Final Exam Quizzes and Student Questions

A nurse is admitting a client who sustained severe burn injuries. The nurse refers to the rule of nines to determine the total body surface area of the burn injury. What percentage of body surface area should the nurse estimate the client has burned?

54 Rule of Nines Head: 9% Torso: 36% total (front 18% & back 18%) Arm 9% each Leg 18% each Perineum 1%

A nurse is monitoring a client who was admitted with a severe burn injury and is receiving IV fluid resuscitation therapy. The nurse should identify a decrease in which of the following findings as an indication of adequate fluid replacement? A. BP B. Heart rate C. Urine output D. Weight

B. Heart rate Feedback: When a client's circulating fluid volume is low, the heart rate increases to maintain adequate blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should identify a decrease in heart rate as in indication of adequate fluid replacement.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when caring for the client's Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain? A. Measure the drainage every hour for the first 8 hr postoperative. B. Secure the drain to the client's bed sheet. C. Expel the air from the JP bulb after emptying to re-establish suction. D. Remove the JP drain when the drainage has ceased, covering the opening with sterile gauze.

C. Expel the air from the JP bulb after emptying to re-establish suction.

A nurse is caring for a young female adult client who reports weakness, fatigue, and heavy menstrual periods. The client has a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a hematocrit level of 28 g/dL. The nurse suspect which of the following types of anemia? A. Folic acid deficiency anemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Iron-deficiency anemia D. Sickle cell anemia

C. Iron-deficiency anemia Feedback: Iron-deficiency anemia results from poor gastrointestinal absorption of iron, a diet that is deficient in iron, or blood loss. The nurse should expect a client who has iron-deficiency anemia to have weakness, pallor, fatigue, reduced tolerance for activity, and cheilosis (ulcerations of the corners of the mouth).

A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which finding is the first priority? A) History of cholelithiasis B) Elevated serum amylase levels C) Decrease in bowel sounds upon auscultation D) Hand spasms present when blood pressure is checked

D) Hand spasms present when blood pressure is checked

A nurse is preparing to care for a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following should be included in the client's nursing plan of care in order to prevent any major complications that are associated with peritoneal dialysis? A) Add heparin to the dialysate B) Change the catheter site dressing daily C) Monitor the client's level of consciousness D) Maintain strict aseptic technique

D) Maintain strict aseptic technique

A nurse is caring for a male client who reports nausea and vomiting and is receiving IV fluid therapy. His blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 32 mg/dL, creatinine 1.1 mg/dL, and hematocrit 50%. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate? A. Collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. B. Continue routine care because the results are within the expected reference range. C. Decrease the IV fluid infusion rate and limit oral fluid intake. D. Evaluate urine for amount and for specific gravity.

D. Evaluate urine for amount and for specific gravity. Feedback: These results indicate that the client is dehydrated. Specific gravity and urine output measurements can support the laboratory findings. The higher the specific gravity, the more dehydrated the client.

A nurse is caring for a client who has full-thickness burns over 75% of his body. The nurse should use which of the following methods to monitor the cardiovascular system? A. Auscultate cuff blood pressure. B. Palpate pulse pressure. C. Obtain a central venous pressure. D. Monitor the pulmonary artery pressure

D. Monitor the pulmonary artery pressure Feedback: Clients who have a large percentage of burned body surface area require critical care and accurate monitoring. The pulmonary artery pressure provides an accurate assessment of the cardiovascular system by detecting changes in both right and left heart pressure which can indicate possible development of pulmonary edema, as well monitor overall fluid status.

The nurse is caring for a patient who asks why his abdomen is swollen. What is the best response for the nurse to make? a) A lack of clotting factors promotes the collection of blood in the abdominal cavity b) Why are you so worried about the way you look? c) It is swollen because you have cirrhosis and the liver is swollen d) Ascites is an accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity which causes bloating and swelling.

d) Ascites is an accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity which causes bloating and swelling.

