Final Exam Project Management
The acquiring of the project team is a subprocess associated with the _____ process of project human resource management. a. executing c. planning b. controlling and monitoring d. initiating
A
The formula to determine the number of communication channels is _____, where n is the number of people involved. a. n (n-1)/2 c. n (n+1)/n(n-1) b. n(n+1)/2 d. n(n-1)/n(n+1)
A
Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would two people require? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4
A
A(n) _____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a. integration test c. user acceptance test b. unit test d. system test
B
According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is a medium that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking. a. phone call c. Meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site
B
A _____ is a technique used to show the effects of changing one or more variables on an outcome. a. sensitivity analysis c. Monte Carlo analysis b. decision tree d. systems analysis
A
A document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers is known as a(n) _____. a. RFQ c. WBS b. RFP d. SOW
A
A team has 10 communication channels between its various members. Using the formula number of communication channels = n (n-1)/2, where n is the number of people in the team, the team has _____ members. a. 5 c. 2 b. 3 d. 10
A
A(n) _____ contract carries the least risk for suppliers. a. CPPC c. CPAF b. FFP d. FP-EPA
A
A(n) _____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain. a. decision tree c. workaround b. activity-on-arrow d. backward pass
A
A(n) _____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a. defect c. deliverable b. yield d. variance
A
According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor? a. Recognition c. Training b. Salary d. Health benefits
A
After identifying and analyzing stakeholders, the project manager and team should develop a(n)______ to help them effectively engage stakeholders and make sure that good decisions are made throughout the life of the project. a. stakeholder management plan c. issue log b. stakeholder register d. power/interest grid
A
Identifying risks is a subprocess of the _____ process of project risk management. a. planning c. monitoring and controlling b. executing d. closing
A
In project procurement management, an output of the _____ monitoring and controlling process. a. Change requests c. Resource calendars b. Selected sellers d. Make-or-buy decisions
A
In project procurement management, which of the following is one of the main outputs of the conducting procurement process? a. A selected seller c. A procurement statement of work b. A procurement management plan d. A closed procurement
A
Outsourcing suppliers can often provide economies of scale, especially for hardware and software, that may not be available to the client alone. Which of the following benefits does this offer an organization? a. Reduction in fixed and recurrent costs b. Increased flexibility c. Increased accountability d. Access to specific skills
A
Performing qualitative and quantitative risk analyses are subprocesses of the _____ process of project risk management. a. planning c. monitoring and controlling b. executing d. closing
A
The process of choosing suppliers or sellers is known as _____. a. source selection c. WBS b. a bid d. a change order
A
The procurement statements of work are an output of the _____ process of project procurement management. a. planning c. monitoring and controlling b. executing d. closing
A
The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with high interest and high power are categorized as _____. a. resistant c. supportive b. neutral d. leading
A
Those who are _____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent
A
With a(n) _____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF c. CPAF b. FPIF d. CPIF
A
____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Lessons-learned reports
A
_____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. a. Project archives c. Project plans b. Forecasts d. Project notes
A
_____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
A
_____ involves determining everyone involved in the project or affected by it, and determining the best ways to manage relationships with them. a. Identifying stakeholders c. Managing stakeholder engagement b. Planning stakeholder management d. Controlling stakeholder engagement
A
_____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
A
_____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
A
_____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
A
_____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk responses b. Identifying risks d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
A
_____ is the new knowledge area identified by the Project Management Institute. a. Project stakeholder management c. Project risk management b. Project communication management d. Project procurement management
A
"Outsourcing to provide extra workers during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to fill entire projects with internal resources." Which of the following advantages does this characteristic of outsourcing provide organizations? a. Offers control over all aspects of projects that suppliers carry out b. Provides a company flexibility in staffing c. Shifts accountability from external suppliers to internal staff d. Helps avoid any form of dependency on suppliers
B
A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a. skewed distribution c. bimodal distribution b. normal distribution d. degenerate distribution
B
A _____ is a standard of measurement in quality management. a. milestone c. merge b. metric d. matrix
