Final Exam Study Questions EOC Item Release

C. mitochondria A. Enzymes acted on starch to break it down into simple sugars

1.1 & 1.5: A student follows the procedure in the table during a science class. The nutrients released after the bread was digested are directly used by which cell organelle? A. nucleus B. ribosome C. mtochondria D. endoplasmic reticulum Chewing the bread for two minutes allowed enzymes in the student's saliva to act on the bread. What did the enzymes do to the bread to change its flavor? A. Enzymes acted on starch to break it down into simple sugars B. Enzymes produced lipid substrates that altered the reaction C. Enzymes added chemical energy to the reaction D. Enzymes caused the proteins to release more product

B. nucleus

1.1: In 2007, researchers from the US and Sweden discovered an enzyme in yeast cells, which they named DNA polymerase epsilon. This enzyme has also been identified in humans. The researchers ruled out discovering it in bacteria like E. coli because bacteria do not require enzymes with the precise function of DNA polymerase epsilon to perform life functions. These enzymes act on a DNA substrate to allow DNA replication to take place. DNA polymerase epsilon in yeast cells acts on the leading strand, helping to stabilize it and to regulate cellular response to DNA damage. In which organelle does the activity of DNA polymerase epsilon take place? A. ribosome B. nucleus C. Golgi complex D. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C. Mitochondrion

1.1: Most of the aerobic respiration of a cell takes place in which structure? A. Chloroplast B. Lysosome C. Mitochondrion D. Vacuole

D. Respiration - Mitochondrion

1.1: Which correctly matches the cell process to the organelle in which it occurs? A. DNA replication - Chloroplast B. Photosynthesis - Ribosome C. Protein synthesis - Lysosome D. Respiration - Mitochondrion

A. 1

1.1: Which of the structures shown produces oxygen during photosynthesis? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C. 1 and 5

1.2: A chart listing the characteristics of five cells is shown. Based on the chart, which cells would be classified as prokaryotic? A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1 and 5 D. 3 and 5

B. lack a nucleus

1.2: Staphylococcus cells are classified as prokaryotes because they A. lack a cell membrane B. lack a nucleus C. move using cilia D. move using flagella

A. presence of cytoplasm

1.2: Which characteristic is observed in both prokaryotic & eukaryotic cells? A. presence of cytoplasm B. reproduction by binary fission C. presence of membrane-bound organelles D. reproduction requires a host

B. Eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells

1.2: Which statement BEST supports the idea that eukaryotic cells evolved after prokaryotic cells? A. Eukaryotic cells are more common in the environment than prokaryotic cells B. Eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells C. Eukaryotic cells are much smaller in size than prokaryotic cells D. Eukaryotic cells require less energy than prokaryotic cells

C. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus; prokaryotic cells do not

1.2: Which statement describes the major difference between prokaryotic & eukaryotic cells? A. Prokaryotic cells have a cell membrane; eukaryotic cells have a cell wall B. Prokaryotic cells contain chloroplasts; eukaryotic cells contains mitochondria C. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus; prokaryotic cells do not D. Eukaryotic cells contain ribosomes; prokaryotic cells do not

A. lipids

1.3: Cholesterol is a major component of cell membranes. The function of cholesterol is to prevent the fatty acid chains from sticking together, making the bilayer more stable. To which group of macromolecules does cholesterol belong? A. lipids B. proteins C. amino acids D. carbohydrates

C. carbohydrates

1.3: Glucose, galactose, and fructose are all monosaccharides with the formula C6H12O6. They are distinguished from one another by the arrangement of the individual atoms. To which group of macromolecules do they belong? A. lipids B. proteins C. carbohydrates D. nucleic acids

B. Substance 2

1.3: Students tested different substances for the presence of certain organic molecules. The chart shows their results. Based on the students' results, which substance contains proteins? A. Substance 1 B. Substance 2 C. Substance 3 D. Substance 4

C. nucleic acid

1.3: The diagram represents one type of monomer unit that makes up a macromolecule that stores and transmits genetic information. Which type of macromolecule is represented in the diagram? A. protein B. lipid C. nucleic acid D. carbohydrate

A. lipids

1.3: The hemlock woolly adelgid, Adelges tsugae, is a destructive aphid-like insect native to Asia. In North America this pest threatens the health of the eastern hemlock and Carolina hemlock trees. The adelgid was first reported near Richmond, VA, in 1951 and has since spread through the eastern states. The adelgid completes two life cycles within one year. As the adelgid matures, it produces a covering of wook-like wax filaments. these filaments provide protection from predators and prevent the adelgid from drying out. Feeding on stored starches that are crucial for the trees' growth, the adelgid can damage a hemlock enough that it can die within 4 years. Chemical control can help rduce the damage but is limited to individual tree treatments. The best control option is biological because there are natural predators that feed on the adelgid. Several beetle predators have been imported from China and Japan and are slowly becoming established in the infested areas. The white wool-like filamentous substance that the adelgid produces for protectios is MOST LIKELY made up of A. lipids B. proteins C. nucleic acids D. carbohydrates

D. nitrogen

1.3: The structure shown represents a macromolecule. The presence of which element indicates that this molecule should be classified as a protein rather than a lipid? A. oxygen B. hydrogen C. carbon D. nitrogen

A. store energy

1.3: What is the primary function of a carbohydrate molecule within a cell? A. store energy B. produce amino acids C. regulate hormones D. express genetic information

C. nitrogen

1.3: Which element is necessary to form a protein molecule but NOT a carbohydrate? A. carbon B. oxygen C. nitrogen D. hydrogen

B. purple when biuret solution is added

1.4: A clear solution will test positive for the presence of protein when the solution turns A. dark purple-black when iodine is added B. purple when biuret solution is added C. brownish orange when Benedict's solution is added D. red when Sudan III is added

B. The proteins turned the biuret solution purple, and lipids turned the Sudan III solution red

1.4: A student performs several tests on a food sample. The student concludes that the food sample contains protein and lipids. Which results would BEST support the student's conclusion? A. The proteins turned the Benedict's solution red, and the lipids turned the biuret solution purple B. The proteins turned the biuret solution purple, and the lipids turned the Sudan III solution red C. The proteins turned the iodine solution black, and the lipids turned the Benedict's solution red D. The proteins turned the Sudan III solution red, and the lipids turned the iodine solution black

D. The conclusion is based on results from a controlled experiment

1.5: A student conducted a controlled experiment to determine the optimal temperature for an enzyme to work effectively in a reaction. The student repeated the experiment several times. She concluded that the optimal temperature was 37 degrees Celsius with a large decrease in activity after 40 degrees Celsius as the enzyme broke down. Which BEST explains why this student's conclusion is free from bias? A. The conclusion suggests another possible experiment B. The conclusion incorporates the opinions of the researcher C. The conclusion involves a graph of the data collected D. The conclusion is based on results from a controlled experiment

C. decreasing activation energy

1.5: In 2007, researchers from the US and Sweden discovered an enzyme in yeast cells, which they named DNA polymerase epsilon. This enzyme has also been identified in humans. The researchers ruled out discovering it in bacteria like E. coli because bacteria do not require enzymes with the precise function of DNA polymerase epsilon to perform life functions. These enzymes act on a DNA substrate to allow DNA replication to take place. DNA polymerase epsilon in yeast cells acts on the leading strand, helping to stabilize it and to regulate cellular response to DNA damage. Which change in the substrate allows for DNA polymerase epsilon to function? A. reducing the masses of products B. providing an electrical potential C. decreasing activation energy D. serving as an active transport medium

D. temperature

1.5: In the leaf cells of a plant, enzymes control the rate at which carbon dioxide is converted into glucose. Which environmental factor would MOST affect the action of the enzyme? A. wind B. rainfall C. air pressure D. temperature

D. lowered the activation energy needed to speed up the reaction

1.5: The graph represents a reaction before and after the addition of an enzyme. According to the graph, the addition of the enzyme A. lowered the overall energy change in the reaction B. decreased the amount of product produced C. increased the potential energy of the products D. lowered the activation energy needed to speed up the reaction

A. The enzyme increases the rate of the reaction

1.5: Which of the following does the enzyme carbonic anhydrase MOST likely do to a metabolic reaction? A. The enzyme increases the rate of the reaction B. The enzyme reverses the direction of the reaction C. The enzyme releases carbon molecules to be used later D. The enzyme releases oxygen atoms to balance the reaction

C. video microscope

1.6: A researcher wants to observe the process of cell division in bacteria. Which tool would be MOST appropriate for the researcher to use for gathering accurate data? A. hand lens B. digital camera C. video microscope D. graphing calculator

C. DNA replication occurs in the nucleus

1.6: An early sign that a eukaryotic cell has begun cell reproduction is when A. it chemically bonds with a coenzyme B. the cell engulfs new material, absorbing it C. DNA replication occurs in the nucleus D. the plasma membrane thins considerably

C. The volume of a cell increases more than its surface area during growth

1.6: The data table lists the increase in surface area and volume that occurs as a cell grows. Based on the data, which of these BEST describes why cells divide when they reach a certain size? A. The surface area-to-volume ratio of a cell remains constant during growth B. The surface area of a cell increases more than its volume during growth C. The volume of a cell increases more than its surface area during growth D. The volume of a cell increases as the surface area decreases during growth

A. Oxygen will enter the cell, and carbon dioxide will exit the cell

1.7: A diagram of a cell is shown. The cell membrane is permeable to both the oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules. Initially, the oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules will MOST likely move in which direction? A. Oxygen will enter the cell, and carbon dioxide will exit the cell B. Oxygen will exit the cell, and carbon dioxide will enter the cell C. Both oxygen and carbon dioxide will enter the cell D. Both oxygen and carbon dioxide will exit the cell

A. The distilled water in the beakers had the least change in mass

1.7: A laboratory exercise simulating the activities of the cell membrane is conducted using dialysis tubing filled with a sucrose solution. The initial mass of each bag is measured and recorded. Each bag is placed in a beaker containing distilled water. After 24 hours each bag is massed and recorded again. The results are shown. Students conclude that water molecules, not sucrose molecules, moved into and out of the bag. Which statement BEST defends the conclusion? A. The distilled water in the beakers had the least change in mass B. The change in mass indicates the movement of sucrose molecules C. Only distilled water can cross a semipermeable membrane D. Molecules only move when the sucrose concentration is above 5.00%

B. Water flows across the membrane at the same rate in both directions

1.7: An animal cell is placed in an isotonic solution. Which BEST explains why there is no net movement of water across the cell membrane? A. Water flows across the membrane at a slower rate in one direction B. Water flows across the membrane at the same rate in both directions C. Water flows into the cell at a faster rate, causing the cell to swell D. Water flows out of the cell at a faster rate, causing the cell to shrink

D. Brine maintains equilibrium of water movement across the egg membrane

1.7: Caviar are the eggs of fish. The eggs are stored in brine, or a saltwater solution. Which statement describes the importance of storing the caviar in brine instead of distilled water? A. Distilled water would cause an isotonic environment for the eggs B. Brine keeps the salt levels in the eggs higher than outside of the eggs C. Distilled water would cause water to move outside of the egg membrane D. Brine maintains equilibrium of water movement across the egg membrane

A. 2 M

1.7: Students measured the mass of potato slices and placed them in solutions with different sugar concentrations. Twenty-four hours later, students removed the slices and determined their final mass. Students calculated an average percent change for each set of potato slices. Their data are shown in the line graph. According to the graph, which concentration of sugar caused the potato slices to lose the highest percentage of mass? A. 2 M B. 4 M C. 6 M D. 8 M

A

1.7: Students were studying the movement of molecules across selectively permeable membranes. They placed 25 mL each of solutions of varying sugar concentrations in bags of dialysis tubing. Each bag of dialysis tubing was placed in a beaker containing 10% sugar solution. The dialysis tubing is permeable to water but not to sugar. Which dialysis bag will lose the MOST volume?

