FINAL ISQS

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Project proposals are employed when ________ and are used to make ________ decisions. a. a project idea is considered worthwhile | project selection b. a high-level organization official wishes to submit a proposal | project cost and scheduling c. a high-level organization official wishes to submit a proposal | project scheduling d. a project concept fails to get acceptance | project cost estimation e. a project concept fails to gain acceptance | project cost and scheduling

A

What are the five stages of Tuckman's model for team development, in chronological order? a. Forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning b. Storming, forming, norming, performing and adjourning c. Norming, storming, forming, performing and adjourning d. Forming, storming, performing, norming, and adjourning e. Norming, forming, storming, performing and adjourning

A

A project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating is often termed a(n) ________. a. oyster b. sacred cow c. bread-and-butter project d. white elephant e. pearl

B

According to Thomas Friedman, how often does project management get offshored? a. Frequently b. Never c. Always d. Rarely e. Sometimes

B

In the urgency/importance matrix, which quadrant should we be living in? a. Quadrant I b. Quadrant II c. Quadrant III d. Quadrant IV e. Quadrant V

B

Only of the following is commonly associated with great-performing teams. Which one is it? a. Risk taking is controlled and not allowed to jeopardize the overall project. b. Mistakes are viewed as opportunities for learning. c. A degree of competition among team members is encouraged. d. Team members are selected with similar talents to enhance cohesion. e. Roles and specific responsibilities are well-defined.

B

The shortest possible time an activity can be completed realistically is called ________ time. a. optimistic b. crash c. optimal d. expedited e. accelerated

B

To enable meetings to run more effectively and expeditiously, use all but which of the following? a. Build relationships b. Invite extra people who support your project to make the meeting run more smoothly c. Define the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting d. Make certain the meeting starts on time and stays on task e. Determine if a meeting can be avoided

B

Which of the following is not a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings? a. Build relationships b. Invite extra people who support your project to make the meeting run more smoothly c. Define the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting d. Determine if a meeting can be avoided

B

Projects are ________ endeavors. a. substantial b. repetitive c. temporary d. enduring e. perpetual

C

There are ten knowledge areas within PMBOK; which one is not one of the ten? a. Time (schedule) b. Scope c. Budget d. Quality e. Cost

C

In today's business climate and culture, it is important for project managers to have an understanding of ________. a. strategic management b. technical issues c. project selection process d. Both a. and c. are correct. e. All of these alternatives are correct.

D

During which stage of team development is high performance not a top priority and team member emotions run from upbeat to depressed? a. Forming b. Norming c. Storming d. Performing e. Adjourning

E

Which of the following is not a stakeholder group? a. Project sponsor b. Project team c. Customers d. Fellow employees who oppose the project e. Competitors

E

Draw the network above to determine the following. What is the duration of the critical path? What is the late start time for activity E (how late can activity E start?)? a. 29 | 15 b. 29 | 12 c. 29 | 14 d. 28 | 14 e. 28 | 12

a. 29 | 15

In ProjectLibre, by default any link between tasks (activities) is assumed to be ________. a. Finish-to-Start b. Start-to-Start c. Start-to-Finish d. Finish-to-Finish e. There is no default setting in ProjectLibre.

a. Finish-to-Start

Which is more expensive and costly to the firm? a. Under-estimation b. Over-estimation

a. Under-estimation

The ________ calculates the critical path and determines how long an activity can be delayed without delaying the project. a. backward pass b. parallel pass c. forward pass d. concurrent pass

a. backward pass

A project leader's boss has told Jonathan that his project is very important. If the critical path is delayed, he will be given whatever he needs to get the project back on schedule. His project is classified as ________ constrained. a. resource b. time c. cost d. quality e. performance

b. time

Which of the following estimates is typically done two years before start of execution? a. Strategic estimation b. Accommodation of the customer c. Budgetary estimation d. Estimation e. Definitive estimation

c. Budgetary estimation

When should inexperienced persons be used to estimate? a. When no one else is available b. When the project is new c. When there is no history database d. Both a. and c. are correct when taken together. e. Inexperienced persons should never be used to estimate

d. Both a. and c. are correct when taken together.

The purpose of crashing is to ________. a. Reduce task cost b. Reduce project cost c. Improve product quality d. Reduce project duration, given a crashing budget e. None of the alternatives is correct.

d. Reduce project duration, given a crashing budget

________ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a. Maintainability b. Performance c. None of these alternatives is correct. d. Reliability e. Functionality

d. Reliability

In order to see total project duration and total project cost as well as meta-task durations and costs, it is recommended that you ________. a. include a project summary task as your first task under which all other tasks are subordinate b. replace the Entry table with the Resources view c. insert a cost column in the Entry table d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

e. Only a. and c. are correct.

A WBS is created from scratch by ________. a. users exclusively b. identifying milestones c. defining phase exits d. decomposition of the work e. choosing siblings of legitimate parents

D

A weighted scoring model typically uses several weighted selection criteria to evaluate project proposals. An example of this would be a(n) ________. a. project proposal b. weighted score c. selection criterion d. project screening matrix e. score multiplication

D

According to Burns, Figure 5.1, which of the following is not part of feasibility assessment? a. All of these alternatives are part of feasibility assessment. b. Test alignment with and impact on corporate strategy c. Test resource availability d. Assemble team e. Identify dependencies with other projects

D

After we have created a list of things to get done in the next week, we should ________. a. prioritize the list from most to least important b. scrub the unimportant stuff from the list c. put the important stuff on our calendar last d. check the list for completeness, making sure that any item on last week's TODO list not completed makes its way on this week's TODO list e. put the important stuff on our calendar first

D

Alignment is necessary because ________. a. while we are working on our firms' goals we must also be working on our goals b. our goals must align with our personal vision statement c. without alignment, empowerment leads to chaos, anarchy d. All of these alternatives are true. e. Only a. and b. are true.

D

An item with a WBS code of 2.1.3.4 ________. a. has an immediate parent with a code of 2.1.3 b. is on the third level c. is one of at least four siblings d. Only a. and c. are correct. e. All of these alternatives are correct.

D

At the bottom of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs is ________ needs. a. safety b. money c. esteem d. physiological e. self-actualization

D

Better quality implies ________. a. higher price b. lower cost c. lower price d. Both a. and b. are correct. e. None of these alternatives is correct.

D

Closing out ________ is often messy and filled with untied ends. a. reports b. invoices c. project review meetings d. contracts e. teams

D

During which stage of team development do team members try to find out what behaviors are acceptable and what performance expectations are? a. Norming b. Performing c. Storming d. Forming e. Adjourning

D

During which stage of team development is the team fully functional and accepted? a. Adjourning b. Storming c. Forming d. Performing e. Norming

D

Empowerment is ________. a. encouragement b. governed by negotiations c. possible without alignment d. delegation with detachment e. giving authority to do something

D

For most organizations, the existing organizational structure is a ________. a. projectized organizational structure b. matrix organizational structure c. dedicated project teams d. functional organizational structure e. None of these alternatives is correct.

D

Goal setting is important because ________. a. it sets a direction for our lives b. it causes us to focus on the future c. it programs our success mechanism d. All of these alternatives are true. e. Only a. and c. are true.

D

Goldratt suggests that project managers should manage in a ________ world. Such mentalities are a ________. a. holistic | valuable asset to the firm b. critical path | mirage c. micro-management | waste d. throughput | useful understanding e. cost | mirage

D

Good goal statements should ________. a. have a target date b. be measurable c. begin with the infinitive to d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and b. are correct.

D

How long does it take to go from one level to the next within the Capability Maturity Model or its sequel the CMMI? a. One quarter (year) b. Two years c. One decade d. One year e. Six months

D

IT projects differ from construction projects in all of the following ways, except ________. a. with IT projects, the technology is changing more rapidly b. with IT projects, there is more risk c. with IT projects, there is more newness d. with IT projects, there is more visibility e. with IT projects, requirements are less definitive

D

If your project starts with existing code, rather than from scratch, then your project is considered to be a ________. a. predictive project b. agile or adaptive project c. development project d. maintenance project e. integration project

D

In which level are quality and productivity measured? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 e. Level 5

D

Information on the project type, size, number of staff, and technology level would be included in which section of the audit report? a. Analysis b. Recommendations c. Strategic objectives d. Classification of project e. Lessons learned

D

Key questions organizations must ask in conjunction with which organizational structure include all but ________. a. How important is the project? b. Will projects be outsourced? c. What percentage of core work involves projects? d. How much will the project cost and how will it take? e. What resources are available?

D

Of the four types of quality costs, which has to do with scrap and reworked product? a. Appraisal costs b. Prevention costs c. External failure costs d. Internal failure costs

D

Projects with vague visions, objectives are ________. a. likely to fail b. examples of reactive project management c. more common than many project managers like to admit d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and b. are correct.