A client has just been put on peritoneal dialysis recently. During the administration of the dialysate, the client begins to complain of abdominal pain. Which of the responses are appropriate by the nurse? A) Explain that the pain will go away after the first few exchanges B) Stop the dialysis C) Alert the provider D) Slow the dialysis

A) Explain that the pain will go away after the first few exchanges

A nurse is completing nutritional teaching for a client who has pancreatitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? (SATA) A) I plan to eat small, frequent meals. B) I will eat easy-to-digest foods with limited spice C) I will use skim milk when cooking D) I plan to drink regular cola E) I will limit alcohol intake to two drinkers per day

A) I plan to eat small, frequent meals. B) I will eat easy-to-digest foods with limited spice C) I will use skim milk when cooking

A nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell disease and is reviewing the client's laboratory test results. Which finding would the nurse report to the primary health care provider? A.Creatinine: 2.9 mg/dL B. Hematocrit: 30% C. Sodium: 146 mEq/L D. WBC: 12,000/mm3

A.Creatinine: 2.9 mg/dL An elevated creatinine indicates kidney damage which can occur in sickle cell disease

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I can remove the adhesive strips after 24 hrs" b. "I can resume a regular diet" c. "I should cleanse the site with mild soap and water" d. "I may feel shoulder pain which is normal"

a. "I can remove the adhesive strips after 24 hrs"

Which of the following sentence(s) is/are true? (Select all that apply) a. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia is the most common cancer diagnosed in children in the U.S., which accounts for 25% of cancer diagnosis children under 15 years old. b. Caucasian children have the highest incidence of ALL. → Hispanic children c. Childhood ALL originates in myeloblast in the bone marrow. → B & T Lymphoblasts d. Exposure to radiations like x-rays in the prenatal and postnatal period increases the risk of developing ALL in children. e. Previous treatment with antineoplastic drugs does not increase the risk of developing ALL at all. → It does!

a. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia is the most common cancer diagnosed in children in the U.S., which accounts for 25% of cancer diagnosis children under 15 years old. d. Exposure to radiations like x-rays in the prenatal and postnatal period increases the risk of developing ALL in children.

Which of the following diagnostic tests are used to detect gastric cancer? Select all that apply. a. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) b. CT Scan c. Biopsy d. PET Scan e. MRI f. Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)

a. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) b. CT Scan c. Biopsy d. PET Scan e. MRI f. Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)

A nurse is talking with a client who has cholelithiasis and is about to undergo an oral cholangiogram. Which of the following client statements indicates to the nurse understanding of the procedure? A. "They are going to examine my gallbladder and ducts." B. "Soon those shock waves will get rid of my gallstones." C. "I'll have a camera put down my throat so they can see my gallbladder." D. "They'll put medication into my gallbladder to dissolve the stones."

A. "They are going to examine my gallbladder and ducts."

A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease for fluid volume increase. Which of the following provides a reliable measure of fluid retention? A. Daily weight B. Sodium level C. Tissue turgor D. Intake and output

A. Daily weight Feedback: Obtaining a client's daily weight and comparing it to previous weights is a reliable method for measuring a client's fluid volume over time.

A nurse is assessing a client who has an obstruction of the common bile duct resulting from chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Fatty stools B. Straw-colored urine C. Tenderness in the left upper abdomen D. Ecchymosis of the extremities

A. Fatty stools

A nurse is caring for a client who has polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Flank pain B. Hypotension C. Confusion D. Urinary retention

A. Flank pain Feedback: Flank pain is a finding associated with PKD.

A nurse is interviewing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following factors should the nurse anticipate finding in the client's history? A. Gallstones B. Hypolipidemia C. COPD D. Diabetes mellitus

A. Gallstones

A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a prothrombin time of 30 seconds. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin B C. Heparin D. Warfarin

A. Vitamin K

Working in the ER, you get a handoff report from the Paramedic. She said the patient has burns from the iliac crest all the way down to his feet. When reporting to the doctor, about how much of the patient's body is burned? Use the Rule of Nines to estimate the percentage. A: 37% B: 50% C: 27% D: Assess degree of thickness the burn is

A: 37%

A patient with sudden pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the back and vomiting was diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? A) Immediately start enteral feeding to prevent malnutrition. B) Insert an NG and maintain NPO status to allow pancreas to rest. C) Initiate early prophylactic antibiotic therapy to prevent infection. D) Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain relief.