B. There is a greater salt concentration at 2 than at 1

1.7: The diagram illustrates net water movement across a selectively permeable membrane. Which statement BEST explains the direction of water flow? A. There is a greater salt concentration at 1 than at 2 B. There is a greater salt concentration at 2 than at 1 C. Salt is flowing from 1 to 2 D. Salt is flowing from 2 to 1

D. when the concentration of oxygen in Region A is lower than that in Region B

1.7: The diagram represents a selectively permeable membrane that separates Region A from Region B. Under which condition will oxygen cross the membrane? A. when the membrane has a strong electrical charge B. when the membrane uses energy to transport oxygen molecules C. when the temperature in Region B is sufficiently higher than in Region A D. when the concentration of oxygen in Region A is lower than that in Region B

D. hypertonic

1.7: The diagrams show skin cells of a red onion before and after they were exposed to an unknown solution. The onion cells were MOST likely exposed to what type of solution? A. hydrophobic B. isotonic C. hypotonic D. hypertonic

A

1.7: The setup at the top involves a system of transport that does not use energy. Larges solutes cannot pass through the membrane. Which diagram (A-D) BEST represents the end result of the system setup?

C. an expenditure of energy the the cell

1.8: Cells are able to pump ions across their membranes in opposition to a concentration gradient due to A. a drop in temperature outside the cell B. a vacuole formation within the cell C. an expenditure of energy by the cell D. the destruction of electrons within the cell

C. active transport

1.8: Energy is used by the cell to produce the illustrated change. Because energy is spent, the illustrated change is classified as A. osmosis B. facilitated diffusion C. active transport D. passive transport

A. active transport

1.8: Some protein channels in a cell membrane can use energy to change their shape to allow certain molecules to pass through the membrane. This is an example of A. active transport B. diffusion C. exocytosis D. facilitated transport

D. active transport

1.8: The diagram shows a cellular process that requires energy. What process allowed molecule A to leave the cell? A. osmosis B. diffusion C. passive transport D. active transport

D. the use of ATP

1.8: The energy necessary to move sodium ions across a cell membrane comes from A. the manufacturing of RNA B. the movement of H2O C. the replication of DNA D. the use of ATP

D. facilitated diffusion

1.8: The movement of a sodium ion through a cell membrane is shown. This sodium ion passes through the cell membrane by which process? A. respiration B. osmosis C. active transport D. facilitated diffusion

A. Both use protein channels as passageways

1.8: Which statement describes a characteristic common to both active & passive transport? A. Both use protein channels as passageways B. Both require energy to move large molecules C. Both move solute molecules against the concentration gradient D. Both need hormones or activator molecules to move molecules

B. increase in rabbit population

2.1: A food web of a forest ecosystem is shown. Which will MOST likely happen if the number of snakes in the ecosystem decreases? A. increase in owl population B. increase in rabbit population C. decrease in mouse population D. decrease in grasshopper population

B. zooplankton

2.1: An oceanic food pyramid is shown. An oil tanker accident leads to an oil slick that covers a large section of ocean water. Much of the oil floats on top of the water, while some oil sinks. The entire marine ecosystem is affected due to the producer population not being able to photosynthesize. The consumer population that loses its source of energy FIRST is the A. phytoplankton B. zooplankton C. fish D. seals

B. The slug population will increase, and the heron population will decrease

2.1: The diagram illustrates populations at various trophic levels of a pond ecosystem. What effect will a decrease in the frog population MOST likely have on the other trophic levels? A. The slug population will decrease, and the heron population will increase B. The slug population will increase, and the heron population will decrease C. The slug and heron populations will increase, and the plant population will decrease D. The slug and heron populations will decrease, and the plant population will increase

B. The herbivore population would decrease, resulting in a decrease in other organisms

2.1: The diagram represents some feeding relationships in the African savanna. What would MOST likely happen to the herbivore population if the primary producers in the food web were destroyed? A. The herbivores would become meat eaters B. The herbivore population would decrease, resulting in a decrease in other organisms C. The herbivores would begin to make their own energy through cellular processes D. The herbivore population would quickly become extinct while the carnivores would survive

A. flow of energy

2.1: The diagram represents some organisms found in an ecosystem. The arrows in the diagram represent the A. flow of energy B. removal of nutrients C. intake of oxygen gas D. release of water molecules

A. Ten percent of the energy produced by the producers is transferred to the omnivores

2.1: The diagram represents the energy flow in an ecosystem. Which statement describes the flow of energy? A. Ten percent of the energy produced by the producers is transferred to the omnivores B. Ninety percent of the energy produced by the carnivores is transferred to the herbivores C. Fifty percent of the energy produced by the herbivores is lost to the environment D. One hundred percent of the energy produced by the decomposers is lost to the soil

D. producer

2.1: The graph shows the change in the total ecosystem biomass over time. This overall system change was MOST likely caused by a rapid decline in the populations at which trophic level? A. decomposer B. primary consumer C. tertiary consumer D. producer

A. Algae

2.1: Which population in the energy pyramid contains the largest amount of stored energy? A. Algae B. Daphnia C. Fish D. Osprey

A. Increases in temperature decrease the time it takes eggs to hatch

2.2: An increase in average atmospheric temperature in an ecosystem could result in increased populations for certain pest insects. According to the data presented, which statement BEST explains the increase in the pest insect population? A. Increases in temperature decrease the time it takes eggs to hatch B. Decreases in temperature increase the frequency of mating C. Increases in temperature decrease the number of eggs produced D. Decreases in temperature increase the size of individual eggs

C. Stressors from competition for resources

2.2: Ecologists have found that dense populations of organisms have lower birth rates, higher death rates, and slower growth rates than less dense populations. Which BEST explains these findings? A. Interactions between predator and prey B. Natural environmental disturbances C. Stressors from competition for resources D. Unusual weather changes

C. the carrying capacity of producers

2.2: In an oceanic environment, most photosynthetic organisms are found near the surface in the photic zone. The aphotic zone can be found at a depth of 1000 m to approximately 4000 m as shown below. The lack of sunlight in the aphotic zone MOST likely determines A. the number of scavengers B. pollution entering the ecosystem C. the carrying capacity of producers D. ocean currents carrying nutrients to the surface

A. Carnivorous fish

2.2: Methyl mercury is a toxic chemical that is formed when mercury is combined with water. Methyl mercury accumulates in the tissues of organisms, and the concentration increases at each trophic level. Which population of organisms would be MOST harmed by an increase in mercury content? A. Carnivorous fish B. Herbivorous crustaceans C. Lake-bottom plants D. Photosynthetic microorganisms

D. decreased number of producers

2.2: The general trend represents the changes in the deer population on an island over time. Which BEST explains the decrease in the number of deer from 1925 to 1940? A. decreased number of predators B. decreased number of competitors C. decreased number of parasites D. decreased number of producers

A. It would decrease due to a low amount of available nutrients for plants

2.3: How would the carrying capacity of an ecosystem be affected if there were a decrease in the number of decomposers? A. It would decrease due to a low amount of available nutrients for plants B. It would increase as a result of more available space C. It would increase due to less competition occurring among organisms D. It would remain the same regardless of the decomposer population

B. a new species immigrates into the area

2.3: The carrying capacity of an ecosystem will MOST likely become unbalanced when A. a seasonal migration of birds occurs B. a new species immigrates into the area C. the climate remains favorable for growth D. the diversity of local trees and vegetation remains stable

B. The increase in predator population is a result of an increased prey population

2.3: The graph represents the fluctuations for a predator and prey population based on the carrying capacity of that particular ecosystem. Based on the data in the graph, which statement is a valid conclusion? A. The increase in prey population is a result of an increased predator population B. The increase in predator population is a result of an increased prey population C. The predator and prey populations increase and decrease at the exact same time D. The predator and prey populations have no effect on each other's population size

C. A decrease in the producer population will limit the consumer population

2.3: Which statement BEST explains how the carrying capacity of a population is affected by another population in its ecosystem? A. A decrease in the tertiary consumer population will increase the producer population B. An increase in the tertiary consumer population will decrease the producer population C. A decrease in the producer population will limit the consumer population D. An increase in the producer population will limit the consumer population

C. The CFL light bulb provides the longest life span for the least cost

2.4: A chart comparing 3 types of light bulbs is shown. A school district concerned with reducing CO2 emissions is evaluating which type of light bulb would be the most efficient. Which statement explains why the compact fluorescent light bulb (CFL) is the best choice? A. The CFL light bulg lasts longer than the incandescent light bulb B. The CFL light bulb is cheaper than the light-emitting diode light bulb (LED) C. The CFL light bulb provides the longest life span for the least cost D. The CFL light bulb uses more electricity per hour than the light-emitting diode light bulb (LED)

C. research, hypothesize, conduct experiment, collect data from experiment, and discuss conclusions and applications

2.4: A student is designing an investigation to compare the effectiveness of organic fertilizers to chemical fertilizers. Which BEST represents the correct process the student should follow to prepare for this investigation? A. hypothesize, research, collect data from experiment, conduct experiment, and discuss conclusions and applications B. hypothesize, collect data from experiment, discuss conclusions and applications, and research C. research, hypothesize, conduct experiment, collect data from experiment, and discuss conclusions and applications D. research, discuss conclusions and applications, conduct experiment

C. Step 3

2.4: A team of engineers built a wind turbine using the following steps: 1. research turbines that currently exist 2. brainstorm ideas on a new design of the turbine 3. design the blades, body, and tail of the turbine 4. produce a workable prototype of the turbine When finished, the prototype did not spin correctly. The engineers determined that the turbine blades were too small for the body. Which step in the design process needs to be corrected? A. Step 1 B. Step 2 C. Step 3 D. Step 4

B. preserve water and increase plant growth

2.4: A water-conservation group is developing a smart sprinkler. This sprinkler will have sensors and software that detect the necessary light levels and moisture gradients to use in a vegetable greenhouse. The sprinkler will be programmed to turn on at night and regulate the amount of water sprayed. The intended purpose for the smart sprinkler is to A. maintain a high water content in the soil B. preserve water and increase plant growth C. prevent soil erosion and stimulate root growth D. water during the hottest daylight hours

C. Pesticide 3 because the yield-to-cost ratio is greatest

2.4: Scientists evaluated four new pesticides for agricultural use. Their initial test results are shown in the table. Based on the initial results of cost to benefit, which pesticide should be chosen for further evaluation? A. Pesticide 1 because the average increase in yield is greatest B. Pesticide 2 because it stays active in the soil for months C. Pesticide 3 because the yield-to-cost ratio is greatest D. Pesticide 4 because it remains in the water for months