D

Strategy, when considered to be under purview of senior management, is ________. a. necessary in a company structure b. depended on company goals c. beneficial to the Project Manager d. old school thinking e. a new school of management thought

D

The Goldratt methodology addresses three questions. Which of the following is not one of those questions? a. What to change? b. How to cause the change? c. What to change to? d. Who will effect the change?

D

The financial model that measures the current value of all cash inflows and outflows using management's minimum desired rate of return is known as the ________ model. a. Return on assets (ROA) b. Return on investment (ROI) c. Inflow/outflow d. Net present value (NPV) e. Internal rate of return (IRR)

D

The only sustainable competitive advantage is the rate at which teams, organizations and individuals ________. a. take risks b. become more mature c. innovate d. learn e. use information technology

D

There are three purposes to which estimates can be put. Which of the following is not one of those purposes? a. Strategic purposes b. Definitive purposes c. Budgetary purposes d. Comparison purposes

D

What is the name of the software tool that delineates a timeline chart showing all of the activities and their start and stop dates? a. Network chart b. Control chart c. Flowchart d. Gantt chart e. Work breakdown structure chart

D

What term best describes information that is sent to recipients at their request via websites, bulletin boards, e-learning, knowledge repositories like blogs, and other means? a. Push communications b. Interactive communications c. Customer communications d. Pull communications

D

Which 'phase' of the project lifecycle is performed throughout all of the other phases? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling e. Closing

D

Which of the following estimates is based on similar past projects? a. Parametric estimate b. Bottom-up estimate c. An estimate based on a computer model d. Analogous estimate e. Top-down estimate

D

Which of the following estimates is the most expensive to obtain? a. An estimate based on a computer model b. Parametric estimate c. Top-down estimate d. Bottom-up estimate e. Analogous estimate

D

Which of the following is a main reason why project managers need to understand their organization's mission and strategy? a. They can better focus on the immediate customer. b. They can make appropriate decisions and adjustments. c. They can be effective project advocates. d. Both b. and c. are correct. e. All of these alternatives are correct.

D

Which of the following is commonly associated with high-performing project teams? a. Risk taking is controlled and not allowed to jeopardize the overall project b. Roles and specific responsibilities are well-defined c. A degree of competition among team members is encouraged d. Mistakes are viewed as opportunities for learning e. All of these are associated with high-performing teams

D

Which of the following is not a Goldratt recommendation in regard to critical chain concepts? a. Remove safety from task estimates and place it in a project buffer at the end of the project. b. At the point where each feeding path intersects with the critical path, place another time buffer, called a feeding buffer. c. Place incentives in contracts for early or on-time completion. d. Assign your weakest people to the non-critical tasks. e. Expect the persons performing the tasks to do nothing but their tasks (150% focus) until they get it done.

D

Which of the following is not a process within the communications knowledge management area? a. Plan communications management b. Control communications c. Manage communications d. Manage stakeholders

D

Which of the following is not a project? a. Creating a PowerPoint presentation b. Writing a term paper c. Setting up a sales kiosk for a meeting d. Manufacturing an iPhone e. Developing a spreadsheet template

D

Which of the following is not a stakeholder in most projects? a. Customers b. Users c. Line managers d. Competitors e. Upper-level management

D

Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process (either Larson & Gray or PMBOK)? a. Risk identification b. Risk response control c. Risk assessment d. Risk tracking e. Risk response development

D

________ contracts involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs and often include fees. a. Lump sum b. Firm-fixed-price c. Fixed-price incentive fee d. Cost-reimbursable e. All of these alternatives are correct.

D

________ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a. David McClelland b. Philip Crosby c. Abraham Maslow d. Frederick Herzberg e. Douglas McGregor

D

________, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology and proposed the hierarchy of needs theory. a. Eliyahu Goldratt b. Philip Zimbardo c. Carl Jung d. Abraham Maslow e. Sigmund Freud

D

A professional organization for project management specialists is the ________. a. PMI b. PMBOK c. MIS d. IPM e. MBA

A

At the time that the UDE symptoms of mainframe computers were encountered, two other technological developments were happening that made fixing these UDE symptoms possible. They were: a. Data communications and data storage was becoming very cheap. b. Desktop and notebook computers were becoming less expensive. c. Printers and peripherals were becoming less expensive. d. Windows operating system and software applications were becoming more prevalent.

A

Construction firms and consulting firms, where most of the work is project work, the most appropriate organizational structure is ________. a. projectized organizational structure b. matrix organizational structure c. dedicated project teams d. functional organizational structure e. None of these alternatives is correct.

A

Crashing activities ________ direct costs for those same activities. a. Increase b. Have no effect on c. Decrease d. Diminish e. Both decrease and diminish

A

David is managing a project team responsible for erecting a new office building. He notices that team members are trying out different behaviors to see what is acceptable to the project and personal relations. Which stage of development is the team in? a. Forming b. Norming c. Storming d. Performing e. Adjourning

A

Delineation of a WBS should take place ________. a. before a Gantt chart is composed b. after a network chart is created c. concurrently with the Gantt chart d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

A

Experience and research indicate that high-performance project teams are much more likely to develop under all the following conditions except ________. a. Team members are selected by their managers. b. Members are assigned to the project full time. c. The project involves a compelling objective. d. Members report solely to the project manager. e. There are 10 or fewer members per team.

A

From 1994 to 2009 the phenomena of project lateness or of projects being over budget were ________. a. decreased somewhat (fewer projects were late or over budget) b. about the same c. significantly increased d. significantly, substantially decreased e. slightly increased (more projects were late or over budget)

A

If you add four more people to a project team of five, how many more communications channels do you add? a. 26 b. 15 c. 10 d. 18

A

If you are getting into project management for the first time, you should pick a project that ___________. a. All of these alternatives are correct. b. involves a half-dozen or fewer people c. is small d. is short in duration e. is limited in scope

A

In a SWOT analysis, good product quality, low debt, and an established supplier network are examples of internal ________. a. strengths b. threats c. targets d. weaknesses e. opportunities

A

In face-to-face interactions, how is most information conveyed? a. By the body language b. By the words spoken c. By the tone of voice d. By the background noise e. By word-of-mouth

A

In order for projects to finish on-time and within budget, the project manager must stay ________. a. focused b. use salary as a motivator c. must exercise authority and penalty d. in control e. on site

A

In terms of managing one's calendar, it is important to ________. a. do planning and scheduling once a week b. put the unimportant activities on your calendar first c. do planning and scheduling once a month d. All of these alternatives are true. e. Only a. and b. are true.

A

In terms of the urgency/importance matrix, which quadrant does Covey suggest we live in? a. Quadrant II b. Quadrant IV c. None of these alternatives d. Quadrant I e. Quadrant III

A

In the Snapshot from Practice, New Balls Goes Flat in NBA, is an example of a project gone wrong when the ________ is/are not consulted. a. end-users b. the Fans c. manufacture d. project manager e. equipment and facilities managers

A

In which lifecycle phase are schedules, budgets, risks, resources and staffing defined? a. Planning b. Executing c. Monitoring d. Initiating e. Closing

A

In which of the following phases is a major portion of the physical and mental project work performed? a. Executing b. Initiating c. Delivering d. Planning e. Monitoring and Controlling

A

In which step is a RBS (Risk Breakdown Structure) created? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 e. Step 5

A

Integration of all project processes and practices to improve Project Management is due to ________. a. centralization b. project management system c. the organization's environment and culture d. environmental analysis e. customer expectations

A

John is the coach of a high school soccer team and has noticed that some close relationships have formed as well as feelings of camaraderie and shared responsibilities for the team's success. Which stage of development is the team in? a. Norming b. Adjourning c. Performing d. Forming e. Storming

A

Josh is new-product project manager for a retail company. Recently the team has exhibited a high degree of conflict over who will control the group and how decisions will be made. Which stage of development is the team in? a. Storming b. Performing c. Forming d. Adjourning e. Norming

A

Most change requests fall within all but one of the following categories? a. Operations changes to widen the types of equipment the software will run on b. Scope changes coming from stakeholders, customers c. Implementation or contingency plans d. Improvement changes suggested by project team members e. None of these alternatives is correct.

A

Of the four types of quality costs, which is the most expensive by far? a. External failure costs b. Internal failure costs c. Prevention costs d. Appraisal costs

A

The first step in the risk management process is ________. a. Identify the risks b. Assess the risks c. Develop responses to the identified risks d. Control the responses to the risks e. All of the alternatives are true.

A

The greatest enemy of the best things we could do with our time is ________. a. the good things we can do with our time b. those periods of time in which we relax, play video games and read our Facebook entries c. the urgent things we do with our time d. None of these alternatives is correct. e. the not urgent, unimportant things we can do with our time

A

The most common circumstance for project closure is ________. a. project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality b. project completion meeting costs, schedule, and quality c. premature completion with some features eliminated d. project termination due to technical difficulties e. perpetual projects that seem to go on and on before completion

A

The weaknesses of a projectized organization include all but ________. a. completion of projects is slow b. project costs tend to be expensive c. there is possible internal strife d. there is limited technological expertise e. None of these alternatives are weaknesses.

