F My Life

The appearance of owl's eyes in a blood smear in indicative of a viral infection caused by EBV. True False

False

The symptoms associated with cellulitis, impetigo and necrotizing fasciitis are caused by toxins and enzymes secreted by Candida pathogens. True False

False

Which sequence represents the order of overall morbidity from greatest to least? Filariasis > Schistosomiasis > Cercarial dermatitis Schistosomiasis > Filariasis > Cercarial dermatitis Cercarial dermatitis > Filariasis > Schistosomiasis None of these choices is correct.

Filariasis > Schistosomiasis > Cercarial dermatitis

Why is TB difficult to treat? M. tuberculosis has mycolic acid in its cell wall which blocks entry of antibiotics. It typically kills its victims before treatment is rendered. M. tuberculosis is a virus and cannot be treated with antibiotics. Herd immunity to TB is virtually impossible.

M. tuberculosis has mycolic acid in its cell wall which blocks entry of antibiotics.

Identify the pathogen: Which pathogen caused the lymphatic infection shown in the photo? © Barts Medical Library/Phototake CMV HTLV-1 HCV MRSA Streptococcus pneumoniae

MRSA

All of the following enzymes can digest microbes EXCEPT salivary amylase. salivary lipase. pepsin. None of these choices is correct

None of these choices is correct

Which of the following are defenses normally present in the CNS to protect it from infection? antibodies B lymphocytes T lymphocytes None of these choices is correct.

None of these choices is correct.

Identify the pathogen: The pathogen in this diagram causes acne vulgaris. Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Pseudomonas aeruginosa Propionibacterium acnes Clostridium perfringens

Propionibacterium acnes

The prevention of HIV lies in consistent and meticulous practices to avoid contact with the virus. True False

True

The recent news about the Zika virus causing microencephaly is an example of pathogens crossing the placenta and initiating infection of the fetus. True False

True

The specific mechanism for many pathogens crossing into the CNS is unknown. True False

True

Legionnaire's disease (Select all that apply) made its first appearance as an outbreak in Philadelphia at a convention in 1976. can be an opportunistic pathogen. is an emerging viral pathogen. thrives in the heating and air conditioning systems of large buildings.

made its first appearance as an outbreak in Philadelphia at a convention in 1976. can be an opportunistic pathogen. thrives in the heating and air conditioning systems of large buildings.

Identify the disease: The rash shown in the photo is characteristic of __________. shingles chickenpox measles rubella impetigo

measles

Which of the following treatments could be used to kill Clostridium tetani? neuromuscular blockade human tetanus immunoglobulin metronidazole endotracheal intubation

metronidazole

Cutaneous candidiasis can be treated with __________. penicillin miconazole acyclovir malathion All of these are effective for treatment.

miconazole

All of the following are chemical defenses of the skin EXCEPT oil (sebaceous glands). sweat. microbial peptides. sebum.

microbial peptides.

A sputum specimen would not be used for analysis if it contained __________. bacteria black spots pus mostly epithelial cells viruses

mostly epithelial cells

Entamoeba histolytica (Select all that apply) is a fungus. causes a mild diarrheal disease. moves around by pseudopods. occurs mostly in developed countries.

moves around by pseudopods. occurs mostly in developed countries.

Identify the disease: This disease can be caused by several different bacteria and viruses. It is characterized by a purulent cough that persists for about 10 days, a fever, sore throat, body aches, wheezing, headache, and fatigue. Treatment is symptomatic for otherwise healthy individuals. pertussis tuberculosis bronchitis pharyngitis pneumonia

bronchitis

Which two systemic cardiovascular infections can be carried by livestock? tularemia and Ebola brucellosis and Q fever chikungunya fever and Marburg fever dengue fever and yellow fever infectious mononucleosis and Ebola

brucellosis and Q fever

Leishmaniasis is routinely transmitted __________. by direct contact via fomites vertically by contaminated water through respiratory droplets by fly bites

by fly bites

You have been given an unknown sample with two bacterial cultures from your course instructor to identify. Determine the correct sequence of steps you need to adopt in order to identify your unknown. 1. Gram staining; 2. Microscopic examination; 3. Isolate colonies (4 quadrant method); 4. Endospore/Flagella/Capsule staining and/or Biochemical testing Select one: a. 3, 1, 4, 2 b. 3, 2, 1, 4 c. 3, 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 3, 2, 4

c. 3, 1, 2, 4

If a light microscope has a 10x ocular lens and a 40x objective lens, how large would an image of an amoeba 15 micrometers in diameter appear when viewed using the microscope? Select one: a. 750 micrometers b. 1.5 millimeters c. 6.0 millimeters d. 600 micrometers e. 150 micrometers

c. 6.0 millimeters

The contractile protein ring in the bacterial cell _____ . Select one: a. forms in the middle of the cell following completion of DNA replication b. is involved with septum formation c. All of these are correct. d. is involved in the process of splitting a dividing bacterial cell into two daughter cells e. is composed of a filamentous contractile protein Feedback

c. All of these are correct.

How do the glycan chains of gram positive bacteria add strength to the cell wall of bacteria? Select one: a. Consecutive NAM units bonded covalently together. b. Crosslinking of tetrapeptides directly together. c. Crosslinking of adjacent tetrapeptide side chains via pentaglycine bridges. d. Consecutively NAG units bonded covalently together.

c. Crosslinking of adjacent tetrapeptide side chains via pentaglycine bridges.

What aspect of influenza infection makes it particularly important for healthcare workers to be immunized? (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. Influenza is only contagious sometimes, but there is no way of knowing when. b. Influenza often has no symptoms. c. During flu season, non-immunized healthcare workers may pass the virus to already ill patients. d. Influenza is contagious before the symptoms appear. e. Influenza is not contagious before the symptoms appear.

c. During flu season, non-immunized healthcare workers may pass the virus to already ill patients. d. Influenza is contagious before the symptoms appear.

Which of the following is true of bacterial cell walls? Select one: a. Gram-positive cell walls are made up of 1-3 layers of glycan sheets. b. Gram-positive cell walls contain lipoproteins. c. Gram-negative cell walls contain lipid A. d. Gram-positive cell walls include an outer membrane. e. Gram-negative cell walls include an inner wall zone.

c. Gram-negative cell walls contain lipid A.

Which set of conditions would increase enzymatic activity and the reaction rate for the degradation of sucrose in the presence of sucrase? Select one: a. Increased concentration of fructose and a large increase in temperature. b. Increased concentration of glucose and a large increase in temperature. c. Increased concentration of sucrose and sucrase with a slight temperature increase. d. Decreased concentration of sucrose and sucrase with a decrease temperature.

c. Increased concentration of sucrose and sucrase with a slight temperature increase.

Why is alcohol still important in modern health care? Select one: a. It is used in water purification. b. It kills pathogens in the blood. c. It works well in killing pathogens on the skin. d. It is used to kill pathogens during in food processing. e. It kills pathogens ingested with food.

c. It works well in killing pathogens on the skin.

Which of the following are forms of anthrax? gastrointestinal and neuroanthrax pulmonary and neuroanthrax cutaneous and cardiovascular cutaneous and gastrointestinal cardiovascular and neuroanthrax

cutaneous and gastrointestinal

Treponema pallidum is a ____ that causes ____. bacterium; pyelonephritis diplococcus; gonorrhea protozoan; trichomoniasis spirochete; syphilis fungus; cystitis

spirochete; syphilis

The damage caused by measles to the nervous system is the result of immunopathy. True False

True

The differences between HIV-1 and HIV-2 are due to the degree of virulence and geographical location. True False

True

What is the most important consideration for a woman trying to obtain a clean (uncontaminated) urine specimen? to clean the area around the urethral opening to sit on a toilet seat to clean the vaginal opening not to wash with soap to hold the specimen cup against the body

to clean the area around the urethral opening

Identify the pathogen: The organism in this drawing causes ____. syphilis trichomoniasis gonorrhea chlamydia GBS colonization

trichomoniasis

All of the following events occur in the pathogenesis of Giardia lambliaEXCEPT pancreatic enzymes aid in the degradation of cyst walls of G. lamblia. trophozoites differentiate into cysts due to changes in the pH of the stomach. cysts differentiate into trophozoites due to changes in the pH of the large intestine. stomach acid aids in the degradation of cyst walls of G. lamblia.

trophozoites differentiate into cysts due to changes in the pH of the stomach.

Identify the disease based on this X-ray of the patient's lungs. diphtheria pertussis bronchiolitis epiglottitis tuberculosis

tuberculosis

On the diagram of the HIV virus, identify (1) the green knobs around the outside and (2) the conical green center structure. (1) gp120; (2) reverse transcriptase (1) gp41; (2) protease (1) gp160; (2) integrase (1) gp120; (2) capsid (1) p17 matrix proteins; (2) integrase

(1) gp120; (2) capsid

Determine which groupings of characteristics is associated with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. 1. rare disease 2. beings with mental deterioration 3. described by two German neurologists 4. death occurs within 7 to 9 months 5. occurs in elk, sheep and humans 2, 3 and 5 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 5 1, 2 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

Determine which groupings of characteristics is associated with polio. 1. asymptomatic 2. several days of fever, sore throat, anorexia, vomiting, and abdominal pain 3. paralysis 4. abnormal tingling sensation with pain 5. periods of agitation 6. seizures 2, 4, 5 and 6 1, 2, 3 and 5 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 5 and 6

1, 2, 3 and 4

Determine which of the following groups describes an individual infected with gonorrhea. 1. vulvar swelling 2. dysuria 3. urethritis 4. hair loss 5. culturing of cervical or ocular discharge 6. ceftriaxone and/or azithromycin or doxycycline 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 6 1, 2, 3

1, 2, 3, 5, 6

Determine which of the following groups of characteristics is associated with epidemic typhus. 1. fever 2. causative agent - bacteria 3. incubation period - 3 to 14 days 4. vector - body lice 5. prevention - vaccination 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 4, 5 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

1, 2, 4, 5

Determine which groupings of characteristics is associated with Kuru. 1. endemic to Papua New Guinea 2. observed in cattle 3. begins with a decrease in muscle control 4. associated with a variant form of the disease 5. death occurs within a few months to a few years after first symptoms 2, 3 and 5 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 5 1, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 5

Determine which of the following groups of characteristics is associated with Bartonella infections. 1. fever 3. causative agent - virus 3. malaise 4. transmission - cat bite/scratch, body lice 5. lymphadenopathy 3, 4 4, 5 1, 2, 3 1, 3, 4

1, 3, 4

Evaluate the following groupings and rank them from the individual most at risk for a thrush infection to the least. 1. A 50 year old male with advanced AIDS 2. A 21 year old female who is HIV negative 3. A 38 year old male who is HIV positive but is not considered to have full-blown AIDS 4. A 17 year old female receiving treatment for HIV (status is HIV positive) 1, 4, 2, 3 3, 1, 4, 2 1, 4, 3, 2 1, 3, 4, 2

1, 3, 4, 2

Evaluate the following groups and rank them in the order of the least severe bacterial infection to the most severe. 1. Acne vulgaris 2. Gas gangrene 3. Cellulitis 4. Necrotizing fasciitis 1, 3, 4, 2 1, 2, 4, 3 1, 2, 3, 4 3, 1, 4, 2

1, 3, 4, 2

Place the following replication steps in order. 1. Fusion of the viral envelope with the TH cell plasma membrane facilitates entry of the virus into the cell. 2. The provirus remains with the host genome throughout the latent phase of the infection. 3. Integrase from the HIV virion inserts the double-stranded viral DNA into the host genome as a provirus. 4. Once the viral RNA is released from the capsid, reverse transcriptase synthesizes complementary dsDNA from the virus's RNA genome. 1, 3, 2, 4 1, 4, 3, 2 2, 3, 4, 1 1, 4, 2, 3

1, 4, 3, 2

Determine which of the following groups of characteristics is associated with tularemia. 1. sore throat 2. causative agent - bacteria 3. incubation period - 3 to 14 days 4. vector - small animals, insects 5. prevention - vaccination 3, 5 1,2, 4 1, 2, 3 3, 4, 5

1,2, 4

The infectious dose for a plague infection is (Select all that apply) 10 to 50 bacteria for a bubonic infection. 100 to 500 bacteria for a pneumonic infection. 10 to 50 bacteria for systemic infection. None of these choices is correct

10 to 50 bacteria for a bubonic infection. 100 to 500 bacteria for a pneumonic infection. 10 to 50 bacteria for systemic infection.