D. test frogs in ponds with fertilizer against frogs in ponds without fertilizer

2.4: Scientists have discovered a large number of frogs with various mutations in ponds near agricultural fields. Which investigation will BEST test the scientists' hypothesis that the cause of the mutations is from fertilizer runoff used on crops in nearby fields? A. compare the number of mutated frogs with the number of unaffected frogs B. determine when the first mutations occurred and how many generations have been affected thereafter C. record the pH and temperature of the pond water and compare with the amount of fertilizer added to the fields D. test frogs in ponds with fertilizer against frogs in ponds without fertilizer

D. the same digital balance for each measurement

2.4: Students are setting up an investigation to compare the mass of pepper plants grown with different types of fertilizers. Which tool or tools should be used to measure the mass of each pepper plant so that an accurate change in mass is calculated? A. different balances to compare measurements B. recently calibrated dial-spring scale C. spring scales that measure in microunits D. the same digital balance for each measurement

A. The predators could attack other insect species that are beneficial to the ecosystem

2.4: Which is a negative ecological effect of introducing nonnative predators to help eradicate the hemlock woolly adelgid? A. The predators could attack other insect species that are beneficial to the ecosystem B. The predators could begin to feed on the hemlock trees C. The predators could disappear once they have depleted the adelgid population D. The predators could mutate into an organism that no longer preys on the adelgid

C. compare the mass of the plant before and after adding fertilizer

2.4: Which procedure will BEST measure the amount of growth of a plant after adding fertilizer to the soil? A. compare the amount of sun exposure before and after adding fertilizer B. compare the color of the plant and after adding fertilzer C. compare the mass of the plant before and after adding fertilizer D. compare the weight of the soil before and after adding fertilizer

B. As the amount of nutrient increased, the biodiversity of the habitat decreased

2.5: A student wanted to investigate how an increase of a particular nutrient would affect the biodiversity of an area. She planted 100 plants each of three species in five equally sized tracts of land. To each tract of land, she added increasing amounts of the nutrient. Her data are shown below. A. As the amount of nutrient increased, the biodiversity of the habitat increased B. As the amount of nutrient increased, the biodiversity of the habitat decreased C. As the amount of nutrient increased, the biodiversity of the habitat remained the same D. There is no relationship between the amount of nutrient and the biodiversity of the habitat

B. preserve water and increase plant growth

2.5: A water-conservation group is developing a smart sprinkler. This sprinkler will have sensors and software that detect the necessary light levels and moisture gradients to use in a vegetable greenhouse. The sprinkler will be programmed to turn on at night and regulate the amount of water sprayed. The intended purpose of the smart sprinkler is to A. maintain a high water content in the soil B. preserve water and increase plant growth C. prevent soil erosion and stimulate root growth D. water during the hottest daylight hours

A. The number of different hard coral species will decrease

2.5: Hard corals have a symbiotic relationship with species of microalgae that give the corals their color and provide up to 95% of the corals' energy needs by photosynthesis. Corals get the rest of their food by consuming plankton. These microalgae are damaged by changes in water temperatures of 2-3 degrees Celsius lasting five weeks or more, causing a phenomenon called coral bleaching. What will MOST likely be the result of increased global temperature on the diversity of hard coral species? A. The number of different hard coral species will decrease B. The hard corals will make all of their own food C. The rate of photosynthesis in hard corals will increase D. The hard corals will migrate to warmer waters

A. The life cycle of many insects will be disrupted, and they may not be available to pollinate the plants

2.5: Plants and animals require particular physical habitats and often have species-specific ranges of temperature and moisture levels in which they can survive and reproduce. This combination of requirements often limits where they exist geographically. Because species interact and rely upon other species in many different ways, which is a likely effect of a warming climate on the interaction of species in an ecosystem? A. The life cycle of many insects will be disrupted, and they may not be available to pollinate the plants B. The majority of flowering plants will remain dormant until favorable conditions return to their ecosystem C. The organisms in the ecosystem will become extinct immediately because they cannot adapt D. The plants will find other means of transporting their seeds to more favorable habitats

B. They can tolerate a wider range of temperatures

2.5: The number of plants along part of a riverbank decreased over time, resulting in less shade along the edges of the river and higher surface water temperatures. Over a one-year period, the number of fish species that inhabited that section of the river declined. Which statement BEST describes the fish species that remained in the area? A They spend more time near the surface of the water B. They can tolerate a wider range of temperatures C. They rely on camouflage as a cover from predators D. They require a wider variety of prey species

D. zooplankton and grasshoppers

2.6: A scientist studied a pond ecosystem to understand why a frog population had disappeared from that area. The scientist discovered that certain organisms had decreased dramatically over a two-month period. The decrease of which organisms MOST likely led to the extinction of the frog species in that ecosystem? A. bacteria and snails B. fish and ducks C. snakes and birds D. zooplankton and grasshoppers

A. Native species become endangered as the ecosystem becomes unbalanced

2.6: An invasive strain of Phragmites australis, or common reed, has overtaken thousands of acres of wetlands in the United States. Roots of this plant release a toxin that destroys the structural protein in the roots of nearby plants. The roots collapse, causing the nearby plants to die. Which effect does this have on the wetland ecosystem? A. Native species become endangered as the ecosystem becomes unbalanced B. Native species take on similar characteristics of the common reed to avoid predators C. The common reed increases the stability of the ecosystem by increasing the habitat D. The common reed promotes species diversity by increasing the carrying capacity

B. an increase in the extinction rate of many native bird species

2.6: Before the early 1950's, the only snake that inhabited the island of Guam was a small, blind, wormlike snake , Ramphotyphlops braminus, which lived in termite nests and loose soil. When the brown tree snake, Boiga irregularis, which can reach 3 meters in length, was introduced to Guam, it had no predators and quickly populated the island. Scientists predicted that if the brown tree snake population was not controlled, the biodiversity of the island would be dramatically changed because of A. an increase in the variety of producer species on the island B. an increase in the extinction rate of many native bird species C. a decrease in the ability of other snakes to migrate to the island D. a decrease in the carrying capacity for herbivores

A. A species may become extinct due to elimination of its habitat

2.6: Five hundred acres of timber need to be harvested from a 1000 acre wildlife area. One option is to remove a 500-acre plot, while another option is to remove five 100-acre sections. Why would the first option be more damaging to the ecosystem? A. A species may become extinct due to elimination of its habitat B. Displaced species would be able to move to nearby undisturbed sections C. Fewer roads would have to be made to accommodate forestry D. Replanting efforts would be less disruptive to remaining preserve areas

B. Hunting grounds will decrease in size

2.6: How might a gradual increase in temperature affect the Arctic polar bear population? A. Reproductive rates will increase B. Hunting grounds will decrease in size C. Fresh water supplies will increase D. Prey species will lose camouflage colors

D. reducing the availability of their food

2.6: Some characteristics of a rare lizard called a coal skink are shown: 1. color: gray or brown with two white or yellowish stripes on each side 2. habitat: wooded areas near water sources throughout the eastern United States 3. food: insects, spiders, and other invertebrates 4. reproduction: female skinks lay eggs and care for them until they hatch Spraying agricultural pesticides near the coal skinks' habitats increases the likelihood of their extinction by A. increasing the amount of available habitat B. preserving their color marking for camouflage C. preventing them from protecting their young D. reducing the availability of their food

A. too little sunlight

2.7: A diagram representing succession is shown. Herbaceous plants become less numerous in the final stages of succession. Which of these factors MOST likely limits their ability to survive. A. too little sunlight B. too much water C. too many soil minerals D. too few grazing herbivores

A. An increasing amount of soil allows for the establishment of more extensive root systems

2.7: Which statement BEST explains why grasses and shrubs give way to larger and more complex plant species such as hardwood and softwood trees over time due to ecological succession? A. An increasing amount of soil allows for the establishment of more extensive root systems B. An increasing amount of sunlight reaching the forest floor facilitates the germination of tree seeds C. Tree seedlings require fewer nutrients than grass seedlings do in order to mature D. Tree seeds require a higher soil temperature than grass seeds do in order to germinate

D. There are more established available resources for plants and animals

2.7: Which statement BEST explains why secondary succession has a higher level of production of biological material than primary succession? A. There are more producers that break down nutrients B. The deposition of sediment provides new habitats for plants and animals C. The accumulation of soil occurs more quickly for plants to grow D. There are more established available resources for plants and animals

D. Raccoons

3.1: A food web is shown. Which organisms in this ecosystem receive energy from more than one source? A. Eagles B. Plants C. Crayfishes D. Raccoons

D. Solar energy is required for the system to function

3.1: An energy flow diagram is shown. Which statement MOST accurately describes this diagram? A. Heat is maintained and recycled within the system B. Waste products are only produced by the decomposers C. Decomposers directly flow energy to producers and consumers D. Solar energy is required for the system to function

B. Caddisflies

3.1: An energy pyramid of a lake ecosystem is shown. Stoneflies directly obtain energy from which trophic level? A. Algae B. Caddisflies C. Trout D. Osprey

D. Each trophic level receives a small percentage of energy from the previous level

3.1: An energy pyramid representing a woodland ecosystem is shown. Which BEST explains how energy is transferred within the energy pyramid? A. All available energy is transferred to the highest trophic level B. All available energy remains in the lowest trophic level C. Each trophic level receives all the energy from the previous level D. Each trophic level receives a small percentage of energy from the previous level

A. primary producers

3.1: Energy is constantly flowing through environments. Which trophic level contains the most energy? A. primary producers B. primary consumers C. secondary consumers D. tertiary consumers

B. Producer

3.1: Marine biologists study the biodiversity of oceanic systems by observing a phenomenon known as upwelling. Upwelling occurs when deep ocean currents carry dissolved nutrients to the surface. These nutrient-rich waters cause an increase in phytoplankton populations. When photyplankton die, they are decomposed by bacteria, causing a decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in the waters. This decrease affects other oceanic organisms. Which population is FIRST affected by upwelling? A. Decomposer B. Producer C. Secondary consumer D. Tertiary consumer

A. 10 percent

3.1: Study the energy pyramid shown. Approximately what percent of the energy in Level 1 will be transferred to Level 2? A. 10 percent B. 25 percent C. 50 percent D. 90 percent

C. Y

3.1: The bar graph shown represents the energy content of the trophic levels found in a forest ecosystem. Which bar represents primary consumers? A. W B. X C. Y D. Z

C. 0.1 %

3.1: The diagram below represents an energy pyramid for a pond ecosystem. What percentage of the energy found in the algae is MOST likely available to the tertiary consumer? A. 0.001 % B. 0.01 % C. 0.1 % D. 1.0 %

A. Ten percent of the energy produced by the producers is transferred to the omnivores

3.1: The diagram represents the energy flow in an ecosystem. Which statement describes the flow of energy? A. Ten percent of the energy produced by the producers is transferred to the omnivores B. Ninety percent of the energy produced by the carnivores is transferred to the herbivores C. Fifty percent of the energy produced by the herbivores is lost to the environment D. One hundred percent of the energy produced by the decomposers is lost to the soil