A

To determine what's best for us we need to ________. a. clarify our values b. ask a mentor c. write a vision statement d. establish goals e. None of these alternatives is true.

A

Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Has an in-depth project review and evaluation interview with the customer been conducted?" be answered. a. Customer/Users b. Vendors/contractors c. Team d. Equipment and facilities e. Profit and loss statement

A

Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question "Have project accounts been finalized and all billing closed?" be answered. a. Vendors/contractors b. Customer/Users c. Equipment and facilities d. Profit and loss statement e. Team

A

What is the greatest enemy of the 'best' thing we could do with our lives? a. The many good things we can do b. Distractions c. Not having enough resources d. The many bad things we can do e. None of these alternatives is correct.

A

What is the top reason for global outsourcing of IT services? a. A shortage of qualified personnel b. Cost reduction c. Decreasing time to market d. Increasing revenues

A

What's more important? a. Doing the right thing b. Doing nothing c. Doing the least harm d. Doing the thing right e. Doing everything

A

When identifying risks, one common mistake made early in the process is ________. a. to focus on objectives and not on the events that could produce consequences b. to give too much attention to past events c. for participants to be overly-optimistic d. for participants to be overly-pessimistic e. to not consider all possibilities

A

Which of the following communication methods would be most appropriate for assessing the commitment of project stakeholders and building consensus? a. Meetings b. Web sites c. Messages d. E-mail e. Wikis

A

Which of the following estimates is based on the WBS? a. Bottom-up estimate b. An estimate based on a computer model c. Parametric estimate d. Analogous estimate e. Top-down estimate

A

Which of the following is not a direct cost? a. General and administrative overhead costs b. Equipment costs c. Material Costs d. Labor costs e. Direct project overhead costs

A

Which of the following is not one of the five steps utilized by Goldratt in his Theory of Constraints? a. INSERT the project constraint b. Decide how to EXPLOIT that constraint c. SUBORDINATE everything to that decision d. ELEVATE the systems' constraint e. Go back to step A, and find another constraint

A

Which of the following is not part of project human resources management? a. Resource estimating b. Acquiring the project team c. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

A

Which of the following is the best organizational structure for getting projects done fast? a. Dedicated project team b. Projectized c. Weak matrix d. Strong matrix e. Functional

A

Which of the following statements is not true about risk management? a. Risk management is a reactive rather than a proactive approach. b. Risk management prepares a project manager to take advantage of risks. c. Risk management reduces surprises and negative consequences. d. Risk management improves chances of reaching project performance objectives. e. Risk management provides better control over the future.

A

Which of the following was a root cause of the current reality tree? (Root causes appear at the bottom of the tree and do not have arrows directed toward them.) a. Applications had to reside entirely within the mainframe. b. Mainframes were computational bottlenecks. c. Customer and competitive environments were changing rapidly. d. Sales cannot see who among its clients are current on their payments.

A

Which of these is not part of the "sociocultural dimension" of project management according to Larson and Gray? a. Resource allocation b. Negotiation c. Customer expectations d. Leadership e. Politics

A

Which of these is not part of the "technical dimension" of project management? a. Problem solving b. Status reports c. Budgets d. Schedules e. WBS

A

Which type of contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer? a. Fixed price b. Cost plus incentive fee c. Cost plus fixed fee d. Time and material

A

Within PMBOK, almost every knowledge area begins with a ________ process and ends with a ________ process. a. planning | controlling b. identifying | closing c. identifying | controlling d. planning | closing e. mediating | delivering

A

According to psychological gurus Hertzberg, Maslow, McGregor and others, salary is ________. a. always a motivational factor b. sometimes a motivational factor c. never a motivational factor d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. None of these alternatives is correct.

B

During which stage of team development do close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness? a. Storming b. Norming c. Adjourning d. Performing e. Forming

B

From the list below which chart shows the sequence in which activities must be performed? a. Work breakdown structure chart b. Network chart c. Burndown chart d. Gantt chart e. Timeline chart

B

From the standpoint of delivering value to the customer, which is faster? a. Traditional waterfall b. Agile methods c. Predictive methods d. Both predictive and agile methods e. Both predictive and waterfall methods

B

Good project management structures balance the needs of both the ________ and ________. a. organizational structure | culture b. parent organization | the project c. corporate governance | culture d. corporate primary processes | best practices e. corporate strategy | core competencies

B

In a matrix organizational structure, every team member has ________. a. confusion as to which project to work on b. two reporting authorities—two chains of command c. two desks d. someone who can substitute for him or her e. two or more projects to work on

B

In which of the following phases is it determined what the project effort will be, when the project will be scheduled, whom it will benefit, and what the budget will be? a. Closing b. Planning c. Initiating d. Monitoring and controlling e. Executing

B

In which step is the likelihood (probability) and impact (severity) of the risk determined? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 e. Step 5

B

Of the following journaling apps which does your instructor like the best? a. Dayone b. Penzo c. Journey d. Diaro e. Momento

B

Releasing the project team typically occurs ________ during the closure phase. a. rarely b. gradually c. rapidly d. all at once e. without bombast

B

Technical improvements and corrective actions typically appear in the ________ section of the final project report. a. Classification of project b. Recommendations c. Strategic objectives d. Lessons learned e. Analysis

B

The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is the ________. a. Classification of project b. Lessons learned c. Strategic objectives d. Recommendations e. Analysis

B

Typically, a project sponsor is ________. a. instrumental in approving a project b. instrumental in approving a project and key to support a project to its' completion c. key to support a project to its' completion d. key to support a project to its' completion and a lower-level staff member e. a lower-level staff member

B

We suggested three factors as important to motivating individuals. Which of the following is not one of the three factors? a. Compelling vision b. Synergy c. 'Hot button' d. Work challenge e. All of the above are motivational factors for individuals.

B

When utilized, dedicated project teams operate in conjunction with which organizational structure? a. Projectized organizational structure b. Functional organizational structure c. Balanced matrix organizational structure d. Strong matrix organizational structure e. Weak matrix organizational structure

B

Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for project management? a. Compression of the product life cycle b. Development of third world and closed economies c. The triple bottom line (planet, people, profit) d. Increased customer focus e. Knowledge explosion

B

Which of the following contracts constitutes the greatest risk to the seller? a. Time and materials contracts b. Firm fixed price c. Cost-reimbursable contracts d. Cost plus incentive fees e. All of these alternatives are correct.

B

Which of the following contracts is a hybrid mixture of fixed price and cost reimbursable contracts? a. Firm fixed price b. Time and materials contracts c. Cost-reimbursable contracts d. Cost plus incentive fees e. All of these alternatives are correct.

B

Which of the following estimates is used for a definitive purpose? a. An estimate based on a computer model b. Bottom-up estimate c. Top-down estimate d. Analogous estimate e. Parametric estimate

B

Which of the following is an undesirable effect emanating from the structure of the current reality tree? (Undesirable effects usually appear at or near the top of the current reality tree.) a. Mainframes were computational bottlenecks. b. Sales cannot see who among its clients are current on their payments. c. Applications had to reside entirely within the mainframe. d. Customer and competitive environments were changing rapidly.

B

Which of the following is not a competence for the project manager? a. Be a good mentor b. Be a good developer/coder c. Be a good communicator d. Be a good motivator e. Be a good delegator

B

Which of the following is not a negotiated issue when it comes to matrix organizational structures? a. Why will the task be done? b. What has to be done? c. Is the task satisfactorily completed? d. Where will the task be done? e. Who will do the task?

B

Which of the following is not a project characteristic? a. Has a definite starting time b. Creates resources c. Has an objective or goal d. Accomplished in teams e. Has a definite stopping time

B

Which of the following is not an advantage of a functional organizational structure? a. There is in-depth expertise. b. The level of focus is low. c. The level of flexibility is high. d. There is an easy post-project transition. e. There is no change to the organizational structure.

B

Which of the following is not necessary to have trustworthiness? a. Character b. Confidence c. Competence d. Integrity e. All of these alternatives are not necessary to have trustworthiness.

B

Which of the following is not one of the sections of the project charter? a. Success criteria b. Detailed list of tasks that make up the project c. Assumptions/risks/obstacles d. Discussion of problem or opportunity e. Purpose or goal of a project

B

Which of the following is not true of risk? a. Risks create causes and consequences. b. Significant amounts of planning will overcome risks. c. Risk management attempts to recognize and manage potential and unforeseen trouble spots. d. Some potential risk events can be identified before the project starts. e. Risks are uncertain events or conditions, which if they happen, has a positive or negative effect on the project.

B

Which of the following is the number one characteristic that is looked for in management candidates? a. Experience b. Works well with others c. Past successes d. Good references e. Overall intelligence

B

Which of the following is true about late and early finishes? a. Early finishes lead to a project that is finished late while late finishes do not. b. Late finishes tend to accumulate leading to a project that is finished late while early finishes do not. c. Late finishes lead to a project that is finished early while early finishes do not. d. Early finishes lead to a project that is finished early while late finishes do not. e. Early finishes tend to accumulate leading to a project that is finished early while late finishes do not.

