Final kin 224

Which of the following options results in volume depletion?

- Hemorrhage - Severe burns - Diarrhea

What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube, beginning at the ovary?

- Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part

Which of the following are sources of fixed acids in the body?

- Metabolism of lipids - Absorption from the GI tract -Metabolic production of lactic acid

Which of the following can result in metabolic acidosis?

- Severe Diarrhea - Increased anaerobic respiration - Excessive alcohol intake

Magnesium ions are predominantly found where in the body?

- Within cells - Bone

How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte?

1

When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for _________, she is said to be in menopause.

1 year

Match the components of the phosphate buffering system: 1. Weak Acid 2. Weak Base

1. Dihydrogen Phosphate 2. Hydrogen Phosphate

Place the following events in order:

1. Lactic acid levels rise 2. Blood pH drops 3. Kidneys reabsorb HCO3- 4. Blood pH rises

10-True/False: One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat.

10-True

11True/False: The germinal center of a lymphatic nodule contains proliferating B-lymphocytes and macrophages.

11- True

At rest, a normal person breathes about _____ times per minute.

12

The average adult kidney weighs about 100 grams and measures about

12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick.

How long is the average trachea?

12-14 cm

Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days

15-28.

After childbirth, lochia lasts for

2-3 weeks.

2True/False: The central nervous system contains a dense network of lymphatic capillaries.

2-False

2True/False: Like veins, lymphatic vessels rely on skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps to help propel fluid through them.

2-True

A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes.

23

What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development?

29 weeks

The thymus contains ______ lobes and is located _______.

2; in the mediastinum

3True/False: The pulsing of arteries that are adjacent to lymphatic vessels provides a pressure on the vessels that helps them propel the lymph.

3-True

3True/False: The walls of the smallest lymphatic vessels contain muscle tissue that rhythmically propels lymph through the system.

3False

How many spermatozoa ultimately develop from each primary spermatocyte?

4

The nose contains a single septal cartilage. How many alar cartilages are in the nose?

4

4True/False: The spleen is considered a primary lymphatic structure.

4- False

4True/False: Tonsils are secondary lymphatic structures.

4- True

The second trimester of a pregnancy includes months

4-6

Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks

4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development.

Plasma cells have a life span of about _________, which is mainly spent in the _________.

5 days; lymph nodes

normal blood levels of calcium are approximately

5 mEq/L

5True/False: The thymus gland begins to atrophy immediately after birth.

5- False

5True/False: The ossa coxae contain red marrow.

5-True

The external genitalia do not become clearly differentiated until about week ____ of development.

6

6True/False: The spleen is essentially a giant lymph node, because it is encapsulated, has trabeculae, and filters lymph to remove antigens.

6-False

6True/False: The appendix contains lymphatic nodules.

6-True

7True/False: The cortex of a lymph node contains multiple lymphatic nodules.

7-True

An adult human kidney typically contains ______ renal pyramid(s).

8 to 15

8True/False: One of the functions of the spleen is phagocytosis of bacteria in the blood.

8-True

9True/False: One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat.

9-True

Approximately what percent of the oxygen in blood is transported by the hemoglobin of erythrocytes?

98%

Shortly after birth, the foramen ovale of the fetal heart ceases to function as an open pathway for blood. A. True B. False

A. True

True labor contractions increase with frequency over time, and pain from such contractions does not change in response to movement. A. True B. False

A. True

Which structure is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity? A. Tunica vaginalis B. Perineal raphe C. Spermatic cord D. Tunica albuginea E. Mediastinum testis

A. Tunica vaginalis

Compared to other types of lipoproteins, very-low-density lipoproteins contain the _______ lipid. A. most B. least

A. most

What part of a spermatozoon contains the nuclear material? A. Acrosome cap B. Head C. Midpiece D. Flagellum E. Tail

B. Head

What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1? A. Luteal, follicular, ovulation B. Follicular, luteal, ovulation C. Follicular, ovulation, luteal D. Ovulation, follicular, luteal E. Ovulation, luteal, follicular

C. Follicular, ovulation, luteal

At the 16-cell stage, the conceptus is known as a(n) A. trophoblast. B. blastocyst. C. embryoblast. D. morula. E. zygote.

D. morula.

At the 16-cell stage, the conceptus is known as a(n) A. trophoblast. B. blastocyst. C. embryoblast. D. morula. E. zygote.