B) Insert an NG and maintain NPO status to allow pancreas to rest.

A nurse admits a client to the emergency department who reports nausea and vomiting that worsens when he lies down. Antacids do not help. The provider suspects acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory test results should the nurse expect to see? A. Decreased WBC B. Increased serum amylase C. Decreased serum lipase D. Increased serum calcium

B. Increased serum amylase

A nurse in an emergency room is caring a the client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action the nurse should take? A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. B. Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. C. Administer intravenous pain medication. D. Draw blood for a complete blood cell (CBC) count.

B. Inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. Feedback: Since the client sustained burns to the chest and face, there is a possibility that flames and smoke from the client's burning clothes could have caused an inhalation injury. The nurse should inspect the mouth and throat for soot and swelling. Using the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) priority-setting framework, is the priority concern at this time.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of peritonitis? A. Hyperactive bowel sounds B. Nausea and vomiting C. Bradycardia D. Increased urinary output

B. Nausea and vomiting Feedback: Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum and is a potential complication of peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should monitor the client for manifestations such as abdominal tenderness or pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, restlessness, and confusion.

​​A nurse is teaching a patient what to expect for post-gastric bypass surgery. Over the first 3 to 6 months, what is the appropriate statement to teach the patient? A." You may resume all normal activity as soon as you get discharged." B."You may experience body aches, feeling tired & cold, dry skin, mood changes, and hair loss/thinning." C." You can lift as heavy an object as you want as long as you can tolerate it".

B."You may experience body aches, feeling tired & cold, dry skin, mood changes, and hair loss/thinning."

If a person has both arms and both legs covered all over in burns, how much percent of his body is burned? A: 50% arm burns, 50% leg burns B: 54% C: 45% D: A bad day %

B: 54%

A nurse is teaching a client who has a history of ulcerative colitis and a new diagnosis of anemia. Which of the following manifestations of colitis should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the development of the anemia? A. Dietary iron restrictions B. Intestinal malabsorption syndrome C. Chronic blood loss D. Intestinal parasites

C. Chronic blood loss Feedback: A client with long-standing ulcerative colitis is most likely anemic due to chronic blood loss in small amounts that occurs over time, although the colitis may result in erosion of the intestine and hemorrhage. These clients often report bloody stools and are therefore at increased risk for developing anemia.

A Nurse is planning care for a client during a sickle cell crisis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? A. Apply cold compress to painful joints B. Withhold opioids until crisis is resolved C. Encourage increased fluid intake D. Maintain the client's knees and hips in a flexed position

C. Encourage increased fluid intake The nurse should encourage increased fluid intake to promote hydration because dehydration increases the viscosity of the blood which can aggravate sickling as well as client discomfort

A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 weeks postoperative following a kidney transplant. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as possible organ rejection? A. Temperature 36.1° C (97.0° F) B. Insomnia C. Oliguria D. Weight loss

C. Oliguria Feedback: The nurse should identify little to no urine output as possible manifestations of kidney rejection.

When should the hepatitis c vaccine be given? A. When a patient is considered high risk for infection. B. Before a patient receives a blood transfusion or organ transplant. C. There is no vaccine for hepatitis C. D. When a person becomes sexually active.