B
A(n) _____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other. a. risk breakdown structure c. process flow chart b. influence diagram d. work breakdown structure
B
Doctors who have been co-opted to actively participate in a project related to using information technology for chronic health problems would be examples of _____ stakeholders. a. supportive c. resistant b. leading d. neutral
B
In a(n) _____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus. a. FFP c. CPPC b. CPIF d. FPIF
B
In project procurement management, the process of conducting procurements is part of the _____ process. a. planning c. monitoring and controlling b. executing d. closing
B
Outputs of the _____ process consist of selected sellers and resource calendars. a. closing procurements c. planning procurement management b. conducting procurements d. controlling procurements
B
Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a _____ person. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent
B
Scope, time and cost goals in order of importance can be ranked on a(n) _____. a. requirements traceability matrix c. responsibility assignment matrix b. expectations management matrix d. probability matrix
B
The main output of the _____ process is the stakeholder register. a. Planning stakeholder management c. Managing stakeholder engagement b. Identifying stakeholders d. Controlling stakeholder engagement
B
The project team must take corrective action if stakeholders with _____ are categorized as resistant or unaware. a. high interest/low power c. low interest/ low power b. high interest and high power d. low interest/high power
B
Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would five people require? a. 9 c. 11 b. 10 d. 14
B
Which of the following is an output of the contract closure process? a. Procurement statements of work c. Resource calendars b. Updates to organizational process assets d. Work performance information
B
Which of the following is true of lump-sum contracts? a. They incur a high degree of risk for the buyer. c. They consist of a fee based on the satisfaction of subjective performance criteria. b. They involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service. d. They are also known as cost-reimbursable contracts.
B
_____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation
B
_____ are unplanned responses to risk events used when project teams do not have contingency plans in place. a. Workarounds c. Contingency plans b. Fallback plans d. Triggers
B
_____ help users to identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a. Gantt charts c. Control charts b. Pareto charts d. Tracking Gantt charts
B
_____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
B
_____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
B
_____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
B
_____ is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. a. Esteem c. Physiological b. Self-actualization d. Social
B
"A shortage of qualified personnel is one of the main reason that companies outsource. A project may require experts in a particular field for several months and planning for this procurement ensures that the needed services will be available for the project." Which of the following benefits does this characteristic of outsourcing provide an organization? a. Reduces focus on its core business b. Increases control over all aspects of projects that suppliers carry out c. Provides access to specific skills d. Reduces dependency on suppliers
C
A drawback of outsourcing is that: a. it does not provide access to specific skills or technologies. b. it invariably results in an increase in both fixed and recurrent costs. c. it can make an organization become overly dependent on particular suppliers. d. it cannot increase accountability of suppliers through a written contract.
C
A(n) _____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. RFP b. WBS d. SOW
C
According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is the most appropriate medium for giving complex instructions. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site
C
In project procurement management, which of the following processes involve completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items? a. Planning procurement management c. Closing procurements b. Controlling procurements d. Conducting procurements
C
In which of the following contracts does the buyer pay the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs? a. FPIF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPAF
C
One of the main outputs of the _____ process are the issue logs.. a. Planning stakeholder management c. Managing stakeholder engagement b. Identifying stakeholders d. Controlling stakeholder engagement
C
Psychologist David Merril describes _____ as reactive and task-oriented. a. "Expressives" c. "Analyticals" b. "Drivers" d. "Amiables"
C
The _____ lists the relative probability of a risk occurring and the relative impact of the risk occurring. a. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking chart c. probability/impact matrix b. requirements traceability matrix d. expectations management matrix
C
The stakeholder register is the output of the _____ process of project stakeholder management. a. initiating c. executing b. planning d. monitoring and controlling
C
Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the project _____ management knowledge area. a. integration c. procurement b. quality d. human resources
C
What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Assess the range for the variables being considered. d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.