D. morula.

Cleavage involves a series of ________ divisions and __________ in the overall size of the conceptus. A. meiotic; an increase B. meiotic; no change C. meiotic; a decrease D. mitotic; no change E. mitotic; an increase

D. mitotic; no change

Cleavage involves a series of ________ divisions and __________ in the overall size of the conceptus. A. meiotic; an increase B. meiotic; no change C. meiotic; a decrease D. mitotic; no change E. mitotic; an increase

D. mitotic; no change

The hymen is located A. at the cervix. B. near the fundus of the uterus. C. at the superior end of the vagina. D. near the vaginal orifice. E. at the external urethral sphincter.

D. near the vaginal orifice.

C. decreases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity.

Feelings of thirstiness are brought on by: A. increases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity. B. increases in salivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity. C. decreases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity. D. decreases in salivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity.

B. kidneys

Fixed acids are generally regulated by physiological buffering provided by the: A. respiratory system. B. kidneys. C. lymphatic system.

B. Low

Fluid imbalances are more common in individuals with a _________ percentage of body fluid. A. high B. low

What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1?

Follicular, ovulation, luteal

d

For the majority of the GI tract, which layer(s) of the wall contain smooth muscle? a: Muscularis only b: Mucosa and adventitia c: Serosa only d: Mucosa and muscularis e: Submucosa and muscularis

c

Nucleic acids are digested within the a: mouth. b: stomach. c: small intestine. d: pancreas. e: large intestine.

c

Nucleosidase is an enzyme that breaks the a: phosphodiester bond between nucleotides within DNA. b: bond that attaches the phosphate to the nucleoside. c: bond between the sugar and the nitrogenous base of the nucleoside. d: bonds within the nitrogenous bases of rRNA.

Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Numbness

A

Of the five types of secretory cells in the gastric glands, which ones secrete pepsinogen? a: Chief cells b: Parietal cells c: Surface mucous cells d: Mucous neck cells e: Enteroendocrine cells

(T/F) Estrogen levels rise during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, and estrogen assists with the development of the dominant follicle.

TRUE

(T/F) FSH facilitates the development of a primary follicle, but estrogen released by a primary follicle inhibits production of GnRH, LH, and FSH.

TRUE

(T/F) Male embryos develop both Wolffian and Mullerian ducts, but only the Wolffian ducts remain in the male fetus.

TRUE

(T/F) Meiosis I is a reduction division.

TRUE

(T/F) Movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube is due to peristalsis and ciliary action.

TRUE

(T/F) Prior to puberty, the anterior pituitary does not release FSH and LH

TRUE

(T/F) The clitoris is homologous to the penis.

TRUE

(T/F) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen.

TRUE

(T/F) The corpus luteum secretes the hormones estrogen and progesterone.

TRUE

(T/F) The dartos muscle is composed of smooth muscle; the cremaster muscle is composed of skeletal muscle.

TRUE

(T/F) The final products of the two meiotic divisions are four haploid daughter cells from an original diploid cell.

TRUE

(T/F) The ischiocavernosus muscle is located within the urogenital triangle

TRUE

Which do not belong to the respiratory zone of the respiratory system?

Terminal bronchioles

a

The __________ are considered the opening from the oral cavity to the oropharynx. a: fauces b: choana c: conchae d: fossae e: glossus

a

The accumulation of large amounts of adipose tissue in the __________ that extends from the inferolateral surface of the stomach can form what is commonly called a "beer belly". a: greater omentum b: mesentery proper c: mesocolon d: lesser omentum e: falciform ligament

D. angiotensin II and decreased blood plasma sodium levels.

The adrenal gland releases aldosterone in response to: A. ANP and increased blood plasma sodium levels. B. ANP and decreased blood plasma sodium levels. C. angiotensin II and increased blood plasma sodium levels. D. angiotensin II and decreased blood plasma sodium levels.

Several things happen to inhaled air in a process called conditioning. Select the exception.

The air is cooled.

B. bases

The amine groups contained within amino acids of proteins can act as weak: A. acids. B. bases.

The area of the brain that provides the primary control of body temperature is the a: cerebellum. b: cerebral cortex. c: hypothalamus. d: pineal gland. e: medulla.

c

Triglycerides and steroids are both examples of a: essential amino acids. b: nonessential amino acids. c: lipids. d: carbohydrates. e: proteins.

c

Which statement is true regarding secondary bronchi?