A. sun to the producers

3.1: The diagram shown represents the flow of energy in an ecosystem. The GREATEST amount of energy flows from the A. sun to the producers B. producers to the consumers C. producers to the decomposers D. consumers to the decomposers

A: The sea urchin population will increase

3.1: The diagram shows a part of a food chain found in the Pacific Ocean. What will MOST likely occur if there is a decline in the sea otter population? A. The sea urchin population will increase B. The crab population will decrease C. The small toothed whale population will increase D. The phytoplankton population will decrease

B. They would decrease due to competition for available food

3.1: The graph shows the change in the total mass of the plant population of a pond ecosystem. What would be the immediate effect of the change on the primary consumers? A. Their rate of reproduction would increase B. They would decrease due to competition for available food C. Their population would increase as they adapt to become secondary consumers D. They would migrate to a different area

A. Ten percent of the energy is transferred through each trophic level

3.1: Which statement BEST describes the energy flow as it passes from producers to tertiary consumers? A. Ten percent of the energy is transferred through each trophic level B. One hundred percent of the energy produced passes to each trophic level C. Fifty percent of the energy produced is transferred through each trophic level D. One percent of the energy is lost as it is transferred through each trophic level

A. Most of the energy is lost to the environment as heat

3.1:The image represents a marine ecosystem energy pyramid. Which statement describes the flow of energy between the producers and tertiary consumers? A. Most of the energy is lost to the environment as heat B. All of the energy produced is transferred through each level C. The amount of energy increases by fifty percent from one level to the next D. The amount of energy increases by ninety percent from one level to the next

A. 1 and 2

3.2: A molecular biologist researches both anaerobic and aerobic respiration and records these observations: 1. The fermentation process produces lactic acid 2. The entire process occurs without oxygen present 3. The oxygen is used to generate energy in the form of ATP 4. The chemical reactions in the Krebs cycle appear to be complete Which two observations describe anaerobic respiration? A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 3 and 4

D. Lactic acid

3.2: A sports physiologist was monitoring athletes to determine at which point their muscles began to work under anaerobic conditions. The BEST way to test for this would be to check for a buildup of A. ADP B. ATP C. Carbon dioxide D. Lactic acid

A. synthesizes ATP

3.2: A student makes a chart to compare aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Which statement should be listed on both sides of the chart? A. synthesizes ATP B. occurs in mitochondria C. requires oxygen to occur D. requires sunlight to occur

B. release energy from bonds

3.2: Fermentation and cellular respiration are both processes that break down glucose and A. store lactic acid in bonds B. release energy from bonds C. require O2 as a reactant D. produce ethyl alcohol

B. cytoplasm

3.2: Glycolysis occurs in which part of a cell? A. cell membrane B. cytoplasm C. Golgi apparatus D. nucleus

A. Anaerobic respiration involves little or no atmospheric oxygen

3.2: Leatherback sea turtles are almost always submerged in water and, therefore, have developed an anaerobic system of respiration. Although sea turtles breathe air, these sea turtles can divert to anaerobic respiration for up to three hours. How does the anaerobic respiration of the leatherback sea turtle differ from aerobic respiration? A. Anaerobic respiration involves little or no atmospheric oxygen B. Anaerobic respiration occurs in oceanic environments C. Anaerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide and water D. Anaerobic respiration yields an increased amount of energy

D. require more energy than skin cells

3.2: Muscle cells contain more mitochondria than skin cells because muscle cells A. break down a larger amount of waste products than skin cells B. divide more rapidly than skin cells C. make a larger number of proteins than skin cells D. require more energy than skin cells

B. Large amounts of energy are required

3.2: Purple martins fly very long distances to reach their nesting grounds in North America. The birds' bodies perform aerobic respiration to provide them with energy. Why is aerobic respiration necessary for these birds? A. Large amounts of carbohydrates are needed for energy storage B. Large amounts of energy are required C. Only small amounts of oxygen are needed to expend energy D. Only sugar is required to produce the necessary energy

C. 36 ATP molecules

3.2: The complete breakdown of glucose through aerobic respiration in muscle cells results in the net production of a maximum of A. 36 O2 molecules B. 36 CO2 molecules C. 36 ATP molecules D. 36 ADP molecules

A. when no oxygen is available

3.2: The process of fermentation takes place A. when no oxygen is available B. when no water is available C. when oxygen is present D. when water is present

C. it produces fewer molecules of ATP

3.2: What is one way anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration? A. it only occurs in the presence of a catalyst B. it only occurs when oxygen in present C. it produces fewer molecules of ATP D. it produces sugars from sunlight

D. the use of oxygen to perform aerobic respiration

3.2: Which description BEST represents the biological process that produces the greatest number of ATP molecules? A. the absorption of carbon dioxide to perform photosynthesis B. the division of cells through asexual reproduction C. the movement of nutrient molecules through diffusion D. the use of oxygen to perform aerobic respiration

D. Glucose is converted to CO2, ATP, and H2O in the presence of oxygen

3.2: Which is a characteristic of aerobic respiration? A. Only two ATP molecules are produced B. ATP, CO2, and alcohol are the end products C. Glucose is broken down in the absence of oxygen to release energy D. Glucose is converted to CO2, ATP, and H2O in the presence of oxygen

B. CO2

3.2: Which is a product of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration? A. O2 B. CO2 C. NAD+ D. C6H12O6

A. They produce lactic acid instead of carbon dioxide

3.2: Which statement BEST explains what occurs in skeletal muscle cells during vigorous exercise? A. They produce lactic acid instead of carbon dioxide B. They produce more than 36 molecules of ATP per molecule of glucose C. They switch from anaerobic respiration to aerobic respiration D. They switch from breaking down glucose to synthesizing glucose

B. Most aquatic plants in a pond are found in shallow water

3.3: A biology class investigated the rate of photosynthesis of aquatic plants at varying distances from a light source in their classroom aquarium. The class concluded that the rate of photosynthesis increases when the plants are closer to the light source. Which statement BEST supports the students' classroom conclusion when applied in a pond ecosystem? A. Most aquatic plants found in a pond have small leaves B. Most aquatic plants in a pond are found in shallow water C. Most aquatic plants found in a pond belong to the same species D. Most aquatic plants in a pond are found in areas of moving water

C. thermometer

3.3: A biology class is investigating whether the amount of dissolved oxygen in an aquarium changes when water temperature changes. They set up two aquariums, one as a control and the second as the variable. They will record the dissolved oxygen content over a 3-month period using an oxygen monitor. What other tool is necessary to conduct this investigation? A. pH meter B. microscope C. thermometer D. graduated cylinder

C. The plant under humid conditions had the least percentage of water loss per leaf

3.3: A student conducted an experiment to determine under which conditions the leaves of a plant lose the greatest mass of water. Five identical plants were used and placed under different conditions. The results were recorded in the table. The student concluded that the plant exposed to a fan had the GREATEST percentage of water loss. What is another acceptable conclusion for these experimental data? A. The plant under control conditions had the greatest percentage of water loss per leaf B. The plant under light conditions had the least percentage of water loss per leaf C. The plant under humid conditions had to least percentage of water loss per leaf D. The plant under cold conditions had the greatest percentage of water loss per leaf

A. Process I

3.3: A student created the diagram to illustrate three important energy transformation processes that occur in cells. Which process or processes involve a transformation of light energy into chemical energy? A. Process I B. Process II C. Process III D. Processes I and III

A. respiration

3.3: A student created this diagram to provide a general overview of a cellular process. Which cellular process is represented in the diagram? A. respiration B. cytokinesis C. chemosynthesis D. photosynthesis

A. The distance of the light bulb from the test tube

3.3: A student team places an aquatic plant in a test tube filled with water. Team members count the number of oxygen bubbles released per minute for five minutes with a 100-watt light bulb is placed at each of several distances from the test tube. What is the independent variable in this experiment? A. The distance of the light bulb from the test tube B. The duration of observation in each trial C. The oxygen bubble release rate D. The type of aquatic plant observed

B. produce carbon dioxide gas for photosynthesis

3.3: Heterotrophs depend on autotrophs for chemical energy in a food chain. Which statement describes how autotrophs depend on heterotrophs for survival? A. make lactic acid during anaerobic respiration B. produce carbon dioxide gas for photosynthesis C. provide sunlight for photosynthesis D. supply oxygen for aerobic respiration

D. photosynthesis

3.3: Light energy is transformed into chemical energy during A. anaerobic respiration B. cellular respiration C. chemosynthesis D. photosynthesis

D. Equations 1 and 3 represent anaerobic respiration

3.3: Students wrote the equations in the table. Which statement BEST describes the equations? A. Equations 1 and 3 represent aerobic respiration B. Equations 2 and 3 represent anaerobic respiration C. Equations 1 and 2 represent aerobic respiration D. Equations 1 and 3 represent anaerobic respiration

C. respiration

3.3: The solar energy necessary for photosynthesis is converted to chemical energy and released for the cell's use by which process? A. distillation B. radiation C. respiration D. transpiration

B. I. Energy from glucose is used to produce high-energy bonds in ATP II. Sunlight energy is converted into the chemical energy found in glucose

3.3: Two energy transformation processes that occur in living cells are represented. I. C6H12O6 + 6O2 yields 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy II. 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy yields C6H12O6 + 6O2 Which statement correctly describes the two processes? A. I. Sunlight energy is converted into the chemical energy found in glucose II. Energy from glucose is used to produce high-energy bonds in ATP B. I. Energy from glucose is used to produce high-energy bonds in ATP II. Sunlight energy is converted into the chemical energy found in glucose C. I. Energy from ATP is used to produce a high-energy molecule of glucose II. Energy from the sun is converted into high-energy bonds in ATP D. I. Energy from the sun is converted into high-energy bonds in ATP II. Energy from ATP is used to produce a high-energy molecule of glucose

A. Both processes use ATP as an energy carrier

3.3: What statement accurately compares the chemical processes of cellular respiration and photosynthesis? A. Both processes use ATP as an energy carrier B. Both processes require water C. Both processes require light energy to form products D. Both processes are aerobic reactions only

D. the breakdown of sugars

3.3: Which of these processes provides energy that is used most directly to make ATP? A. the storage of sugars B. the transport of sugars C. the synthesis of sugars D. the breakdown of sugars

D. mitochondrion - converts energy found in glucose into energy used by the cell

3.3: Which organelle is correctly paired with the function it performs in the process of producing energy for organisms? A. chloroplast - converts food energy into chemical energy B. chloroplast - breaks down chemical compounds into carbon dioxide and water C. mitochondrion - breaks down carbon dioxide to release glucose and oxygen D. mitochondrion - converts energy found in glucose into energy used by the cell

B. It provides the energy necessary for processes to occur within the cell

3.3: Which statement BEST explains the function of ATP as an important component of normal cellular functions? A. It provides the oxygen necessary for cells to undergo photosynthesis B. It provides the energy necessary for processes to occur within the cell C. It provides the carbon necessary for the cell to produce DNA D. It provides the code necessary for the manufacture of proteins in the cell