B

Which of the following organizational structures superimposes a project structure upon an existing organizational structure? a. Projectized organizational structure b. Matrix organizational structure c. Dedicated project teams d. Functional organizational structure e. None of these alternatives is correct.

B

Which of the following phrases captures the concept of positive synergy? a. Front of ship sink—back of ship sink. b. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts. c. There is no "I" in team. d. If it doesn't kill you, it makes you stronger. e. Two heads are better than one.

B

Which of the following tasks/activities is not considered a project? a. Developing a new software program b. Production of automobile tires c. Preparing the site for the Olympic Games d. Designing a space station e. Developing a new advertising program

B

Which of the following time reduction techniques involves the concept of lean? a. Reduce scope b. Eliminate non-value adding activities c. Crash activities d. Reuse, reuse, reuse e. Critical chain concepts

B

Which of the following tips for shortening the duration of projects involves prioritizing the functions of the product? a. Look for parallelism opportunities b. Reduce scope c. Use critical chain concepts (Goldratt) d. Reuse, reuse, reuse e. Do it right the first time

B

Which of the following would not be considered a threat? a. International disruptions b. Meeting the project schedule c. Inflation d. Economic conditions e. Competition

B

Your organization hired a specialist in a certain field to provide training for a short period of time. Which reason for outsourcing would this example fall under? a. Allowing the client organization to focus on its core business b. Accessing skills and technologies c. Providing flexibility d. Reducing costs

B

________ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment. a. Social motivation b. Intrinsic motivation c. Self motivation d. Extrinsic motivation

B

________ involves using incentives to induce people to do things. a. Legitimate power b. Reward power c. Coercive power d. Referent power e. None of these alternatives is correct.

B

A WBS delineates ________. a. cost b. schedule c. scope d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Both a. and c. are correct.

C

A ________ report is a reflective statement that documents important knowledge gained from working on the project. a. progress b. project archive c. lessons-learned d. kanban

C

A critical factor to ensure the success of integrating the strategic plan with projects lies in a process that ________. a. starts with top management's directives b. with projects first and integrates them with the strategic plan c. is open and published for all participants to review d. Both b. and c. are correct. e. All of these alternatives are correct.

C

A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal is known as a ________. a. strategy b. venture c. program d. crusade e. campaign

C

A(n) _______ report describes where a project stands at a specific point in time. a. performance b. earned value c. status d. forecast

C

A(n) ________ is a risk event that can have a positive impact on project objectives. a. weakness b. milestone c. opportunity d. threat e. strength

C

As a project is crashed and project duration is reduced, cumulative indirect costs typically ________. a. increase b. become unstable c. decrease d. stay the same e. become unreliable

C

Assume you are a project manager for a project that has an absolute deadline that must be adhered to. Your project is in the middle of the executing phase. The project is substantially behind schedule, but the CFO will provide additional funds if necessary. The scope cannot be reduced at this point. Which of the following time reduction techniques is most appropriate under these circumstances? a. Do it right the first time b. Hire additional personnel to work on tasks that are behind schedule c. Use overtime d. Compromise on quality e. Scrub requirements

C

At what level must a contractor be in order to do work for the U.S. Department of Defense? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 e. Level 5

C

Concepts of organizational maturity were originated by ________. a. Abraham Maslov b. Fredrick Hertzberg c. Software Engineering Institute d. W. Edwards Deming e. Peter Senge

C

Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward ________. a. using dedicated project teams b. longer project lead times c. outsourcing significant segments of project work d. reducing the number of projects a company initiates e. shorter project lead times

C

Covey suggests that we put the important stuff on our calendars ________. a. last and twice a week b. last and once a week c. first and once a week d. everyday e. first and twice a week

C

Every application regardless of whether it is a mobile one or a web-based application has three components. Which of the following is not one of the three? a. Data management b. Presentation management c. Interface/integration management d. Business-logic management

C

Giving consideration to the discussion about Burns, Figures 5.3a, 5.3b, and 5.6, what is the focal point and ultimate answer to the question 'What to change?' a. Centralized MIS shops had lead times extending out to 36 months. b. Mainframes were computational bottlenecks. c. Applications had to reside entirely within the mainframe. d. Customer and competitive environments were changing rapidly.

C

Goldratt maintains that most project managers utilize a ________ world. Such mentalities are a ________. a. holistic | valuable asset to the firm b. critical path | mirage c. cost | mirage d. throughput | useful understanding e. micro-management | waste

C

In multi-attribute problems, what do the weights sum to? Why? a. They sum to any number so as to make the overall grade maximized. b. They sum to 10 as to make the overall grade fall into the range 0 to 1. c. They sum to 1 so as to make the overall grade fall into the range 0 to 100. d. They sum to 1 so as to make the overall grade fall into the range 0 to 1.

C

In project procurement management, the process of conducting procurements is part of the ________ lifecycle phase. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling e. closing

C

In which level are 'best practices' institutionalized? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 e. Level 5

C

Intense global competition and rapid technological advances create pressure to develop projects rapidly. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by ________. a. incentive contracts b. unforeseen project delays c. time to market d. high overhead e. imposed project deadlines

C

Measurements and rewards should ________. a. assess progress relative to budget b. be totally oblivious to those being measured c. induce the parts of the system to do what is good for the system as a whole d. be reported to upper management weekly e. measure and reward everything

C

Organizational structure issues get addressed ________. a. after the project is defined b. after the project leadership is determined c. after the corporate strategy has been determined d. after project estimates are in place e. after a project team has been assigned

C

People within an organization working on multiple efforts concurrently is an indicator of ________. a. completely allocated staff b. project prioritization c. too many projects taken on at once d. shrewd scheduling e. optimized processes

C

Safety and the removal thereof applies to which of the following time reduction techniques? a. Reuse, reuse, reuse b. Look for parallelism opportunities c. Use critical chain concepts (Goldratt) d. Do it right the first time e. Reduce scope

C

Some ways to generate lists of possible risks include all but ________. a. risk profiling b. RBS c. simulation d. problem identification e. brainstorming

C

Studies suggest that great-performing project teams are much more likely to develop under all the following conditions except ________. a. members are assigned to the project full time b. members report solely to the project manager c. team members are selected by their line managers d. there are 7 or fewer members per team e. the project involves a compelling objective

C

The essence of positive synergy can be found in the phrase ________. a. If it doesn't kill you, it makes you stronger b. There is no "I" in team c. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts d. Front of ship sink---back of ship sink e. Two heads are better than one

C

The lack of understanding and consensus of organization strategy among top and middle-level managers is known as the ________. a. lack of consensus b. priority confusion c. implementation gap d. lack of comprehension e. None of these alternatives is correct.

C

The risk graph (Larson & Gray, Figure 7.1) informs us of all of the following but ________. a. the chances of risks occurring decrease over the lifetime of the project b. initially, the chances of a risk occurring within a project are high c. at the delivering phase the cost to fix a risk event is low d. the cost to fix a risk event goes up over the lifetime of a project e. All of the alternatives are true.

C

The two major elements of the enterprise environment in which projects are implemented include ________ and ________. a. corporate governance | core competencies b. corporate strategy | core competencies c. organizational structure | culture d. corporate governance | culture e. corporate primary processes | best practices

C

What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project? a. Lack of proper funding b. Poor listening skills c. A failure to communicate d. Inadequate staffing

C

What intermediate phenomenon appears to be particularly troublesome and has to do with lead time to perform change requests on existing apps? a. Applications had to reside entirely within the mainframe. b. Customer and competitive environments were changing rapidly. c. Centralized MIS shops had lead times extending out to 36 months. d. Mainframes were computational bottlenecks.

C

What is the name of the maturity model used by the Project Management Institute? a. CMM b. CMHC c. OPM3 d. PMP e. CMMI

C

When creating a WBS, we stop breaking the work down when we get to parcels of work that can be ________. a. tasks or activities b. the bottom of the page c. done by a single person in one to four weeks d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

C

Which of the following estimates is used for strategic purposes? a. Bottom-up estimate b. Parametric estimate c. Top-down estimate d. Expert judgement estimate e. An estimate based on a computer model

C

Which of the following is not a PMI process within project communications management? a. Planning communications management b. Monitoring communications c. Communicating with stakeholders d. Managing communications

C

Which of the following is not a stakeholder? a. Project manager and project team b. Line management and upper management c. Tasks and activities d. Customers and suppliers e. Project sponsor and support staff

C

Which of the following is not one of Covey's seven habits? a. Synergize b. Be proactive c. Think win/lose d. Begin with the end in mind e. Put first things first

C

Which of the following is not one of the five levels that make up the CMMI? a. Quantitatively Managed b. Optimizing c. Repeatable d. Defined e. Managed

C

Which of the following is not one of the sections of the project charter? a. Assumptions/risks/obstacles b. Purpose or goal of a project c. Detailed list of tasks that make up the project d. Success criteria e. Discussion of problem or opportunity

C

Which of the following is not part of the Covey strategy for personal planning? a. Once a week create a prioritized TODO list b. Continually clarify what is important to you c. Determine your true south direction d. After prioritizing your TODO list, put the important items on your calendar first. e. Set aside large blocks of uninterrupted time on your calendar to get the important things done.

