Final Exam PSY 242

This treatment, a type of antagonist, helps to reduce cravings for the substance of choice by blocking or nullifying the "positive" effects when the substance is used. a. Naltrexone b. Methadone c. Tranquilizers d. Antabuse

a. Naltrexone

Lily, who was diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), is extremely anxious about germs. She relieves her anxiety by washing her hands frequently with hot water. During therapy, however, she is asked to touch doorknobs but is NOT allowed to wash her hands afterward. What type of intervention is her therapist using? a. exposure and response prevention b. thought stopping c. imaginal exposure d. progressive relaxation

a. exposure and response prevention

Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy is rooted in the idea that to reduce depression, clients should ____ their thoughts. a. observe b. dismiss c. analyze d. alter

a. observe

Peter Pettigrew is 19 years old. For the past year, he has experienced an increase in unusual psychotic-like behaviors. For example, he has become increasingly suspicious of others and has started to believe he has special abilities like telepathy. Peter has not experienced additional symptoms and would not meet the criteria to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. Based on this information, a psychologist would likely say that Peter is probably in the _____________ of schizophrenia. a. prodromal phase b. endophenotypical phase c. morbid phase d. residual phase

a. prodromal phase

Fill in the blanks. A __________ is what the client tells the clinician they experience, whereas a __________ is observed by the clinician, both of which occur in distinct combinations or patterns, referred to as a _____________ . a. symptom; sign; syndrome b. syndrome; sign; symptom c. sign; symptom; syndrome d. symptom; syndrome; sign

a. symptom; sign; syndrome

With regard to substance use disorder (SUD) comorbidity, which of the following is NOT true? a. Women tend to experience trauma before developing an SUD. b. Anxiety disorders are typcially preceded by SUDs. c. Mood disorders show the highest rates of comorbidity with SUDs. d. Dual diagnosis affects more than 2 million people.

b. Anxiety disorders are typcially preceded by SUDs.

All of the following are true regarding assessment, EXCEPT what? a. Assessment may include multiple sources beside the patient (e.g., teachers, family members). b. Assessment is not necessary if the client understands what is causing their problem. c. Good assessment will rule-out alternative explanations for the presenting problem. d. Assessment should use multiple methods to obtain information.

b. Assessment is not necessary if the client understands what is causing their problem.

Which of the following best describes borderline personality disorder (BPD)? a. Current prevalence statistics indicate BPD is more common in men than women. b. BPD is marked by an inconsistent and readily shifting sense of self and relationships. c. Individuals with BPD often have psychotic features, teetering on the "borderline" between illusion and reality. d. Individuals with BPD are easily treated in short-term psychotherapy.

b. BPD is marked by an inconsistent and readily shifting sense of self and relationships.

Which of the following is not consistent with the DSM-5 definition of personality disorder? a. Longstanding, pervasive, and inflexible patterns of behavior or personality traits. b. Behavior patterns that are sanctioned by the dominant culture. c. Persistently maladaptive perceptions, cognitions, and interpersonal relatedness. d. Impairment in social and occupational functioning.

b. Behavior patterns that are sanctioned by the dominant culture.

Which of the following about anorexia nervosa is TRUE? a. Individuals with anorexia do not binge and purge. b. Its distinguishing characteristic is failure to maintain minimum body weight. c. Prevalence rates are similar across all countries throughout the world. d. It has one subtype involving restricting food intake.

b. Its distinguishing characteristic is failure to maintain minimum body weight.

For about a month, Molly has been experiencing sudden shortness of breath, trembling, dizziness, and chest pain. Because of her age and weight, she initially thought she was having a heart attack, but that proved to be incorrect. Molly is trying to find a pattern for these recurrent events, but they're almost always unexpected. Molly can be best characterized as having: a. Agoraphobia b. Panic disorder c. Social anxiety disorder d. Specific phobia

b. Panic disorder

Under what circumstances might a researcher choose an ABAB design? a. When conducting a correlational study. b. When conducting single-subject research. c. When conducting a randomized controlled trial. d. When seeking to test multiple types of treatments.

b. When conducting single-subject research.

Lilly wakes up one day, distressed because she suddenly became blind overnight even though she doesn't have any known medical illness. She is rushed to the emergency room, but medical tests suggest that her eyes are fine—she actually can see but experiences blindness anyhow. Her doctors suggest that her blindness could be _____. a. an iatrogenic condition b. a symptom of conversion disorder c. depersonalization/derealization disorder d. the result of Munchausen's syndrome

b. a symptom of conversion disorder

Neville was getting a brain scan when the loud sound of thunder startled him. "I can see that the thunder scared you," said the technician, "because I suddenly noticed a burst of activity in your _____." a. prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. thalamus d. glutamate

b. amygdala

A clinical psychologist notes that a client wears his clothes inside out, that his hair is matted, and there is dirt under his fingernails. This information is known as ________ . a. self-monitoring. b. clinical observation. c. a dynamic formulation. d. an observational decision tree.

b. clinical observation.

Expressed emotion is considered a familial risk factor for schizophrenia. Which of the following is an example of expressed emotion? a. sadness b. hostility c. pleasure d. anxiety

b. hostility

The fact that Penelope always gets a cold during final exams and other high-stress situations could provide evidence to support the ________ perspective. a. general paresis b. immune system c. genetic d. evolutionary

b. immune system

In an experiment, the researcher controls or manipulates the _________. a. random sample b. independent variable c. confounding variable d. dependent variable

b. independent variable

If you had a client with bipolar disorder and believed that many of their symptoms were impacted by problems with sleep and circadian rhythms, you might consider using __________ . a. short-term psychoanalytic supportive therapy b. interpersonal and social rhythm therapy c. dynamic interpersonal therapy d. mindfulness-based cognitive therapy

b. interpersonal and social rhythm therapy

The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is involved in __________. a. memory, emotion, and the secretion of neurotransmitters b. stress, immunity, mood regulation, and the production of cortisol c. keeping the status quo of body temperature and body weight d. breathing, heart rate, appetite, blood pressure, and pupil dilation

b. stress, immunity, mood regulation, and the production of cortisol

According to conceptualizations of anxiety disorders, fear is considered a ________ , whereas anxiety is considered a ________ . a. learned alarm; true alarm b. true alarm; false alarm c. false alarm; true alarm d. learned alarm; false alarm

b. true alarm; false alarm

which of the following statements about HiTOP is False? a. It contains six spectra dimensions. b.It relies heavily on diagnostic categories c. Its spectra are derived by analyzing scientific data. d.It sees many mental disorders as comorbid.