D. an increase in acid rain

3.4: A city of one million people produces approximately 864,000 kilograms of air pollutants a day, including large amounts of sulfur oxides. What is the MOST likely effect of this pollution on the environment? A. increase in the ozone in the stratosphere B. larger number of plant life in the city C. reduction of the greenhouse effect D. an increase in acid rain

D. reducing the availability of plants eaten by herbivores

3.4: A decrease in nitrifying bacteria in an ecosystem will cause a reduction in the ecosystem's herbivore population by A. allowing herbivores to better digest cellulose B. causing plants eaten by herbivores to produce toxins C. increasing the acidity of the water the herbivores drink D. reducing the availability of plants eaten by herbivores

B. is used by algae as a nutrient

3.4: A graph comparing the nitrogen content to the algae population size is shown. The shape of the lines on the graph indicates that nitrogen A. is a toxin to algae B. is used by algae as a nutrient C. supports the growth of algae competitors D. prevents overgrowth of algae

D. an increase in denitrifying bacteria in the water

3.4: A scientist is studying what will happen to the nitrogen cycle in the ecosystem shown when a large number of fish are added to the pond. An increase in the fish population will MOST likely result in A. a decrease in decaying organic matter in the sediment B. a decrease in nitrogen in the atmosphere C. an increase in blue-green algae along the shore D. an increase in denitrifying bacteria in the water

D. increase plant productivity

3.4: An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will MOST likely A. decrease precipitation B. increase wind speeds C. decrease temperatures D. increase plant productivity

C. increasing the carrying capacity for producers

3.4: An increase in the phosphorus content of soil affects an ecosystem's total biomass by directly A. supplying shelter for decomposers B. replacing the need for herbivores C. increasing the carrying capacity for producers D. reducing competition between top predators

C. Necessary nutrients would not be recycled in the environment

3.4: Decomposers play an important role in the nitrogen cycle to help maintain the health of an ecosystem. Which would MOST likely occur if there was a decrease in the number of decomposers? A. Waste products would be converted to carbohydrates B. Energy needed for producers to make food would increase C. Necessary nutrients would not be recycled in the environment D. The amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere would decrease

B. the amount of usable nitrogen in the soil

3.4: Every few years farmers plant rotational crops such as legumes during off seasons. Which resource increases as a result of this farming practice? A. the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere B. the amount of usable nitrogen in the soil C. the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere D. the amount of water that seeps through the soil

B. The lake will begin to undergo eutrophication

3.4: In surface waters, an excessive concentration of phosphorus is considered to be a pollutant. Phosphorus stimulates the growth of plankton and plants that eventually die and decompose. Bacteria consume the decomposing material, causing a decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen. What will MOST likely occur in a lake ecosystem that has an overabundance of phosphorus? A. There will be an increase in other available nutrients B. The lake will begin to undergo eutrophication C. There will be a decrease in food for other organisms D. The water flow in the lake will increase

B. Nitrogenous compounds are added to the soil

3.4: Plant productivity in an ecosystem will increase when A. Carbohydrates enter the plant from the air B. Nitrogenous compounds are added to the soil C. Oxygen is added to the leaves D. Oxygen is released in large quantities from the stomata

C. changing climates and melting the polar ice caps

3.4: The burning of fossil fuels has increased carbon dioxide emissions dramatically since the 1950's. If the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere continues to rise, it appears to causes a warming trend and affect ecosystems throughout the world by A. increasing the amount of acid rain B. increasing the amount of ultraviolet radiation C. changing climates and melting the polar ice caps D. contaminating water sources with toxic chemicals

B. 2

3.4: The diagram represents the carbon cycle. Which numbered process could function in removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. The amount of available nitrogen in the soil would decrease

3.4: The nitrogen cycle is depicted. Which statement BEST explains what would most likely occur first if the amount of organic matter in an area suddenly decreased? A. The number of decomposers would increase B. The amount of available nitrogen in the soil would decrease C. The number of nitrogen-fixing bacteria would increase D. The amount of atmospheric nitrogen would decrease

C. nitrogen base

4.1: A DNA molecule is shown. What part of the DNA molecule is represented by the structure labeled 1? A. nucleotide B. amino acid C. nitrogen base D. phosphate

B. two hydrogen bonds

4.1: The diagram illustrates a base pair in a DNA molecule. Which BEST explains the bond represented by the dotted lines in the diagram? A. two nitrogen bonds B. two hydrogen bonds C. one covalent bond and one ionic bond D. one hydrogen bond and one ionic bond

A. replication

4.1: The diagram represents a process that occurs in a DNA molecule. Which BEST identifies this process? A. replication B. mutation C. translation D. transcription

B. thymine

4.1: The diagram represents part of a DNA molecule. If X represents adenine, what molecule is its complementary base? A. cytosine B. thymine C. guanine D. uracil

D. nitrogen bases

4.1: The double strands of a DNA molecule are connected to one another by bonds between A. complex sugars B. simple fatty acids C. phosphate groups D. nitrogen bases

C. stores hereditary information

4.1: Which BEST describes the function of a DNA molecule? A. regulates cellular metabolism B. provides quick energy C. stores hereditary information D. delivers nutrients to the body

B. mitosis

4.2: In order to ensure an exact copy of DNA is passed on, replication must occur before A. electron transfer B. mitosis C. protein synthesis D. glycolysis

C. Hydrogen bonds between bases begin to break

4.2: Researchers have found a 245-base-pair sequence in the DNA of E. coli bacteria which binds to an initiator protein to begin DNA replication. What occurs FIRST after binding? A. Complementary bases are added to the DNA molecule B. DNA sugars are broken down to release chemical energy C. Hydrogen bonds between bases begin to break D. Phosphates are ejected from the DNA molecule

B. one resulting cell only

4.2: The diagram represents DNA replication in which a mutation has occurred at Point X. During the cell cycle, this mutation at Point X can result in the production of a mutated protein in which cell? A. the parent cell only B. one resulting cell only C. one resulting cell and the parent cell D. both resulting cells and the parent cell

D. passage of information to future generations

4.2: The process of DNA replication allows for A. backup and storage of reproductive data B. encoding of responses to selection pressures C. error correction in existing chemical information D. passage of information to future generations

B. nucleotides

4.2: Traits are determined by the proteins that are synthesized according to instructions coded in DNA. Which sequence of biomolecules is responsible for the coded instructions? A. enzymes B. nucleotides C. glycoproteins D. carbohydrates

A. DNA replication

4.2: What must occur in order for genetic material to be passed to cells during cell division? A. DNA replication B. RNA synthesis C. osmosis D. diffusion

B. DNA replication

4.2: Which process is necessary for daughter cells to contain genetic material identical to that of the parent cell? A. DNA transcription B. DNA replication C. RNA translation D. RNA synthesis

B. CGC AAU GGA

4.3: During protein synthesis, an RNA strand is transcribed from one strand of DNA. GCG TTA CCT What is the complementary RNA strand to the DNA strand shown? A. CGC UUT CCT B. CGC AAU GGA C. GCG UUA CCU D. CGC AAT GGA

A. Golgi apparatus

4.3: Once the cell completes the process of synthesizing the protein, to which organelle is the protein sent for modification and packaging? A. Golgi apparatus B. Mitochondrion C. Nucleus D. Ribosome

D. transcription

4.3: RNA contains instructions to make a specific protein and is produced from genetic information in the nucleus of the cell. Which BEST identifies this process? A. mutation B. replication C. translation D. transcription

B. mRNA is transcribed from DNA and leaves the nucleus to be translated by tRNA in the cytoplasm

4.3: Which BEST describes the process that occurs when nuclear DNA codes for a protein in the cytoplasm? A. One strand of the DNA temporarily leaves the nucleus to be translated by a ribosome in the cytoplasm B. mRNA is transcribed from DNA and leaves the nucleus to be translated by tRNA in the cytoplasm C. A ribosome makes an RNA copy of DNA in the nucleus, then returns to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis D. The tRNA copies the DNA in the nucleus, then transports the information to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm for protein synthesis

A. DNA to RNA to protein

4.3: Which represents the correct sequential flow of information during protein synthesis? A. DNA to RNA to protein B. RNA to DNA to protein C. DNA to protein to RNA D. RNA to protein toDNA

A. 1:1

4.4: A cross between a heterozygous male and a homozygous female occurs for a particular trait, Tt x tt. Which ratio represents the number of offspring with the genotype Tt to the genotype tt? A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:3 D. 1:4

D. incomplete dominance

4.4: A cross between a snapdragon with white flowers (WW) and a snapdragon with red flowers (RR) produces offspring that have pink flowers (RW). Based on this cross, which form of inheritance leads to the expression of pink flowers? A. codominance B. polygenic traits C. multiple alleles D. incomplete dominance

D. incomplete dominance

4.4: A cross between a white horse and a brown horse produces offspring that are golden in color. The possible results of a cross between two golden-colored horses are shown. Based on these results, what is the MOST LIKELY mode of inheritance for coat color in these horses? A. polygenic B. sex-linked C. complete dominance D. incomplete dominance

A. dominant

4.4: A seed company was experimenting with different types of plant stems. Some of the plants they were working with had weak stems and a low survival rate. They crossed plants with weak stems with plants that had strong stems and produced offspring that all had strong stems. Based on these results, the allele for having strong stems is A. dominant B. recessive C. sex-linked D. codominant

B. 50%

4.4: In humans, the allele for having freckles (F) is dominant to the allele for not having freckles (f). What is the probability that a child from this cross will be heterozygous for freckles? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

C. occurs in sex cell

4.4: The DNA in one cell of a multicellular organism is replicated incorrectly. This will cause a genetic mutation in the organism's offspring if the error A. changes the organism's traits B. is repeated C. occurs in a sex cell D. prevents the organism from reproducing

B. heterozygous x heterozygous

4.4: The Punnett square represents a cross between a Holstein bull and a Holstein cow. According to the Punnett square, what must be the genotypes of the parents? A. heterozygous x homozygous B. heterozygous x heterozygous C. homozygous dominant x homozygous recessive D. homozygous dominant x homozygous dominant

A. The trait is dominant and the female parent is homozygous

4.5: A student studies an inheritance shown in the pedigree. The shaded figures represent organisms that display the inherited trait. Which conclusion is most likely supported based on the information in the pedigree? A. The trait is dominant and the female parent is homozygous B. The trait is dominant and the male parent is heterozygous C. The trait is recessive and the female parent is homozygous D. The trait is recessive and the male parent is heterozygous

D. sex-linked recessive

4.5: The inheritance pattern of a particular condition is shown. This inheritance pattern shows that the condition is A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive C. sex-linked dominant D. sex-linked recessive

B. X-linked recessive

4.5: The pedigree represents an inherited disorder. What mode of inheritance is shown? A. autosomal dominant B. X-linked recessive C. autosomal recessive D. X-linked dominant

D. The allele for the disorder is carried on the X-chromosome

4.5: The pedigree shows the inheritance of a genetic disorder through three generations. Which statement BEST explains the mode of inheritance? A. The disorder affects only the sons B. The disorder affects only the daughters C. The allele for the disorder is carried on the Y-chromosome D. The allele for the disorder is carried on the X-chromosome