C

Which of the following is not true of dedicated project teams? a. The team is physically separated from the parent organization. b. The team is usually located offsite. c. Team members have other, outside responsibilities. d. A full-time project manager is designated to manage the team. e. Team members are usually selected by the project manager.

C

Which of the following is one of Covey's seven habits? a. Personal mastery b. Shared vision c. Sharpen the saw d. Mental models e. Team learning

C

Which of the following is the strategy for mitigating risk? a. Reducing the awareness of the risk b. Reducing the visibility of the risk c. Reducing the probability and the impact of the risk d. Total elimination of the risk e. Reducing the likelihood of detection of the risk

C

Which of the following processes of project procurement management involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed? a. Settling contracts b. Selecting vendors c. Controlling procurements d. Closing procurements e. Deciding on the services to procure

C

Which of the following time reduction techniques will reduce scope? a. Critical chain concepts (Goldratt) b. Reuse, reuse, reuse c. Requirements scrubbing d. Crashing e. Use smaller batch sizes

C

Which of the following was not one of the top three suggestions for how to be a star at work by Kelly? a. All of these alternatives are not suggestions for how to be a star at work by Kelly. b. Network with peers and bosses c. Continually clarify your values and vision d. Take initiative e. Aggressively self-manage your life and your career

C

Which risk response step develops a strategy for reducing possible damage and develops a contingency plan? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 e. Step 5

C

________ address where the project stands in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost goals. a. Technical reports b. Requirements reports c. Status reports d. Lessons-learned reports e. None of these alternatives is correct.

C

________ and ________ are frequently used to cover project risks—identified and unknown. The former is used to lesson budget risk, while the latter is used to diminish schedule risk. a. Prototyping | walkthroughs b. Walkthroughs | testing c. Contingency funding | time buffers d. Testing | time buffers e. Contingency funding | walkthroughs

C

________ begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project, selection criteria, project charter, project objectives, project scope, and acceptance criteria. a. Analysis b. Project Overview c. Process Review d. Recommendations e. Directing

C

________ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a. Developing the project team b. Training the project team c. Managing the project team d. Acquiring the project team e. Developing the human resource plan

C

Which of the following is not something that we ordinarily estimate? a. Quality b. Resources c. Time d. Cost e. Both b. and c. are correct.

a. Quality

Iterations are short time frames ("time boxes") that typically last from ________. a. 1-4 weeks b. 1-2 weeks c. 1-4 days d. 7-12 weeks e. 4-7 weeks

a. 1-4 weeks

Rose leads the advertising of an innovative product, Teckos, just launched by her company. She has determined the advertising for Teckos is an individual project consisting of 7 activities. Information pertinent to these activities is included in the table that follows. a. 12 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 13 weeks d. 11 weeks

a. 12 weeks

What percent of IT projects should be completed with an adaptive, agile type of methodology? a. 70% b. 50% c. 60% d. 40% e. 80%

a. 70%

________ is a deterministic diagramming technique used to predict total project duration. a. CPM b. PERT c. A Gantt chart d. Crashing e. EVA

a. CPM

Which of the following is not part of the Agile Alliance manifesto that declared four core values? a. Creating an end user survey. b. Working software over comprehensive documentation. c. Responding to change over following a plan. d. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation. e. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.

a. Creating an end user survey.

________ is a planning process that is within the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. Creating of a WBS b. Developing a project management plan c. Schedule development d. Quality planning e. Cost estimating

a. Creating of a WBS

In ProjectLibre, task information is entered in which view? a. Gantt chart b. Tracking Gantt chart c. Resource sheet d. Task sheet e. Network chart

a. Gantt chart

At the start of ProjectLibre usage, it is necessary to preset the program so tasks are manually-scheduled or auto-scheduled? a. Neither b. Auto-scheduled c. Manual-scheduled d. Both

a. Neither

Suppose you wanted to start task BB five days after task AA started. How would you do this in ProjectLibre? a. Place task BB in a start/start relationship with its predecessor AA with a lag of five days. b. Place task BB in a finish/start relationship with its predecessor AA with a lag of five days. c. This is impossible in ProjectLibre. d. Place task AA in a finish/finish relationship with its predecessor BB with a lag of five days. e. Place task AA in a finish/start relationship with its predecessor BB with a lag of five days.

a. Place task BB in a start/start relationship with its predecessor AA with a lag of five days.

Which of the following is not something that we ordinarily estimate? a. Quality b. Resources c. Time d. Cost e. Both b. and c. are correct.

a. Quality

Which of the following lifecycle models would you use if the requirements are unknown and/or unstable? a. Scrum b. Extreme c. Waterfall d. Spiral e. Iterative

a. Scrum

Which of the following estimates is typically used for making decisions two to five years out? a. Strategic estimation b. Definitive estimation c. Budgetary estimation d. Estimation e. Accommodation of the customer

a. Strategic estimation

Top-down estimation is often also referred to as ________. a. analogous estimation b. low-level developer estimation c. budgetary estimation d. definitive estimation e. ubiquitous estimation

a. analogous estimation

According to Larson and Gray chapter 8, cost estimates are not a budget until ________. a. budgets have been time-phased b. resources have been assigned c. costs have been determined d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

a. budgets have been time-phased

A backhoe that Susan needs on her project has been scheduled on another project. This is a ________ constraint. a. equipment b. materials c. people d. working capital e. information

a. equipment

A big picture view of the cost of a project over its entire existence is ________. a. life cycle costing b. networking view c. cost account d. JAD costing e. WBS

a. life cycle costing

If the time units are months, duration is measured in ________ whereas effort is measured in _______. a. months, man-months b. man-months, months c. dollars, month-dollars d. month-dollars, dollars e. None of the alternatives is correct.

a. months, man-months

At the completion of an agile iteration a ________. a. new, bug-free functionality is developed/deployed to the customer b. a new piece of functionality is developed c. a new phase of the development lifecycle is completed d. All of the functionality associated with a product is developed. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

a. new, bug-free functionality is developed/deployed to the customer

Renovation of a small compartment in a house boat or camping trailer that is too small for more than one person is an example of a(n) ________ resource constraint. a. physical b. resource c. scheduling d. technical e. time

a. physical

Daily Scrum meetings are usually ________ and typically last only ________ minutes. a. standup meetings | 15 b. casual meetings | 30 c. creative meetings | 50 d. action-oriented | 30 e. casual and creative | 40

a. standup meetings | 15

Payback occurs when ________. a. the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs b. the net cumulative benefits minus costs equal one c. the net costs are lower than the cumulative benefits d. the cumulative benefits are double the cumulative costs e. None of these alternatives is correct.

a. the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs

Suppose you had decided to use a SCRUM methodology to breakup the various components of the software system. Which of the following components which you conduct sprints on second? a. user interfaces b. small details c. backbone structure d. minor functional components e. major functional components

a. user interfaces

A typical amount to be added to budgets and schedules for such things as holidays, sick days, snow days, company meetings, training days, etc., is ________. a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 25%

b. 10%

The total effort for a project is calculated to be 24 person-months. Three capable persons are assigned to the project. There is no mandatory or other sequencing required in the project. What is its total duration likely to be? a. 24 months b. 8 months c. 3 months d. 6 months e. 12 months

b. 8 months

Which of the following features are not supported by ProjectLibre? a. Progress Line b. All of these features are not supported by ProjectLibre. c. Earned Value Analysis d. Tracking Gantt Chart e. Resource Leveling

b. All of these features are not supported by ProjectLibre.

_______ costs are things like resource hourly rates. a. Intangible b. Direct c. Tangible d. Sunk e. Indirect

b. Direct

Which of the following statements is false? a. A resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. b. Duration and effort are synonymous terms. c. A three-point estimate in PERT includes an optimistic, a most likely, and a pessimistic estimate. d. A Gantt chart is a common tool for displaying project schedule information on a timeline. e. Both b. and d. are false statements.

b. Duration and effort are synonymous terms.

In project time management, which of the following processes involve calculating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual tasks? a. Sequencing activities b. Estimating activity durations c. Controlling schedule d. Defining activities e. Planning schedule management

b. Estimating activity durations

Select the most accurate statement with regards to the Critical Path Method (CPM). a. It accounts for the interruptions that may affect an activity between the start and the finish times. b. It assumes that activities are independent of one another, with clearly defined start and finish dates. c. It uses the variance in the critical path activities to evaluate the risks associated with project completion times. d. It allows us to investigate the effects of uncertainty of activity times on project completion times.

b. It assumes that activities are independent of one another, with clearly defined start and finish dates.

