which device in a cassette-less image receptor converts light into electrons? a) thin-film transistor (TFT) array b) scintillator layer c) photodiode d) amorphous selenium detector

a) effective dose

which dose measurement is used to predict stochastic effects such as cancer? a) effective dose b) equivalent dose c) radiation weight factor d) tissue weighting factor

non-ionic

which has less chance of mild contrast reaction ionic or non-ionic

right (because of the liver)

which kidney is lower right or left?

c

which labeled segment of the electrocardiogram (EKG) wave is a recording of the electrical stimulation causing atrial contraction?

D

which letter is the greater trochanter

c

which method of demonstrating the IC fossa places the pt in an AP axial position? a) camp coventry method b) holmblad method c) beclere method d) rosenberg method

c

which of eh following is a key advantage of flat panel fluoroscopic detectors (FPFD)? a) round shape b) heavier weight c) flat surface input design d) all of the above

c) right kidney

which of the following abdominal organs is classified as retroperitoneal? a) stomach b) bladder c) right kidney d) transverse colon

b

which of the following advantages do photospot image present that fluoroscopic images do not? a) fluoroscopic images show less motion distortion b) photospot images reveal better spatial and contrast resolution c) fluoroscopic images show improved visibility of grid lines d) photospot images reveal elongated images due to detector length

a) 6 degrees

which of the following anode angles with the same size actual focal spot can create a radiographic image demonstrating the highest spatial resolution? a) 6 degrees b) 12 degrees c) 18 degrees d) 22 degrees

d) 20 degrees

which of the following anode angles with the same size actual focal spot can tolerate the highest technical setting without overheating? a) 6 degrees b) 12 degrees c) 18 degrees d) 20 degrees

c

which of the following are NOT used in direct capture CR systems? a) DELs b) CCDs c) plate readers d) TFTs

2 and 4

which of the following are characteristic of barium sulfate? (select all that apply) 1) it is water-soluble 2) it a a suspension 3) it has a low atomic number 4) it has a high atomic number

2 and 3

which of the following are desired characteristics of iodine contrast media to make it appropriate for injection and to decrease the likelihood of adverse reactions? (select all that apply) 1) ionic form 2) water-soluble 3) low osmolarity

c

which of the following are properties of positive contrast agents? 1) composed of low-atomic number elements 2) increase x-ray attenuation 3) produce areas of decreased density on the image a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, and 3

a

which of the following are true regarding multi-field image intensifiers? a) they use a single input phosphor b) they are typically smaller than single-field intensifiers c) they are much more dose efficient than single-field intensifiers d) they are typically not used on mobile c-arms

a. A series of timed KUBs

which of the following best describes an exam of the small bowel? a. A series of timed KUBs b. Images of the small bowel to include AP, RPO,LPO and left lateral c. RAO and LPO positions in addition to AP and PA d. Horizontal and ⊥ central ray

a

which of the following best describes image intensifiers at a basic, technological level? a) energy conversion tubes b) x-ray minification devices c) large digital storage capacitors d) solid-state devices operating at room temperature

a

which of the following bit depth enables a radiography system to display the greatest amount of anatomic information in an image? a) 12-bit system b) 8-bit system c) 4-bit system d) 2-bit system

a) 6 x6

which of the following collimation settings will demonstrate the most uniform beam intensity within the exposure field a) 6 x6 b) 8 x 10 c) 10 x 12 d) 17 x 17

a

which of the following contrast agents, when added to the body, decreases the tissue density of the body part? a) carbon dioxide b) gastrografin c) barium sulfate d) omnipaque

b) center of IR midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

which of the following correctly describes IR centering of an AP image of the pelvis? a) top of IR 3 inches superior to the level of iliac crests b) center of IR midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis c) center of the IR 2 inches inferior to the level of the pubic symphysis d) top if the IR 1 inch inferior to the level of the ASIS

d

which of the following creatinine mg/dl levels would be considered abnormal? a) 0.8 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0

a

which of the following definitions accurately describes the term "gain" in the context of fluoroscopic image intensification? a) amplification of the electrical signal b) compounding of anode charges c) use of rare-earth elements in components d) the degree of electrical current rectification