C
Which of the following is true about identifying stakeholder ? a. The project manager's family is not a potential stakeholder. c. Stakeholders with indirect ties to the project need not be engaged with. b. It is not very difficult to identify stakeholders. d. Stakeholders do not change during a project
C
_____ analysis simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. a. Sensitivity c. Monte Carlo b. Systems d. NPV
C
_____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a. Secondary risks c. Contingency plans b. Workarounds d. Management reserves
C
_____ contracts involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs and often include fees. a. Firm-fixed-price c. Cost-reimbursable contracts b. Lump sum d. Fixed-price incentive fee
C
_____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
C
_____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
C
"Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have instead worked on important competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design. Outsourcing helps tackle this problem." Which of the following benefits does outsourcing primarily provide in such a scenario? a. Reduces fixed and recurrent costs b. Protects strategic information from being accessible to external suppliers c. Increases accountability even without a written contract d. Helps focus on an organization's core business
D
A _____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. a. risk-seeking c. risk-fearing b. risk-averse d. risk-neutral
D
A(n) _____ is a tool used to document, monitor, and track problems that need resolution. a. requirements traceability matrix c. power/interest grid b. Gantt chart d. issue log
D
After planning for procurement management, which of the following does the next process involve? a. Determining the evaluation criteria for the contract award c. Using expert judgement in planning purchases and acquisitions b. Developing procurement statements of work d. Sending appropriate documentation to potential sellers
D
An example of pull communication is _____. a. meetings c. voice mails b. video conferencing d. blogs
D
From the buyer's perspective, the _____ is the least desirable among all contracts because the supplier has no incentive to decrease costs. a. CPIF c. CPAF b. CPFF d. CPPC
D
In project procurement management, the process of _____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. closing procurements c. conducting procurements b. controlling procurements d. planning procurement management
D
In project procurement management, which of the following is an output of the executing process? a. Make-or-buy decisions c. Source selection criteria b. Statements of work d. Resource calendars
D
The _____ is a description of the work required for a procurement. a. RFQ c. WBS b. RFP d. SOW
D
The first step in project procurement management is: a. closing procurement management. c. conducting procurements. b. controlling procurements. d. planning procurement management.
D
The items discussed in a(n) _____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences. a. final project report c. audit report b. design document d. lessons-learned report
D
Which of the following processes of project procurement management involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed? a. Closing procurements c. Deciding on the services to procure b. Settling contracts d. Controlling procurements
D
_____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool that maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project in addition to identifying risks. a. SharePoint portal c. Expectations management matrix b. Probability/impact matrices or charts d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
D
_____ involves monitoring stakeholder relationships and adjusting plans and strategies for engaging stakeholders as needed. a. Planning stakeholder management c. Managing stakeholder engagement b. Identifying stakeholders d. Controlling stakeholder engagement
D
_____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Identifying risks b. Planning risk responses d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
D
_____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
D
_____ is a fact-finding technique that can be used for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a. Brainstorming c. The Delphi technique b. Monte Carlo analysis d. Interviewing
D
_____ is based on an individual's personal charisma. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
D
_____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
D
_____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Validity d. Functionality
D
_____ refers to matching certain behaviors of the other person. a. Empathic listening c. Synergy b. Rapport d. Mirroring
D
_____ risks refer to those that are direct results of implementing risk responses. a. Architectural c. Residual b. Primary d. Secondary
D
The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. quality planning c. quality assurance b. quality certification d. quality control
d
Important tools used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve
A
In the Tuckman model, _____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming
A
According to Thamhain and Wilemon, _____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders. a. authority c. expertise b. achievement d. self-actualization
A
Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called _____. a. DMAIC c. configuration management b. weighted scoring model d. use case modeling
A
Recognizing an employee as the "Star Performer of the Month" would be satisfying the _____ need of the Maslow's hierarchy of needs. a. esteem c. physiological b. self-actualization d. safety
A
As a manager, you want to praise a team member, Phil, for doing a good job on a particular project. However, you know that Phil tends to be an introvert. Which of the following communication methods would Phil be most comfortable with? a. Call Phil in for a private meeting to appreciate his work. c. Announce Phil's accomplishment on the company Web site. b. Call a team meeting to praise Phil for his work on the project. d. Have top management and the other teams in the company award Phil.