D. sex-linked recessive

4.5: The pedigree shows the occurrence of a condition in two generations of a human family. Which of these terms describes the inheritance pattern shown in the pedigree? A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive C. sex-linked dominant D. sex-linked recessive

B. sex cells

4.6: During the process of meiosis, a diploid cell produces A. nerve cells B. sex cells C. muscle cells D. somatic cells

A. The number of chromosomes is divided in half, and the amount of DNA is divided in half

4.6: How do the contents of a gamete's nucleus change as a result of meiosis? A. The number of chromosomes is divided in half, and the amount of DNA is divided in half B. The number of chromosomes stays the same, but the amount of DNA is divided in half C. The number of chromosomes is divided in half, but the amount of DNA is reduced to one-fourth D. The number of chromosomes is reduced to one-fourth, and the amount of DNA is reduced to one-fourth

C. two meiotic divisions

4.6: In order to successfully produce gametes by the end of meiosis, a cell must undergo A. genetic mutation B. cellular respiration C. two meiotic divisions D. one stage of cytokinesis

C. 48

4.6: The body cells of an adult chimpanzee contain 48 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a chimpanzee's fertilized egg have? A. 12 B. 24 C. 48 D. 96

C. sperm cell

4.6: The diagram illustrates a series of cell divisions in a pig. Cell X represents a A. red blood cell B. neuron C. sperm cell D. striated muscle

C. Meiosis

4.6: Which type of cellular reproduction produces daughter cells with one-half the number of chromosomes found in the parent cell? A. budding B. grafting C. meiosis D. mitosis

C. with a combination of traits from each parent

4.7: In the process of reproduction, meiosis contributes to genetic variation within a population by producing cells A. that are genetically identical to one parent B. with genetic traits identical to those of both parents C. with a combination of traits from each parent D. that are genetically unlike either parent

A. meiosis

4.7: Researchers were studying a family pedigree in which a genetic disorder was present in only some of the offspring. Which process contributes to this variation among offspring? A. meiosis B. transcription C. protein synthesis D. asexual reproduction

B. an increase in genetic variation

4.7: The diagram illustrates a process that occurs during meiosis. This process results in A. the division of the cell B. an increase in genetic variation C. the reduction in the number of alleles D. an increase in the number of chromosomes

B. independent assortment

4.7: The diagram represents a process during meiosis. Which mechanism of genetic variation is illustrated? A. crossing-over B. independent assortment C. random fertilization D. deletion mutation

C. combining genetic material in new ways in offspring

4.7: The diagram shown represents a process that occurs during meiosis. This process contributes to the genetic variation in a population of organisms by A. limiting the production of new traits B. creating more dominant alleles than recessive alleles C. combining genetic material in new ways in offspring D. allowing offspring to be identical to their parents

B. Meiosis

4.7: When two plants were crossed, the offspring showed a wide range of traits not visible in the parents. Which process is responsible for producing such genetic variability within the offspring? A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Replication D. Transcription

B. by producing haploid cells with a random combination of alleles from one diploid cell

4.7: Which BEST explains how the process of meiosis contributes to genetic variation? A. by producing diploid cells that contain an exact copy of one diploid cell's DNA B. by producing haploid cells with a random combination of alleles from one diploid cell C. by producing diploid cells that contain the alleles from only two diploid cells D. by producing haploid cells that contain DNA from two diploid cells

D. nondisjunction

4.8: Chromosomal disorders occur when an abnormal number of chromosomes are found in gametes. Down syndrome, Turner's syndrome, and Klinefelter's syndrome are examples of chromosomal disorders resulting from which process? A. replication B. translation C. crossing-over D. nondisjunction

B. an incorrect DNA sequence

4.8: Congenital lactose intolerance is a recessive genetic disorder that causes a mutation in the gene for lastase. Without lactase, the body cannot bread down lactose sugar in milk. The cause of congenital lactose intolerance is MOST likely due to A. a mistake in RNA transcription B. an incorrect DNA sequence C. the enzyme protein folding incorrectly D. tRNA matching the wrong amino acids

A. 25%

4.8: Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that affects the respiratory and digestive systems. Cystic fibrosis occurs when two recessive alleles of a gene (cc) are present. A person with one allele for cystic fibrosis is called a carrier (Cc) of the disease. If both parents are carriers, what percentage of their children are expected to have cystic fibrosis? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

A. Both parents must be carriers of the allele

4.8: Cystic fibrosis is a recessive, single-gene genetic disorder that affects mainly lung cells. It produces abnormally thick mucus, making breathing very difficult. Which BEST explains how this disorder is passed on to offspring? A. Both parents must be carriers of the allele B. Both parents must express the disease C. The allele must be carried on the X-chromosome D. The allele must be carried on the Y-chromosome

B. Down syndrome

4.8: The diagram represents a human karyotype that contains a genetic disorder. According to this karyotype, what genetic disorder is the result of this mutation? A. cystic fibrosis B. Down syndrome C. sickle-cell disease D. Tay-Sachs disease

B. a mutation in the DNA of the parents

4.8: The genetic disorder that causes hemophilia is MOST likely a result of A. the size of the individual B. a mutation in the DNA of the parents C. the diet of the individual D. a change in the habitat of the parents

C. a deletion in an autosome

4.8: The karyotype shown represents a genetic disorder. This disorder is MOST likely a result of A. an extra section in an autosome B. an extra section in a sex chromosome C. a deletion in an autosome D. a deletion in a sex chromosome

A. Transgenic organisms may cause unknown consequences in an ecosystem

4.8: Which statement BEST explains a primary argument against developing transgenic organisms, whose genomes carry genes from another species? A. Transgenic organisms may cause unknown consequences in an ecosystem B. Transgenic organisms may increase food production in many crops C. Transgenic organisms may eliminate harmful diseases in a population D. Transgenic organisms may prevent harmful mutations in humans

C. New allergens of which people are unaware may be introduced

4.9: Genetically modified foods may contain high amounts of essential vitamins and minerals; however, genetically modified foods are not always labeled as such. Why is the use of genetically modified foods a concern? A. Most foods contain enough vitamins and minerals already B. Important nutrients will be more available to all people C. New allergens of which people are unaware may be introduced D. Harmful mutations will be prevented by consuming these foods

B. Most cloned animals have a compromised immune system and have a low survival rate

4.9: Much research has been done in the cloning of animals; a tadpole in 1954, Dolly the sheep in 1997, and the endangered gaur are just a few of the "famous" cloned animals. However, cloning of animals has met with limited success. Which statement is a scientific argument against the cloning of animals? A. Animals on the endangered species list could be cloned, and their populations would increase B. Most cloned animals have a compromised immune system and have a low survival rate C. Cloning of animals can be beneficial in the treatment and prevention of many diseases D. New technologies and scientific equipment have made cloning of animals safe

B. Medical insurance companies denying certain individuals insurance due to their DNA profiles

4.9: Scientists can use DNA sequences to identify potential health risks such as susceptibility to certain cancers in individuals. What would be an ethical concern associated with this biotechnology? A. Fear of increased lawsuits against medical practitiioners using genetic profiles in prescribing treatments B. Medical insurance companies denying certain individuals insurance due to their DNA profiles C. Pharmaceutical companies initiating research for individuals with genetic susceptibility to certain disease D. Prescribing medicines and early administration of treatments on individuals with certain DNA profiles

B. an increase in crop yield for that season

4.9: Scientists have genetically modified sweet corn so that it produces a toxin, which kills harmful insects that attack the corn. An advantage of farmers planting modified sweet corn is A. a shorter growing season for the crop B. an increase in crop yield for that season C. the cross-pollination that occurs with other plant species D. the introduction of different insects into the environment

A. Gel electrophoresis

4.9: Which of these allows a scientist to view the length of a DNA fragment? A. Gel electrophoresis B. Polymerase reactions C. Restriction enzymes D. Ti plasmids

D. Both plant species are exposed to the same environmental pressures

5.1: A cactus found in the deserts of North and South America is similar in structure to a plant species found in Africa. Which statement BEST explains how these plants express a similar structure? A. Artificial selection for similar traits occurred B. Both plant species are pollinated by the same insects C. Seeds were dispersed from birds across both continents D. Both plant species are exposed to the same environmental pressures

D. Arctic biomes have greater seasonal variations in food supplies and temperature changes than tropical biomes

5.1: Hibernation is one of the main adaptations that allows certain mammals to survive long, cold winters by conserving their body energy. Why is hibernation among mammal species more common in arctic biomes than in tropical biomes? A. Arctic mammals have adapted to longer nights by sleeping for longer periods than tropical mammals B. Tropical biomes tend to have fewer predators than arctic biomes, so hibernation is not necessary C. Tropical biomes are much warmer than arctic biomes, allowing warm-blooded animals to sleep for long periods D. Arctic biomes have greater seasonal variations in food supplies and temperature changes than tropical biomes

D. Tropical rain forest trees do not need to save up as much water due to excessive rainfall

5.1: In dry, temperate deciduous forests, thick bark helps to limit moisture evaporation from tree trunks. The trunks of many rain forest trees are thin and smooth. Which statement BEST explains why most tropical rain forest trees have thin, smooth bark? A. Thin, smooth bark keeps animals from climbing up trees to eat leaves and fruit B. Thin, smooth bark keeps insects from drilling holes into trees to obtain sap C. Tropical rain forest trees do not need thick bark for protection against temperature changes D. Tropical rain forest trees do not need to save up as much water due to excessive rainfall

C. specialized stems to channel water to the roots of the plant

5.1: Many tropical rain forest plants are structured to allow rapid draining of excess moisture. Which adaptation do cacti have in order to survive a desert environment? A. increased number of flowers to ensure pollination B. different-sized spines to defend against herbivores C. specialized stems to channel water to the roots of the plant D. dark green leaves to maximize photosynthesis

B. The plants will be at a greater risk of extinction

5.1: Researchers have discovered that the Paris japonica plant, a rare native plant in Japan, has the largest recorded genome. It is more than 50 times larger than the human genome. This is a problem for the plant, because it takes a long time for a cell to copy its entire DNA and divide. In comparison, many desert plants have a small genome and can quickly complete their life cycle after it rains, while environmental conditions are favorable. Due to Paris japonica having a very large genome, what would MOST likely occur to the plant species if its environment were rapidly altered? A. The plants will cross-pollinate with more native plant species B. The plants will be at a greater risk of extinction C. The plants will manipulate their genes to adapt to a variety of habitats D. The plants will be able to grow in a wide range of extreme environmental conditions

A. Plant 1 because it has specialized thorns to evade predators

5.1: The illustration represents 4 different plant species, each with specific adaptations for survival in certain environments. Which plant is BEST adapted to protect itself from herbivores? A. Plant 1 because it has specialized thorns to evade predators B. Plant 2 because its surface area increases its photosynthetic rate C. Plant 3 because the plant is able to climb tall trees to reach sunlight D. Plant 4 because water loss is decreased due to a decrease in surface area