b.It relies heavily on diagnostic categories

For an adult patient, which is of the following is an example of a proximal stressor within the diathesis-stress model? a. Childhood trauma b. Genetics c. A recent breakup with a romantic partner d. Death of a parent during childhood

c. A recent breakup with a romantic partner

Which of the following is NOT one of the five symptoms of psychotic disorders, according to the DSM-5? a. False, persistent beliefs, which are maintained in the face of overwhelming evidence. b. Sensory experiences in the absence of sensory stimuli. c. A tendency to become aggressive without obvious cause or provocation d. Negative symptoms such as decreased motivation, flattened affect, or reduction in speech.

c. A tendency to become aggressive without obvious cause or provocation

Your client has come to you with distress related to an impending divorce after discovering their partner's infidelity. The client reports intrusive thoughts, nightmares, avoidance, rage, and physiological reactivity when they see things that remind them of the day they learned of their spouse's affair. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis for this client? a. Complex Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder b. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder c. Adjustment Disorder d. Acute Stress Disorder

c. Adjustment Disorder

High levels of this personality trait are related to a person being straightforward, modest, trusting, and compliant. However, low levels of this personality trait are associated with mistrust and antagonism. a. Neuroticism b. Conscienetiousness c. Agreeableness d. Openness

c. Agreeableness

Harry thought that someone was going out of their way to hurt him, Ron thought that others could hear his thoughts, and Hermione thought that an evil entity was inserting thoughts into her mind. How can we label these experiences? a. All three appear to experience delusions. Harry is experiencing a bizarre delusion, Ron is experiencing a delusion of thought insertion, and Hermione is experiencing a delusion of reference. b. All three appear to experience delusions. Harry is experiencing a delusion of persecution, Ron is experiencing a delusion of thought insertion, and Hermione is experiencing thought broadcasting. c. All three appear to experience delusions. Harry is experiencing a delusion of persecution, Ron is experiencing thought broadcasting, and Hermione is experiencing a delusion of thought insertion. d. All three appear to experience delusions. Harry is experiencing a delusion of reference, Ron is experienc

c. All three appear to experience delusions. Harry is experiencing a delusion of persecution, Ron is experiencing thought broadcasting, and Hermione is experiencing a delusion of thought insertion.

What is one drawback of using Antabuse to treat alcohol use disorder? a. Antabuse is similar to methadone, the nicotine patch, and naltrexone. b. Antabuse will only work if you take it regularly, increasing risk for delirium tremens during detoxification. c. Antabuse can provide an incentive to stay sober, but the negative effects will stop almost immediately if the medication is discontinued. d. Antabuse can reduce withdrawal symptoms, but cannot prevent new use.

c. Antabuse can provide an incentive to stay sober, but the negative effects will stop almost immediately if the medication is discontinued.

Which of the following provides a unique challenge when trying to eliminate the obsessions seen in OCD? a. Obsessions are likely to only be experienced under certain environmental conditions. b. Medications are ineffective in suppressing obsessions. c. Attempting to not think about something may lead to thinking about it more. d. The client is likely to feel that his or her concerns are justified.

c. Attempting to not think about something may lead to thinking about it more.

Type II trauma is probably best represented by: a. A severe motor vehicle accident involving a fatality. b. A hurricane, which destroyed one's home and automobile. c. Being a prisoner of war. d. Being mugged while on vacation.

c. Being a prisoner of war.

According to HiTOP, which of the following pairing of mental disorders is incorrect? a. Panic Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) and Major Depressive Disorder c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Specific Phobia

c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

In the diathesis-stress model, "diathesis" refers to a. an inherited disorder. b. conditions in the environment that can trigger a disorder depending upon how severe the stressors are. c. an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person susceptible to developing a disorder. d. the inheritance of multiple disorders.

c. an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person susceptible to developing a disorder.

Mrs. B received a very poor rating by her supervisor, who had been constantly criticizing her in front of her coworkers. When she got home, her kids ran up to greet her, all talking at once. Mrs. B responded by yelling, "Leave me alone! Can't you see I'm tired?" According to psychoanalytic theory, this is an example of the defense mechanism known as a. repression. b. rationalization. c. displacement. d. projection.

c. displacement.

Because of its involvement in reward-seeking and emotional responses to rewards, _________ appear(s) to play a role in understanding binge eating. a. norepinephrine b. serotonin and norepinephrine c. dopamine d. serotonin

c. dopamine

Because of its role in long-term memory storage, researchers believe that the _______ plays a role in the development of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). a. amygdala b. thalamus c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus

c. hippocampus

Socioeconomic status (SES) is based on a person's________. a. income, employment, education, and social networks b. income and employment c. income, employment, and education d. income and social networks

c. income, employment, and education

A person with schizoid personality disorder lacks social relationships because ________, whereas a person with schizotypal personality disorder lacks social relationships because ________. a. they are excessively worried about being criticized or rejected; of their odd or eccentric behaviors b. of their odd or eccentric behaviors; they don't want or enjoy them c. they don't want or enjoy them; of their odd or eccentric behaviors d. of their odd or eccentric behaviors; they are excessively worried about being criticized or rejected

c. they don't want or enjoy them; of their odd or eccentric behaviors

Which symptoms reflect disruptions of cognitive retrieval? a. Sadness and anxiety b. Avoidance and distraction c. Pain and pain perception d. Amnesia and flashbacks

d. Amnesia and flashbacks

Which trait domain is most strongly connected to narcissistic personality? a. Detachment b. Disinhibition c. Suspiciousness d. Antagonism

d. Antagonism

According to the self-medication hypothesis, who would be most at risk for developing an addiction to drugs? a. Leo, who has a history of poor achievement at school. b. Demarcus, who is self-conscious about his weight and fasts regularly. c. Haidt, who over eats and is addicted to sugar. d. Betty, who has trouble recognizing and regulating her emotions.

d. Betty, who has trouble recognizing and regulating her emotions.