The left lung has two secondary bronchi and the right lung has three secondary bronchi.

b

The lingual salivary glands are a: unicellulilar endocrine glands. b: unicellulilar exocrine glands. c: multicellulilar endocrine glands. d: multicellulilar exocrine glands.

Which structure is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity?

Tunica vaginalis

The precise maintenance of the hydrogen ion concentration in the body's fluids is called __________.

acid-base balance

A pH below 7 is called _________. A pH above 7 is called __________.

acidic; alkaline

Hypoventilation leads to _________.

acidosis

The immunity that occurs as a result of a vaccination is _________ immunity.

active

A delayed response to a specific antigen is provided by

adaptive immunity.

The percentage of fluid in the body is dependent on the age of the individual and the relative amounts of _______ connective tissue and _______ muscle tissue

adipose and skeletal

Vitamin C is a a: fat-soluble, essential vitamin. b: fat-soluble, nonessential vitamin. c: water-soluble, essential vitamin. d: water-soluble, nonessential vitamin.

c

When glucose enters glycolysis, it a: is converted into acetyl CoA. b: binds to oxaloacetic acid and forms citric acid. c: is oxidized to two pyruvate molecules. d: forms the coenzyme NAD.

c

About 70% of the CO2 that diffuses into systemic capillaries

combines with water to form carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.

Poison ivy contains a toxin that acts as a hapten by

combining with a body protein and then triggering an immune response.

In the classical pathway of complement activation

complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance.

Proteins that supply all of our essential amino acids are described as ________ proteins.

complete

Edema and varicose veins in the lower extremities sometimes develop in the third trimester of a pregnancy due to

compression of abdominal blood vessels.

The hilum of the spleen is part of its

concave anteromedial border

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney results in

constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

Lymphatic organs

contain a complete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue.

The percentage of the vital capacity that can be exhaled during a specific time period is known as the

forced expiratory volume

A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that

forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis.

When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is

four daughter cells that are haploid.

Pitch refers to the ________ of sound waves; pitch is determined by the tension produced by ________ laryngeal muscles.

frequency intrinsic

When blood passes through systemic capillaries, the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin changes

from about 98% to about 75% saturated.

Passive immunity lasts

from days to weeks, and does not involve development of memory cells.

The maternal portion of the placenta arises from the

functional layer of the uterus.

The expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume equals the

functional residual capacity.

The external urethral orifice is found at the _________ of the penis.

glans

About 23% of the carbon dioxide in the blood is attached to the _______ portion of hemoglobin.

globin

Net filtration pressure is equal to the

glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure.

The thick tangle of capillary loops found within a corpuscle is known as the

glomerulus.

The major regulatory hormone of the postabsorptive state is ___________.

glucagon

MHC class I molecules are

glycoproteins synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting

gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

In both males and females, primary sex organs called _________________ produce the gametes.

gonads

The main parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the

granular cells and macula densa.

Sympathetic stimulation causes

granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction

When a cell's genetic content is designated as 1n, the cell is said to be _________.

haploid

The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are

haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.

Generally, a very _______ percent of Na+ in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place _________.

high; along the entire tubule

In general, the greater the surface area of the skin, the ________ the basal metabolic rate.

higher

Blood pressure in the glomerulus is _______ than in other capillaries due to the relatively large diameter of ________ arterioles.

higher; afferent

Normal urine has a specific gravity that is ________ than the specific gravity of pure water; dehydration leads to a __________ in the specific gravity of urine.

higher; increase

Blood pressure in the glomerulus is _______ than in other capillaries due to the relatively large diameter of ________ arterioles.

higher; afferent

Normal urine has a specific gravity that is ________ than the specific gravity of pure water; dehydration leads to a __________ in the specific gravity of urine.

higher; increase

Capacitation lasts several ________ and involves removal of ___________.

hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm

Pregnancy tests often involve checking the urine for the presence of

human chorionic gonadotropin.

The hormone that signals that fertilization and implantation have taken place is

human chorionic gonadotropin.

One reason that pregnant women's metabolic rates change is that the placenta secretes

human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate.

Defensins and lysosomes are both part of ________ immunity and function as ___________.

innate; attackers of pathogenic cells

The amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inspiration is the

inspiratory reserve volume

Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) is the greatest amount of air that can be

inspired and then expelled in 1 minute.