Determine which combination of dietary items is less likely to promote a vaginal yeast infection. 1. chicken breast covered in BBQ sauce 2. Caesar salad with low-fat dressing 3. vegetable stir fry with tofu 4. 8 ounces of frozen yogurt 5. 8 ounces of plain, no fat Greek yogurt 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 5 3, 4, 5 2, 3, 5

2, 3, 5

Which of the following terms describes the lesions associated with molluscum contagiosum? 1. painful 2. painless 3. flesh-colored 4. red 5. firm bump with central dimple 6. small, flat and cauliflower-like 1, 4, 6 2, 3, 5 2, 4, 5 1, 3, 5

2, 3, 5

Put the following steps in the correct order, ending with a new virus particle. 1.self‐assembly 2.viral DNA synthesized from viral RNA template 3.translation of viral RNA 4.budding 5.viral DNA inserted into host genome 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

Select the CORRECT sequence of life forms during the lifestyle of A. lumbricoides beginning with the mating of adults. 1. eggs 2. infective eggs 3. larvae 4. adult worms 5. mature worms 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

4, 1, 2, 3, 5

Evaluate the following groups and rank them from the least severe skin lesion to the most severe. 1. Bullae 2. Pustules 3. Papules 4. Vesicles 5. Macules 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 5, 3, 2, 1, 4

5, 3, 2, 4, 1

Visible warts are the result of infection with which serotypes? 16 and 18 6 and 11 11 and 18 6 and 16

6 and 11

The __________ in mannitol salt agar inhibits the growth of most bacterial species other than Staphylococcus. agar phenol red 7.5% NaCl pH indicator mannitol

7.5% NaCl

Review the Clinical Application, and answer this question. Prior to implementation of the iScrub app at the University of Iowa Children's Hospital, what was the hand hygiene compliance rate of caregivers? 20% 34% 50% 83% 95%

83%

Which of the pathogens that cause meningoencephalitis result in a fatal disease? N. fowleri Acanthoamoeba A and B are coorect. Neither A nor B are correct.

A and B are coorect.

Select the CORRECT statement. A chancre is painful and rarely goes unnoticed. Primary syphilis occurs after a 2-day to 9-day incubation period. Common locations of chancres include eyes, ears, nose and axillary regions. A chancre appears at the site of infection.

A chancre appears at the site of infection.

A livestock farmer is likely to come into contact with ___________________ which in turn may cause brucellosis. (Select all that apply) Brucella melitensis Brucella canis Brucella suis Brucella abortus

All of the Above

A neonate with genital herpes may present with (Select all that apply) damage to the kidneys. vesicular rash. blindness. encephalitis.

All of the Above

After the initial symptoms of leptospirosis decrease, some patients develop Weil's disease which presents clinically with (Select all that apply) internal bleeding. jaundice. hepatomegaly. kidney dysfunction.

All of the Above

Bacterial protein synthesis can be inhibited by drugs (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. that prevent peptide bonds from forming during elongation. b. that prevent aminoacyl-tRNA from binding to the ribosome A site during elongation. c. that prevent binding of the 50S subunit during initiation. d. during the formation of the 30S initiation complex.

All of the Above

Common vehicle transmission requires a medium such as ___________ which carries pathogens of a particular type to a new host. (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. air b. blood c. food d. water

All of the Above

DNA (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. controls the activities of a cell. b. contains all bases A, T, C and G. c. is a double stranded 3-D molecule. d. contains the information to code for the amino acid sequence of a protein.

All of the Above

How are specimens obtained from different body sites in humans? (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. biopsy b. aspiration c. blood collection d. urine collection

All of the Above

Nonculturing techniques can be used to analyze specimens for microbial products or genetic information. Some of the methods include (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. microscopy. b. agglutination tests. c. direct fluorescent antibody assays. d. ELISA.

All of the Above

Nucleoside analogs such as acyclovir (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. are similar in structure to the normal DNA and RNA nucleosides. b. are terminators of synthesis after they become incorporated into the nucleic acid of a virus-infected cell. c. have a higher affinity for viral polymerases than human polymerases. d. allow for selective toxicity at therapeutic concentrations.

All of the Above

Otitis media is characterized by (Select all that apply) painful pressure in the middle ear. inflammation of the middle ear. fluid buildup in the middle ear. eardrum bulging or rupture.

All of the Above

Prokaryotes sustain life on this planet by (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. converting N2 to usable nitrogen-containing compounds. b. recycling carbon. c. helping cows break down cellulose in plants they consume. d. acting as the foundational component of food webs.

All of the Above

Smallpox lesions can be described as (Select all that apply) scabs. large, indented pustules with a center of thick, opaque fluid. papules. vesicles.

All of the Above

Strep throat (Select all that apply) when untreated may lead to rheumatic fever, scarlet fever and carditis. is caused by GABHS. can be treated with antibiotics. presents with a sore throat, headache, fever and swollen tonsil.

All of the Above

Which of the following is a strategy used by pathogens to evade an immune attack? (Select all that apply) secretion of PVL production of coagulase antigenic drift destruction of TH cells

All of the Above

Botulism toxin can be used clinically to __________. reduce the appearance of some wrinkles block excessive sweat production treat spasticity treat blepharospasm All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

Mapping variations in the genetic sequence of the influenza virus in time and space allows scientists to __________. get early warnings on how the virus is evolving monitor for the development of drug resistance in different parts of the world develop alternate preventive strategies if necessary as the virus evolves detect geographic movement of the virus All of these answers are correct.

All of these answers are correct.

For cases of sepsis, monitoring PCT levels _________. shows whether initial antibiotic therapy is working allows for early diagnosis is more effective than IL-6 levels shows whether a second antibiotic is needed All of these are correct.

All of these are correct.

Respiratory tract defenses include __________. a mucous coating on the epithelial layer the cilia that line the respiratory tract alveolar macrophages competition with normal microbiota All of these are correct.

All of these are correct.

Campylobacter stains red during the Gram stain procedure. has a positive result with a flagellar stain. is acid-sensitive. All of these choices are correct

All of these choices are correct

Select the CORRECT statement. Hepatitis A virus is usually ingested with feces-contaminated food. Sewage workers in developed countries are at high risk for HAV. Child care workers in developed countries are at high risk for HAV. All of these choices are correct

All of these choices are correct

The cytotoxin produced by H. pylori damages epithelial cells. disrupts tight junctions. causes apoptosis. All of these choices are correct

All of these choices are correct

Which of the following colonize the mouth and aid in inhibiting microbial pathogens? Streptococcus mutans Streptococcus sanguis Streptococcus salivarius All of these choices are correct

All of these choices are correct

A primary infection caused by HSV-1 results in herpetic lesions. a fever. swollen glands. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Encephalitis presents clinically with altered mental status. fever. headache. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

How are prions different from viruses? They only contain protein. They lack DNA or RNA. They cause neurodegenerative diseases only. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

If an individual is bitten by a rabid animal, treatment for rabies includes washing of the wound with soap and water. irrigation of the wound with povidone-iodine. injection of rabies immunoglobulin into the wound. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

PNS damage associated with Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for muscle weakness. permanent nerve damage in the arms and legs. sensory loss. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Prostatitis may result from a bacterial infection. have no apparent cause. result from a traumatic injury. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

The mumps virus can be found in the oral pharynx. testes in males. CSF in both sexes. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Review What a Microbiologist Sees, and answer this question. Oral thrush is common in infants due to their underdeveloped immune systems. Oral thrush is an opportunistic infection. Immune-compromised adults, such as HIV patients, are routinely infected with oral thrush. HIV-positive patients can minimize their risk of acquiring oral thrush by receiving therapy to reduce the damage to their immune system. All of these statements are accurate.

All of these statements are accurate.

Pericarditis is most often caused by __________. a virus Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Both b and c are correct. Answers a, b, and c are correct.

Answers a, b, and c are correct.

How can we lessen the risk of acquiring a cold-causing virus? stay indoors during the winter season avoid touching your face washing your hands frequently B and C are correct.

B and C are correct.

Which of the following statements is true regarding anthrax? (Select all that apply) Anthrax is self-limiting. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax. Cutaneous anthrax is not usually fatal. Humans can be infected with anthrax in three different ways.

Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax. Cutaneous anthrax is not usually fatal. Humans can be infected with anthrax in three different ways.

Select the correct statement. Blepharitis can lead to retinal scarring. Blepharitis can cause trichiasis. Belpharitis is caused by Stroptococcal species. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the cornea.

Blepharitis can cause trichiasis.

The rash shown in the photograph is diagnostic of an infection with _________. Borrelia burgdorferi Ehrlichia chafeensis Yersina pestis Coxiella burnetti Bacillus anthracis

Borrelia burgdorferi

Which of the following is a pathogen strategy to avoid immune attack by the host? killing of host immune cells with toxins destruction of host antibodies immune cell phagocytosis reproduction of host immune cells Both a and b are correct.

Both a and b are correct.

How is ThinPrep an improvement over the previously used Pap smear? Extraneous material such as mucus is removed. The abnormal cells appear very different from healthy cells. Only abnormal cells are shown. The normal and abnormal cells are separated. Both a and b are true.

Both a and b are true

Explain how PID causes infertility. Scarring of the fallopian tube blocks sperm, preventing fertilization. Scarring of the fallopian tube blocks the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus. Scarring of the cervix prevents sperm entry, causing infertility. Both b and c are true. Both a and b are true.

Both a and b are true.

Microbes are prevented from directly invading the CNS by the __________. basement membrane blood-CSF barrier mucous membrane blood-brain barrier Both a and d are correct.

Both a and d are correct.