Which of the following is responsible for rapid deployment of the software after each iteration? a. Project leader b. Jenkins c. DevOps d. Product owner e. Release burndown chart

b. Jenkins

As the project manager for a software development project, you are helping to develop the project schedule. You decide that writing code for a system should not start until users sign off on the analysis work. Further, you decide that testing of a module (an object, class) will not commence until the entire module has been coded and compiled. What type of dependency is this? a. Internal b. Mandatory c. Discretionary d. External e. There is no dependency.

b. Mandatory

________ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time. a. Cost of capital b. Net present value c. Cash flow d. Payback e. Both c. and d. are correct.

b. Net present value

The district magistrate of Arkham City has decided to rebuild the busiest road in the city. She plans to close the street for the duration of the work, causing immense inconvenience to the people who typically use the road. The project has 3 parallel paths defined as the following: Path A-B-C-H will take 14 days. Path A-F-G-H will take 28 days. Path A-D-E-H will take 20 days. Given the information on hand, which of the following statements is true? a. Path A-D-E-H has the largest slack time. b. Path A-F-G-H is the critical path. c. Path A-B-C-H is the critical path. d. Path A-D-E-H is the critical path. e. Path A-F-G-H has the largest slack time.

b. Path A-F-G-H is the critical path.

Estimating processes occur within what process group, what lifecycle phase? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling e. Closing

b. Planning

Which of the following processes involves determining the policies, procedures, and documentation that will be used for planning, executing, and controlling the project schedule? a. Quality controlling b. Planning schedule management c. Estimating activity resources d. Defining activities e. Activity sequencing

b. Planning schedule management

Which of the following costs has to do with appraisal? a. Liability costs b. Testing and inspection costs c. Interviewing costs d. Rework costs e. Training costs

b. Testing and inspection costs

Which of the following statements is false? a. Probability distributions for PERT activity durations are represented by use of the Beta distribution. b. The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be started. c. A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity. d. Crashing is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. e. Both a. and d. are false statements.

b. The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be started.

The advantage that a PERT representation of a project schedule over a CPM representation is that a PERT representation ________. a. is easier to calculate b. calculates probabilities of completing milestones by their completion dates c. gives automatic valuations of ES, EF, LS, LF and SLACK d. enables fast determination of total project duration and the critical path e. All of these alternatives are correct.

b. calculates probabilities of completing milestones by their completion dates

Estimation that is performed immediately before execution and often uses a bottom-up technique referred to as ________. a. low-level developer estimation b. definitive estimation c. budgetary estimation d. analogous estimation e. ubiquitous estimation

b. definitive estimation

In ProjectLibre, the tool that is used to establish sequencing among the activities is the ________. a. indent arrow on the task tab b. link tool on the task tab c. assign resources tool on the task tab d. insert tool under the task tab e. Both a. and c. are correct.

b. link tool on the task tab

A ________ is a standard of measurement in quality management. a. merge b. metric c. None of these alternatives is correct. d. matrix e. milestone

b. metric

By default ProjectLibre assumes unspecified task durations are ________. a. zero duration b. one day in duration, followed by a ? c. one unit in duration, followed by a ? d. simply a ? e. Both a. and d. are correct.

b. one day in duration, followed by a ?

Almost all knowledge areas have a ________ process and a ________ process. a. plan | estimate b. plan | control c. estimate | schedule d. plan | schedule e. estimate | control

b. plan | control

Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the ________ process. a. performing quality assurance b. planning quality management c. controlling quality d. None of these alternatives is correct. e. quality certification

b. planning quality management

If it becomes necessary to delay one or several late starts to accommodate resource limitations, this is called ________. a. time-constrained scheduling b. resource-constrained scheduling c. allocation d. mandatory leveling e. splitting

b. resource-constrained scheduling

According to Larson and Gray chapter 8, project network times are not a schedule until ________. a. budgets have been time-phased b. resources have been assigned c. costs have been determined d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

b. resources have been assigned

Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand and, thus, increase resource utilization is called resource ________. a. allocation b. smoothing c. manipulating d. shifting e. switching

b. smoothing

As a rule of thumb, the time to design, document and code a module equals ________. a. the time to analyze it b. the time to test it c. the time to integrate it d. the time to conceptualize it e. None of these alternatives is correct.

b. the time to test it

The best time to do crashing is ________. a. towards the end of the monitoring phase b. towards the end of the planning phase c. towards the end of the closing phase d. towards the end of the executing phase e. towards the end of the initiating phase

b. towards the end of the planning phase

How many function points does it take to equal a person-month in terms of effort? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 7

c. 5

When marketing promised a new software product to an external client that is called ________. a. Estimation b. Budgetary estimation c. Accommodation of the customer d. Strategic estimation e. Definitive estimation

c. Accommodation of the customer

Which of the following features are supported by ProjectLibre? a. Assignment of Resources to tasks b. Cost Rollup based on a WBS c. All of these features are supported by ProjectLibre. d. Adding a Task and Linking it in on the Gantt Chart e. Work Breakdown Structure Diagram

c. All of these features are supported by ProjectLibre.

Which of the following is false? a. Only one task in a project should be entered without a predecessor. b. Avoid using too many specific date constraints on tasks c. Always assign resources to summary tasks d. Avoid creating predecessor/successor task relationships between summary tasks e. Only one task in a project should be without a successor.

c. Always assign resources to summary tasks

Which of the following rules is part of the crashing heuristic? a. Crash only non-critical activities b. Pick the un-crashed activity with the largest crash cost per day as the next activity to crash c. Always crash the activity to its minimum duration if there is sufficient budget to do so and if that does not cause the associate path to no longer be critical d. All of these alternatives are legitimate crashing rules. e. Only a. and b. are legitimate crashing rules.

c. Always crash the activity to its minimum duration if there is sufficient budget to do so and if that does not cause the associate path to no longer be critical

________ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications. a. Project feasibility b. Benchmarking c. Conformance to requirements d. Fitness for use e. None of these alternatives is correct.

c. Conformance to requirements

Which of the following statements is false? a. A three-point estimate in PERT includes an optimistic, a most likely, and a pessimistic estimate. b. A resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. c. Duration and effort are synonymous terms. d. A Gantt chart is a common tool for displaying project schedule information on a timeline. e. Both c. and d. are false statements.

c. Duration and effort are synonymous terms.

Which PMBOK activity is responsible for determining activity resource requirements, and for determining a resource breakdown structure? a. Develop schedule b. Estimate activity durations c. Estimate activity resources d. Define activities e. Plan schedule management

c. Estimate activity resources

Which of the following is not a reason for why estimates are needed? a. Estimates are needed to determine how long the project should take and its cost. b. Estimates are needed to determine whether the project is worth doing. c. Estimates are needed to measure and assess quality. d. Estimates are needed to support good decisions. e. Estimates are needed to schedule work.

c. Estimates are needed to measure and assess quality.

You cannot start editing a technical report until someone else completes the first draft. What type of dependency does this represent? a. Start-to-start b. Finish-to finish c. Finish-to-start d. Start-to-finish e. None of these alternatives is correct.

c. Finish-to-start

Which of the following is a good condition for bottom-up estimating? a. Strategic decision making b. Internal, small project c. Fixed price contract d. High uncertainty e. Both c. and d. are good conditions for bottom-up estimating.

c. Fixed price contract

________ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a. Maintainability b. Reliability c. Functionality d. None of these alternatives is correct. e. Validity

c. Functionality

________ is a probabilistic scheduling technique while ________ is deterministic, with ________ being most widely used in commercial software. a. PERT | CPM | PERT b. CPM | PERT | CPM c. PERT | CPM | CPM d. CPM | PERT | PERT e. CPM | CPM | PERT

c. PERT | CPM | CPM

What is the main goal of project cost management? a. To provide truthful and accurate cost information on projects b. To complete a project for as little cost as possible c. To complete a project within an approved budget d. To ensure that an organization's money used wisely e. All of these alternatives are correct.

c. To complete a project within an approved budget

Which of the following is not one of the three purposes for estimation? a. Far-out Strategic Planning (5 years out) b. Budgetary (2 years out) c. WAG d. Definitive (immediately before execution and used within execution) e. Both b. and c. are not purposes for estimation.

c. WAG

Which of the following is a way to improve quality on the front-end of the development lifecycle? a. Integration testing b. Unit testing c. Walkthroughs d. User acceptance testing e. Regression testing

c. Walkthroughs

If your team's task was to develop an AI pattern recognition engine based on King Sung Fu's formulas/algorithms developed 40 years ago, which model would you likely use? a. Agile b. Iterative c. Waterfall d. Extreme e. Scrum

c. Waterfall

Suppose you had decided to use a SCRUM methodology to breakup the various components of the software system. Which of the following components which you conduct sprints on first? a. minor functional components b. major functional components c. backbone structure d. small details e. user interfaces

c. backbone structure

The purpose of top-down estimation is not for ________. a. accuracy purposes b. budgetary purposes c. definitive purposes d. strategic purposes e. planning purposes

c. definitive purposes

For any activity that has one or more predecessors, the ________ time is always the largest early finish of any of its predecessors. If the early finish times of an activity's predecessors were 55, 40 and 35, then this time would be the largest of these three early finish times or 55. a. late finish b. early finish c. early start d. late start

c. early start

To require lots of documentation, code that is well-commented, and lots of discipline is called ________. a. low ceremony agile b. low ceremony c. high ceremony d. low ceremony waterfall e. low ceremony iterative

c. high ceremony

As discussed in class, the cost to fix a defect ________ over time and becomes exorbitant once the defect ________. a. decreases linearly | is found b. increases linearly | 'walks out the door' c. increases exponentially | 'walks out the door' d. decreases exponentially | is found e. Both a. and c. are correct.