Often a virus-infected cell will release _________ to prevent spread of the infection.

interferon

Immediately before blood enters arterioles of the kidney, it travels through small arteries that project peripherally into the renal cortex. These arteries are the

interlobular arteries.

Contraction of these muscles depresses the ribs, but only during forced exhalation.

internal intercostals

In men, LH stimulates

interstitial cells to secrete testosterone

Fluid collected in lacteals will be carried in __________ trunks.

intestinal

Fluid located inside the cell is referred to as __ fluid.

intracellular

Which of the following can serve as a protein buffer system?

intracellular proteins, hemoglobin in RBCs, and plasma proteins

The lungs remain inflated because

intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure

Air flows out of the body during expiration because

intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

The myogenic response that occurs within afferent arterioles of the kidney is an __________ control of GFR.

intrinsic

Careful measurements of GFR are made by injection of _______, but approximations of GFR can be made more simply by measuring renal plasma clearance of _________.

inulin; creatinine

Careful measurements of GFR are made by injection of _______, but approximations of GFR can be made more simply by measuring renal plasma clearance of _________.

inulin; creatinine

When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer, that movement is described as

invagination.

Braxton-Hicks contractions tend to be

irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes.

The hilum of the lung

is an indented area through which the bronchi, pulmonary vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves pass.

Renal plasma clearance

is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

Because oxygen has a low solubility coefficient in water,

it is not easily dissolved in water and requires a steep partial pressure gradient to enter the water.

When a chemical messenger has a short half-life, it means that

it will not have an extremely prolonged effect on target cells.

The anatomic features of the respiratory membrane that make alveolar gas exchange so efficient are

its large surface area and minimal thickness.

Renin is released by the _______ apparatus in the kidney

juxtaglomerular

The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size and similar features is known as the

karyotype.

A lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the small intestine is called a(n)

lacteal.

The channels that convey milk from the mammary glands to the nipples are called __________ ducts.

lactiferous

What structure is also known as the "voice box"?

larynx

Increases in weight of the conceptus are largest during the _________ two months of pregnancy.

last

In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located?

left upper quadrant

Compared to breast milk, colostrum contains

less fat but more immunoglobulins.

Because lipids are nonpolar, they must be wrapped by other molecules to be transported through the blood. This combined molecule is known as a ___________.

lipoprotein

The units for measurement of glomerular filtration rate are

liters per minute

The male voice tends to be in a lower range than a female's voice because men havea: more taut vestibular folds.

longer and thicker vocal folds.

Hemoglobin is crucial for oxygen transport in the blood because oxygen has a _______ solubility coefficient in water.

low

Peritubular capillaries tend to exhibit

low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure

Compared to its partial pressure in the atmosphere, oxygen's partial pressure in the alveoli is

lower

Pain from false labor contractions tends to be more localized to the __________ abdomen than that experienced from contractions of true labor.

lower

Respiratory alkalosis occurs when PCO2 levels are ______ than normal.

lower

Substances that are both filtered and reabsorbed have a renal plasma clearance that is _________ than the GFR.

lower

Substances that are both filtered and reabsorbed have a renal plasma clearance that is _________ the GFR.

lower than

The main function of serous fluid is to

lubricate and reduce friction between pleural membranes around the lung.

Progesterone levels are highest during the ________ phase.

luteal

Lymphatic nodules consist of:

lymphatic cells, extracellular matrix, and an incomplete connective tissue capsule.

Another name for a lymphatic follicle is a

lymphatic nodule.

The term "swollen glands" is usually meant to refer to lymph nodes in which

lymphocytes are proliferating in germinal centers

Minerals that must be ingested at levels greater than 100 milligrams per day are referred to as _______ minerals.

major

Which bone does not contain a paranasal sinus?

mandible

Opsonization involves

marking a target for phagocytosis, and it is facilitated by interaction of the Fc region of the antibody with a phagocyte.

Which cells resemble basophils and are found in connective tissue, close to small blood vessels?

mast cells

The volume of the antrum is largest in a __________ follicle.

mature

An air passage (valley) beneath a turbinate within the nasal cavity is referred to as a

meatus

Which part of a thymic lobule contains mature lymphocytes?

medulla

The nephron loop makes a hairpin turn within the ________ and its ________ limb ends at the distal convoluted tubule.

medulla; ascending

The nephron loop makes a hairpin turn within the ________ and its ________ limb ends at the distal convoluted tubule.

medulla; ascending

When central chemoreceptors detect a drop in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid,

medullary respiratory centers trigger an increase in rate and depth of breathing.