Endocarditis is characterized by _________. severe headache cardiac arrhythmia petechial rash on the nailbeds Both b and c are correct. Answers a, b, and c characterize endocarditis.

Both b and c are correct.

Select the CORRECT statement. C. neoformans can be stained with the crystal violet but not safranin. C. neoformans does not have a prominent capsule. C. neoformans can be quickly identifies from a blood sample. C. neoformans causes fungal meningitis.

C. neoformans causes fungal meningitis.

Identify the pathogen: Of the following pathogens that cause diarrhea, which one forms endospores and causes pseudomembranous colitis in individuals who have lost the normal microbiota of the GI tract? Clostridium difficile Salmonella Escherichia coli Cryptosporidium parvum Giardia lamblia

Clostridium difficile

Identify the pathogen: Which of the following diarrhea-causing microbes is resistant to chlorination, acid fast, and not removed by filtration from the public water supply? rotavirus Entamoeba histolytica Staphylococcus aureus Cryptosporidium parvum Salmonella enteritis

Cryptosporidium parvum

How is a CSF sample analyzed to test for cryptococcal meningitis? Gram stain acid-fast stain India ink stain ELISA test PCR test

ELISA test

Identify the pathogen: Which of the following pathogens is a single-celled eukaryotic protozoan that is found in both trophozoite and cyst forms and moves using pseudopodia? Listeria monocytogenes Shigella dysenteriae Giardia lamblia Campylobacter jejuni Entamoeba histolytica

Entamoeba histolytica

Sepsis is caused by ___________________ which trigger a systemic inflammatory response. (Select all that apply) Neisseria Enterococcus Vibrio Streptococcus

Enterococcus Streptococcus

Identify the pathogen: The pathogen shown in the diagram produces a toxin that causes bloody diarrhea and can lead to HUS. Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium difficile Escherichia coli Giardia lamblia rotavirus

Escherichia coli

Kuru occurs through the practice of ritual cannibalism of the placenta at birth feasts. True False

False

Identify the pathogen: Which diarrhea-causing protozoan pathogen is pictured here? Entamoeba histolytica Cryptosporidium parvum Giardia lamblia E. coli O157:H7 Shigella dysenteriae

Giardia lamblia

Determine which grouping of characteristics is associated with typhoid fever. I. headache II. rose-colored spots on the skin III. high fever IV. loose, non-bloody stools V. myalgia I, II, III and IV II, III and IV I, III and V I, II and III

I, II and III

Determine which grouping has a similar mechanism of pathogenicity. I. EHEC/VTEC, EPEC II. ETEC, non-pathogenic E. coli III. EIEC, EAggEC IV. EIEC, other pathogenic E. coli I II III IV

IV

Which of the following is NOT true of brucellosis? It causes headache and muscle ache. The pathogens are found in livestock and deer. It causes a persistent high fever. The pathogen is a possible bioweapon. The disease is chronic and incapacitating.

It causes a persistent high fever.

Which of the following is NOT true of periodontitis? It is not related to the presence of plaque. It can be caused by untreated periodontal disease. It can result in tooth loss. It is marked by pockets in the gums. It is associated with bacterial infection.

It is not related to the presence of plaque.

Select the INCORRECT statement. Lyme disease is caused by a gram-negative microbe. Lyme disease is carried by rodents. Lyme disease is always characterized by a large bull's eye rash. Lyme disease is caused by Borrhelia burgdorferi.

Lyme disease is always characterized by a large bull's eye rash.

Which of the following is a causative agent of pyelonephritis? (Select all that apply) Klebsiella pneumoniae Staphylococcus aureus E. coli Streptococcus spp.

Klebsiella pneumoniae E. coli

Which of the following is NOT transmitted to humans by mosquitos? yellow fever Lassa fever dengue fever chikungunya fever tularemia

Lassa fever

Evaluate the following information and determine the most likely causative agent. 1. Microbe didn't grow on lab media 2. Gram stain : Red 3. Microscopic examination : Rods 4. Patient exposed to contaminated water droplets Pneumocystis jirovecii Streptococcus pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Staphylococcus aureus

Legionella pneumophila

Identify the pathogen: _____ is a foodborne pathogen that is most often associated with deli meats, hot dogs, and inadequately pasteurized milk and soft cheeses. Listeria monocytogenes Salmonella typhi Entamoeba histolytica Streptococcus mutans Helicobacter pylori

Listeria monocytogenes

Which of the following is a commonly recognized resident of the skin that is able to tolerate high salt conditions? Pseudomonas Malassezia furfur Micrococcus spp. E. coli

Micrococcus spp.

Which of the following microbes is the causative agent of PID? (Select all that apply) Treponema pallidum Staphylococcus aureus Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis

Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis

A patient presented to the emergency department with a severe headache, fever, nausea, altered mental status, and a stiff neck. A Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid was done (see the diagram). The pathogen causing these signs and symptoms is likely __________. Streptococcus pneumoniae Listeria monocytogenes Clostridium tetani Haemophilus influenzae type b Neisseria meningitidis

Neisseria meningitidis

River blindness, a major public health problem in Africa, Latin America, and Yemen, is caused by __________. Sarcoptes scabiei Leishmania spp. Pthirus pubis Pseudomonas aeruginosa Onchocerca volvulus

Onchocerca volvulus

The frequency of ventilator-associated pneumonia can be reduced by _____. brushing a patient's teeth every 12 hours cleaning and suctioning the oral cavity every 4 hours between brushing replacing the intubation tube every 12 hours cleaning all the tubing with antiseptics daily Only a and b are correct.

Only a and b are correct.

Evaluate the following information and determine the most likely causative agent. 1. Giemsa stain : Positive result 2. PCR : Microbes present 3. Gomori-Grocott stain : Positive result 4. Patient with AIDS Pneumocystis jirovecii Pseudomonas aeruginosa Histoplasma capsulatum Streptococcus pneumoniae

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Opportunistic skin infections caused by __________ are most common in people who spend a lot of time in contact with water, such as dishwashers and swimmers. Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Pseudomonas aeruginosa Clostridium perfringens Staphylococcus epidermidis

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Which of the following bacterial diseases of the cardiovascular or lymphatic systems is fatal? Cutaneous anthrax and GI anthrax Brucellosis and Lyme disease Bubonic plague and Systemic plague Pulmonary anthrax and Pneumonic plague

Pulmonary anthrax and Pneumonic plague

Identify the pathogen: Which of the following is a gram-positive pathogen that is commonly resistant to β-lactams, produces many different enzymes and toxins that cause tissue damage, and often infects the skin and underlying tissues? Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Pseudomonas aeruginosa Propionibacterium acnes

Staphylococcus aureus

Identify the pathogen: Three hours after eating reheated leftover hot dogs, a college student began severe vomiting. He had no fever, diarrhea, or other signs of illness beyond the nausea. His illness is most likely caused by _____. Listeria monocytogenes Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin mumps virus E. coli O157:H7 endotoxin rotavirus

Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin

All of the following can cause pyelonephritis EXCEPT Klebsiella pneumoniae. E. coli. Enterococcus spp. Staphylococcus aureus.

Staphylococcus aureus.

A 3-week-old infant was brought to the hospital with lethargy, poor feeding, irritability, fever, and seizures. The pathogen that would be isolated from the CSF is shown in the diagram. The meningitis is likely caused by __________. Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus agalactiae Haemophilus influenzae type b E. coli enterovirus

Streptococcus agalactiae

Dental caries are initiated by _____. Bacteroides Salmonella enteritis Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus mutans Clostridium difficile

Streptococcus mutans

Evaluate the following and information and determine the most likely causative agent. 1. Gram stain result : Purple 2. Microscopic examination : Cocci in chains 3. Flagella : Absent 4. Drug resistance to penicillin and chloramphenicol Pneumocystis jirovecii Aspergillus spp. Streptococcus pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Identify the pathogen depicted here. influenza virus Corynebacterium diphtheriae Bordetella pertussis Streptococcus pneumoniae adenovirus

Streptococcus pneumoniae

The causative agents for bacterial meningitis in adolescents, young adults and older adults is (Select all that apply) Listeria monocytogenes Escherichia coli Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis

Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis

Bacterial pharyngitis is caused by _____________ in most cases. Fusobacterium necrophorum Streptococcus pyogenes Corynebacterium diphtheriae Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

Streptococcus pyogenes

Identify the pathogen: What pathogen is the most common cause of necrotizing fasciitis? Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus pyogenes Propionibacterium acnes Clostridium perfringens

Streptococcus pyogenes

Identify the pathogen: The type of bacteria shown in the diagram is consistent with __________, which can cause __________. Staphylococcus aureus; boils Escherichia coli; warts Streptococcus pyogenes; impetigo Clostridium perfringens; scarlet fever Streptococcus pyogenes; furuncles

Streptococcus pyogenes; impetigo

The neurotoxins associated with botulism and tetanus both affect the release of neurotransmitter from axon vesicles. True False

True

Cellulitis is caused by __________ and is characterized by a __________. Streptococcus pyogenes; rash with delineated borders Streptococcus pyogenes; papular rash Staphylococcus aureus; rash with diffuse borders Staphylococcus aureus; rash with delineated borders Staphylococcus aureus; vesicular rash

Streptococcus pyogenes; rash with delineated borders

What role do antibiotics play in culturing Neisseria meningitidis? The antibiotics kill all the microorganisms in the culture. The antibiotics keep the culture pure. The antibiotics suppress the growth of other microbes, but don't affect Neisseria. Their effect is marginal. The antibiotics allow the growth of Neisseria and two other species.

The antibiotics suppress the growth of other microbes, but don't affect Neisseria.

Why is co-infection of HIV patients with hepatitis common? They are both caused by viruses. AIDS vaccines don't work on hepatitis patients. The diseases are spread by similar behaviors. Only HIV-positive patients contract hepatitis. They are caused by the same virus.

The diseases are spread by similar behaviors

A neonate suffering from congenital rubella syndrome may have __________. cataracts mental retardation heart defects deafness The infant may experience all of these symptoms

The infant may experience all of these symptoms

Why is it so difficult to develop an effective vaccine against HIV? The virus kills TH cells. The virus mutates rapidly. The human body cannot produce antibodies against it. The latent period can be too long. The virus is immutable.

The virus mutates rapidly.

What do the viral STIs have in common? They should be treated with antibiotics. They are caused by HPV. They cannot be passed from mother to neonate. They cause rashes. They cannot be cured.

They cannot be cured.

A protozoan parasite that causes __________ can be treated with __________. meningoencephalitis; penicillin meningococcal meningitis; penicillin cryptococcal meningitis; amphotericin B Toxoplasma encephalitis; pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine rabies; postexposure vaccination

Toxoplasma encephalitis; pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine

Trichomoniasis is caused by (Select all that apply) Trichomonas vaginalis. using public facilities for bathing. a pathogen with four flagella. a protozoan.

Trichomonas vaginalis. a pathogen with four flagella. a protozoan.