Individuals with this personality disorder are very likely to have problems with indecisiveness, tend to subordinate their needs in order to keep others involved in a relationship, and tend to be high in agreeableness. a. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder b. Borderline Personality Disorder c. Avoidant Personality Disorder d. Dependent Personality Disorder

d. Dependent Personality Disorder

Failure to maintain personal hygiene is related to which schizophrenia symptom? a. Looseness of associations b. Thought disorder c. Catatonic behavior d. Disorganized behavior

d. Disorganized behavior

I asked my patient, "Why are you here (in the emergency room) today?" He answered: "There's a rat in my belly. He's gnawing on me. The rat is a lover. Are you a lover?" According to the mental status exam, which of the following would best describe his response? a. Psychotic disturbance; persecutory delusion b. Disturbance in thought process; Illogical delusion c. Disturbance in thought content; looseness of association d. Disturbance in thought process; looseness of association

d. Disturbance in thought process; looseness of association

Since her car accident six weeks ago, Dolores has refused to drive. She's also experienced anxiety, flashbacks, and dissociative symptoms. Her symptoms most closely resemble: a. Adjustment disorder b. Acute stress disorder (ASD) c. Persistent complex bereavement disorder d. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

d. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

What are the four Ps of the 4P model of case formulation? a. Preparedness, predispositions, posttraumatic factors, premeditated interventions b. Prerequisites, precalculus, premeditation, preparedness c. Preparation, participation, perpetuation, postvention d. Preconditions, precipitating factors, perpetuating factors, protective factors

d. Preconditions, precipitating factors, perpetuating factors, protective factors

Which of the following best describes the difference between a psychologist and a psychiatrist? a. Psychiatrists can perform psychological assessments, while psychologists cannot. b. Psychologists tend to take a more biological perspective on abnormality and mental illness, while psychiatrists tend to take a more psychological perspective. c. Psychiatrists can perform counseling and do research, while psychologists mostly do research. d. Psychiatrists have MDs, while psychologists usually have PhDs.

d. Psychiatrists have MDs, while psychologists usually have PhDs.

Professor Trelawney discusses how problematic substance use may stem from insecure attachment styles and a need to cope via substance use (i.e., self-medication). Based on these perspectives, we might expect that she is a proponent of which perspective? a. Humanistic b. Existential c. Cognitive-behavioral d. Psychodynamic

d. Psychodynamic

Which statement best describes the enhanced cognitive-behavioral therapy model of eating disorders? a. "All eating disorders have one core issue in common. They all involve a tendency to view your self-worth in terms of managing your body's weight and shape." b. "Do not directly challenge a person's negative thoughts in therapy or ask them to change their thinking. Instead, teach your clients to be aware of their thoughts and teach them that thoughts are not the same thing as absolute truths." c. "Eating disorders are not only about eating; eating problems actually reflect relationship problems." d. "In therapy, it would be best to help clients better identify and feel more comfortable with their emotions. That way, they can stop using problematic eating habits as a way of avoiding uncomfortable feelings."

a. "All eating disorders have one core issue in common. They all involve a tendency to view your self-worth in terms of managing your body's weight and shape."

Which of the following is not consistent with the schizophrenia recovery patterns presented during the class lecture? a. A substantial proportion of people diagnosed with schizophrenia, between 40-50%, will require lifelong institutionalization. b. A small proportion (about 1 in 6) will no longer need treatment and recover completely. c. A little bit more than 1/3 of patients are responsive to treatment, show improved functioning, and less distress, but are not "cured." d. Most people diagnosed with schizophrenia will continue to show negative symptoms.

a. A substantial proportion of people diagnosed with schizophrenia, between 40-50%, will require lifelong institutionalization.

Which of the following statements about amygdala hijack is NOT true? a. According to the triune brain model, amygdala hijack occurs in the neocortex. b. A stressor, such as an expensive bill we cannot afford or a nasty email from our boss, can elicit amygdala hijack. c. During amygdala hijack, rational thought is overridden by strong emotional responses. d. Amygdala hijack is characterized by an immediate sense of emotional overwhelm driven by cortisol and adrenaline.

a. According to the triune brain model, amygdala hijack occurs in the neocortex.

Neville avoids leaving his home. He fears being in public places because he thinks he may embarrass himself or have an anxious or panicked reaction when in public. His symptoms appear most consistent with which disorder? a. Agoraphobia b. Generalized anxiety disorder c. Panic Disorder d. Separation anxiety disorder

a. Agoraphobia

Which of the following is the least likely to be considered a developmental trauma? a. Combat exposure b. Child abuse or neglect c. A parent losing their young child to cancer d. Witnessing abuse between parental figures

a. Combat exposure

Type I signs of schizophrenia include _______ , whereas Type II signs include _______. a. Delusions; avolition b. Emotional flattening; hallucinations c. Asociality; Alogia d. Incoherence; bizarre behavior

a. Delusions; avolition

Check which of the following are either A) symptoms or signs of a panic attack, or B) additional diagnostic criteria. (Check all that apply). a. Derealization or depersonalization b. Heart palpitations c. Compulsions d. At least 4 symptoms that last at least 60 minutes. e. Chronic worry (longer than 6 months). f. Avoidance of situations that might make escape difficult if a panic attack occurs. g. Sweating h. Fear of losing control or going crazy

a. Derealization or depersonalization b. Heart palpitations g. Sweating h. Fear of losing control or going crazy

What is the most central distinction between feeding and eating disorders? a. Eating disorders involve distorted body image, while feeding disorders usually do not. b. Overall, feeding disorders are more common and more serious than eating disorders. c. Feeding disorders occur most often in adults, while eating disorders occur most often in children. d. Eating disorders include eating inappropriate or non-food materials, like dirt, chalk, paper, clay, or coins.

a. Eating disorders involve distorted body image, while feeding disorders usually do not.

Expressing empathy, developing discrepancy, avoiding argumentation, rolling with resistance, and supporting self-efficacy are all components of: a. Motivational interviewing b. Contingency management c. Relapse prevention d. The transtheoretical model of change

a. Motivational interviewing

New research that monochorionic identical twins show higher concordance rates (about 60%) for schizophrenia compared to dichorionic identical twins (about 11%), and that dichorionic identical twins show similar rates of schizophrenia to fraternal twins (about 17%) suggests that: a. Environmental factors, specifically the embryonic environment relative to a shared placenta, may explain increased risk for schizophrenia previously attributed to shared genetics. b. Environmental factors specific to the mother's health or illness during the second trimester explain the most variance in risk for schizophrenia in the developing fetus. c. Environmental factors specific to the embryonic environment do not predict schizophrenia to the same extent as do genetics. d. Monozygotic twins always show lower rates of schizophrenia concordance because they are always dichorionic.

a. Environmental factors, specifically the embryonic environment relative to a shared placenta, may explain increased risk for schizophrenia previously attributed to shared genetics.