c. increases exponentially | 'walks out the door'

Wayne needs to order memory chips needed to continue his project. The memory chips are needed now but the supplier won't be able to deliver them until next week. This is an example of a ________ constraint. a. equipment b. people c. materials d. working capital e. information

c. materials

The ________ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. None of these alternatives is correct. b. quality planning c. quality control d. quality assurance e. quality certification

c. quality control

The purpose of top-down estimation is for ________. a. accuracy purposes b. detailed scheduling and budgeting purposes c. strategic purposes d. definitive purposes e. schedule purposes

c. strategic purposes

When creating a software package, the software must be designed, the code must be written, and then the code must be tested. This is an example of a ________ constraint. a. schedule b. resource c. technical d. physical e. time

c. technical

Analogous estimating amounts to ________. a. bottom-up estimation b. expert judgment c. use of a past similar project d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only b. and c. are correct

c. use of a past similar project

IT Projects that are of high priority and whose requirements are unstable or unknown are best accommodated by ________. a. dedicated project teams b. Only a. and c. are correct. c. co-located teams d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. team members are senior level

d. All of these alternatives are correct.

When marketing informs the software development team that the product was promised to the customer on March 1st, that is a ________. a. target b. forecast c. due date d. commitment e. None of these alternatives is correct.

d. commitment

Seven activities are to be considered for this problem. Additional information about these activities such as their activity time and immediate predecessors are included in the table that follows. Use this information to figure out the earliest completion time for this project using a Gantt chart. a. 16 weeks b. 20 weeks c. 14 weeks d. 18 weeks

d. 18 weeks

The average duration of a task whose optimistic time is 30 and whose most likely time is 60 and whose pessimistic time is 90 is ________. a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 e. None of these alternatives is correct.

d. 60

The standard deviation of a task whose optimistic time is 31 and whose most likely time is 55 and whose pessimistic time is 82 is ________. a. 13.33 b. 15.33 c. 14.56 d. 8.50

d. 8.50

Which of the following are discrete tasks which require resources and time, within the context of projects? a. Milestones b. Schedules c. Value chains d. Activities e. Processes

d. Activities

By default ProjectLibre makes which of the following assumptions about time? a. 8-hour days b. No work on Saturdays c. No work on Sundays d. All of the alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

d. All of the alternatives are correct.

What kind of cash reserves are needed to accommodate holidays, sick days, snow days, company meetings, training days? a. Management reserves b. Budgetary reserves c. Unproductive days reserves d. Contingency reserves e. None of these alternatives is correct.

d. Contingency reserves

Which of the following processes in project time management involves identifying the specific tasks that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables? a. Developing the schedule b. Estimating activity durations c. Sequencing activities d. Defining activities e. Controlling schedule

d. Defining activities

________ costs are costs related to the amount of time and resources allocated to completion of the project, whereas ________ costs are such items as overhead, pension and healthcare plans, etc. a. Sunk | indirect b. Direct | sunk c. Indirect | direct d. Direct | indirect e. Indirect | junk

d. Direct | indirect

________ reserves allow for future situations that are unpredictable (unknown unknowns). a. Baseline b. Contingency c. Financial d. Management e. None of these alternatives is correct.

d. Management

A ________ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed) and has infinite tails. a. Rectangular distribution b. Poisson distribution c. Beta distribution d. Normal distribution e. Exponential distribution

d. Normal distribution

Which of the following statements is false? a. Probability distributions for PERT activity durations are represented by use of the Beta distribution. b. A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity. c. To complete a project it is necessary to complete all tasks on all paths through the project network. d. The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be started. e. Both c. and d. are false statements.

d. The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be started.

Which of the following lifecycle models is a predictive one? a. Extreme b. Agile c. Iterative d. Waterfall e. Scrum

d. Waterfall

Iterative development processes provide which important advantages ________. a. continuous integration, verification, and validation of the evolving product b. frequent demonstration of progress to increase the likelihood that the end product will satisfy customer needs c. Early detection of defects and problems d. a., b. and c. are correct. e. None of these alternative is correct.

d. a., b. and c. are correct.

In ProjectLibre, the tool that is used to designate subordination as displayed in the WBS is ________. a. link tool on the task tab b. assign resources tool on the task tab c. insert tool on the task tab d. indent tool on the task tab e. None of these alternatives is correct.

d. indent tool on the task tab

Scrum, agile methodologies belong to which of the following methodology types? a. iterative development with high discipline b. traditional waterfall with high ceremony c. traditional waterfall with low ceremony d. iterative development with low ceremony e. iterative development with high ceremony

d. iterative development with low ceremony

According to PMBOK, the first process involved in project time management is ________. a. defining activities b. sequencing activities c. developing schedule d. planning schedule management e. estimating activity durations

d. planning schedule management

The implication of the cost of quality taxonomy discussed in class was to ________. a. spend more money on appraisal so as to incur less in the way of external costs due to bugs and software defects b. spend more money on prevention so as to incur less in the way of internal costs due to bugs and software defects c. spend more money on appraisal so as to incur less in the way of internal costs due to bugs and software defects d. spend more money on prevention so as to incur less in the way of external costs due to bugs and software defects e. All of these alternatives are correct.

d. spend more money on prevention so as to incur less in the way of external costs due to bugs and software defects

When the work in an activity is interrupted to work on another activity and is then resumed at a later point in time, it is called ________. a. starting/stopping b. prioritizing c. preempting d. splitting e. overriding

d. splitting

The distribution used in a PERT representation of a task duration is ________. a. the normal distribution b. the uniform distribution c. the exponential distribution d. the beta distribution e. the Poisson distribution

d. the beta distribution

If you were trying to estimate the cost of a new project that was five years out from even being started, most likely you would be using ________. a. Top-down estimation b. Bottom-up estimation c. Analogous estimation d. None of these alternative is correct. e. Only a. and c. are correct.

e. Only a. and c. are correct.

Top management prefers ________ development models over ________ models because they know up front how much cost and time are required. a. static | predictive b. creative | predictive c. adaptive | predictive d. adaptive | creative e. predictive | adaptive

e. predictive | adaptive

Which of the following is a potential future consequence of not considering the impact on the schedule of limited resources? a. Costly activity delays b. Costly project delays c. Difficulty in taking quick corrective action d. Only a. and b. are correct. e. All a., b. and c. are correct.

e. All a., b. and c. are correct.

In the Scrum Development Process a specific step/phase is ________. a. analysis b. design c. build d. test e. All of these alternatives are correct.

e. All of these alternatives are correct.

The purpose of placing a PROJECT summary task at the very beginning of the list of tasks in the entry table is to ________. a. see total project duration and total project cost on the top line of the entry table b. enable a collection of tasks to be predecessors to the PROJECT summary task c. make visible the milestones of the project d. create mini projects within the context of the larger PROJECT e. All of these alternatives are correct.

e. All of these alternatives are correct.

Which of the following is a typical problem associated with cost estimates? a. Estimates are done too quickly; estimates are off-the-cuff b. People lack estimating experience c. Human beings are biased toward underestimation d. Management desires accuracy e. All of these alternatives are problems associated with cost estimates.

e. All of these alternatives are problems associated with cost estimates.

________ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Systems thinking b. Mind mapping c. Prototyping d. None of these alternatives is correct. e. Benchmarking

e. Benchmarking

A milestone in ProjectLibre is a task with ________. a. a finite duration b. a zero duration c. minimal duration/minimal cost d. a diamond icon e. Both b. and d. are correct.

e. Both b. and d. are correct.

Which of the following is not one seven processes that make up the PMBOK knowledge area known as time (schedule) management? a. Sequence activities b. Define activities c. Plan schedule management d. Control activities e. Monitor activities

e. Monitor activities

ProjectLibre can do its scheduling from ________. a. the project start date b. the project stop date c. the project initiate date d. All of the alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and b. are correct.

e. Only a. and b. are correct.

The purpose of a far-out estimate (five or more years) is to ________. a. Determine economic feasibility b. Determine priority of the project c. Decide detailed absolute definitive cost and duration numbers d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and b. are correct.

e. Only a. and b. are correct.

To crash the critical path beyond the point where it is no longer critical is ________. a. to allow another path to become critical b. to waste money c. permissible by the rules d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Only a. and b. are correct.

e. Only a. and b. are correct.