b. 2" inferior to the ASIS and MSP

which of the following describes the correct centering point for the AP Axial projection of the colon? a. 1-2" lateral to the MSP on the elevated side at the ICs b. 2" inferior to the ASIS and MSP c. MSP and ICs d. MSP and ASISs

a

which of the following devices acts as a switch to release the electric charge collected by the detector element? a) thin-film transistor (TFT) b) scintillator layer c) photodiode d) charge-coupled device (CCD)

b

which of the following devices collects the light signal released by PSP in the plate reader? a) thin-film transistor (TFT) b) photomultiplier tube (PMT) c) scintillator d) analog-to-digital converter (ADC)

d

which of the following devices is located within the secondary circuit of the x-ray system? a) kVp meter b) exposure timer c) mA selector d) x-ray tube

c

which of the following effects is most likely to occur at low doses of radiation? a) hair loss b) skin burns c) cancer d) cataracts

2 and 3

which of the following exposure readings are processed as part of the "values of interest" within a radiographic image 1) collimator leaves 2) patient anatomy 3) medical implants

a) 10 mAs and 55 kVp

which of the following exposure settings will NOT create k-shell characteristic x-rays? a) 10 mAs and 55 kVp b) 2.5 mAs and 70 kVp c) 10 mAs and 100 kVp d) 30 mAs and 130 kVp

a

which of the following factors influence the grayscale of a digital radiograph? a) bit depth b) matrix size c) pixel size d) pixel pitch

1, 2, 3, and 4

which of the following features are typically included in fluoroscopic room systems? (select all that apply) 1) Trendelenburg and full upright, tilt capabilities 2) dead-man exposure switch on the floor 3) patient footboard 4) primary barrier

1 and 2

which of the following identifiers are required by law to be included on a radiographic image? 1) pt date of birth 2) pt name 3) pt address 4) pt MRN

3 and 4

which of the following identifiers are required by law to be included on a radiographic image? 1) techs initials or identification number 2) pt social security number 3) location of exam 4) right or left marker

a) date of the exam

which of the following identifiers are required by law to be included on a radiographic image? a) date of the exam b) exposure indicator c) referring physician d) all of the above

d

which of the following include a risk factor for nephrotoxicity a) elevated BUN or creatinine b) diabetes c) heart disease d) all of the above

a) suspended breathing

which of the following indicated the appropriate breathing instructions for an AP projection of the hip? a) suspended breathing b) inspiration c) expiration d) quiet breathing

b) exposure

which of the following is NOT a measure of radiation in tissue? a) effective dose b) exposure c) absorbed dose d) equivalent dose

d) to measure dose to the patient

which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to use exposure and air KERMA? a) to test tube output b) to measure leakage radiation c) to measure scatter radiation d) to measure dose to the patient

b) a source of radioactivity

which of the following is NOT required for x-ray production? a) a source of electrons b) a source of radioactivity c) a means of rapidly accelerating electrons d) a means of rapidly decelerating electrons

b

which of the following is a byproduct of the metabolic activity in the muscles? a) urea b) creatinine c) iodine d) nitrogen

c

which of the following is a key advantage of spot fil radiography a) patient dose b) image blooming c) improved spatial resolution d) lower contrast resolution

c

which of the following is a key component in the fluoroscopic imaging chain? a) lead curtain b) patient table footboard c) image intensifier assembly d) overhead radiographic x-ray tube

d

which of the following is a type of ionization chamber? a) TLD b) OSL c) high-purity germanium detector d) GM counter

d

which of the following is accurate of flat panel fluoroscopic detectors? a) they have a rectangular shape b) they can be positioned to match the shape orientation of patient anatomy c) they are capable of radiographic exposures d) all of the above

b

which of the following is accurate regarding dual-field image intensifiers? a) two x-ray tube focal sports are utilized simultaneously b) dual-field image intensifiers have a single input fields c) dual-field image intensifiers typically require less radiation dose in the magnification mode d) dual-field image intensifiers is capable of up to three fields of magnification

d

which of the following is accurate regarding flat panel digital fluoroscopy? a) fluoroscopic images have less resolution b) the photocathode is critically important c) there is no light creation from x-ray stimulation d) a television monitor is required for viewing

d

which of the following is accurate regarding fluoroscopic grids used during digital fluoroscopy? a) grids have extended focal range out to 60 inches b) they can be rotated in position that is opposite to the position of the IR c) grids are part of the digital detector design and cannot be removed d) grids are also also used for radiographic imaging