The medical term referring to the underlying cause of something is: a. Etiology b. Diagnosis c. Syndrome d. Nomenclature

a. Etiology

George attends therapy, where his therapist uses CBTp (Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy for Psychosis). George is learning when and how to attend to visual hallucinations he experiences regularly. His therapist guides him in an exercise to identify clues about the reality of his experience. This is consistent with which aspect of the treatment? a. Evidential analysis b. Socratic questioning c. Normalization d. Behavioral experiments

a. Evidential analysis

What describes the main features of mania? a. High energy and a euphoric mood b. An overwhelming sense of sadness and fatigue c. A lack of pleasure and a pessimistic worldview d. Indecisiveness and difficulty concentrating

a. High energy and a euphoric mood

It is important for clinicians to accurately distinguish between schizophrenia and DID (Dissociative Identity Disorder) in diagnostic assessment because treatment for these two disorders is very different. One of the reasons that DID may be confused with and misdiagnosed as schizophrenia is related to the presence of Schneiderian First Rank Symptoms, which historically were used to diagnose schizophrenia. Which of the following are examples of these symptoms? a. Internal conversations b. Hearing harsh/threatening voices that the patient identifies as a parent figure c. Hearing a child's voice d. Self-puzzlement

a. Internal conversations

PCT or Panic Control Treatment is a form of CBT with strong empirical support. Which of the following statements regarding PCT is NOT true? a. Interoceptive exposure involves presenting the client with cues that elicit panic, such as dirt or germs. b. PCT involves addressing fear of the internal sensations resembling panic attacks. c. PCT includes psychoeducation, breathing training, cognitive restructuring, and interoceptive exposure. d. Interoceptive exposure involves producing sensations that resemble panic attacks in the office, for example, by spinning in a chair.

a. Interoceptive exposure involves presenting the client with cues that elicit panic, such as dirt or germs.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding comorbidity? a. It improves interrater reliability. b. It is defined as diagnosing multiple disorders at a time. c. It poses challenges to validity. d. It illustrates the blurred boundaries between different mental disorder categories.

a. It improves interrater reliability.

One week or more of persistently elevated mood characterizes which of the following? a. Manic episode b. Grandiosity c. Major depressive episode d. Hypomanic episode

a. Manic episode

One of your friends knows you are taking Abnormal Psychology, and wants your opinion about the causal role of mass media in eating disorders. What do you tell them? a. Media exposure seems to predict greater body dissatisfaction, but it only predicts these problems among younger children, and not young adults or adolescents. b. Actually, prevention studies conclude that refraining from mass media exposure (via magazines, internet, or social media), can reduce risk for eating disorders. c. Disordered eating is caused by media exposure. d. There are correlations between media exposure and purging, but not the thin ideal.

a. Media exposure seems to predict greater body dissatisfaction, but it only predicts these problems among younger children, and not young adults or adolescents.

Which of the following statements regarding yoga and meditation as adjunctive treatments for PTSD is most accurate? a. Meditation and yoga is associated with the same improvements in hippocampal volume as is CBT. b. Meditation and yoga increases activation of the right amygdala. c. Meditation and yoga increase hippocampal volume. d. Meditation and yoga, but not CBT, reduce activation of the right amygdala.

a. Meditation and yoga is associated with the same improvements in hippocampal volume as is CBT.

Which of the following personality disorders are likely related to the following combination of personality traits and behaviors: low levels of neuroticism, arrogance, low conscientiousness, manipulativeness, and low agreeableness? a. Narcissistic Personality Disorder and Antisocial Personality Disorder b. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder and Schizotypal Personality Disorder c. Antisocial Personality Disorder and Borderline Personality Disorder d. Schizoid Personality Disorder and Paranoid Personality Disorder

a. Narcissistic Personality Disorder and Antisocial Personality Disorder

When it comes to treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), how do psychiatric drugs compare to psychological therapies in terms of their effectiveness? a. Psychological therapies are considered superior to drug treatments for PTSD. b. Neither treatment is considered very effective. c. Drug treatments and psychological therapies are equally effective for treating PTSD. d. Drug treatments are considered superior to psychological therapies for PTSD.

a. Psychological therapies are considered superior to drug treatments for PTSD.

The phase-based treatment for Dissociative Identity Disorder includes three treatment phases. The first phase focuses on what? a. Stablization and symptom reduction, and safety from self-injurious or suicidal behavior. b. Partial integration through fusion of some alters/parts. c. Confronting or working through traumatic memories. d. Integration and cooperation between alters/parts.

a. Stablization and symptom reduction, and safety from self-injurious or suicidal behavior.

Tolerance involves a change in the dose-response curve. What does this actually mean? a. That a higher concentration of the drug is required to achieve the same (usually desired) effect. b. There is increased sensitivty to a drug as a result of repeated exposure to it. c. A lower dose is needed to achieve the same effect, particularly for drugs with a short half-life. d. That the same dose of a drug will have more of an effect if used daily.

a. That a higher concentration of the drug is required to achieve the same (usually desired) effect.

MAOIs and tricyclic antidepressants are not used much today because: a. They have a host of unpleasant side effects, including potentially fatal interactions with food and alcohol. b. They are too xpensive for people to afford. c. They are not strong enough to treat depression. d. The efficacy rates for treatment of depression are low.

a. They have a host of unpleasant side effects, including potentially fatal interactions with food and alcohol.

What is one factor we should consider when distinguishing normal fear reactions and pathological reactions, such as panic attacks? a. We need to consider the context of anxiety, and whether it is actually a true alarm. b. That panic attacks are sufficient to diagnosis panic disorder. c. The context of the panic attacks is irrelevant if the distress is sufficiently high. d. Only cued panic attacks are symptoms of panic disorder.

a. We need to consider the context of anxiety, and whether it is actually a true alarm.

Impulsivity is associated with ________; whereas perfectionism is strongly correlated with _______. a. binge eating; anorexia b. purging; binge eating c. binge eating; all eating disorders d. purging; anorexia

a. binge eating; anorexia

Punishment _____ future behavior, while reinforcement _____ future behavior. a. decreases the likelihood of; increases the likelihood of b. decreases the likelihood of bad; increases the likelihood of good c. increases the likelihood of bad; decreases the likelihood of good d. increases the likelihood of; decreases the likelihood of

a. decreases the likelihood of; increases the likelihood of

Fill in the blank. A diathesis is a ________ cause, whereas a stressor is a ___________ cause. a. distal; proximal b. acute; distal c. proximal; distal d. acute; proximal

a. distal; proximal

Based on DSM-5 criteria, which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms that overlap between GAD (Generalized Anxiety Disorder) and depression? a. Concentration difficulty b. Uncontrollable worry c. Psychomotor agitation d. Sleep disturbance

b. Uncontrollable worry

Which of the following statements regarding addiction is NOT true? a. Addiction is relevant to the concept of "alcoholic" b. Addiction is a requirement for DSM-5 SUD diagnoses c. Addiction usually includes continued use despite consequences d. Addiction typically involves compulsive use, obsession, and preoccupation

b. Addiction is a requirement for DSM-5 SUD diagnoses

Which of the following is true, regarding the overlap between borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial traits and psychopathy? a. There is no overlap between borderline personality traits and secondary psychopathy. b. All individuals with secondary and primary psychopathy have narcissistic personality traits. c. All individuals with antisocial personalities have traits of either primary or secondary psychopathy. d. There is very little overlap between antisocial and narcissistic personality traits.

b. All individuals with secondary and primary psychopathy have narcissistic personality traits.