During sexual activity, the elementary bodies are transferred between partners and to the fetus as it passes through the birth canal during labor. True False

True

Fever, sore throat, body aches, wheezing, headache, fatigue, difficulty breathing and sever attacks of coughing sometimes followed by vomiting are all signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis. True False

True

If a microorganism is moved out of the stomach rapidly, it may not be inactivated by the low pH of the stomach. True False

True

Impaired behavior and loss of consciousness during malaria is due to adherence of RBCs infected with P. falciparum that express altered surface proteins. True False

True

One key sign of gingivitis is gums that bleed easily when brushing the teeth whereas one key sign of periodontitis is the gum tissue pulls away from the teeth creating pockets where additional bacteria can build up and cause an infection. True False

True

Pertussis is treated with supportive care and antibiotic therapy. True False

True

Pulmonary anthrax is transmitted by inhaling endospores. True False

True

Rotavirus is the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children. True False

True

Shigellosis is transmitted by improper food handling and preparation and ineffective hand washing. True False

True

Short-term memory loss is a characteristic of the first stage of Lyme disease. True False

True

Some species of Streptococcus bypass host defenses by possessing antiphagocytic capsules that inhibit phagocytosis by alveolar macrophages. True False

True

Which of the following organisms causes chickenpox and shingles? parovirus B19 HIV HHV-7 VZW

VZW

Identify the pathogen: The pathogen shown in the diagram produces a toxin that causes profuse diarrhea. Salmonella rotavirus Escherichia coli O157:H7 Vibrio cholerae Entamoeba histolytica

Vibrio cholerae

During the pathogenesis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria are engulfed by macrophages. The infected macrophages are then isolated in __________. lymph nodes the spleen a granuloma a lymph duct arterioles

a granuloma

Which is the second largest? 1. Mad cow disease prion; 2. Candida albicans cell; 3. E. coli cell; 4. Polio virus; 5. Beef Tapeworm Select one: a. 2 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3 e. 1

a. 2

Evaluate the following statements and determine which statements are correct. 1. Viruses can import their ssRNA viral genomes into the cell and it will function as an mRNA.; 2. Viruses can import dsDNA genomes and allow the cell to make viral mRNA through normal cellular genetic processes.; 3. Viruses can import ssRNA viral genomes into the cell and synthesize a complimentary copy which functions as an mRNA in the cell. Select one: a. 2 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 3. c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only

a. 2 and 3 only

Why is a small surface area an advantage metabolically for bacteria? (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. A cell's growth is limited by its surface area to volume ratio because of diffusion. b. Smaller cells require fewer nutrients. c. Bacteria have a small overall cell size resulting in smaller surface areas. d. Smaller cells require less time for reproduction.

a. A cell's growth is limited by its surface area to volume ratio because of diffusion. b. Smaller cells require fewer nutrients. d. Smaller cells require less time for reproduction.

In practice, alcohol-based hand sanitizers have been found to be more effective than soaps because they _____ . Select one: a. All of these are correct. b. take less time to use c. don't require towels d. don't require water e. kill more microbes

a. All of these are correct.

Which of the following statements about lipid A are false? Select one: a. It is found in the outer membrane of gram-positive cell walls. b. It stimulates the release of IL-1 and TNF from leukocytes. c. It is a structural part of the lipopolysaccharide. d. It can cause respiratory distress syndrome.

a. It is found in the outer membrane of gram-positive cell walls.

Examine the reaction of pyruvate oxidation shown. The molecule that is reduced is _____. Pyruvate + NAD+ + CoA --> Acetyl-CoA + NADH + CO2 Select one: a. NAD+ b. ATP c. water d. carbon dioxide e. oxygen

a. NAD+

Select the CORRECT statement. (Select all that apply) a. Specimens that are examined using fluorescence microscopy may be naturally fluorescent or stained with fluorescent dyes. b. Fluorescence microscopy uses lasers. c. When the UV light source is activated, the fluorescent portion of the specimen glows against a light background. d. Fluorescence microscopy uses bright-field microscopy technology. Feedback

a. Specimens that are examined using fluorescence microscopy may be naturally fluorescent or stained with fluorescent dyes. b. Fluorescence microscopy uses lasers. d. Fluorescence microscopy uses bright-field microscopy technology. Feedback

The release of the lipid A in a phagocyte initiates a cascade of cellular and physiological responses including the production of two secreted proteins. What are they? Select one: a. TNF and interleukin-1 b. PDGF and Complement c. IL-1 and IL-4 d. IL-3 and alpha-interferon

a. TNF and interleukin-1

Why are serial dilutions used with both the pour plate and spread plate methods of plating? Select one: a. Without dilution the colonies would not be separated from one another and they would be difficult to count and identify. b. Using serial dilutions makes it possible to identify the nonliving cells in the original sample. c. It does not harm temperature-sensitive microbes. d. Without dilution most of the bacteria would die before the colonies formed on the agar. e. Using serial dilutions concentrates bacteria so that they can form colonies.

a. Without dilution the colonies would not be separated from one another and they would be difficult to count and identify.

The viral structure indicated by the arrow functions in _______. Select one: a. adsorption b. lysis c. self-assembly d. penetration e. uncoating

a. adsorption

Differential media such as a Blood Agar Plate (BAP) can be used to distinguish among (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. alpha-hemolytic bacteria. b. beta-hemolytic bacteria. c. gamma-hemolytic bacteria. d. delta-hemolytic bacteria.

a. alpha-hemolytic bacteria. b. beta-hemolytic bacteria. c. gamma-hemolytic bacteria.

Inhibitors of viral nucleic acid synthesis are mostly _____ . Select one: a. analogs of normal nucleosides b. proteins c. small peptides d. toxins e. normal nucleotides

a. analogs of normal nucleosides

The function of structure labeled v is Select one: a. attachment b. prevent osmotic lysis c. biofilm formation d. regulate molecule traffic

a. attachment

Nitrogen fixation is the process by which _____. Select one: a. bacteria incorporate nitrogen from the air into forms that can be used by plants b. plants break down amino acids c. plants synthesize organic compounds from nitrogen in the air d. bacteria break down amino acids e. plants break down NO2 and release O2

a. bacteria incorporate nitrogen from the air into forms that can be used by plants

Which of the following is NOT one of the six major chemical elements of life? Select one: a. calcium b. hydrogen c. carbon d. phosphorous e. sodium

a. calcium

Amoebas (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. can be free-living saltwater or freshwater organisms. b. have a cell wall made of chitin. c. use pseudopodia for movement. d. are an abundant protozoan with cilia.

a. can be free-living saltwater or freshwater organisms. c. use pseudopodia for movement.

Ionizing radiation kills microbes by ____. Select one: a. causing breaks in double-stranded DNA b. bursting cell membranes c. breaking down nutrients d. immobilizing cells e. bursting cells walls

a. causing breaks in double-stranded DNA

Fungal cell walls contain _____ . Select one: a. chitin b. peptidoglycan c. cellulose d. ergosterol e. lignin

a. chitin

_______________ are all types of viral capsids. (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. complex b. cubic c. polyhedral d. helical

a. complex c. polyhedral d. helical

The type of horizontal gene transfer that involves a physical connection between two bacterial cells is _____ . Select one: a. conjugation b. expression c. recombination d. transduction e. transformation

a. conjugation

DNA (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. contains adenine and thymine. b. is twisted into a helix. c. generates genetic variation. d. is made up of one identical strand of nucleotides.

a. contains adenine and thymine. b. is twisted into a helix. c. generates genetic variation.

In which type of microscope does the specimen appear against a black background because of light being reflected off the surface of the specimen into the objective lens? Select one: a. dark-field microscope b. differential interference microscope c. confocal microscope d. bright-field microscope e. super-resolution microscope

a. dark-field microscope

In the diagram, antimicrobial resistance occurs because the _____ . Select one: a. drug cannot build up a functional concentration b. drug inactivates an essential enzyme c. drug diffuses into the pathogen d. pathogen contains a modified enzyme e. drug dosage is very high

a. drug cannot build up a functional concentration

Which bacterial structures are correctly paired with their functions? Select one: a. fimbriae: aid in attachment of the cell to surfaces b. endospores: store nutrients for the cell c. capsules: anchor flagella d. plasmids: synthesize proteins e. flagella: form a bridge during conjugation

a. fimbriae: aid in attachment of the cell to surfaces

Glycolysis (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. generates two ATP molecules. b. is also known as the citric acid cycle. c. is used by members of bacteria to extract energy. d. involves the oxidation of one glucose molecule into two pyruvate molecules.

a. generates two ATP molecules. c. is used by members of bacteria to extract energy. d. involves the oxidation of one glucose molecule into two pyruvate molecules.

Botulism toxin _____ . Select one: a. is produced by Clostridium botulinum b. causes disseminated intravascular coagulation c. causes massive watery diarrhea d. kills cells in the pharynx e. All of these are correct.

a. is produced by Clostridium botulinum

Prokaryotes are different from eukaryotes in that they (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. lack a distinct membrane-bound nucleus. b. have a singular chromosome. c. have ribosomes d. lack membranous organelles.

a. lack a distinct membrane-bound nucleus. b. have a singular chromosome. d. lack membranous organelles.

Which phase of the bacterial growth curve shows exponential growth? Select one: a. log phase b. stationary phase c. death phase d. lag phase

a. log phase

During Gram staining, the alcohol acts on Select one: a. membrane lipids. b. peripheral proteins. c. integral proteins. d. carbohydrates.

a. membrane lipids.

Quinolones and sulfonamides inhibit _____ . Select one: a. nucleic acid synthesis b. protein synthesis c. plasma membrane synthesis d. cell wall synthesis

a. nucleic acid synthesis

Enzymatic conversion of substrate to product _____. (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. occurs rapidly because induced fit distorts the substrate into a highly reactive transition state b. occurs rapidly because the bond energy between the substrate and enzyme active site is used to lower the activation energy of the reaction c. can occur only once since enzymes are consumed in the process d. is a highly specific process due to precise binding of the substrate to the active site

a. occurs rapidly because induced fit distorts the substrate into a highly reactive transition state b. occurs rapidly because the bond energy between the substrate and enzyme active site is used to lower the activation energy of the reaction d. is a highly specific process due to precise binding of the substrate to the active site

Replication of DNA begins at the _____ . Select one: a. origin site b. promoter c. termination site d. start codon e. operator

a. origin site

The small circular DNA molecules found in bacteria are _____ . Select one: a. plasmids b. endospores c. ribosomes d. inclusion bodies e. nucleoids

a. plasmids

Gram-negative bacteria (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. undergo lysis more easily than Gram-positive bacteria. b. cannot survive in hypotonic environments. c. are resistant to large antibiotics that cannot pass through the porins located in the outer membrane. d. are protected by the selective permeability of the outer membrane.

a. undergo lysis more easily than Gram-positive bacteria. c. are resistant to large antibiotics that cannot pass through the porins located in the outer membrane. d. are protected by the selective permeability of the outer membrane.

From the following choices, using a bright field microscope which would increase the resolution of an image the most? Select one: a. violet light b. orange light c. green light d. red light

a. violet light

All of the following are symptoms of influenza EXCEPT chills. fever. abdominal pain and diarrhea. nonproductive cough.

abdominal pain and diarrhea.