C. They filled different niches in the environment

5.2: Hawks found in the United States are divided into 3 groups: short-winged, broad-winged, and harrier hawks. Scientists have determined that these birds came from a common ancestor. Which BEST explains why they have developed different physical and behavioral characteristics? A. They chose beneficial mutations to ensure their survival B. They bred with other species of birds C. They filled different niches in the environment D. They imitated other bird species in their habitats

D. provide support

5.2: Human bones have both strength ad a limited amount of flexibility. Their strength helps bones to perform which function? A. circulate oxygen B. absorb calcium C. produce blood cells D. provide support

B. They help to keep the organisms in the layer with the greatest amount of light

5.2: Photosynthetic organisms have many adaptive mechanisms that cause them to remain near the surface, such as buoyancy bubbles, droplets of oil, and increased surface area. Which statement explains the function of these mechanisms? A. They stabilize pressure as the organisms move vertically through the different zones B. They help to keep the organisms in the layer with the greatest amount of light C. They are beneficial in camouflaging the phytoplankton from consumers D. They help absorb more wavelengths of light to maximize photosynthesis

B. the presence of a variety of food types

5.2: Scientists think that the Hawaiian honeycreepers shown are closely related. The scientists think the ancestor of the honeycreepers is a finch that migrated to Hawaii. Which of these MOST LIKELY led to the different sizes and shapes of the honeycreeper beaks? A. the presence of predators B. the presence of a variety of food types C. the ability of individual birds to change their beak shape D. the desire of individual birds to avoid competition for food

B. They help to keep the organisms in the layer with the greatest amount of light

5.2: The marine ecosystem is the largest aquatic system on Earth. Scientists have divided the ocean into layers called zones. The two major zones of the ocean are the photic and aphotic zones. These zones extend from the surface to the depths where light no longer penetrates. These two zones are further divided into layers based on availability of food, currents, and water temperature. Organisms have adapted to the conditions in these different layers. Currents affect the productivity of the oceans by bringing up valuable nutrients from the ocean floor. These nutrients are used by phytoplankton. Dissolved oxygen is carried back to deep areas of the ocean when colder water sinks. This movement of nutrients and dissolved oxygen allows marine life to exist at all depths. Photosynthetic organisms have many adaptive mechanisms that cause them to remain near the surface, such as buoyancy bubbles, droplets of oil, and increased surface area. Which statement explains the function of these mechanisms? A. They stabilize pressure as the organisms move vertically through the different zones B. They help to keep the organisms in the layer with the greatest amount of light C. They are beneficial in camouflaging the phytoplankton from consumers D. They help absorb more wavelengths of light to maximize photosynthesis

C. helps keep their prey from wriggling free

5.2: The osprey is one of the largest birds of prey in North America. Its diet consists almost exclusively of fish. Feeding on fish species that bask or feed near the surface of the water reduces competition from other raptors. The osprey has a reversible fourth toe, allowing it to position two toes forward and two toes backwards. Also, the undersides of an osprey's feet are covered in spiny spicules or barbs. Which BEST explains the function of these adaptations? A. acts as a defense against other birds of prey B. supports the weight of the bird when nesting C. helps keep their prey from wriggling free D. protects the osprey's feet when diving into the water

C. Muscle cells require more energy than skin cells

5.2: Which BEST explains why muscle cells have more mitochondria than skin cells? A. Muscle cells divide more often than skin cells B. Muscle cells make more protein than skin cells C. Muscle cells require more energy than skin cells D. Muscle cells break down more waste than skin cells

C. highly developed kidneys to regulate water reabsorption

5.2: Which adaptive characteristic has MOST helped mammals survive in a desert habitat? A. flexible backbone to allow easy, quick movements B. specialized enzymes to break down plant materials C. highly developed kidneys to regulate water reabsorption D. powerful diaphragm muscles to aid in respiration

D. natural selection

5.3: A drastic environmental change, such as an earthquake forming a new mountain range, results in selective pressures on a population. Only members of a population with the phenotypes to adapt to the new environment will survive to pass on their genes. Over time, this population becomes genetically different from the original population. Which term describes this process? A. biodiversity B. inbreeding C. hybridization D. natural selection

A. natural selection

5.3: During the Industrial Revolution, dark gray gypsy moths were better camouflaged in their environment than light gray gypsy moths. Over time the number of gray moths increased, while the number of light gray gypsy moths decreased. This is an example of A. natural selection B. variation C. reproduction D. genetic mutation

D) natural selection

5.3: Individual organisms have traits that help them survive in their habitat and reproduce, resulting in increased numbers of individuals with similar traits. Which process is responsible for the increased presence of these traits over several generations? A. mutation B. variation C. cell division D. natural selection

B. Rabbits with white coat color are less visible to predators

5.3: Over a period of time, the average annual temperature of a particular region significantly decreases, resulting in longer winters with increased snowfall. As a result, the majority coat color of a rabbit population has changed from brown to white. Which BEST explains this change in coat color among the rabbit population? A. White coat color provides more warmth than brown coat color B. Rabbits with white coat color are less visible to predators C. Geographic isolation separated the two populations and resulted in a species with different coat colors D. Genetic mutation caused a change in the dominant allele, resulting in white as the dominant coat color

A. became geographically isolated

5.3: Over time, differences in the frequencies of particular traits in a frog population led to the development if a new frog species. This happened when the frog population A. became geographically isolated B. consumed a new food source C. inhabited a large territory D. migrated over winter months

D. The cardenolide concentration remained in the adult monarchs regardless of the concentration in the milkweed

5.3: The graph represents data collected that compare the various concentrations of cardenolides found in different milkweed plants and the concentrations found in adult monarchs that fed on milkweed as caterpillars. Scientists concluded that cardenolide concentrations are maintained throughout the life stages of the monarch butterfly. Based on the graph, which statement BEST defends the scientists' conclusion? A. The cardenolide concentration in the milkweed decreased as the caterpillars consumed the milkweed B. The cardenolide concentration decreased in the monarchs when they became adults C. The cardenolide concentration in the adult monarchs is dependent on the concentration found in the milkweed D. The cardenolide concentration remained in the adult monarchs regardless of the concentration in the milkweed

D. natural selection

5.3: The illustrations are of the monarch and viceroy butterflies. The viceroy appears very similar to the monarch; however, the viceroy as a curved black line on both of its hind wings, and the monarch does not. In the natural world, bright orange coloring is often a warning to predators that the creature displaying the color is toxic. Monarch caterpillars eat milkweed plants that contain a class of chemicals called cardenolides which are nontoxic to insects but toxic to vertebrates. The milkweed eaten at the caterpillar stage causes the adult butterfly to taste bitter. The monarch butterfly's bright coloring and unpleasant taste is an effective defense against most butterfly predators. The viceroy caterpillars eat cottonwood leaves which are nontoxic to vertebrates. However, the viceroy butterfly so closely resembles the monarch that most butterfly predators mistake it for the toxic monarch and leave it alone. Which process is MOST likely responsible for the appearance of the viceroy butterfly? A. divergent evolution B. genetic drift C. environmental change D. natural selection

A. become a separate species

5.3: The seeds of a temperate forest shrub were carried by a bird to an offshore island with a desert climate and a different type of soil. Some of these seeds sprouted, and the shrubs became established on the island. Over time, the population of shrubs on the island will MOST likely A. become a separate species B. become extinct C. interbreed with forest trees D. interbreed with island shrubs

D. natural selection

5.3: Which process is MOST likely responsible for the appearance of the viceroy butterfly? A. divergent evolution B. genetic drift C. environmental change D. natural selection

A. The data shows the numbers of frogs increased as rainfall amounts increased

5.4: An ecologist observed a population of frogs at a pond every spring during a five-year period. The data he collected are represented in the table. The ecologist concluded that the number of frogs he observed each year was dependent upon the amount of rainfall. Which statement defends the ecologist's conclusion? A. The data shows the numbers of frogs increased as rainfall amounts increased B. The data shows the numbers of frogs increased by 100% when rainfall amounts were greater than 10 cm C. The data shows the numbers of frogs decreased as rainfall amounts increased D. The data shows the numbers of frogs decreased by 50% when rainfall amounts were less than 22 cm

A. reduced ability to adapt to a changing environment

5.4: Geneticists have discovered that cheetahs share approximately 99% of the same genes, resulting in an extremely low genetic diversity in the cheetah populations of the world. Which is the MOST likely result of this lack of genetic diversity? A. reduced ability to adapt to a changing environment B. lengthened reproductive cycles C. decreased rates of allele mutations D. increased rate of expression of dominant traits

B. Producer

5.4: Marine biologists study the biodiversity of oceanic systems by observing a phenomenon known as upwelling. Upwelling occurs when deep ocean currents carry dissolved nutrients to the surface. These nutrient-rich waters cause an increase in phytoplankton populations. When phytoplankton die, they are decomposed by bacteria, causing a decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in the waters. This decrease affects other oceanic organisms. Which population is FIRST affected by upwelling? A. Decomposer B. Producer C. Secondary consumer D. Tertiary consumer

A. Native wildlife that consume grasses will find alternate energy sources

5.4: Pine trees are introduced to a meadow. Pine trees secrete a resin that is toxic to many grasses. How will the ecosystem MOST likely be affected as the pine trees develop, reproduce, and populate the area? A. Native wildlife that consume grasses will find alternate energy sources B. Grasses will grow faster and reproduce at higher rates than in previous seasons C. Pine trees will modify the amount of resin produced to accommodate herbivores D. Natural plant diseases will evolve to reduce the pine tree populations

C. populations have low genetic diversity

5.4: The Tasmanian devil is a marsupial that is vulnerable to environmental change. Its numbers have declined greatly due to cancerous facial tumors that can be fatal. The MOST likely reason many Tasmanian devils have the same type of cancerous tumors is because A. they are separate species B. they are in the same habitat C. populations have low genetic diversity D. populations occupy a large territory

D. Location 4

5.4: The graph shows the number of producer species in four different locations. Which location would be LEAST affected by the introduction of a nonnative herbivore? A. Location 1 B. Location 2 C. Location 3 D. Location 4

A. tied to the loss of habitats the birds need for resources

5.4: The number of migratory birds along the main migration corridors has been declining in recent years. Vulnerable to environmental changes, migratory birds, such as the Canada Warbler, are dependent on stopover sites to rest and refuel as the make their long journey from northern Canada to South America. The cause of the overall decline in migratory birds is complex and specific to certain species. However, it is a reflection of a large environmental problem A. tied to the loss of habitats the birds need for resources B. related to an increase in the number of bird predators C. tied to competition among nonmigratory bird species D. related to an increase in the number of bird watchers

A. a population with many phenotypes

5.4: Which population would be BEST suited for adapting to an environment that undergoes a sudden change in climate? A. a population with many phenotypes B. a population with a higher number of males than females C. a population with individuals that all express dominant traits D. a population with a high rate of emigration

B. Chimpanzees are more closely related to gorillas than to orangutans

5.5: A cladogram represents the relationship among four organisms from the primate family is shown. Which statement BEST describes the relationships shown in the cladogram? A. Bonobos are more closely related to gorillas than to chimpanzees B. Chimpanzees are more closely related to gorillas than to orangutans C. Chimpanzees are more closely related to orangutans than to gorillas D. Gorillas are more closely related to bonobos than to orangutans