The eating disorder in which a person mainly loses weight by avoiding calories and excessive exercise is: a. Anorexia, binge-eating/purging type b. Anorexia, restricting type c. Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder d. Bulimia

b. Anorexia, restricting type

After finishing 6 pieces of toast with butter, Sally prepares a batch of brownies, while eating 3 large bowls of ice cream. She then eats 2 bags of cookies, the full batch of baked brownies, and 5 slices of pizza. After eating, she feels so guilty and ashamed about the calories she consumed, that she decides to make herself vomit. Sally engages in this type of behavior at least four times a week. However, because she is highly secretive about her problems and maintains a normal body weight, no one in her family seems to be aware of her struggles. Sally appears to meet criteria for: a. Binge-eating disorder b. Bulimia c. Anorexia, restricting type d. Anorexia, binge-eating/purging type

b. Bulimia

Dolores entered treatment for problems related to depression, smoking, and binge eating (without purging). Which of the following pharmacological options might be the most efficient in her treatment? a. Acetaldehyde b. Bupropion c. Disulfiram d. Methadone

b. Bupropion

Professor Sprout is wondering whether tobacco smokers are more likely to experiment with other drugs compared to non-smokers. To answer her question, she distributes an anonymous survey to 200 people and asks them how often they use tobacco and other drugs. She finds that those who use tobacco are more likely to also try other drugs. Which of the following best describes Professor Sprout's data? a. Experimental data b. Correlational data c. Treatment-as-usual data d. Qualitative

b. Correlational data

What is the primary difference between substance abuse and substance dependence? a. Abuse entails withdrawal, while dependence does not. b. Dependence entails withdrawal and tolerance, while abuse does not. c. Dependence entails tolerance, while abuse does not. d. Abuse entails withdrawal and tolerance, while dependence does not.

b. Dependence entails withdrawal and tolerance, while abuse does not.

In a 7-year longitudinal study on diagnostic crossover in eating disorders by Eddy et al. (2008), they concluded all of the following, EXCEPT what? a. It was quite common to see diagnostic cross-over betwen Anorexia Nervosa-Restricting subtype and Anorexia Nervosa-Binge-purge subtype. b. Diagnostic cross-over was only present in about 25% of women. c. There were no documented cases in which those with Anorexia Nervosa-Restricting Subtype shifted into Binge Eating Disorder. d. The most common shift was from Anorexia Nervosa-Binge-Purge type to Bulimia Nervosa, for about 33% of women.

b. Diagnostic cross-over was only present in about 25% of women.

Which individual was one of the first to catalog psychiatric disorders? a. Sigmund Freud b. Emil Kraepelin c. Allen Frances d. Robert Spitzer

b. Emil Kraepelin

Which of the following is not one of the narcissism traits common to both the grandiose and vulnerable subtypes? a. Intolerance of criticism b. Extroversion c. Entitlement d. Manipulativeness

b. Extroversion

Dr. Grande mentioned three viewpoints on the origin of Dissociative Identity Disorder. Which of the following assumes that DID is not a "real" disorder, and explains the etiology of DID as due to treatment, including clinician suggestion or encouragement? a. Traumagenic b. Iatrogenic c. Psychoanalytic d. Psychogenic

b. Iatrogenic

Research examining environment-gene interactions in relation to increased risk for schizophrenia has focused on cannabis use and the COMT gene. What are the key messages of this research? a. Cannabis use during adolescence and adulthood increases the risk for schizophrenia. b. Individuals who used cannabis during adolescence and possessed the COMT genotype Val/Val were at the greatest risk for schizophreniform disorder. c. Individuals who possess the COMT genotype Val/Val are at highest risk for schizophreniform disorder. d. Cannabis use during adolescence was not as strong a predictor of later schizophrenia as was use during emerging adulthood.

b. Individuals who used cannabis during adolescence and possessed the COMT genotype Val/Val were at the greatest risk for schizophreniform disorder.

Which of the following is an example of a reversible substance-specific syndrome? a. Withdrawal b. Intoxication and withdrawal c. Korsakoff's psychosis d. Intoxication

b. Intoxication and withdrawal

Which is NOT true of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)? a. It encourages alcoholics to cease drinking entirely. b. It has a large research base to support its effectiveness. c. It believes that fellowship and mutual support can help alcoholics control their drinking. d. It advocates an illness model of alcoholism.

b. It has a large research base to support its effectiveness.

Which of the following LEAST reflects a sociocultural perspective on dissociation and somatization? a. Blurred boundaries, rigidity, overprotectiveness, and poor conflict resolution in families are risk factors for somatization. b. Patients with DID use self-hypnosis to treat themselves, entering a trancelike state to deal with psychological stress and traumatic circumstances. c. Somatization is best characterized not as a disorder, but as a means of tangibly communicating psychological stress. d. DID is a false diagnosis that results from cultural assumptions about personality and misunderstanding of the effect of abuse on memory.

b. Patients with DID use self-hypnosis to treat themselves, entering a trancelike state to deal with psychological stress and traumatic circumstances

John Nash believed that CIA operatives were following him to and from work, in an effort to steal his physics theory and murder his wife and child. This is an example of what? a. Visual hallucination b. Persecutory delusion c. Auditory hallucination d. Delusion of grandeur

b. Persecutory delusion

This disorder has symptoms that are usually (but not always) considered milder than the symptoms of major depressive disorder. A person with this disorder may experience changes in sleep and appetite, low energy, feelings of hopeless, decreased self-esteem, and problems concentrating. The symptoms are considered chronic/ongoing and must last at least two years before a diagnosis can be made. a. Cyclothymic disorder b. Persistent depressive disorder/dysthymia c. Bipolar II disorder d. Bipolar affective disorder

b. Persistent depressive disorder/dysthymia

According to the Dual Representation Theory related to PTSD, which of the following statements regarding traumatic memories is true? a. Verbally accessible memories are connected to sensations, and are connected to the amygdala. b. Situationally accessible memories are sensation-based and connected to the amygdala. c. Verbally accessible memories contain contextual information, and are connected to the amygdala. d. Situationally accessible memories are connected to the hippocampus, and are related to flashbacks.

b. Situationally accessible memories are sensation-based and connected to the amygdala.