d

which of the following is accurate regarding grids that are used with flat panel digital fluoroscopic systems? a) they are circular in shape but thicker than a radiographic grid b) they have a low frequency c) they are automatically removed for electronic magnification fluoroscopy d) they are rectangular and match the shape and dimension of the detector

b

which of the following is emitted at the output phosphor? a) electrons b) visible light c) x-ray photons d) gamma photons

b

which of the following is necessary in order to capture a digital photospot image? a) receptor must be in the analog mode b) video-fluoroscopy must be halted momentarily c) fluoroscopic grid must be removed to prevent cut-off d) x-ray tube must be at its lowest heat level

c) volts

which of the following is needed to move electrons through a circuit? a) amperes b) ohms c) volts d) coulombs

d) high current

which of the following is required for the induction of thermionic emission within the x-ray tube? a) low current b) direct current c) alternating current d) high current

c

which of the following is the ability to produce quality radiographs at a wide range of technical factors? a) contrast resolution b) spatial resolution c) exposure latitude d) bit depth

c) intertrochanteric crest

which of the following is the correct term for the ridge of bone between the greater and lesser trochanters? a) auricular surface b) subtrochanteric line c) intertrochanteric crest d) fovea capitis

c

which of the following is the first order of events when operating an image intensifier? a) electrons emitted upon light stimulation b) light emission from electron excitation c) x-rays striking the input phosphor d) bright light is emission collected by charge-couple-device (CCD)

b

which of the following is the main disadvantage of accessing the PACS server through the internet on a basic desktop computer and monitor? a) increased archive retrieval time b) decreased image quality c) inability to access archived studies d) there is no disadvantage

b

which of the following is the measurement used for time in pulsed fuoro? a) nanoseconds b) miliseconds c) microseconds d) seconds

d

which of the following is the most commonly used beam restricting device? a) aperture diaphragm b) grid c) shield d) collimator

a

which of the following is the unit of measure for display monitor luminance a) Cd/m2 b) mGy/s c) Lp/mm d) lines/cm

b

which of the following is true regarding fluoroscopic grids? a) they are specific to fluoroscopy, with concentric lead circular rings b) they are similar to radiographic grids in design c) they are built into the interior structure of the image intensifier d) they are non-focused and high ratio

1, 2, 3, and 4

which of the following lab tests would be a test relating to blood coagulation? (select all that apply) 1) PT 2) platelet count 3) PTT 4) INR

d) xiphoid process

which of the following landmarks could be considered a reliable indicator of the hypersthenic patient's, or obese patient's, MSP when performing abdomen images? a) jugular notch b) umbilicus c) transverse process of L1 d) xiphoid process

d) nitroglycerine

which of the following medications would most likely be given to a patient suffering from angina pectoris? a) aspirin b) epinephrine c) heparin d) nitroglycerine

a

which of the following negatively impacts spatial resolution in fluoroscopy a) binning b) brightness level c) kVp d) decreased FOV

c) electron focal point shifts closer to the photocathode

which of the following occurs when a multi-field image intensifier is used in the magnification (mag) mode? a) minification gain remains unchanged in the Mag mode b) dose to the patient increases based upon the fluoroscopic miliamperage (mA) used c) electron focal point shifts closer to the photocathode d) spatial resolution decreases

a) lower poles of the kidneys

which of the following portions of the urinary system would normally be visible on a preliminary intravenous urogram image? a) lower poles of the kidneys b) right and left ureter c) urinary blander d) major calyx

c

which of the following processes us used to display the digital image with the ideal brightness and contrast a) histogram analysis b) rescaling c) lookup table (LUT) adjustments d) digitization

d) lateral wrist

which of the following projections would best demonstrate dislocation of the lunate? a) AP wrist b) PA oblique wrist c) PA wrist d) lateral wrist

a) cancer

which of the following radiation effects are most likely in diagnostic medical imaging? a) cancer b) skin erythema c) epilation d) acute radiation syndrome

a) effective dose

which of the following radiation measurements are used to quantify the risk of long-term radiation injuries, such as cancer? a) effective dose b) exposure c) absorbed dose d) equivalent dose