C. There is no vaccine for hepatitis C.

A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as having the potential to cause nephrotoxicity? A. Diphenhydramine B. Ondansetron C. Vancomycin D. Mannitol

C. Vancomycin Feedback: The nurse should identify that vancomycin, an antibiotic, to be associated with nephrotoxic adverse effects.

A nurse is teaching a client how to care for the wound for post-gastric bypass surgery. Which option would be appropriate for teaching? A."You may wear tight clothing that rubs against your incisions while they heal". B."Your wound will heal within 2-3 days post surgery". C."You may change your dressing everyday per doctor's instruction. Especially when it gets dirty and wet".

C."You may change your dressing everyday per doctor's instruction. Especially when it gets dirty and wet".

A nurse is preparing a client for a kidney biopsy. Which of the following client conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this diagnostic test? A. Elevated creatinine level B. Flank pain C. Urinary retention D. Bleeding tendencies

D. Bleeding tendencies Feedback: One of the risks of a kidney biopsy is bleeding from the biopsy site. Therefore, a history of bleeding tendencies or coagulation disorders is a contraindication for a kidney biopsy.

A nurse is monitoring the fluid replacement of a client who has sustained burns. The nurse should administer which of the following fluids in the first 24 hr following a burn injury? A. Dextrose 5% in water B. Dextrose 5% in 0.9% sodium chloride C. 0.9% sodium chloride D. Lactated Ringer's

D. Lactated Ringer's Feedback: Lactated Ringer's is used in the first 24 hr following a burn injury because it is a crystalloid solution whose composition and osmolality most closely resembles plasma.

What PRIORITY issue will the nurse expect when caring for a client in sickle cell disease crisis? A.Infection B. Pallor C. Fatigue D. Pain

D. Pain Pain will be the expected client problem and priority during sickle cell disease, often concentrated in the legs, arms, and joints

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. After treating the client's pain, which of the following should the nurse address as the priority intervention? A. Auscultate the client's lungs. B. Assist the client to a side-lying position. C. Provide oral hygiene. D. Withhold oral fluids and food.

D. Withhold oral fluids and food.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has acute leukemia and received an aggressive chemotherapy treatment 10 days ago. Which of the following hematologic laboratory values should the nurse NOT expect? A. Decreased leukocyte count B. Decreased platelet count C. Decreased erythrocyte count D.​Increased hemoglobin count

D.​Increased hemoglobin count Feedback: The nurse should expect to see a decreased hemoglobin count due to bone marrow suppression from the chemotherapy treatment

A patient is experiencing manifestations of dumping syndrome, select all that apply. a. Vertigo b. Bradycardia c. Syncope d. Convulsions e. Palpitations

a. Vertigo c. Syncope e. Palpitations

Select all of the following indications of a bile leak. a. Vomiting b. Abdominal distention c. Pain d. Jaundice e. Constipation f. Nausea

a. Vomiting b. Abdominal distention c. Pain d. Jaundice e. Constipation

A nurse in the oncology unit is assessing a client with Hodgkin's Lymphoma. Which of the following possible manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply) a. Fever b. Weight Gain c. Tachycardia d. Diarrhea e. Sleep Hyperhidrosis f. Lymphadenitis

a. Fever e. Sleep Hyperhidrosis f. Lymphadenitis

A nurse is planning care for an adult client who sustained severe burn injuries. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Limit visitors in the client's room b. Encourage fresh vegetables in the diet c. Increase protein intake d. Instruct the client to consume 2,000 calories/day e. Restrict fresh flowers in the room

a. Limit visitors in the client's room c. Increase protein intake e. Restrict fresh flowers in the room

A patient has lost 20% of their blood volume and is exhibiting signs of hypovolemic shock. Which position should you place the patient? a. Modified Trendelenburg b. Trendelenburg c. High Fowler's d. On the floor

a. Modified Trendelenburg

A nurse is planning postoperative care for a client following a kidney transplant. Which of the following actions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Obtain daily weights b. Assess dressings for bloody drainage c. Replace hourly urine output with IV fluids d. Expect oliguria in the first 4 hr. e. Monitor blood electrolytes

a. Obtain daily weights b. Assess dressings for bloody drainage c. Replace hourly urine output with IV fluids e. Monitor blood electrolytes