Which definition describes the term presenting problem? a. Feeling uncomfortable with who you are during adolescence and emerging adulthood. b. Someone's current problems for which they are seeking treatment. c. Mild discomfort that is endured when in the presence of others. d. Having difficulty living "in the moment" after moving away from restrictive parents.

b. Someone's current problems for which they are seeking treatment.

According to hopelessness theory, depressed people tend to make attributions that are: a. Stable, specific and external b. Stable, global and internal c. Unstable, specific and external d. Unstable, global and internal

b. Stable, global and internal

How is learned tolerance relevant to the potential danger of overdose in substance use disorders? a. Administering drugs in the same location and with the same people is safer than use in random locations. b. The body can produce drug-metabolizing enzymes prior to use, but this would not happen in a novel setting. c. Learned tolerance is connected to the need for increasingly larger doses of a drug, which inevitably will lead to overdose. d. Overdose is more likely when drug rituals are followed.

b. The body can produce drug-metabolizing enzymes prior to use, but this would not happen in a novel setting.

Vanessa shared with her clinician that she was seeing and talking with her deceased grandmother. The clinician needs to determine how to use this information in relation to diagnosis and treatment. Which of the following statements best characterizes this situation? a. The experience of seeing her grandmother could be mischaracterized as psychosis, but is also a risk factor for later problems with reality testing. b. The client's cultural beliefs around death and the afterlife are relevant to determining the accuracy of labeling such experiences as psychosis. c. The client's religious beliefs, but not their educational background, is rarely a factor in determining diagnosis. d. The client's cultural beliefs, which includes their religious upbringing or spiritual values, education, and ethnic traditions, are related to the expression or content of psychotic delusions.

b. The client's cultural beliefs around death and the afterlife are relevant to determining the accuracy of labeling such experiences as psychosis.

GABA is: a. The controller of reuptake of neurotransmitters in the brain. b. The main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain. c. Another form of glutamate, and thus can be inhibitory, or excitatory, depending on the needs of the brain. d. The main excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain.

b. The main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain.

Which of the following is TRUE about control groups? a. They constitute the group or groups in our experiment that we have the most influence over. b. They do not receive the treatment, but instead serve as a basis of comparison for our treatment group(s). c. They are rarely used in abnormal psychology research. d. They are useful in experimental, quasi-experimental, and correlational designs.

b. They do not receive the treatment, but instead serve as a basis of comparison for our treatment group(s).

What do dissociative amnesia, dissociative fugue, dissociative identity disorder, and conversion disorder all have in common? According to psychodynamic theorists, each results from: a. Poor defense mechanisms b. Trauma c. Inadequate parenting d. A weak ego

b. Trauma

Which of the following is not used as a mood stabilizer? a. Anticonvulsants b. Tricyclic antidepressants c. Lithium d. Second-generation antipsychotics

b. Tricyclic antidepressants

Molly has come in for treatment at the suggestion of her husband. He is worried because over the last month she has become increasingly agitated and hyper. Over the past week, she has been staying up all night shopping online and maxed out all of their credit cards. She does not believe she needs sleep or treatment because she reports feeling better than she ever has and has begun working on a self-help book despite having never written before. Molly might be diagnosed with _______. a. Bipolar II disorder b. Seasonal Affective Disorder c. Bipolar I disorder d. Cyclothymic disorder

c. Bipolar I disorder

Parasuicidal behavior is associated with: a. Schizoid personality disorder b. Paranoid personality disorder c. Borderline personality disorder d. Schizotypal personality disorder

c. Borderline personality disorder

Which statement about delirium tremens (DT) is TRUE? a. DT involves impairment of short-term and long-term memory. b. DT is experienced by a small percentage of people but is serious because it entails permanent scarring of the liver. c. DT is characterized by delirium, body tremors, and frightening hallucinations. d. DT is experienced by most people during alcohol withdrawal.

c. DT is characterized by delirium, body tremors, and frightening hallucinations.

Which of the following factors is the best predictor of traumatic stress? a. Male gender b. Unintentional traumas that are deemed accidents c. Experiencing trauma while identifying as an ethnic, racial, sexual, gender, or cultural minority d. Witnessing (versus experiencing) trauma

c. Experiencing trauma while identifying as an ethnic, racial, sexual, gender, or cultural minority

Complex PTSD includes the core features of PTSD plus additional domains, such as affect dysregulation. Affect dysregulation includes all of the following symptoms and behaviors, except what? a. Self-harm b. Extreme emotional reactivity c. Feeling diminished, defeated, worthless d. Impulsivity, reckless behaviors

c. Feeling diminished, defeated, worthless

The key to figuring out whether your client meets criteria for bulimia or whether she meets criteria for binge-eating disorder would be to: a. Calculate her body mass index (BMI) b. Find out whether she struggles with binge-eating c. Find out whether she engages in compensatory behaviors d. Determine how sad, ashamed, guilty, or distressed she feels about her eating

c. Find out whether she engages in compensatory behaviors

Who has voluntary control over their physical symptoms? a. Fleur Delacour, who has somatic symptom disorder. b. Draco Malfoy, who has illness anxiety disorder. c. Gilderoy Lockhart, who has factitious disorder. d. Peter Pettigrew, who has conversion disorder.

c. Gilderoy Lockhart, who has factitious disorder.

Which of the following statements is true, regarding eating disorders in men? a. Men are more likely than women to seek treatment for Binge Eating Disorder. b. Men tend to exhibit very different profiles of symptoms compared to women. c. Men tend to focus more on muscrularity than weight, and are more likely to have a history of being overweight,compared to women. d. Men with Anorexia Nervosa are less likely than women with Anorexia Nervosa to seek treatment.

c. Men tend to focus more on muscrularity than weight, and are more likely to have a history of being overweight,compared to women.