d) persistent vomiting

which of the following represents a moderate reaction to iodinated contrast media? a) scattered hives b) rhinorrhea c) pruritic d) persistent vomiting

d

which of the following respiration rates would most likely apply to an adult patient with a diagnosis of tachypnea? a) 6 breaths per minute b) 12 breaths per minute c) 20 breaths per minute d) 30 breaths per minute

a

which of the following should be avoided if possible when imaging morbidly obese patients using direct radiography (DR) image receptors? a) the use of full 17x17" radiation field b) the use of a grid c) the use of automatic exposure control (AEC) d) the use of positive beam limitation

b

which of the following statements about barium sulfate contrast media is true? a) it is water-soluble and can be used as IV injection b) it attenuates radiation more than normal body tissues c) it dissolves in solution d) it has an atomic number similar to that of body tissues

a

which of the following statements are accurate regarding fluoroscopic systems that use flat panel digital detectors for fluoroscopy? a) flat panel detectors replace the image intensifier tube b) flat panel detectors do not need a fluoroscopic grid c) flat panel detectors do not require a fluoroscopic lead drape to protect the operator d) flat panel detectors still present image quality issues such as vignetting and image fall-off

d

which of the following statements describes the basic construction of an autotransformer within the x-ray circuit? a) an air core and a single wire coil b) an air core and double wire coil c) an iron core and a double wire coil d) an iron core and a single wire coil

d

which of the following statements is accurate regarding fluoroscopic grids used with image intensifiers? a) fluoroscopic grids are the same size as the output phosphor b) fluoroscopic grids are unnecessary, since the scatter production is very low with intensifiers c) fluoroscopic grids are automatically removed during magnification fluoroscopy d) fluoroscopic grids are circular in shape to match the input phosphor size

d

which of the following statements is accurate regarding image intensifiers? a) image intensifier technology for fluoroscopy was first used in the military with "night-vision" goggles b) the input phosphor of an image intensifier must be elliptical in shape to ensure even brightness from the output phosphor c) image intensifiers increase their efficiencies as they age and are used on a routine basis d) the photocathode layer f an image intensifier is responsible for the liberation of electrons, which are then accelerated toward an anode disc

a) tuberosity

which of the following structures is considered to be pa rt of the ischium? a) tuberosity b) arcuate line c) greater sciatic notch d) posterior inferior iliac spine

b) lesser trochanter visible on medial side on femur

which of the following structures is demonstrated on a correctly positioned lateral hip image? a) greater trochanter in profile b) lesser trochanter visible on medial side on femur c) femoral head superimposed by ischial spine d) superior pubic ramus free of shape distortion

b) sternal angle

which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between T4 and T5? a) jugular notch b) sternal angle c) manubrium d) xiphoid

b) cecum

which of the following structures would most commonly be found in the RLQ of the abdomen a) right kidney b) cecum c) tail of pancreas d) descending colon

1 and 2

which of the following technical factors will DECREASE the air KERMA measured in the primary beam? (select all that apply) 1) decrease mA 2) decrease kVp 3) decrease distance 4) increase kVp

d) asymmetric collimation

which of the following technologist mistakes is most likely to cause processing errors within a CR system? a) incorrect focal spot selection b) failure to include a radiographic marker c) incorrect SID d) asymmetric collimation

b) bradypnea

which of the following terms would be appropriate if your patient's respiratory rate is severely decreased? a) apnea b) bradypnea c) dyspnea d) orthopnea

b

which of the following waveforms is NOT a type of pulsating direct current? a) single-phase full-wave rectified b) three-phase unrectified c) three-phase six-pulse d) high-frequency

B

which of the following waveforms would result in electrons flowing back and forth between anode and cathode during the x-ray exposure?