How much volume does a patient need to lose before entering hypovolemic shock? a. > 10% b. > 15% c. > 20% d. > 25%

b. > 15%

Which s/s would be present if a patient loses 10% of their blood volume? a. Anxiety b. Cap refill <2 seconds c. Mild tachycardia d. Cool, clammy skin e. Normal blood pressure f. Urinary output greater than 30 ml/h

b. Cap refill <2 seconds e. Normal blood pressure f. Urinary output greater than 30 ml/h

A person has been diagnosed with dumping syndrome they should follow all the dietary guidelines except: a. Drink fluids 1 hour before or after meals b. Consume spicy meats c. Eat several small meals daily d. Avoid milk, sweets, or sugars

b. Consume spicy meats

What are the signs and symptoms of early gastric cancer? Select all that apply. a. Nausea b. Dyspepsia c. Feeling of fullness d. Fatigue e. Vomiting f. Epigastric pain

b. Dyspepsia c. Feeling of fullness f. Epigastric pain

You are providing discharge teaching to a 65 yo woman with ascites and peripheral edema and has been diagnosed with cirrhosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. I should eat 5-7 small meals a day. b. I should weigh myself weekly to monitor my fluid status c. It is important to maintain a low sodium diet d. I should refrain from drinking alcohol

b. I should weigh myself weekly to monitor my fluid status

The nurse is reviewing the lab results for a patient with cirrhosis and notes that the ammonia level is elevated. Which diet does the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this patient? a) High protein b) High fat diet c) Low protein d) Low carb diet

c) Low protein

Which type of Leukemia is most curable for adults? a. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) b. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) c. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) d. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) e. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

c. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)

What is not a manifestation of postcholecystectomy syndrome? a. Pain b. Nausea c. Bradycardia d. Jaundice

c. Bradycardia

Which bacteria is commonly known to cause gastric cancer? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Escherichia coli c. Helicobacter pylori d. Clostridium Difficile

c. Helicobacter pylori

A nurse is caring for a client who has sustained burns over 35% of total body surface area. The client's voice has become hoarse, a brassy cough has developed, and the client is drooling. The nurse should identify these findings as indications that the client has which of the following? a. Pulmonary edema b. Bacterial pneumonia c. Inhalation injury

c. Inhalation injury

Define dumping syndrome: a. Inflammation of gastric mucosa b. Mucosal lesions occurring after an acute medical crisis or trauma c. Backward flow of stomach content into the esophagus d. Rapid emptying of food contents into the small intestine, which shifts fluid into the gut, causing abdominal distention.

d. Rapid emptying of food contents into the small intestine, which shifts fluid into the gut, causing abdominal distention.

A nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a post-gastric bypass surgery. Which would the nurse include in the teaching? ​​A. Avoid foods that are high in calories. B. Drink alcohol in moderation. C. Eat foods with fats, sugars, or carbohydrates to promote healing. D. Exercise vigorously after the surgery to maintain the desired weight.

A. Avoid foods that are high in calories.

After educating a patient who has been diagnosed with hepatitis a, the nurse assesses the patient's understanding. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? A. I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend. B. My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A. C. I was infected with hepatitis A through a recent blood transfusion. D. Some medications have been known to cause hepatitis

A. I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend.

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances? A. Iron B. Protein C. Potassium D. Sodium

A. Iron Feedback: Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin, a substance produced by the kidneys that stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. Increased iron is needed for the production of hemoglobin and red blood cells by the bone marrow

A client with chronic renal failure is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. The client asks the nurse, why she has to monitor his blood glucose levels. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) the procedure may decrease blood glucose levels B) The dialysate contains glucose C) I have to assess for Diabetes Mellitus D) It is a standard care for clients undergoing this procedure

B) The dialysate contains glucose

A nurse assesses patients at a community health fair. Which patient is at greatest risk for the development of hepatitis b? A. An 85-year-old women who recently ate clams for dinner. B. A 21-year-old college student who has had multiple sexual partners. C. A 47-year-old women who takes Tylenol daily for headaches. D. A 62-year-old businessman who travels frequently across the country.