Which of the following best describes the content of modules included in the Transdiagnostic Treatment of Emotional Disorders (also called the Unified Protocol)? a. Interoceptive exposure, situational exposure, breathing training, psychoeducation b. Breathing retraining, identifying and preventing emotional avoidance, cognitive restructuring, and psychoeducation c. Mindful emotion awareness, cognitive flexibility, situational and interoceptive emotion-focused exposure d. Psychoeducation, exposure to triggers, prevention of compulsions, cognitive restructuring

c. Mindful emotion awareness, cognitive flexibility, situational and interoceptive emotion-focused exposure

Seamus fakes a severe medical illness for one reason only: he wants 6 months of paid medical leave so that he can stay at home practicing magic tricks. Which would be the BEST diagnosis for Seamus? a. Factitious disorder imposed to another b. Factitious disorder imposed to self c. No diagnosis or malingering d. Somatization disorder

c. No diagnosis or malingering

According to the lecture, which of the following statements about the alternative personality disorder system is false? a. Narcissistic personality features are associated with low levels of neuroticism, high levels of extraversion, and low levels of agreeableness. b. Aggression, arrogance, manipulativeness, and suspiciousness are examples of low agreeableness. c. Only high levels of traits, such as neuroticism, extraversion, and agreeableness are relevant to personality disorder diagnoses. d. This system focuses on the extremes of personality traits on both ends of the continuum, extreme highs and lows, which occur together in a pattern to suggest specific personality disorders.

c. Only high levels of traits, such as neuroticism, extraversion, and agreeableness are relevant to personality disorder diagnoses.

How is the diagnosis of PTSD different from other diagnoses in the DSM-5? a. PTSD should not be considered a mental disorder because people will naturally recover within the first 3 months after trauma exposure. b. PTSD is related to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system, whereas other disorders are not. c. PTSD is the only diagnosis to require the experience of an event as part of the diagnostic criteria. d. PTSD involves the medicalization of normal human suffering and distress following trauma.

c. PTSD is the only diagnosis to require the experience of an event as part of the diagnostic criteria.

If clinicians are not careful when making diagnoses, marginalized members of society—people who are justified in their suspicion and mistrust of others—could accidentally being diagnosed with: a. Schizoid personality disorder b. Avoidant personality disorder c. Paranoid personality disorder d. Histrionic personality disorder

c. Paranoid personality disorder

What type of prevalence data only counts active cases of a disorder? a. All prevalence data count those who have the disorder and those who have recovered. b. Lifetime prevalence c. Point prevalence d. 1-year prevalence

c. Point prevalence

Argus was diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder 6 months ago. Because his symptoms persist and haven't changed at all in the last 6 months, what is most likely to happen when he sees his psychologist? a. She will change his diagnosis to schizotypal disorder. b. She will confirm that he still meets criteria for schizophreniform disorder. c. She will change his diagnosis to schizophrenia. d. She will change his diagnosis to schizoaffective disorder.

c. She will change his diagnosis to schizophrenia.

Which of the following statements is one reason that a physical examination may be warranted before commencing with a psychological intervention? a. Physicians are better equipped to treat psychological conditions than psychotherapists or psychologists. b. Psychological problems can cause physical conditions. c. Some psychological conditions, such as major depressive disorder, can resemble medical conditions such as hypothyroidism. d. Almost all psychological disorders have an identifiable, underlying etiology.

c. Some psychological conditions, such as major depressive disorder, can resemble medical conditions such as hypothyroidism.

A primary issue with the treatment of personality disorders is that those diagnosed with these disorders believe that they are okay and that their behavior is not a problem, although they can be upset by the consequences of their behavior, such as divorce. What does this illustrate? a. That people with personality disorders are more likely to seek treatment for depression, anxiety, or an eating disorders. b. That people with personality disorders internalize the cause of their problems. c. That the symptoms of personality disorders are ego syntonic, meaning this is "just the way they are." d. That people with personality disorders do not acknowledge their problems, they externalize their problems.

c. That the symptoms of personality disorders are ego syntonic, meaning this is "just the way they are."

The Dark Triad refers to what? a. The confluence of sadism, narcissism, and psychopathy b. The confluence of antagonism, neuroticism, and extraversion. c. The confluence of narcissism, psychopathy, and Machiavellianism d. The confluence of neuroticism, psychopathy, and sadism

c. The confluence of narcissism, psychopathy, and Machiavellianism

Define prevalence: a. The rate of new cases of a given disorder reported over a specific period. b. The total number of people that have been diagnosed with a specific disorder. c. The percentage of people in a population believed to currently have a specific disorder. d. The percentage change, whether negative or positive, of a disorder in a given population over a given time period.

c. The percentage of people in a population believed to currently have a specific disorder.

You decide to conduct a study to determine whether foot size is associated with reading ability. After obtaining a correlation coefficient of 0.05, you can confidently conclude that: a. There is a somewhat weak relationship between foot size and reading ability. b. There is a negative relationship between foot size and reading ability. c. There is essentially no relationship between foot size and reading ability. d. There is a positive relationship between foot size and reading ability.

c. There is essentially no relationship between foot size and reading ability.

Dr. Granger is interested in the origins of somatization disorder. In particular, she is interested in the interaction of genetic predisposition, anxiety sensitivity, early parent-child relationships, and maladaptive cognitions that may be causal contributors to the onset of somatization disorder. We could say broadly that Dr. Granger: a. Emphasizes psychological factors in determining the prognosis of this case. b. Explains etiology in this case from a medical model, and is likely trained as a psychiatrist. c. Probably rejects the diathesis-stress model, opting to focus on sociocultural phenomena. d. Explains etiology in this case from a biopsychosocial perspective, including the cognitive and attachment psychological approaches.

d. Explains etiology in this case from a biopsychosocial perspective, including the cognitive and attachment psychological approaches.

Which of the following is UNLIKELY to be a characteristic of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)? a. Working for hours on a project without making much progress. b. Being rigid and inflexible in terms of following rules. c. Being perfectionistic and having too much concern for details. d. Having obsessions for germs and washing hands compulsively.

d. Having obsessions for germs and washing hands compulsively.

According to the Alternative Model of Personality Disorders, there is a disruption in self and interpersonal functioning. Which of the following correctly matches these concepts? a. Intimacy: Appreciating other's experiences and motivations, tolerance of different perspectives b. Self-Direction: Capacity for self-regulation, capacity for mutual regard c. Empathy: Pursuit of coherent and meaningful short-term and life goals and ability to self-reflect d. Identity: Boundaries between self and others, accuracy of self-appraisals, and experiencing a range of emotions

d. Identity: Boundaries between self and others, accuracy of self-appraisals, and experiencing a range of emotions

What is the relevance of Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory to CBT interventions for anxiety or PTSD? a. Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains the need to use exposure-based therapies to modify maladaptive cognitions associated with disgust. b. Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains the need to use medications to address both classical and operant conditioning. c. Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains why Exposure and Response Prevention is so effective for OCD. d. Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains the need to use exposure-based therapies to extinguish the reinforcing properties of avoidant behavior.

d. Mowrer's Two-Factor Theory explains the need to use exposure-based therapies to extinguish the reinforcing properties of avoidant behavior.