d

which of the following will improve an image intensifier's efficiency? a) best used in the upright position b) consist of a rotating anode disc assembly c) works better in a colder room environment d) contain a perfect vaccuum as part of i's tube design

b

which of the following would be indicated by a higher than normal PT or PTT value? a) the patient should not receive iodinated contrast media due to impaired kidney function b) a procedure requiring a large spinal needle may need to be avoided c) all injections should be completely avoided d) all types of contrast media should be avoided

d) severe, chronic Chron's disease

which of the following would most likely require an erect AP abdomen radiograph to demonstrate the layering of air and fluid associated with the patient's pathology? a) longstanding gastritis b) acute abdominal aortic aneurysm c) metastatic adrenal tumor d) severe, chronic Chron's disease

a) single-phase full-wave rectified

which of the following x-ray generators creates a waveform in which the voltage fluctuates from the maximum voltage to zero volts with every pulse? a) single-phase full-wave rectified b) three-phase unrectified c) three-phase six-pulse d) high-frequency

a

which of the following x-ray systems will have the highest contrast resolution? a) 12-bit system b) 8-bit system c) 4-bit system d) 2-bit system

c) semiconductor detectors do not create visible light

which of the statements below describes the major difference between scintillation detectors and semiconductor detectors? a) scintillation detectors do not produce an electrical signal b) scintillation detectors use a gas chamber c) semiconductor detectors do not create visible light d) semiconductor detectors cannot detect gamma radiation

d

which of the tangential projection of the patella requires a 90-degree minimum flexion of knee? a) merchant bilateral method b) hughston method c) inferosuperior method d) settegast method

a) breasts

which of these body tissues is most likely to develop cancer from exposure to equal doses of ionizing radiation? a) breasts b) skin c) brain d) spleen

d) photocathode

which of these components is NOT required in the construction of a semiconductor radiation detector? a) semi-conductor crystal b) display screen c) amplifier d) photocathode

c) Geiger (GM) detectors

which of these devices is most commonly used for detecting radioactive contamination? a0 semiconductor detectors b) scintillation detectors c) Geiger (GM) detectors d) personal dosimeters

c

which of these devices would be most useful for quickly identifying objects contaminated by a gamma-emitting radionuclide? a) TLD b) OSL c) ionization chamber d) semiconductor

2 and 3

which of these events resulting in radiation energy being absorbed in the body during a radiographic procedure? (select all that apply) 1) transmission 2) Compton scattering 3) photoelectric effect

b, c, d

which of these exposure times are within acceptable limits when the exposure time on the operator's console is set to 200 milliseconds select multiple answers a) 211 ms b) 208 ms c) 204 ms d) 192 ms e) 189 ms

a

which of these processes identifies the "values of interest" in a radiograph before processing? a) histogram analysis b) rescaling c) lookup table adjustments d) digitization

d) cancer

which of these radiation injuries is NOT evaluated using the absorbed dose? a) hair loss b) diminished sperm count c) skin erythema d) cancer

2 and 5

which of these radiation measurements are commonly used to evaluate the intensity of the x-ray beam in air? (select multiple) 1) absorbed dose 2) air kerma 3) effective dose 4) equivalent dose 5) exposure

a) alpha

which of these radiation types have the highest LET? a) alpha b) beta c) gamma d) ultraviolet

d) 17 mGy absorbed dose to the lungs from alpha

which of these situations results in the highest probability of causing radiation-induced cancer? a) 98 mGy absorbed dose to the gonads from gamma b) 72 mGy absorbed dose to the stomach from beta c) 302 mGy absorbed dose to the bran from x-radiation d) 17 mGy absorbed dose to the lungs from alpha

a

which part of the PACS system houses all of the historic digital digital image data along with the current digital data being generated by the modalities? a) archive server b) display workstation c) radiologist reading station d) administrative workstation

a) pyloric canal

which part of the stomach communicates with the duodenal bulb? a) pyloric canal b) cardiac sphincter c) body d) fundus

a) duodenum

which portion of the following is the shortest portion of the small intestines? a) duodenum b) jejunum c) ileum d) pylorus

b) lateral

which position or projection of the chest would best demonstrate a potential lesion that lies between the ehart and spine? a) PA b) lateral c) AP d) right lateral decub

frontal sinus

which sinus group

b) the tail of the pancreas lies near the hilum of the spleen

which statement regarding the pancreas is true? a) the head of the pancreas lies in the LUQ b) the tail of the pancreas lies near the hilum of the spleen c) secretions of the pancreas empty into the jejunum d) the body of the pancreas lies anterior to the body of the stomach

b

which technology collect light from the output phosphor to create a television image for viewing? a) vidicon television pick-up tube b) solid-state charge-couple-device (CCD) c) plumbicon image orthicon tube d) liquid crystal, light-emitting diode (LED) nanotube

c) LUT conversion

which term describes the process of adding brightness and contrast to exposure values within a radiographic image? a) histogram analysis b) rescaling c) LUT conversion d) post-processing