A. salamander species 1: ACC GGT TCC AAG GAC

5.5: A researcher was studying the DNA of four different salamander species. A segment of a DNA strand taken from one of the salamander species is shown. ACC GGT CCA AGG ACC Based on the segment shown, which species of salamander is MOST closely related? A. species 1: ACC GGT TCC AAG GAC B. species 2: ACC CGC TTC CAA AGG C. species 3: ACC GGT TCC AAA GGA D. species 4: ACC CGG TTC CAA AGG

C. the genetic relatedness among species

5.5: Researchers use differences in amino acid sequences to determine A. the adaptive traits that species have acquired B. the environment in which an organism lives C. the genetic relatedness among species D. the rate of mutation during protein synthesis

D. fossil records

5.5: Skimming is a fishing technique in which birds fly low and push their lower beaks through the water in an effort to catch fish. The birds that feed in this manner are called skimmers. Some scientists suggested that pterosaurs might also be classified as skimmers. However, when scientists looked more closely at the skull and neck bones of pterosaurs, they discovered that pterosaurs did not possess the adaptations to be classified as skimmers. Which type of evidence did the scientists use to determine that pterosaurs could NOT be classified as skimmers? A. amino acid sequences B. DNA analysis C. computer models D. fossil records

D. Organism 4

5.5: The chart shows partial amino acid sequences of four organisms. According to these sequences, which organism is LEAST related to the other organisms? A. Organism 1 B. Organism 2 C. Organism 3 D. Organism 4

B. comparative anatomy of fossils

5.5: The diagram illustrates the history of species diversity among various fish groups. This diagram was constructed primarily on the basis of which evidence? A. evaluation of species extinction rate B. comparative anatomy of fossils C. analysis of fish feeding habits D. field observations of aquatic ecosystems

D. They share a common ancestor

5.5: The diagram shows the bone structure of two animals. What do these two animals MOST likely have in common? A. They shared the same habitat B. Their limbs served the same function C. They are of the same species D. They share a common ancestor

C. They display similar structure

5.5: The organisms shown belong to the phylum Cnidaria. Based on the diagrams, which statement BEST explains the classification of organisms within this phylum? A. All organisms evolved at the same time B. Each organism undergoes the same type of reproduction C. They display a similar structure D. They occupy the same ecological niche

A. Pan troglodytes and Pan paniscus

5.5: Which pair of organisms are MOST closely related? A. Pan troglodytes and Pan paniscus B. Pan paniscus and Hylobates hoolock C. Homo sapiens and Hapalemur simus D. Juniperus virginiana and Tradescantia virginiana

C. Alnus japonica and Alnus hirsuta

5.6: The scientific name of four trees are listed Cryptomeria japonica Alnus japonica Fraxinus americana Alnus hirsuta Which two trees are MOST closely related? A. Cryptomeria japonica and Alnus japonica B. Fraxinus americana and Alnus hirsuta C. Alnus japonica and Alnus hirsuta D. Alnus hirsuta and Cryptomeria japonica

D. Ursus americanus and Ursus maritimus

5.6: The scientific names of four organisms are listed. Selenarctos thibetanus Ursus americanus Lepus americanus Ursus maritimus Which two organisms are MOST closely related? A. Lepus americanus and Ursus americanus B. Ursus maritimus and Selenarctos thibetanus C. Selenarctos thibetanus and Lepus americanus D. Ursus americanus and Ursus maritimus

A. Acer floridanum and Acer rubrum

5.6: Which pair of trees is MOST closely related? A. Acer floridanum and Acer rubrum B. Fraxinus Americana and Cornus florida C. Juglans nigra and Salix nigra D. Sabal mexicana and Prunus mexicana

B. cell theory

Inq 1: The chart lists some scientists and the contributions they made. These contributions helped in the discovery of the A. germ theory B. cell theory C. endosymbiont theory D. theory of evolution

A. expose the plants to light for the same amount of time each day

Inq 2: A student conducts an investigation exposing pea plants to different colors of light to determine their percent change in height over a one-month period. What should the student do to collect more accurate data? A. expose the plants to light for the same amount of time each day B. change the amount of water the plants receive each day C. use more than one type of plant D. test only two colors of light

D. compound microscope

Inq 3: A biology class collected samples of water from a pond ecosystem. The data they collected are shown in the table. Which tool was MOST helpful in identifying the unicellular organisms collected? A. pH meter B. oxygen probe C. magnifying glass D. compound microscope

C. vaccines

Inq.1: In 1796, Edward Jenner investigated the relationship between cowpox and smallpox. People who became ill with cowpox, a nonfatal disease, did not catch smallpox, a deadly disease. Jenner injected a patient with the cowpox virus and several months later injected the same patient with smallpox virus. The patient did not contract smallpox. Jenner's research influenced the development of A. painkillers B. anesthetics C. vaccines D. antibiotics

B. design an experiment

Inq.2: A biology class was investigating how paramecia respond to different light intensities. The class formulated the following question: How does light affect the movement of paramecium? What is the next step the class should take to answer the question? A. analyze data B. design an experiment C. draw a conclusion D. record observations

D. a field guide to aquatic organisms and a hand lens

Inq.3: During a field trip to a local stream, a group of students collected several water samples containing aquatic insects and plants. Which tools should to students use to identify the collected organisms? A. a textbook chapter on aquatic organisms and a thermometer B. a research paper on aquatic organisms and a pH meter C. a published scientific journal on aquatic organisms and an oxygen probe D. a field guide to aquatic organisms and a hand lens

D. Substance 4

Inq.4: A biology student investigated the pH of various substances found in his classroom. The student recorded the results in the data table. The student's measurements were MOST precise for which substance? A. Substance 1 B. Substance 2 C. Substance 3 D. Substance 4

C. 3

Inq.4: Students in a science class measured the length of three different leaves and recorded the data in the table. Which student recorded the length of the leaves MOST accurately? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. Student 2

Inq.4: The table shows the results of students measuring the length of an acorn. The acorn is exactly 2.00 centimeters long. Which student made the MOST accurate and precise measurements of the acorn? A. Student 1 B. Student 2 C. Student 3 D. Student 4

D. sent the results to an independent research company

Inq.6: A research company evaluated a two-year study on the use of asthma inhalers conducted by Agency X. Agency x had concluded that the data they collected were valid and the inhalers were effective in the treatment of certain asthmatic conditions. The research company followed the same procedure set up by Agency X. They used a double blind study with the same number of different patients, for the same time period. The research company determined that the conclusion of Agency X is valid and that the inhalers are effective. To ensure their results are free of bias, Agency X A. performed a two-year study B. researched a previously published paper C. had the research company use the same patients D. sent the results to an independent research company

C. Researchers and patients did not know who received the medicine

Inq.6: A research unit for a pharmaceutical company is testing a new heart disease medicine with a large potential market. A test group of patients is given the medicine, while a control group is given an inactive pill that resembles the medicine. During the trial, neither patients nor testers know which patients are receiving the medicine. The research unit concludes that the medicine is effective. Which is the strongest support that the conclusion is unbiased? A. The potential market for the drug was large B. A control group was included in the experiment C. Researchers and patients did not know who received the medicine D. The purpose of medical research is to produce effective new treatments

C. Both light and pressure affect what organisms will be found at different depths

Inq.7: The marine ecosystem is the largest aquatic system on Earth. Scientists have divided the ocean into layers called zones. The two major zones of the ocean are the photic and aphotic zones. These zones extend from the surface to the depths where light no longer penetrates. These two zones are further divided into layers based on availability of food, currents, and water temperature. Organisms have adapted to the conditions in these different layers. Currents affect the productivity of the oceans by bringing up valuable nutrients from the ocean floor. These nutrients are used by phytoplankton. Dissolved oxygen is carried back to deep areas of the ocean when colder water sinks. This movement of nutrients and dissolved oxygen allows marine life to exist at all depths. The water pressure at 6000m is more than 5850 pounds per square inch. Some researchers concluded that there was less biodiversity at this depth than at 50m due to this extreme pressure. Other researchers concluded that the lesser biodiversity at 6000m was due to a lack of food. Which statement explain why each group's conclusion is acceptable? A. Both light and pressure are dependent upon the movement of ocean currents B. Both research groups followed the scientific method in their investigations C. Both light and pressure affect what organisms will be found at different depths D. Both research groups compared the pressure and available light at different depths

B. The number of people using the medication

Inq: A biotechnology company is trying to develop a medication delivery system. In addition to the monetary cost of mass production, which of these must be known in order to determine the benefit-to-cost ratio (BCR) for this new technology? A. The effectiveness of current delivery systems B. The number of people using the medication C. The size of the packaging required by this system D. The number of suppliers of the medication

C. The independent company verified the data by doing their own testing

Inq: A scientist published the results obtained from an investigation on a fertilizer that he developed. He tested the fertilizer over a 3-year period, recording the number of tomatoes produced per plant, using 10 plants. He sent the results to an independent company to confirm his results. Which statement BEST explains why the results are most likely free of bias? A. The scientist used a control in his investigation B. The scientist investigated the fertilizer for a long time period C. The independent company verified the data by doing their own testing D. The independent company compared the data given to other data on tomato plants

D. Make a list of the materials and processes needed to create the new filter

Inq: An air filter company wants to design a new air filter that will eliminate allergens from the air in a home. What is the first step in developing this air filter? A. Analyze different possible designs to select one to develop B. Conduct tests of the filter in different types of homes in different regions C. Research the effectiveness of existing air filters D. Make a list of the materials and processes needed to create the new filter

B. Laptops can perform many more functions than textbooks but have a higher overall cost

Inq: Many school districts are investigating the possibility of issuing laptop computers to students instead of having textbooks and computer labs. The table contains some of the potential benefits and costs of such a program. Which statement evaluates the benefits and costs of using laptop computers instead of textbooks in schools, based on the information in the table? A. Laptops are better to use than books because they are easy to carry B. Laptops can perform many more functions than textbooks but have a higher overall cost C. Textbooks are more efficient than laptops because they cost less to buy D. Books can be used in more places than laptops

D. The diet of rural Chinese populations is different than that of urban populations

Inq: Researchers studying iron deficiency in various populations across China discovered a higher rate of deficiency in urban populations than in rural populations. The researchers concluded that the lower rate in rural populations was due to the use of iron pots for cooking food. When some rural people moved to urban areas, they developed iron deficiencies as well. Which statement BEST gives an alternative explanation to the finding on iron deficiency? A. Iron deficiency is an inherited trait B. Iron pots are the best for cooking Chinese food C. The food produced in rural areas contains more iron D. The diet of rural Chinese populations is different than that of urban populations

B. 50%

Math.2: A dog that is homozygous for a short tail (gg) is crossed with a carrier that has a recessive gene for short tail (Gg). What is the probability of one of their offspring having a short tail? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

A. 1:4

Math2: If both parents are carriers for phenylketonuria (PKU), an autosomal recessive disorder, what is the probability that their child will inherit PKU? A. 1:4 B. 1:2 C. 3:4 D. 4:4