Why is it necessary to enumerate every path when crashing a project? a. So as to determine the length of every path and to determine the critical path b. So as to determine which tasks are not critical c. So as to determine the effects on every path length from crashing a specific task d. So as to determine if the critical path has been crashed beyond the point where it is no longer critical e. Only c. and d. are correct.

e. Only c. and d. are correct.

In ProjectLibre, pick the statement that is false: a. Your first 'task' in ProjectLibre should be a PROJECT summary task under which all other tasks are subordinate. b. ProjectLibre will not create WBS codes for you. You have to manually enter those yourself. c. Like MS Project, ProjectLibre will calculate how much variable cost is associated with a task by taking the hourly rate of the resources times the number of hours required to complete a task. d. ProjectLibre is able to delineate a WBS and show a cost rollup on that structure. e. ProjectLibre will add fixed costs for any task into the cost column for any given task.

e. ProjectLibre will add fixed costs for any task into the cost column for any given task.

Which of the following titles in a typical scrum arrangement is the project manager? a. Scrum leader b. Scrum methodologist c. Scrum developer d. Product owner e. Scrum master

e. Scrum master

Estimating processes occur within two knowledge areas. They are: a. Cost, Quality b. Procurement, Risk c. Time, Quality d. Scope, Time e. Time, Cost

e. Time, Cost

A ________ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project. a. cost account b. work package c. scope statement d. WBS dictionary e. WBS

e. WBS

Administrative activities, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project, are often involved in ________ processes. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling e. closing

e. closing

All of the following are part of the Agile Project Management model except ________. a. high uncertainty b. embrace change c. flexibility d. self organized project teams e. design up front

e. design up front

A project engineer has been scheduled to run the product system test at the exact same time he is to build a marketing prototype. This is an example of a ________ constraint. a. time b. scheduling c. physical d. technical e. resource

e. resource

The ________ backlog represents the amount of work the spring team commits to complete during the next sprint or iteration. a. iteration b. scrum c. developer d. product e. sprint

e. sprint

Which of the following is not a recommendation for improving project communications? Do not use facilitators or experts outside of the project team to communicate important information Use templates to help prepare project documents You cannot over communicate. Project managers and their teams should take time to develop their communications skills.

Do not use facilitators or experts outside of the project team to communicate important information

A simple explanation of organizational culture is that it reflects the ________ of an organization. a. reporting relationships b. background c. hierarchy d. management style e. personality

E

According to PMBOK, which of the following is not one of the five phases that comprise the project lifecycle? a. Planning b. Executing c. Monitoring and Controlling d. Closing e. Defining

E

An activity is a(n) ________. a. task b. step c. event d. All of these alternatives are correct. e. Both a. and b. are correct.

E

An operational project is one that ________. a. supports an organizations' long-run mission b. is completed to meet regulatory compliance c. must be completed d. always is extremely relevant to the strategic vision of the organization e. can improve organizational performance

E

During which stage of team development do members accept that they are part of a project group but resist the constraints that the project and the group put on their individuality? a. Norming b. Adjourning c. Performing d. Forming e. Storming

E

For projects that have been completed many times before, it is helpful to start the development of the WBS with ________. a. decomposition b. a WBS template for the project type c. old WBSs taken from past similar projects d. a clean sheet of paper e. Both b. and c. are correct.

E

From the standpoint of completing and delivering the total project, which is faster and cheaper? a. Traditional waterfall b. Agile methods c. Predictive methods d. Both predictive and agile methods e. Both predictive and traditional waterfall methods

E

In Larson and Gray, the two dimensions within project management are ________ and ________. a. planned | unexpected b. unique | reoccurring c. cost | time d. established | new e. technical | sociocultural

E

In what phase of the project lifecycle should a project charter be drawn up? a. Phase 5 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 2 e. Phase 1

E

In which level is there a focus on continuous improvement and innovation? a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 e. Level 5

E

In which of the following theories does the project group transition from a lower level to a higher level of performance about halfway through the project? a. Dysfunctional Transition Model b. Five Stage Team Development Model c. Nominal Group Technique d. Synergistic Transition Development Model e. Punctuated Equilibrium Model of Group Development

E

In which off the following lifecycle phases is a project charter created? a. Monitoring b. Executing c. Closing d. Planning e. Initiating

E

Organizations have difficulty in creating a system for managing projects because ________. a. contrary to typical operations, projects are one-time efforts b. projects are not focused on profits c. projects are multidisciplinary while organizations are usually departmentalized by discipline d. Both a. and b. are correct. e. Both a. and c. are correct.

E

Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization's strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except ________. a. focusing on low priority problems b. overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself c. focusing on the immediate customer d. trying to solve every customer issue e. All of these alternatives are likely mistakes.

E

Researchers have found that high-performance teams have norms for team interaction. Which of the following is not one of those norms? a. Hard work does not get in the way of having fun. b. No information is shared outside the team unless all agree to it. c. There is no tolerance for bulling a way through a problem or issue. d. It is acceptable to be in trouble, but not to surprise others. e. When a decision has to be made, everyone should agree before moving forward.

E

The importance and significance of project management has increased due to ________. a. the movement of manufacturing operations out of the U.S. b. time to market c. the movement toward flatter and leaner organizations d. Both a. and b. are correct. e. All of these alternatives are correct.

E

The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is ________. a. clear organization focus b. best use of scare organization resources c. improved communication across projects and departments d. Both a. and b. are correct. e. All of these alternatives are correct.

E

To establish vision and mission statements, we need to ________. a. determine our values b. determine what is needed within our domain of influence c. determine what we are good at d. determine what we really enjoy doing e. All of these alternatives are correct.

E

Which of the following is not a commonly heard comment of project managers? a. Where did this project come from? b. How can all these projects be first priority? c. Where are we going to get the resources to do this project? d. Why are we doing this project? e. Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?

E

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a functional organizational structure? a. There is lack of focus. b. There is lack of ownership. c. There is poor integration. d. Progress is slow. e. There is in-depth expertise.

E

Which of the following is not a generally-recognized type of risk? a. Schedule risks b. Funding risks c. Technical risks d. Cost risks e. Quality risks

E

Which of the following is not a major issue that risk management endeavors to address? a. What can go wrong b. How to minimize the risk event's impact (consequences) c. What can be done before a risk event occurs (anticipation) d. What to do when the risk event occurs (contingency plans) e. All of the alternatives are major issues.

E

Which of the following is not a project lifecycle phase? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closing e. All of these are project lifecycle phases.

E

Which of the following is not an advantage of a dedicated project team? a. The existing organizational structure remains intact. b. Progress on the project is fast because team members devote their entire time to the project. c. The cost of the dedicated project team will be expensive. d. There will likely be internal strife between the team members and the rest of the organization. e. Neither c. nor d. are advantages.

E

Which of the following is not an advantage of matrix organizational forms? a. Matrix organizational forms are efficient. b. Matrix organizational forms have a strong project focus. c. Matrix organizational forms provide for easier post-project transition. d. Matrix organizational forms are flexible. e. Matrix organizational forms are fast, without stress.

E

Which of the following is not one of the ten PMI knowledge areas? a. Time management b. Quality management c. Scope management d. Stakeholder management e. Inventory management

E

Which of the following is not typically the responsibility of a project manager? a. Meeting budget requirements b. Meeting schedule requirements c. Meeting performance specifications d. Coordinates the actions of the team members e. All of these alternatives are typical responsibilities.

E

Which of the following tips for shortening projects aligns with the issue of quality? a. Reduce scope b. Reuse, reuse, reuse c. Use critical chain concepts (Goldratt) d. Look for parallelism opportunities e. Do it right the first time

E

Which of the following would not serve the interests of a high priority project in which the firm wants completed as quickly as possible? a. The project lacks a compelling vision. b. Team members must multitask. c. The project manager is managing several projects concurrently. d. There is confusion as to how the project fits with the overall strategy of the firm. e. All of these alternatives are impediments to a quick completion of a high priority project.

E

Which of the following would you regard as a fundamental principle of the discipline of project management? a. Slack b. Surplus c. Satisfaction d. Safety e. Focus

E

Which organizational structure would you choose if your organization is a traditional functional one and you are in a hurry to get the project done quickly? a. Use a strong matrix structure superimposed on a traditional functional organizational structure b. Use a balanced matrix structure superimposed on a traditional functional organizational structure c. Just stick with the traditional functional organization structure d. Use a weak matrix structure superimposed on a traditional functional organizational structure e. Use a dedicated project team

E

Within PMBOK (6th edition) there are ________ process groups and ________ knowledge areas. a. 4 | 9 b. 4 | 10 c. 5 | 9 d. 10 | 5 e. 5 | 10

E

ProjectLibre has several tables of columns already setup, such as the entry table, the cost table, the schedule table, the earned-value table, and so forth. True False

False

Which community of practice stresses extensive measurement (of schedule, budget, productivity and quality)? Production community Project community Productivity community Maturity community Learning community

Maturity community


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