2, 3, and 4

which three of the following are characteristics of fluoroscopic grids? 1) lead strips that can change their orientation with the angle of the central ray 2) grid ratios similar to radiographic grids 3) scatter/secondary radiation control to improve image subject contrast 4) focal range that is consistent with the variable SID of receptor

1, 3, 4

which three of the following are considered as examples of a "symptom" and not a "sign" 1) anxiety 2) bloody nose 3) fatigue 4) malaise 5) rash

1, 2, 5

which three of the following are typical contrast administration used in the medical imaging department? 1) antegrade 2) retrograde 3) intramuscular 4) subcutaneous 5) intrathecal 6) sublingual

1, 3, 5

which three of the following medications are considered to be opioid analgesics? (select three) 1) codeine 2) ibuprofen 3) morphine 4) acetaminophen 5) oxycodone

1, 3, 5

which three of the following statements are true about endochondral bone formation? (select three) 1) the epiphyseal plate is found between the metaphysis and epiphysis 2) takes place in bones needed for protection such as the bones of the calvaria 3) the primary center of ossification is also known the diaphysis 4) epiphyseal plates disappear by the age of 10-12 years 5) most secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

3, 4, and 5

which three of the following statements regarding the kidneys are accurate? (select 3) 1) the kidneys are oriented perpendicular to MSP 2) the upper pole of the right kidney lies at the level of L3 3) the left kidney lies higher in the abdomen than the right kidney 4) each kidney is embedded in an adipose capsule 5) the kidneys are retroperitoneal organs

1, 2, 3

which three of the following structures are demonstrated on a SMV skull 1) dens (odontoid process) 2) occipital bone 3) ethmoid air cells 4) frontal sinus

a) bone marrow

which tissue type exhibits the highest growth rate and proliferation? a) bone marrow b) muscle c) brain d) kidneys

2 and 4

which two devices in an image receptor (IR) collect and convert light into an electrical signal? (select two) 1) thin-film transistor (TFT) array 2) photodiode 3) scintillator layer 4) charge-coupled device (CCD)

3 and 4

which two of he following statements correctly describe a properly positioned lateral decubitus abdomen radiograph? 1) spine appears slightly curved and center to the IR 2) iliac wings appear asymmetrical 3) the ribs and all gas bubble margins appear sharp 4) outer rib margins are equidistant from the spine

1 and 2

which two of the following accurately describes current fluoroscopy monitors? (select 2) 1) Television monitors used in fluoroscopy view in black and white 2) fluoroscopic viewing monitors are suspended from the ceiling or on mobile carts 3) television cameras are referred to as pick-up tubes 4) television technology consists of video frames made up of two video fields

1 and 2

which two of the following are possible sizes of input diameters for an image intensifier?(select 2) 1) 12" 2) 16" 3) 20" 4) 22"

2 and 3

which two of the following bones contribute to the formation of the obturator foramen? 1) ilium 2) pubis 3) ischium 4) sacrum

1 and 3

which two of the following catheters are used for central vascular access? 1) hickman 2) levin 3) groshong 4) foley

2 and 3

which two of the following events need to occur before light emission from electron excitation? (select 2) 1) x-rays striking the output phosphor 2) light emission from the phosphor 3) electrons emitted upon light stimulation 4) electrons accelerated away from the anode assembly

2 and 4

which two of the following factors will affect both the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam? 1) mAs 2) kVp 3) SID 4) filtration

1 and 2

which two of the following facts are accurate regarding x-rays 1) x-rays have no mass 2) x-rays travel at the speed of light 3) x-rays have a positive charge 4) x-rays can be focused

1 and 2

which two of the following is accomplished with pulsed fluoroscopy (select 2) 1) decreased pt dose 2) extended tube life 3) continuous activation of the x-ray tube 4) increased signal-to-noise ratio

2 and 3

which two of the following processes corrects for slight under-exposure or over-exposure errors made by the technologist? (select 2) 1) histogram analysis 2) rescaling 3) lookup table (LUT) adjustments 4) digitization