B. A 21-year-old college student who has had multiple sexual partners.

A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of lactulose to a client who has cirrhosis. The client states, "I don't need this medication. I am not constipated." The nurse should explain that in clients who have cirrhosis, lactulose is used to decrease levels of which of the following components in the bloodstream? A. Glucose B. Ammonia C. Potassium D. Bicarbonate

B. Ammonia

A nurse is teaching a client who has acute kidney injury about the oliguric phase. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Renal function is reestablished. B. BUN and creatinine levels decrease. C. Urine output is less than 400 mL per 24 hr. D. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) recovers.

C. Urine output is less than 400 mL per 24 hr. Feedback: Inadequate urinary output is associated with the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of metabolic waste products is 400 mL. Therefore, a client who is producing less than 400 mL of output in 24 hr is manifesting acute kidney injury

A nursing student finally finished their finals and decided to go camping with some friends to celebrate. While sitting around the campfire, he thought it would be cool to spray his can of sunscreen through the fire to make a flamethrower. The fire traveled through the spray, into the can causing it to explode. The student's friends take him to the ER and tell the nurses he has burns all over the front of his right arm, face, and upper chest. Using the Rule of 9's, approximately how much of the student's body is burned? A: 21.5% B: 27% C: 18% D: 13.5%

C: 18%

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron. B. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction. C. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12. D. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs.

D. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs. Feedback: Aplastic anemia is a hypoproliferative anemia resulting from decreased production of RBC within the bone marrow.

A nurse is caring for a client who is undergoing initial peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the provider? A. Report of discomfort during dialysate inflow B. Blood-tinged dialysate outflow C. Dialysate leakage during inflow D. Purulent dialysate outflow

D. Purulent dialysate outflow Feedback: Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum and a major complication of peritoneal dialysis. Manifestations of peritonitis include cloudy dialysate outflow, fever, nausea, and vomiting. If untreated, the client can become severely ill, progressing to bacterial septicemia and hypovolemic shock. Peritonitis can be prevented with meticulous site care. The nurse and client should wear a mask when accessing the catheter. Strict aseptic technique should be used when connecting and disconnecting the catheter.

A nurse is caring for a client who the provider suspects might have pernicious anemia. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following diagnostic tests? A. Sweat test B. Haptoglobin C. Antinuclear antibodies D. Schilling test

D. Schilling test Feedback: The Schilling test helps determine the cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, which leads to pernicious anemia.

A nurse is assessing a client who sustained deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body 24 hr ago. Which of the following findings are common during this phase? (Select all that apply.) a. Temperature 36.1° C (97° F) b. Bradycardia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hyponatremia e. Decreased hematocrit

a. Temperature 36.1° C (97° F) c. Hyperkalemia d. Hyponatremia

A nurse is teaching a client who is postoperative following a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. Decrease your intake of protein‑rich foods. b. Take this medication with grapefruit juice. c. Monitor for and report a sore throat to your provider. d. Expect your skin to turn yellow.

c. Monitor for and report a sore throat to your provider.

A week after kidney transplantation, a client develops a temperature of 101F (38.3C), the blood pressure is elevated, and there is tenderness over the transplanted kidney. The serum creatinine is rising and urine output is decreased. The x ray indicates that the transplanted the kidney is enlarged. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse anticipates which treatment? a. Antibiotic therapy b. peritoneal dialysis c. Removal of the transplanted kidney d. Increased immunosuppression therapy

d. Increased immunosuppression therapy