During pregnancy, a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of

melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.

The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the __________.

mesoderm

The uterine tubes are covered and suspended by a superior portion of the broad ligament called the _________________.

mesosalpinx

The water in the body produced from aerobic cellular respiration is referred to as __ water

metabolic

A secondary oocyte arrests in

metaphase II.

Urine passes from the renal papilla into a

minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis.

The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the

minor calyx.

Cleavage involves a series of ________ divisions and __________ in the overall size of the conceptus.

mitotic; no change

Dendritic cells of the skin are derived from

monocytes.

The secondary response of the immune system to an infectious agent involves

more cells than the antigen challenge, due to the proliferation of memory cells.

At the 16-cell stage, the conceptus is known as a(n)

morula.

Compared to other types of lipoproteins, very-low-density lipoproteins contain the _______ lipid.

most

As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus, they are

naive and immunocompetent

Which region(s) of the pharynx is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium?

nasopharynx

The hymen is located

near the vaginal orifice.

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located

near the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle.

When they leave the red marrow, pre-T-lymphocytes have

neither the CD4 and CD8 proteins.

The countercurrent multiplier is a system by which the

nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla.

Inflammation is a(n)

nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.

Typically, at the moment a full-term baby is born, the child's lungs are

not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds.

The structure of the mesoderm that induces formation of the neural tube is the

notochord.

_______ include organic molecules, vitamins, and minerals that the body needs for growth and maintenance.

nutrients

__________ is the study of the means by which living organisms both obtain and utilize the nutrients they need to grow and sustain life.

nutrition

_______ water loss always occurs regardless of the hydration status of the organis

obligatory

Antigen presentation involves the display of an antigen

on the surface of a cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.

Typically, a hilum of a lymph node contains

one efferent lymphatic vessel

The external os is the

opening of the cervix into the vagina

Lymphatic capillaries

originate as closed-ended tubes associated with blood capillary networks.

The primary mechanism of water reabsorption in the kidney is

osmosis through aquaporins.

In response to low blood ________, the kidneys secrete __________.

oxygen; erythropoietin

In response to low blood ________, the kidneys secrete __________.

oxygen; erythropoietin

Bronchial arteries carry _________ blood to the tissues of the lung.

oxygenated

The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is

oxytocin

Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone __________ stimulates _________ cells to contract.

oxytocin; myoepithelial

The beginning of labor involves increased production of ________ from the fetal hypothalamus, resulting in secretion of _________ by the placenta.

oxytocin; prostaglandins

The concentration of hydrogen ions in body fluid is called __________.

pH

acid-base balance is also called

pH balance

During development, the __________ ducts form the female duct system.

paramesonephric

The ___________ nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of __________.

parasympathetic, nitric oxide

On each side of the chest, the _________ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the __________ pleura tightly covers the lung.

parietal; visceral

Someone with the genotype associated with hereditary pancreatitis might not show symptoms of the disorder because the disorder does not have a _________ level of 100%.

penetrance

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by releasing

perforin and granzymes.

The carotid bodies contain _________ chemoreceptors that respond to changes in ________________.

peripheral; blood concentrations of H+ and O2

Cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the _________ edge of the cortex and are the ______ common type of nephron.

peripheral; more

Cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the _________ edge of the cortex and are the ______ common type of nephron.

peripheral; more

The trophoblast is located at the

periphery of the blastocyst.

Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by

peristalsis of the ureters.

During orgasm, the ductus deferens undergoes

peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.

The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's

phenotypic sex.

which of the following ions serves as the primary intracellular buffer against pH changes

phosphate

A buildup of fluid in the lungs caused by pneumonia leads to an increase in the

physiologic dead space.

Proteins that are recaptured from tubular fluid are transported into the luminal membrane by way of

pinocytosis

Proteins that are recaptured from tubular fluid are transported into the luminal membrane by way of

pinocytosis.

In the ECF, the blood _____ has a higher concentration of protein than the interstitial fluid.

plasma

The basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and proteoglycans, and it restricts the passage of _________.

plasma proteins

"Complement" refers to a group of

plasma proteins.