Haemophilus influenzae (type B) can cause __________ in young children. strep throat acute epiglottitis diphtheria whooping cough conjunctivitis

acute epiglottitis

Lysosomes contain ____. Select one: a. glutamate racemase b. Lysosomes have all of these enzymes. c. succinate dehydrogenase d. acid hydrolases e. lysozyme

b. Lysosomes have all of these enzymes.

Identify the pathogen: This pathogen is the most frequent cause of pharyngitis. It is highly stable and remains infectious for long periods outside the body. The reservoir for this pathogen is primarily asymptomatic carriers with persistent tonsil infections. adenovirus Corynebacterium diphtheriae Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus

adenovirus

A highly contagious form of conjunctivitis is caused by __________. Pseudomonas aeruginosa adenovirus 8 parvovirus B19 varicella zoster virus Escherichia coli

adenovirus 8

Which of the following is the most important part of patient care in a healthcare setting when admission is not based on illnesses related to the mouth? avoiding sugary drink fluoridation of water supplies avoiding sugary foods adequate oral hygiene

adequate oral hygiene

Pneumonia is an inflammation of the __________ that reduces __________. alveoli; gas exchange trachea; swallowing bronchi; coughing sinuses; the amount of air inhaled bronchioles; gas exchange

alveoli; gas exchange

Appropriate treatment for the pathogen that causes the disease shown in the photo is __________. antitoxin vancomycin amoxicillin rifampicin clindamycin

amoxicillin

An AIDS patient was diagnosed with meningitis. A stain of his CSF is shown in the photo. He should be treated with __________. metronidazole penicillin ampicillin rifampicin amphotericin B

amphotericin B

The reservoir for the pathogen that causes tetanus is __________. fecally contaminated water anaerobic muds and soil other infected humans mosquitoes wild animals and unvaccinated domestic pets

anaerobic muds and soil

Four pathogens discussed in this chapter that can be weaponized are _________. anthrax, plague, tularemia, brucellosis plague, brucellosis, Chagas disease, babesiosis brucellosis, anthrax, Ebola, filariasis Ebola, filariasis, schistosomiasis, plague tuberculosis, filariasis, Ebola, babesiosis

anthrax, plague, tularemia, brucellosis

Which of the following represents a strategy used by pathogens to overcome the skin defenses of a host? Select all that apply. attack and destroy hair follicles antigenic drift exploitation of skin abrasions enzyme secretion

antigenic drift exploitation of skin abrasions enzyme secretion

Calculate how many generations and how long would it take for one cell to become more than 1000 cells for a bacterial population in the exponential growth phase and with a generation time of 30 minutes. Select one: a. 15 generations 7.5 hours b. 10 generations, 5 hours c. 20 generations 10 hours d. 30 generations 15 hours e. 5 generations 2.5 hours

b. 10 generations, 5 hours

Place the steps of the viral replication cycle in the correct order. 1. Penetration; 2. Self-assembly; 3. Replication; 4. Release; 5. Adsorption a. 5-3-1-2-4 b. 5-1-3-2-4 c. 1-3-5-4-2 d. 5-3-4-2-1 e. 2-1-3-5-4

b. 5-1-3-2-4

Select the CORRECT statement. (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. Fatty acids can be converted to glucose and used in cellular respiration. b. Fatty acids can be used to generate ATP in a process called beta-oxidation. c. Amino acids can be converted to glucose and used in cellular respiration. d. Proteins can be broken down into amino acids which can be used to supply energy for cells.

b. Fatty acids can be used to generate ATP in a process called beta-oxidation. d. Proteins can be broken down into amino acids which can be used to supply energy for cells.

Organism A has an ID50 of 1,000 while organism B has an ID50 of 100. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Organism A has a greater virulence. b. Organism B has a greater virulence. c. Organism B will cause death in 50% of test subjects. d. Organism A will cause death in 50% of test subjects.

b. Organism B has a greater virulence.

Select the CORRECT statement. Select one: a. Iron is very soluble. b. Pathogenic bacteria acquire iron from host body cells. c. Iron is an essential component of membrane-bound proteins in the Kreb's cycle. d. Iron-building proteins in humans have a lower affinity for iron than bacteria.

b. Pathogenic bacteria acquire iron from host body cells.

The pathogenic protozoan likely to cause problems for a fetus during pregnancy is Select one: a. Cyclospora cayetanensis. b. Toxoplasma gondii. c. Balantidium coli. d. Giardia lamblia.

b. Toxoplasma gondii.

The micrograph depicts Select one: a. a gram positive staphylococcus b. a gram negative diplococcus c. a gram negative bacillus d. a gram positive bacillus

b. a gram negative diplococcus

Which of the products of pyruvate oxidation enters the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. CO2 b. acetyl CoA c. NAD+ d. pyruvic acid e. acetate

b. acetyl CoA

Glycocalyces (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. determine the shape of a bacterial cell. b. allow biofilms to form. c. can protect bacterial cells from drying out. d. enable bacteria to adhere to tooth enamel.

b. allow biofilms to form. c. can protect bacterial cells from drying out. d. enable bacteria to adhere to tooth enamel.

The function of structure labeled u is Select one: a. to transport enzymes across the cell membrane b. allow free diffusion of small metabolites c. to act as an endotoxin d. active transport of small metabolites

b. allow free diffusion of small metabolites

Chloroquine kills Plasmodium cells by ____. Select one: a. breaking down hemoglobin . b. allowing the accumulation of free heme c. allowing the accumulation of hemoglobin d. becoming concentrated in the cell cytoplasm e. allowing the accumulation of hemozoin

b. allowing the accumulation of free heme

The process by which mutations gradually produce a virus that is antigenically different from the original is known as _____ . Select one: a. antibody drift b. antigenic drift c. antigenic shift d. programmed gene switching e. mutational shift Feedback

b. antigenic drift

A constant pH can be maintained by using a(n) _______ . Select one: a. filter b. buffer c. acid d. base e. lysosome

b. buffer

Select the CORRECT pairing. Select one: a. protease : degrades DNA b. coagulase : converts fibrinogen to fibrin c. phospholipase : damages connective tissues d. IgA protease : degrades all immunoglobulins

b. coagulase : converts fibrinogen to fibrin

Water can form numerous hydrogen bonds because it _____ . Select one: a. All of the above explain why water readily forms hydrogen bonds. b. contains an electronegative oxygen c. is a nonpolar molecule d. is hydrophobic e. always exists as a cation

b. contains an electronegative oxygen

Surfactants kills bacteria by _____ . Select one: a. inactivating enzymes b. disrupting cell membranes c. breaking down protein structure d. breaking DNA strands apart e. digesting sugars

b. disrupting cell membranes

The plasma membrane controls the passage of material into and out the cell by passive and active processes. Which of the following is a passive process that does not require ATP? (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. active transport b. facilitated diffusion c. endocytosis d. simple diffusion

b. facilitated diffusion d. simple diffusion

Which of the following PPEs would you expect to be used when working with a patient undergoing hip replacement surgery? (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. negative pressure room b. gloves c. gown d. masks

b. gloves c. gown d. masks

What type of environment would cause the cell change shown in the diagram? Select one: a. high sugar concentration. b. hypotonic c. high salt concentration d. hypertonic e. isotonic

b. hypotonic

As the resolving power decreases, the clarity of the image _____. Select one: a. stays the same b. increases c. decreases

b. increases

A patient's failure to complete a full course of drugs prescribed for a bacterial infection (Select all that apply) Select one or more: a. will require a higher dose for pathogen elimination. b. kills sensitive pathogens first. c. leaves resistant members of the population alive. d. will require a different treatment for pathogen elimination.

b. kills sensitive pathogens first. c. leaves resistant members of the population alive. d. will require a different treatment for pathogen elimination.

What is the function of the tail-like structure attached to the bacterium in the image below? Select one: a. differentiation b. movement c. reproduction d. metabolism

b. movement

In a 2011 study of NICU personnel, which group of individuals requires continuing education to enhance immunization compliance and reduce influenza infection? Select one: a. staff b. nurses c. parents d. physicians

b. nurses

Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis like ?-lactam antibiotics block the production of ____________. Select one: a. chitin b. peptidoglycan c. glucose d. cellulose

b. peptidoglycan

Which structure is the primary focus of the autogenous hypothesis and is ultimately responsible for the origin of all organelles with single membranes? Select one: a. nucleolus b. plasma membrane (cell membrane) c. cell wall d. nucleus

b. plasma membrane (cell membrane)

Macrolides inhibit _____ . Select one: a. plasma membrane synthesis b. protein synthesis c. cell wall synthesis d. nucleic acid synthesis

b. protein synthesis

Viruses are made up of __________. Select one: a. carbohydrates and proteins b. proteins and nucleic acids c. carbohydrates and fats d. fats and proteins e. nucleic acids and carbohydrates

b. proteins and nucleic acids

The site where a pathogen survives and multiplies until it can enter a new host is the _____ . Select one: a. zoonosis b. reservoir c. vector d. portal of exit e. portal of entry

b. reservoir

Because a newly synthesized DNA molecule consists of one old strand and one new strand, DNA replication is described as _____ . Select one: a. recombinatory b. semiconservative c. dispersive d. transcriptive e. conservative

b. semiconservative

The diagram shows a test that allows determination of _____ . Select one: a. bacterial species b. the MIC c. fungal growth d. the presence of bacterial viruses e. the TI

b. the MIC

The cell walls of acid-fast bacteria are impermeable to many but not all chemicals because of Select one: a. an inner later composed of phospholipids. b. the combination of mycolic acids and lipids. c. an outer layer composed of LPS. d. the thin peptidoglycan layer.

b. the combination of mycolic acids and lipids.

Complex growth media such as LB broth is different from chemically defined media such as M9 broth in that Select one: a. carbon sources and energy sources are not provided. b. the exact chemical concentration of the components are unknown. c. None of these choices is correct. d. the exact chemical concentration of the components are known.

b. the exact chemical concentration of the components are unknown.

The upper limit of eukaryotic cell size is primarily determined by _____ . Select one: a. all answers provided determine eukaryotic cell size. b. the surface area of plasma membrane c. the presence of a cell wall d. information encoded in the nucleoid e. water availability

b. the surface area of plasma membrane

Which of the following nitrogen-containing bases would NOT be found in a molecule of RNA? Select one: a. guanine b. thymine c. cytosine d. adenine

b. thymine

A pathogen-carrying tick that you find on your ankle is most likely an example of ____. Select one: a. indirect contact transmission b. transmission by a biological vector c. direct contact transmission d. blood-borne common vehicle transmission

b. transmission by a biological vector

Protein synthesis is slow in comparison to DNA synthesis. The speed can be increased by the Select one: a. additional of DNA proofreading mechanisms. b. use of many ribosomes translating a single mRNA simultaneously. c. use of DNA helicase and DNA gyrase. d. removal of RNA primers.

b. use of many ribosomes translating a single mRNA simultaneously.