A
Research has indicated that in a face-to-face interaction, _____ percent of information is through body language. a. 58 c. 7 b. 35 d. 75
A
According to McClelland's acquired-needs theory, people with a high need for _____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a. affiliation c. Power b. self-actualization d. achievement
A
Which of the following methods of communication is likely to be most effective for conveying sensitive or important information? a. Short face-to-face meetings c. Telephone conversations b. E-mails d. Reading reports from other team members
A
Which of the following questions is typically addressed by a project forecast? a. How much more money will be needed to complete the project? c. Are our clients satisfied with the speed and quality of work on this project? b. Does the quality of output match our goals? d. How comfortable are employees with the software and technology being used on the project?
A
_____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. a. Features c. Yields b. Outputs d. Metrics
A
_____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Decomposition
A
_____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling c. System testing b. Conformance d. Fitness for use
A
_____ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. a. Design of experiments c. Activity-on-arrow b. Backward pass d. Crashing
A
_____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
A
_____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
A
_____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications. a. Conformance to requirements c. Project feasibility b. Fitness for use d. Benchmarking
A
_____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods. a. Resource loading c. Resource histogram b. Resource leveling d. Resource logs
A
A(n) _____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time. a. responsibility assignment matrix c. RACI charts b. resource histogram d. organizational breakdown structure
B
Key outputs of _____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. planning the human resource plan
B
Managers who follow _____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a. Theory Z c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory K
B
Managing communications is part of the _____ process of the project communication management. a. closing c. planning b. executing d. monitoring and controlling
B
Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management. a. controlling quality c. quality certification b. planning quality management d. performing quality assurance
B
Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a. 1.34 c. 34 b. 3.4 d. 13.4
B
The _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities problems. a. ISO 9000 c. seven run rule b. six 9s of quality rule d. Six Sigma rule
B
The bottom four needs in Maslow's structure are referred to as _____ needs. a. self-actualization c. safety b. deficiency d. growth
B
The highest level of needs in Maslow's structure is referred to as a _____ need. a. deficiency c. Safety b. growth d. physiological
B
Which of the following is a guideline that project managers should follow when communicating with their teams through e-mail? a. Always reply to all the people to whom the initial message was sent. b. If the entire message can fit in the subject line, put it there. c. Minimize the total number of e-mails by including as many subjects as possible in a single e-mail. d. Continue replying to e-mail messages without changing the subject line to maintain continuity.
B
Which of the following is true of a project communications plan? a. The communications plan within an organization does not vary from project to project. ' c. The communications plan should never be part of the team contract, but should always be a separate document. b. The communications plan should be part of the overall project management plan. d. The communications plan should include project forecasts and other technical information.
B
____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Lessons-learned reports
B
_____ a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology and proposed the hierarchy of needs theory. a. Sigmund Freud c. Carl Jung b. Abraham Maslow d. Philip Zimbardo
B
_____ address where the project stands in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost goals. a. Technical reports c. Progress reports b. Status reports d. Lessons-learned reports
B
_____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
B
_____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
B
_____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
B
_____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource histogram
B
_____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost
B
_____ means that a product can be used as it was intended. a. Conformance to requirements c. Critical chain scheduling b. Fitness for use d. Free slack
B
_____ refers to action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a. A process adjustment c. An acceptance decision b. Rework d. Validation
B
_____, a quality system standard is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization. a. Seven run rule c. Six Sigma b. ISO 9000 d. ASQ
B
_____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost
D
According to McClelland's acquired-needs theory, people who need personal _____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy. a. affiliation c. power b. advancement d. achievement
C
According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is the most inappropriate medium for addressing negative behavior. a. voice mail c. Meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site
C
An example of push communication is _____. a. meetings c. voice mails b. video conferencing d. blogs
C
An important tool used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve
C
At the bottom of Maslow's structure are _____ needs. a. esteem c. physiological b. self-actualization d. social
C
One of Juran's ten steps to quality improvement states that: a. an organization should minimize top management involvement in the achievement of individual employee goals. c. a n organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement. b. an organization should entrust improvement to individual employees rather than appointing teams or facilitators. d. an organization should avoid "keeping score" in order to achieve an overall atmosphere of quality improvement.