1 and 3

which two of the following statements are true regarding lateral skull radiographs? 1) central ray is perpendicular 2) central ray enters at the outer canthus of the eye 3) 40 inch SID 4) 72 inch SID

1 and 2

which two of the following statements regarding myelography are correct? (select two) 1) the spinal puncture may be performed with the patient in the prone or flexed lateral position 2) the contrast medium distribution is regulated by the physician through adjusting the table angulation 3) the contrast agent is injected intravenously 4) an oily contrast media is commonly used and must be aspirated before the exam is ended

a

which two parts of the patient should be touching the imaging surface for a PA skull radiograph? a) forehead and nose b) forehead and cheek c) cheek and chin d) chin and nose

e) leukemia

which type of cancer listed below has the shortest latency period? a) lung cancer b) bone cancer c) thyroid cancer d) breast cancer e) leukemia

d

which type of contrast media is the only one that is safe for intravenous (IV) injection? a) nonionic iodine b) ionic iodine c) benzene iodine d) water-soluble iodine

b

which type of iodine based contrast media is less likely to cause adverse reactions when injected into a patient's bloodstream?

a

which type of transformer is incorporated within the high-voltage portion of the x-ray circuit? a) step-up transformer b) step-down transformer c) autotransformer

b) AP axial outlet

which view of the pelvis is a bilateral view of the bilateral pubis and ischium used to assess pelvic trauma for fractures and displacement? a) AP b) AP axial outlet c) AP axial inlet d) AP bilateral frog-leg

c) AP axial inlet

which view of the pelvis is used to assess pelvic trauma for posterior displacement, or inward or outward rotation, of the anterior pelvis? a) AP b) AP axial outlet c) AP axial inlet d) AP bilateral frog-leg

a

while fluoroscopy is a dynamic imaging process, spot filming is a(n) a) static imaging process of individual images b) continuous image acquisition process using fluoroscopic exposure levels c) adjunct to some fluoroscopic procedures and seldom used d) considered an obsolete technology

c

with a digital flat panel fluoroscopic system that positions the fluoroscopic x-ray tube above the patient during fluoroscopy, the scatter radiation coming from the patient is a) of little concern to the fluoroscopist b) more intense at levels below the knees of the operator c) greatest at the chest, neck, and eye levels of the operator d) the same regardless of system design and should be used remotely

d

with digital fluoroscopic systems that use a single, digital detector for both radiography and fluoroscopy a) their designs are similar to remote-controlled fluoroscopic systems b) remote-controlled operator consoles are typically included c) SID can be varied from 40" - 72" d) all of the above

c

with digital photospots using a flat panel DR detector, the a) television camera is a critical component b) output phosphor must be optically coupled with a lens c) anatomical coverage is a large as 14x17 d) input phosphor is directly attached to a CCD camera

b

with flat panel fluoroscopic detectors (FPFD): a) fluoroscopic grids are unnecessary b) conventional television camera pick-up technology is eliminated c) patient dose is increased to improve spatial resolution d) radiography/fluoroscopy (R/F) table design requires the detector under the patient for exposures

a

within a digital radiography image matrix, 1024 x 1024 refers to the a) number of pixels in the matrix b) size of pixels in the matrix c) number of brightness levels displayed in the matrix d) physicals measurement of the matrix

a

within a transformer, electromagnetic induction is the process through which a(n): a) fluctuating magnetic field creates an electric current b) direct current is converted to an alternating current c) alternating current is converted to a direct current

d

within the x-ray circuit, rectifiers are positioned between the a) autotransformer and the step-up transformer b) circuit breaker and the autotransformer c) mA selector and cathode filament d) step-up transformer and the x-ray tube

c

within the x-ray circuit, the step-down transformer is located between the a) autotransformer and the step-up transformer b) circuit breaker and the autotransformer c) mA selector and the cathode filament d) step-up transformer and the x-ray tube

E

x-ray filament

3 to 5 mA

x-ray tube for fluoro is operated

phosphors

x-rays can fluorscence ____

0.1 to 0.5 angstrom

x-rays have diagnostic wavelengths of

186,000 ; second

x-rays move at ___ miles per _____

c

x-rays that emanate from the patient are initially detected by what component of the intensifier tube during fluoroscopy? a) output phosphor b) electrostatic focusing plates c) input phosphor d) photocathode