Most cases of sepsis are caused by _________. viruses bacteria protozoans fungi protein A

bacteria

Listeria monocytogenes is a __________ pathogen. viral fungal bacterial prion protozoan

bacterial

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between staphylococcal and streptococcal cellulitis? gram stain procedure microscopic examination biochemical testing acid-fast stain

biochemical testing

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between staphylococcal and streptococcal necrotizing fasciitis? endospore staining acid-fast staining gram stain procedure biochemical testing

biochemical testing

Macrophages in the alveoli engulfing microbes that manage to pass deep into the lungs is an example of a _____________ defense. pathogen biological physical chemical

biological

The reservoir for West Nile virus is __________. birds wild animals and unvaccinated domestic pets pigs bats snails

birds

After eating home-canned peaches, a young man experienced nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. In addition, his vision was blurred and he had muscle weakness. He is probably suffering from __________. meningitis tetanus rabies botulism polio

botulism

The structure marked w is Select one: a. N-aceytl-glucosamine b. N-aceytl-techoic acid c. N-acytyl-muramic acid d. Pentaglycine

c. N-acytyl-muramic acid

A comparison of DNA and RNA viruses shows that ________. Select one: a. the replication cycles are identical b. RNA viruses replicate in the host cell nucleus using host RNA polymerase c. RNA viruses do not use any of the host cell machinery to replicate their genome d. the genome of DNA viruses replicates in the host cell nucleus using host cell RNA polymerase e. self-assembly of both virus types occurs in the nucleus

c. RNA viruses do not use any of the host cell machinery to replicate their genome

The Ames test evaluates the _____ . Select one: a. drug sensitivity of a bacterium b. ability of a bacterium to transfer its genetic information by conjugation c. ability of a chemical to induce mutations in a gene in Salmonella d. ability of a virus to infect a bacterium

c. ability of a chemical to induce mutations in a gene in Salmonella

The International Committee on the Taxonomy of Viruses classifies viruses based on their _____ . Select one: a. overall structure b. chemical composition c. all the given answers are correct d. genetic makeup

c. all the given answers are correct

A fomite is _____ . Select one: a. the site on a host cell where a toxin binds b. a mucous droplet spread thru the air when someone sneezes c. an inanimate object that can transmit infections to a new host d. an arthropod that transmits microbial diseases e. the site on a host cell where a microbe attaches

c. an inanimate object that can transmit infections to a new host

Yeast perform fermentation under ______ conditions to regenerate an adequate supply of _____. Select one: a. anaerobic; NADP+ b. acidic; alcohol c. anaerobic; NAD+ d. aerobic; NAD+ e. acidic; carbon dioxide

c. anaerobic; NAD+

The tetracyclines are _____ . Select one: a. narrow-spectrum and bactericidal b. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis c. broad-spectrum and bacteriostatic d. narrow-spectrum and bacteriostatic e. broad-spectrum and bactericidal Feedback

c. broad-spectrum and bacteriostatic

Which of the following is an exotoxin that is correctly paired with the damage it causes? Select one: a. endotoxin; damages capillaries b. botulism toxin; breaks down cartilage c. cholera toxin; reverses ion pumps in the large intestine d. tetanus toxin; causes flaccid paralysis e. diphtheria toxin; inhibits respiratory cilia action

c. cholera toxin; reverses ion pumps in the large intestine

The preferential binding of an antimicrobial agent to the active site of an enzyme is an example of ____. Select one: a. noncompetitive inhibition b. inhibition of reverse transcriptase c. competitive inhibition d. DNA chain termination e. enzyme activation

c. competitive inhibition

Staining procedures that use multiple dyes are called _____ . Select one: a. negative staining b. mordant staining c. differential staining d. simple staining e. acidic staining

c. differential staining

What is the correct order for the steps of pathogenesis? Select one: a. entry; avoiding or overcoming host defenses; attachment; damage; exit b. entry; avoiding or overcoming host defenses; attachment; damage; exit c. entry; attachment; avoiding or overcoming host defenses; damage; exit d. entry; damage; attachment; avoiding or overcoming host defenses; exit e. entry; attachment; damage; avoiding or overcoming host defenses; exit

c. entry; attachment; avoiding or overcoming host defenses; damage; exit

Select the CORRECT pairing. Select one: a. desiccation : lowering the pH b. pasteurization : low temperatures, long periods of time c. filtration : pore sizes less than 0.45 micrometers d. cooling : high temperatures, short period of time

c. filtration : pore sizes less than 0.45 micrometers

Organisms that are known to be peritrichous could be visualized using a/an Select one: a. negative stain. b. capsule stain. c. flagella stain. d. endospore stain.

c. flagella stain.

Heat-sensitive materials can be sterilized with _____ and _____ . Select one: a. soap; detergents b. alcohol; hydrogen peroxide c. glutaraldehyde; ethylene oxide d. ethylene oxide; hydrogen peroxide e. phenol; soap

c. glutaraldehyde; ethylene oxide

If the surface of bacteria have a negative charge, then ____________ detergents would be less effective at killing them. Select one: a. cationic b. neutral c. negatively charged d. positively charged

c. negatively charged

Nucleus is to green algae as _______________ is to Staphylococcus aureus. Select one: a. nucleoplasm b. cytoplasmic membrane c. nucleoid d. nuclear envelope e. cell wall

c. nucleoid

The term amphipathic can be used to describe the water-loving and water-hating nature of the a. alcohol portion of a cholesterol molecule. b. the steroid carbon skeleton. c. phospholipid bilayer of a eukaryotic cell. d. saturated fats only.

c. phospholipid bilayer of a eukaryotic cell.

The functions of structure labeled y is (Select all that apply) a. regulate molecule traffic b. determines the shape of the cell c. prevent phagocytosis d. attachment

c. prevent phagocytosis

For some pathogens, inactivated toxins, called toxoids, can be used as _____ because they are no longer pathogenic but still immunogenic. Select one: a. antibiotics b. prophylactics c. vaccines d. antiviral agents e. antitoxins

c. vaccines

Subacute endocarditis is characterized by (Select all that apply) cardiac arrhythmia. petechial rash abdominal pain. a pericardial rub sound.

cardiac arrhythmia. petechial rash abdominal pain.

The prion responsible for vCJD was initially found in __________. cattle pigs sheep humans deer

cattle

Taenia saginata has ___________ as a definitive host and ____________ as an intermediate host. cattle : humans cattle : pigs fish : pigs cattle : fish

cattle : humans

The rhinovirus damages cells of the nasal epithelium by __________. producing tissue-damaging enzymes producing hemolysin, which destroys red blood cells causing cell lysis, leading to an inflammatory response producing a cytotoxin that inhibits cellular protein synthesis stopping mucus production

causing cell lysis, leading to an inflammatory response

Cystitis is commonly treated with (Select all that apply) acyclovir. cephalosporins. quinolones. sulfa drugs.

cephalosporins. quinolones. sulfa drugs.

Which of the following specimen samples would be sterile if there were no infection? feces cerebrospinal fluid vaginal fluid sputum nasal mucus

cerebrospinal fluid

Identify the disease: The lesion shown in the photo is typical of ____. chancroid primary syphilis tertiary syphilis gonorrhea HIV

chancroid

Which of the following is NOT an AIDS‐defining illness? Pneumocystis pneumonia cryptococcosis histoplasmosis thrush chlamydia

chlamydia

Two diseases that are commonly found as coinfections are ____. trichomoniasis and syphilis GBS colonization and genital warts leptospirosis and genital herpes syphilis and gonorrhea chlamydia and gonorrhea

chlamydia and gonorrhea

All of the following are physical defenses used by the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems from infection EXCEPT production of sebum. mucous membranes in digestive, respiratory and urinary systems. circulation of the fluids throughout the body. shedding of the outer layer of epidermis.

circulation of the fluids throughout the body.

A patient sample from an abdominal abscess may be caused by a bacterial pathogen. The ER physician suspects an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. What bacterial arrangement are you expected to observe using a light microscope? clusters chains sarcinae pairs

clusters

Ebola hemorrhage fever is transmitted by (Select all that apply) contact with fruit bats. direct contact (person-to-person). contact with contaminated body fluids. contact with Aedes mosquitoes.

contact with fruit bats. direct contact (person-to-person). contact with contaminated body fluids.

Which of the following are common to eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? 1. DNA and RNA; 2. Cell membrane; 3. Cell wall; 4. Envelope; 5. Ribosomes; 6. Similar metabolism; 7. Very diverse members Select one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 b. 1, 2 and 5 c. 3, 4 and 5 d. 1, 2, 5, 6 and 7

d. 1, 2, 5, 6 and 7

_____ have a thick layer of peptidoglycan covered with a sugar/mycolic acid layer that is overlaid with a hydrophobic layer high in lipids. Select one: a. Archaea b. Gram-positive bacteria c. Wall-less bacteria d. Acid-fast bacteria e. Gram-negative bacteria

d. Acid-fast bacteria

Which of the following statements are true of exotoxins? Select one: a. Exotoxins are sensitive to heat. b. Some exotoxins can be denatured and used to make toxoid vaccines. c. Exotoxins are proteins. d. All of these are true.

d. All of these are true.

Select the CORRECT statement. Select one: a. EBV infects T cells. b. The measles virus infects B cells. c. IgA protease destroys cytotoxic T cells. d. HIV inhibits helper T function.

d. HIV inhibits helper T function.

_________________ are the monomers joined with glycosidic bonds to build carbohydrates. Select one: a. Amino acids b. Nucleotides c. Fatty acids d. Monosaccharides

d. Monosaccharides

How does transposition also cause mutation? Select one: a. Transposon inserts into a new site and enhances gene expression. b. None of these choices is correct. c. Transposon inserts into an old site and removes drug resistance genes. d. Transposon inserts into a new site and disrupts a gene resulting in inactivation.

d. Transposon inserts into a new site and disrupts a gene resulting in inactivation.