C
The _____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail. a. to c. subject b. from d. cc
C
The _____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story. a. RAM c. TAT b. MBTI d. RACI
C
The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is _____. a. defining how the work will be accomplished b. breaking down the work into manageable elements c. finalizing the project requirements d. assigning work responsibilities
C
The main outputs of the _____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors updates. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. human resource planning
C
Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the _____ subprocess of project quality management. a. initiating c. monitoring and controlling b. closing d. executing
C
Which of the following is true of push communication? a. Information is sent only to recipients who request the information. c. Information is sent to recipients without their request. b. This method ensures that the information is understood by recipients. d. This method ensures that the information is received by the recipients.
C
____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. a. Integration testing c. User acceptance testing b. Unit testing d. System testing
C
____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Project updates
C
_____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
C
_____ involves assigning the needed personnel to work on the project. a. Planning human resource management c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
C
_____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
C
_____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects. a. Juran c. Crosby b. Ishikawa d. Deming
C
A _____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a. statistical sampling chart c. Six Sigma chart b. Pareto chart d. control chart
D
A(n) _____ is a Web site that enables anyone who accesses it to contribute or modify Web page content. a. intranet b. blog c. forum d. wiki
D
According to Blake and Mouton, project managers who use the _____ method use a give-and take-approach to resolving conflicts. a. smoothing c. confrontation b. forcing d. compromise
D
According to Lencioni, which of the following qualities is present in organizations that succeed? a. Commitment c. Accountability b. Autonomy d. Teamwork
D
According to Thamhain and Wilemon, _____ is the ability to improve a worker's position. a. penalty c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion
D
As the number of people involved in a project _____, the complexity of communications _____. a. increases, decreases c. increases, stays constant b. decreases, increases d. increases, increases
D
E-mail communication is most suited for: a. assessing commitment to a project. c. mediating a conflict between multiple parties. b. building consensus among disputing parties. d. communicating routine information.
D
In the MBTI, the _____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information. a. Extrovert/Introvert c. Judgment/Perception b. Thinking/Feeling d. Sensation/Intuition
D
In the Tuckman model, _____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming
D
People with a high need for _____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. a. affiliation c. power b. security d. achievement
D
Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the _____ process of project quality management. a. initiating c. monitoring and controlling b. closing d. executing
D
The output of the _____ process is a communications management plan. a. managing communications c. controlling communications b. reporting performance d. planning communications
D
Which of the following communication methods would be most appropriate for assessing the commitment of project stakeholders? a. Wikis c. Web sites b. E-mail d. Meetings
D
Which of the following is one of Deming's 14 Points for Management? a. An organization should increase dependence on inspection to achieve quality. c. Minimize total cost by working with multiple suppliers rather than a single supplier. b. Award business based on price tag alone rather than on other considerations. d. Eliminate the annual rating or merit system.
D
____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. a. SQFD c. OPM3 b. MTBI d. CMMI
D
_____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z
D
_____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Prototyping c. Mind mapping b. Systems thinking d. Benchmarking
D
_____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a. Strategic planning c. Identifying stakeholders b. Systems management d. Planning communications
D
_____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
D