Which personality disorders are associated with manipulative, exploitative, and potentially illegal behavior, as well as a lack of empathy? a. Borderline and Narcissistic b. Antisocial and Schizotypal c. Schizotypal and Paranoid d. Narcissistic and Antisocial

d. Narcissistic and Antisocial

What is one key factor that distinguishes anxiety and fear? a. does not involve the release of neurochemicals, such as adrenalin. b. Compared to fear, anxiety does not involve the fight-or-flight response, it is predominantly a cognitive experience. c. Anxiety occurs in the presence of an actual threat, but fear does not. d. Neurochemicals such as adrenalin are discharged in cases of fear, but remain active in cases of anxiety.

d. Neurochemicals such as adrenalin are discharged in cases of fear, but remain active in cases of anxiety.

If a clinician suspects a traumatic brain injury, which type of assessment will be the most important to include? a. Projective assessment b. Personality assessment c. SUDs ratings d. Neuropsychological assessment

d. Neuropsychological assessment

Individuals with this personality disorder are likely to be very high in conscientiousness, assertiveness, and perfectionism. They are likely to have difficulty relaxing and expressing warmth in relationships. a. Schizoid Personality Disorder b. Dependent Personality Disorder c. Avoidant Personality Disorder d. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

d. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

Which of the following about pharmacology and eating disorders is TRUE? a. SSRIs have been found to be a consistently effective treatment for anorexia nervosa. b. Compared to other disorders, individuals with bulimia on SSRIs often experience fewer side effects. c. SSRI doses for bulimia are usually lower than for other disorders. d. SSRIs appear to help those with bulimia diagnoses more than those with anorexia diagnoses.

d. SSRIs appear to help those with bulimia diagnoses more than those with anorexia diagnoses.

This disorder is an example of how the DSM and ICDmay classify the same disorder very differently. Although the DSM considers it a personality disorder, the ICD has grouped it with psychotic disorders. a. Antisocial personality disorder b. Schizoid personality disorder c. Paranoid personality disorder d. Schizotypal personality disorder

d. Schizotypal personality disorder

Which of the following is NOT true about lithium? a. It is a metallic mineral salt. b. It is considered to be a mood stabilizer. c. It can lead to lithium poisoning if not used correctly. d. Scientists have proven why and how it works.

d. Scientists have proven why and how it works.

In motivational interviewing (sometimes called motivational enhancement), what is the goal of "heightening dissonance"? a. The goal is to minimize how substance use has affected what the client values most, such as relationships, academic achievement, or career goals. b. The goal is to increase the sense of discomfort so they will tolerate aversion therapy and avoid inpatient treatment. c. The goal is to help the client identify the most significant negative consequences that abstinence and sobriety may have for them. d. The goal is to increase intrinsic motivation for substance use treatment by acknowledging losses associated with substance-related problems.

d. The goal is to increase intrinsic motivation for substance use treatment by acknowledging losses associated with substance-related problems.

What is the social oppression perspective as it pertains to psychopathology? a. Social oppression is a sociology term, not a psychology term, and thus has nothing to do with psychopathology. b. The tendency to explain social conditions by referencing how psychopathology creates troublesome behavior and emotions. c. The view that medical explanations for psychopathology are irrelevant without reference to oppressive societal conditions. d. The tendency to explain psychopathology by referencing how social conditions lead to troublesome behavior and emotions.

d. The tendency to explain psychopathology by referencing how social conditions lead to troublesome behavior and emotions.

What might suggest that a person has a personality disorder? a. Their traits seem erratic or change frequently. b. They have great distress regarding their identity and wish they could be different. c. Their patterns of feeling and behaving don't "match up;" they often behave very differently from what they seem to be feeling. d. Their traits seem to cause interpersonal problems and problems with daily functioning.

d. Their traits seem to cause interpersonal problems and problems with daily functioning.

According to the body of empirical research pertaining to the efficacy of MBCT, mindfulness-based cognitive therapy is indicated in which of the following situations? a. When the person prefers meditation and yoga to antidepressant medication. b. Prior to the first depressive episode. c. Anytime after the first depressive episode. d. When the person has experienced 3 or more depressive episodes in their lifetime.

d. When the person has experienced 3 or more depressive episodes in their lifetime.

Boris drank quite a lot at his friend's party. Later, he had trouble falling asleep, so he took a sleeping pill along with an extra dose of his anti-anxiety medication. If his heart stops beating during the night, it would probably be the result of _______. a. delirium tremens b. cross tolerance c. severe withdrawal d. a synergistic effect

d. a synergistic effect

Tom Riddle is a hospitalized patient who is experiencing an acute schizophrenic episode. If someone moves one of his arms or legs into a different position, it just stays that way -- a phenomenon called waxy flexibility. Based on this information, a psychologist would most likely diagnose Tom with schizophrenia and specify that it is with ___________ features? a. paranoid b. disorganized c. residual d. catatonic

d. catatonic

The therapist's mind was busy as she listened to her client: Is he filtering? Is he jumping to conclusions? Is this an example of minimizing an event? In other words, she was searching for examples of _______. a. defense mechanisms b. slips of the tongue c. conditions of worth d. cognitive distortions

d. cognitive distortions

If we shift to a dimensional approach to personality disorder, we can potentially overcome long-standing problems with _______________ . a. schizotypal symptoms being grouped with psychoses, not personality disorders b. practitioner disdain for existing personality disorder categories c. personality disorders being reliable but not valid d. comorbidity of personality disorder categories

d. comorbidity of personality disorder categories

A person's entire genetic makeup, which includes both recessive and dominant alleles, is their _______. a. DNA b. phenotype c. polygenic d. genotype

d. genotype

One of the main problems with the worry in generalized anxiety disorders is ________ a. it keeps people with the disorder feeling happier than if they don't worry. b. it keeps people distracted from what is really bothering them. c. it increases the effects of operant conditioning on their fears. d. it is a form of avoidance and prevents extinction.

d. it is a form of avoidance and prevents extinction.

The majority of cases of schizophrenia begin in ________. a. late childhood or early adolescence. b. late adulthood or old age. c. infancy or early childhood. d. late adolescence or early adulthood.

d. late adolescence or early adulthood.

At first, Pascal only needed one sleeping pill to help him fall asleep at night. Two months later, he found that the pill was no longer working, so he started taking two pills each night. Six months later, he found that he needed to take three pills in order to fall asleep. This is an example of _______. a. withdrawal b. resistance c. polysubstance use d. tolerance

d. tolerance