The micrograph depicts Select one: a. a gram positive streptococcus b. a gram negative streptobacillus c. a gram negative bacillus d. a gram positive bacillus

d. a gram positive bacillus

The micrograph depicts Select one: a. a gram positive bacillus b. a gram negative bacillus c. a gram positive streptococcus d. a gram positive staphylococcus

d. a gram positive staphylococcus

Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a(n) _____ bacterium. Select one: a. gram-positive b. gram-variable c. gram-negative d. acid-fast

d. acid-fast

The genetic information of DNA is specifically encoded in its _______ . Select one: a. amino acid sequences b. quaternary structure c. phosphodiester bonds d. base pair sequences e. sugar-phosphate backbone

d. base pair sequences

The building blocks of capsids are _____ , Select one: a. viroids b. helper viruses c. envelopes d. capsomeres e. prions

d. capsomeres

Place the listed chemicals in the correct order for Gram staining: safranin, iodine, ethanol, crystal violet Select one: a. iodine, crystal violet, safranin, ethanol b. crystal violet, iodine, safranin, ethanol c. crystal violet, safranin, ethanol, iodine d. crystal violet, iodine, ethanol, safranin e. iodine, safranin, ethanol, crystal violet

d. crystal violet, iodine, ethanol, safranin

In finding the MIC, drug effectiveness is determined by _____ . Select one: a. the MBC b. the negative control column c. a change in plate color d. evidence of growth versus no growth e. the positive control column

d. evidence of growth versus no growth

Lipids are a structurally diverse group of macromolecules unified by their _______ . Select one: a. ability to form enantiomers b. use as structural material c. use of phosphodiester bonds d. hydrophobic nature e. incorporation of three phosphate groups into each molecule

d. hydrophobic nature

Which of the following CANNOT be caused by the bacterial endotoxin? Select one: a. adult respiratory distress syndrome b. fever c. shock d. immunopathy e. disseminated intravascular coagulation

d. immunopathy

The bacteria growing only at the bottom of a test tube are most likely _____ . Select one: a. aerotolerant anaerobes b. facultative anaerobes c. obligate aerobes d. obligate anaerobes e. microaerophiles

d. obligate anaerobes

The aquaporins that form small pores in the membrane aid in the diffusion of water through the plasma membrane from a Select one: a. region of low concentration of solute to a region of high concentration of solute. b. region of low concentration of solvent to a region of high concentration of solvent. c. region of high concentration of solvent to region of low concentration of solvent. d. region of high concentration of solute to a region of low concentration of solute

d. region of high concentration of solute to a region of low concentration of solute

The function of structure labeled w is Select one: a. attachment b. prevent osmotic lysis c. biofilm formation d. regulate molecule traffic

d. regulate molecule traffic

The process of _____ copies DNA, _____ makes an RNA molecule from a DNA template, and _____ assembles amino acids into proteins using the information from the RNA sequence. Select one: a. translation; transcription; replication b. transcription; replication; translation c. replication; translation; transcription d. replication; transcription; translation e. translation; replication; transcription Feedback

d. replication; transcription; translation

Sample A has 5 bacterial cells with a generation time of 15 minutes. Sample B has 10 bacterial cells with a generation time of 30 minutes. If both samples were allowed to grow for 3 hours, which sample would have the larger number of cells produced? Select one: a. sample B b. None of the choices is correct since there is not enough information about the media. c. Both sample A and sample B have the same number of cells. d. sample A

d. sample A

DNAs structure allows an exact copy to be produced via _________ . Select one: a. transcription b. translation c. allosteric interaction d. semi-conservative replication e. denaturation

d. semi-conservative replication

In the diagram, the transport process numbered 1 is _____ and 2 is _____ . a. active transport; facilitated diffusion b. active transport; passive transport c. facilitated diffusion; passive transport d. simple diffusion; facilitated diffusion e. facilitated diffusion; active transport Feedback

d. simple diffusion; facilitated diffusion

Which of the following causes viral meningitis? polioviruses enteroviruses echoviruses coxsackieviruses

enteroviruses

Multidrug-resistant (MDR) bacteria have emerged primarily because of ______. Select one: a. rapid bacterial mutation rates b. contaminants in bottled drinking water c. the emergence of new pathogens d. the misuse of antibacterial agents to treat viral infections e. rapid viral mutation rates

d. the misuse of antibacterial agents to treat viral infections

In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxvirus replicates primarily in the cytoplasm of the host cell. This probably indicates Select one: a. the assembly of ribosome components does not occur in the cytoplasm. b. the absence of reverse transcriptase during replication. c. the viral genome uses the host cell DNA polymerase d. the viral genome may encode a DNA polymerase.

d. the viral genome may encode a DNA polymerase.

Bob noticed that his sliced boiled ham does not smell good. He purchased it from the butcher two blocks from his home. What type of organism may be responsible for the spoilage of his sandwich meat? Select one: a. mesophile b. extreme thermophile c. facultative psychrophile d. thermophile

d. thermophile

All of the following are types of warts except dorsal. flat. plantar. common.

dorsal.

If the volume of fluid trapped under the double-lined square in the diagram was 1 ×10-5 ml and 11 cells were counted within the square, how many cells per ml were present in the original sample? Select one: a. 1.7 ×10^6 b. 1.0 ×10^5 c. 2.0 ×10^6 d. 1.1 ×10^5 e. 1.1 ×10^6

e. 1.1 ×10^6

Analysis of a bacterial protein shows it contains 400 amino acids. What is the minimum number of amino acid-coding nucleotides present in the gene for this protein? Select one: a. 400 b. 100 c. 80,000 d. 4000 e. 1200

e. 1200

Relative to eukaryotic organisms, prokaryotes have the _____. Select one: a. smallest size b. most diverse habitats c. greatest numbers of individuals d. greatest species diversity e. All of these are correct.

e. All of these are correct.

Which of the following factors influence the disease outcome after transmission of a microbe into a human? Select one: a. host genetic factors b. the number of invading microbes c. the health status of the host d. microbial virulence factors e. All of these are correct.

e. All of these are correct.

Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by _____. Select one: a. Pseudomonas b. Bacillus c. Streptococcus mutans d. Aquifex e. Clostridium difficile

e. Clostridium difficile

How is the energy from redox reactions used to move hydrogen ions across the membrane by chemiosmosis? Select one: a. It attracts the hydrogen ions by adding negative charge to the membrane. b. It opens a channel allowing the free flow of hydrogen ions. c. It denatures the protein carriers allowing hydrogen ions to leak across the membrane. d. It deprotonates buffers. e. It causes conformational changes in the carrier proteins, which push the hydrogen ions to the other side.

e. It causes conformational changes in the carrier proteins, which push the hydrogen ions to the other side.

ELISA tests use _____ to bind microbial products. Select one: a. antigens b. cell membranes c. cell walls d. sugars e. antibodies

e. antibodies

The diagram depicts the structure of a _____ . Select one: a. phase contrast microscope b. fluorescence microscope c. confocal microscope d. dark-field microscope e. bright-field microscope

e. bright-field microscope

The green-stained structures in the micrograph are _____ . Select one: a. bacteria b. crystal violet c. red blood cells d. nuclei e. endospores

e. endospores

A positive test for a pathogen produced by a(n) _____ dye conjugated to a _____ shows as glowing spots when viewed with a(n) _____ microscope. Select one: a. neutral; fluorescent antibody; confocal b. acid; monoclonal antibody; electron c. acid; fluorescent antibody; dark-field d. basic; polyclonal antibody; bright-field e. fluorescent; monoclonal antibody; fluorescence

e. fluorescent; monoclonal antibody; fluorescence

Commonly used antiseptics include halogens, such as _____ and oxidizing agents, such as _____ . Select one: a. phenol; hydrogen peroxide b. triclosan; phenol c. iodine; phenol d. chlorine; triclosan e. iodine; hydrogen peroxide

e. iodine; hydrogen peroxide

Image size divided by actual size is a measure of _____ . Select one: a. focal length b. refractive index c. resolution d. numerical aperture e. magnification

e. magnification

Which of the following does NOT occur in binary fission in bacteria? Select one: a. septum formation b. cytokinesis c. chromosome replication d. partitioning of chromosomes e. mitosis

e. mitosis

Which of the following pathogens cannot be transmitted vertically? Select one: a. Treponema pallidum b. herpes simplex virus c. HIV d. rubella virus e. rhinovirus

e. rhinovirus

The cell morphology and arrangement in which the bacteria look like a tightly twistsed chain is a _____. Select one: a. coccobacillus b. diplobacillus c. staphylococcus d. streptobacillus e. spirochete

e. spirochete

The plating method shown in the diagram is called the _____ method. Select one: a. MacConkey b. dilution plating c. pour plate d. spread plate e. streak plate

e. streak plate

DHFA synthesis can be inhibited by _____, and THFA synthesis can be inhibited by _____ . Select one: a. quinolones; trimethoprim b. rifamycins; trimethoprim c. sulfonamides; quinolones d. trimethoprim; quinolones e. sulfonamides; trimethoprim

e. sulfonamides; trimethoprim

Identify the disease: The cause of the disease shown in the photo is a toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes.The toxin causes significant edema of the affected area plus acute tenderness and formation of shiny, fiery red, itchy lesions with clearly demarcated borders. scarlet fever impetigo necrotizing fasciitis cellulitis erysipelas

erysipelas

Select the CORRECT pairing. exposed to contaminated water droplets : pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila corticosteroid use : pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae AIDS : pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus immunocompromised : pneumonia caused by a virus

exposed to contaminated water droplets : pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila

How is severe sepsis distinguished from septic shock? extremely low blood pressure difficulty breathing significantly decreased urine output abdominal pain

extremely low blood pressure

The clinical features of hepatitis B that are shared with hepatitis C include (Select all that apply) fever. aches. weight loss. anorexia.

fever. aches. anorexia.

The clinical features of hepatitis B that are shared with hepatitis C include (Select all that apply) weight loss. fever. anorexia. aches.

fever. anorexia. aches.

Select all that apply. The early clinical signs of neonatal meningitis caused by group B Streptococcus are fever. irritability. seizures. lethargy.

fever. irritability. lethargy.

Histoplasmosis is (Select all that apply) frequently found in contaminated bird and bat droppings. caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. endemic in the moist soil of decomposing forest litter. caused by a pathogen that lives in soil.

frequently found in contaminated bird and bat droppings. caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. caused by a pathogen that lives in soil.

Which of the following host factors influence the normal microbiota of the respiratory system as well as the pathogenic microbes that briefly reside in parts of the respiratory tract? (Select all that apply) general health immune status religious background socioeconomic status

general health immune status

Meningococcal meningitis is caused by a __________, and nonresistant strains are treated with __________. gram-negative diplococcus; erythromycin gram-positive diplococcus; penicillin gram-negative wall-less bacteria; tetracycline gram-positive staphylococcus; tetracycline gram-negative diplococcus; penicillin

gram-negative diplococcus; penicillin

Campylobacteriosis is caused by a _____. gram-negative bacillus gram-positive staphylococcus gram-positive bacillus gram-negative spirillum gram-positive streptococcus

gram-negative spirillum

C. difficile causes sever diarrhea when the growth of the normal microbiota has been disrupted. patient consumes a high fat diet. movement of water into the colon decreases. None of these choices is correct.

growth of the normal microbiota has been disrupted.

Periodontal disease can increase a person's risk for _____. kidney failure peptic ulcers heart disease lung cancer diarrhea

heart disease

Identify the pathogen: The organism in the diagram is a _________ that causes _________. helminth; babesiosis helminth; filariasis protozoan; schistosomiasis protozoan; Chagas disease helminth; cercarial dermatitis

helminth; filariasis

Identify the pathogen: This pathogen causes a foodborne illness that may lead to jaundice and an enlarged liver and spleen. herpes simplex virus mumps virus Salmonella typhi hepatitis A virus Clostridium difficile

hepatitis A virus

Cold sores are caused by _____. herpes simplex virus mumps virus norovirus hepatitis A virus rotavirus

herpes simplex virus

Genital warts are caused by ____. human papilloma virus HIV herpes simplex virus molluscum contagiosum chlamydia

human papilloma virus

The process of polio eradication is being accomplished by __________. an internationally coordinated vaccination program use of an oral vaccine a long-term public health initiative identifying countries with endemic polio All of these are correct.

identifying countries with endemic polio

What is the best way to prevent most viral pediatric skin infections? treat with antibiotics if exposed to the pathogen immunization hyperbaric therapy daily cleansing of the skin with an antibacterial soap administration of antitoxin vaccine

immunization

ransmission of hookworms occurs by person-to-person by close physical contact. in areas where soil is contaminated with human feces. by ingestion of infective larva. None of these choices is correct.

in areas where soil is contaminated with human feces.

In the diagram of part of the lifecycle of Chlamydia trachomatis, the small particles entering the cell at the top are ____, the larger oval structures that form in a phagosome are ____, and the small particles that form from them and pass out of the cell ____. spores; endospores; vacuole reticulate bodies; elementary bodies; vacuoles inactive elementary bodies; reticulate bodies; infectious elementary bodies endospores; spores; phagosome spores; reticular bodies; vacuoles

inactive elementary bodies; reticulate bodies; infectious elementary bodies

Leprosy is caused by __________. neurotoxin production demyelination of neurons inflammation of the meninges damage to the brain and spinal cord producing spongiform lesions blocking signals of inhibitory motor neurons

inflammation of the meninges

This pathogen causes chills, fever, sore throat, muscle aches, headache, fatigue, and a nonproductive cough that gets progressively worse. It can be prevented by receiving an annual vaccination. influenza A virus Bordetella pertussis Streptococcus pyogenes respiratory syncytial virus Corynebacterium diphtheriae

influenza A virus

The role of lactoferrin in tears is to bind most of the free __________ thereby limiting a resource needed for growth of microbes.

iron

Leptospirosis is different from other UTIs because it ____. is a foodborne infection is caused by a bacterium can be transmitted by contaminated water has no symptoms is a zoonosis

is a zoonosis

What feature gives this arthropod its common name? its swollen abdomen its extra pair of walking legs its short pair of antennae its crablike pincer legs its stinger

its crablike pincer legs

Marcus, a Navy seal, was given orders to serve in the Middle East. Not long after his arrive with his military cohorts, he developed a fever. Being a Navy seal is an active occupation, so his weight loss went unnoticed. Marcus kept scratching his left forearm where he was bit by some unknown insect. What skin disease does Marcus have? smallpox leishmaniasis pediculosis scabies

leishmaniasis

Which of the following dietary restrictions could prevent recurrence of a vaginal yeast infection? high protein diet high fiber diet low fat diet low sugar diet that includes yogurt with Lactobacillus

low sugar diet that includes yogurt with Lactobacillus

What is the prominent leukocyte type seen in this blood smear? lymphocytes monocytes basophils eosinophils neutrophils

neutrophils

Which defense of the digestive tract is illustrated in this photo? mucus coating normal microbiota lysozyme digestive enzymes All of these are correct.

normal microbiota

Which of the following is a urogenital defense against infection in females, but not in males? the flushing action of urination normal microbiota that control pathogen reproduction the mucous layer that lines the urogenital system the acidic pH of urine the presence of fimbriae

normal microbiota that control pathogen reproduction

Meningitis caused by enterovirus __________. is often fatal is treated with penicillin normally resolves in several weeks without lasting complications is transmitted by mosquitoes Both a and d are correct.

normally resolves in several weeks without lasting complications

Large outbreaks of Cryptosporidiosis occurs since all of the _____________ are not filtered out by typical water treatment facilities. endospores trophozoites oocysts None of these choices is correct.

oocysts

Mrs. Wilson has type II diabetes who has a third degree burn on her left hand. Which pseudomonal infection could she potentially acquire? ecthyma gangrenosum opportunistic secondary skin infection green nail syndrome hot tub folliculitis

opportunistic secondary skin infection

Influenza A virus infections can be treated with the antiviral agent __________. isoniazid acyclovir oseltamivir amoxicillin erythromycin

oseltamivir

What is the treatment if your best friend's cousin has conjunctivitis caused by a viral pathogen? Select all that apply. over the counter eye drops with antihistamine antibiotics cold compress warm compress

over the counter eye drops with antihistamine cold compress warm compress

Laryngitis is commonly caused by __________. Staphylococcus aureus parainfluenza virus Corynebacterium diphtheriae rhinovirus influenza B virus

parainfluenza virus

Identify the pathogen: The eye infection shown in the photo is often caused by __________. adenovirus Streptococcus pneumoniae Staphylococcus aureus Propionibacterium acnes parvovirus B19

parvovirus B19

Identify the pathogen: What disease of the cardiovascular system is caused by this pathogen? pericarditis tuberculosis brucellosis tularemia anthrax

pericarditis

An intense respiratory disease that is characterized by a whooping sound that is made as a person rapidly tries to inhale after a sudden attack of coughing is called __________. influenza diphtheria pertussis the common cold tuberculosis

pertussis

Identify the disease and pathogen: A patient complains of fatigue, chest pain, and shortness of breath and has a consistent cough. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 39°C (102°F) and abnormal crackling sounds in the lungs; an X-ray reveals shadows in multiple areas of the lungs. The patient has __________. the flu; influenza A virus pharyngitis; Streptococcus pyogenes a cold; rhinovirus diphtheria; Corynebacterium diphtheriae pneumonia; Streptococcus pneumoniae

pneumonia; Streptococcus pneumoniae

If an individual is bitten by an animal of unknown rabies status, treatment for rabies includes injections of rabies immunoglobulin into the wound. washing of the wound with soap and water. post-exposure vaccination. irrigation of the would with povidone-iodine.

post-exposure vaccination.

The reservoir for Salmonella is primarily found in _____. humans only poultry and dairy products beef birds soil

poultry and dairy products

Which type of enzyme could cleave an IgG molecule? carboxylase kinase coagulase phosphatase protease

protease

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of diphtheria? sore throat nervous system damage fever pseudomembrane

pseudomembrane

Select the correct pairing. scabies : six-year itch pthirus pubis : crabs pediculus humanus corporis : head lice pediculus humanus capitis : body lice

pthirus pubis : crabs

The pathogen in the diagram causes __________. viral meningitis polio tetanus botulism rabies

rabies

Escherichia coli ferments lactose, whereas Salmonella and Shigella do not. On MacConkey agar, E. coli colonies would be _____ as a result of _____. red; acid production white; oxygen use red; nitrogen fixation blue; lactose hydrolysis green; acid production

red; acid production

A daily glass of cranberry juice has been found to ____. increase the risk of UTI have no effect on the incidence of UTI reduce the the incidence of UTI cause UTIs upset the balance of microorganisms in the urinary system

reduce the the incidence of UTI

Jenny became concerned about her young son's health. He seemed to have symptoms of the flu but he also had a bright red exanthema on both his cheeks. Antiviral medications are not available for this common childhood disease. How can Jenny protect her other two children from contracting this illness? Select all that apply. regular fomite disinfection consistent and thorough hand hygiene vaporizer avoidance of the infected child

regular fomite disinfection consistent and thorough hand hygiene avoidance of the infected child

Parvovirus B19 is transmitted primarily by __________. respiratory droplets through human-to-human contact IV drug use oral-fecal route through contaminated food or water direct contact with the skin of an infected person intimate sexual contact

respiratory droplets through human-to-human contact

A common cause of bronchiolitis in children younger than 2 years old is __________. Streptococcus pyogenes Haemophilus influenzae parainfluenza virus respiratory syncytial virus Bordetella pertussis

respiratory syncytial virus

Which of the following is a common cause of sinusitis? Klebsiella pneumoniae rhinovirus Corynebacterium diphtheriae methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes

rhinovirus

Which feature is characteristic of cholera? non-bloody urine constipation bloody stools rice water stools

rice water stools

Identify the pathogen: An 18-month-old child has acute onset of watery diarrhea with projectile vomiting. A pathogen that commonly causes this disease but can now be prevented by vaccination is _____. Salmonella rotavirus Giardia Cryptosporidium norovirus

rotavirus

Blood cultures are most often done on patients suspected of having __________. tuberculosis or myocarditis pericarditis or brucellosis tularemia or pericarditis sepsis or endocarditis arthritis or lymphangitis

sepsis or endocarditis

Identify the disease: A patient presents with the following symptoms: temperature of 38.6°C, tachycardia of 94 beats per minute, and tachypnea of 21 breaths per minute. Blood culture results confirm Streptococcus pneumoniae infection and she appears disoriented. Which medical condition accurately describes her symptoms? SIRS sepsis severe sepsis septic shock asepsis

severe sepsis

Which of the following is NOT a defining characteristic of the cytopathic effects of an EBV infection on a lymphocyte? increased size swelling of the plasma membrane lobing of the nucleus cytoplasmic vacuolation indentations of the plasma membrane

swelling of the plasma membrane

The tumors shown in the photo are symptoms of ____. primary syphilis secondary syphilis tertiary syphilis congenital syphilis inactive syphilis

tertiary syphilis

Which of the following diseases is caused by a neurotoxin? tetanus leprosy polio rabies toxoplasmosis

tetanus

When an ELISA is used to analyze a throat culture, it specifically reacts with __________, a component of the cell wall in Streptococcus pyogenes. teichoic acid the Lancefield group A carbohydrate mycolic acid N-acetylglucosamine ELISA tests react with all of these cell wall components

the Lancefield group A carbohydrate mycolic acid

Mumps can be prevented with _____. the MMR vaccine the DTaP vaccine vaccination with the inactivated mumps toxin prophylactic rifampicin treatment oral rehydration therapy

the MMR vaccine

Rales that can occur during pneumonia indicates viral and bacterial infections are present. frequent bronchospasms. a benign lung tumor. the accumulation of fluid in the lungs.

the accumulation of fluid in the lungs.

Women are more likely to develop cystitis than men because _____. urine in the male bladder is more acid the male urethra has a layer of mucus that the female urethra lacks the anus and the urethra opening are farther apart in the female the male urethra is shorter than the female urethra the female urethra is shorter than the male urethra

the female urethra is shorter than the male urethra

Vertical transmission of T. gondii occurs through the breast milk to the baby. during binary fission. through the placenta to the fetus. during conjugation.

through the placenta to the fetus.

Which of the following processes can rid the body of pathogens quickly? (Select all that apply) vaginal discharge salivation urination mechanical digestion

vaginal discharge urination

Poliovirus is primarily transmitted __________. by mosquitoes by direct contact during sex via fecally contaminated food, water, or fomites by mucus droplets when someone coughs or sneezes by eating undercooked meat

via fecally contaminated food, water, or fomites

ingestion of the S. aureus enterotoxin causes ______________ shortly after eating contaminated food. low grade fever bloody diarrhea migraine headaches vomiting

vomiting

Which of the following measures has results in a tenfold decrease in pediatric cases of epiglottitis? more frequent hand washing development of fourth generation cephalosporins widespread use of Hib vaccine improved intubation techniques

widespread use of Hib vaccine