Suppose that following an automobile accident, a broken rib penetrates into the pleural cavity, causing air to accumulate in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura. This condition is known as a

pneumothorax.

Alveoli abut each other, causing them to appear _________ in cross section.

polygonal

A normal respiratory rate is 12-16 breaths per minute. A sustained rate of 40-50 breaths per minute could cause __________.

respiratory alkalosis

The thoracic duct collects lymph from all of the following except the

right arm

Which of the two lungs is larger and wider?

right lung

Which lymphatic organ contains red pulp and white pulp?

spleen

Within the red pulp of the spleen are enlarged capillaries called _________, which have a discontinuous basal lamina that allows blood cells to enter and exit easily.

splenic sinusoids

Vaccines are effective because they

stimulate the development of immunologic memory.

Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that __________ synthesis of Na+/K+ pumps and Na+ channels in principal cells of kidney tubules.

stimulates

At the start of gastrulation, a long, thin depression known as the primitive __________ forms on the surface of the epiblast.

streak

In pregnant women, the high levels of estrogen and progesterone secretion seem to lead to

stronger nails and fuller hair.

The terms "upper respiratory system" and "lower respiratory system" are ___________ categorizations of the respiratory system.

structural

The thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct empty lymph into the

subclavian veins.

The _______________ cells support, nourish, and protect developing sperm cells.

sustentacular

Anti-Mullerian hormone is sectreted by

sustentacular cells

Developing sperm cells are protected by a blood-testis barrier formed by

sustentacular cells.

Pain from the kidneys is usually referred by way of the:

sympathetic pathways to the T10-T12 dermatomes.

The process that occurs during prophase I, during which tetrads are formed, is known as ________.

synapsis

Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted from cells of the

syncytiotrophoblast.

The outer layer of the trophoblast that burrows into the lining of the uterus is the

syncytiotrophoblast.

Substances that can cause birth defects or the death of the embryo are referred to as __________.

teratogens

When homologous replicated chromosomes pair up during meiosis, they form a

tetrad

The pre-embryonic period ends when

the blastocyst implants in the uterus.

A reduction division is one in which

the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.

Menarche is

the first menstrual period

The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with

the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.

As blood travels through a systemic capillary and exchanges gases with systemic cells,

the partial pressure of oxygen in blood decreases as it goes from arterioles to venules.

The renal threshold of a substance refers to

the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine

In order to accommodate the large liver,

the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

During menopause, the vaginal wall becomes ________, and hormonal changes lead to ________ risk of heart disease.

thinner; increased

Immunity can be transferred from mother to child. When the child's immunity is acquired

through the placenta or through breastmilk, it is passive immunity.

Where do T-lymphocytes mature?

thymus gland

Lymphatic capillaries originate in the

tissue spaces between cells

If someone at sea level is given pure oxygen to breathe, it would cause the oxygen saturation of their hemoglobin

to increase by only a tiny amount.

The term "primary lymphatic structure" applies

to the red bone marrow and thymus.

What structure connects the larynx to the primary bronchi?

trachea

The largest possible amount of a substance that can be reabsorbed or secreted across a kidney tubule wall in a given duration of time is known as the

transport maximum

The largest possible amount of a substance that can be reabsorbed or secreted across a kidney tubule wall in a given duration of time is known as the

transport maximum.

The process that involves the fusion of the two sides of the embryonic disc at a newly formed midline, thereby creating a cylindrical embryo is __________ folding.

transverse

Age, sex, hormone levels, and stress all influence basal metabolic rate.

true

Cholesterol is a required component of cell membranes.

true

Cholesterol is both acquired through the diet and synthesized in the body.

true

Food labels are required by law to include the amount of cholesterol in each serving.

true

Individuals who consume excess carbohydrates can deposit additional triglycerides into their adipose tissue.

true

Low dietary intake of cholesterol triggers cholesterol synthesis within the liver to increase.

true

One of the products of tryglyceride breakdown is glycerol; glycerol enters the cellular respiration pathway by being converted to glucose (in the liver) and then undergoing glycolysis.

true

One of the ultimate effects of insulin is to stimulate protein synthesis within cells of the body.

true

Protein is a macronutrient.

true

Recommended daily allowances are government-established values for nutrient intake that are used for food planning and labeling.

true

Some amino acids can be synthesized by the body. Such an amino acid would be classified as a nonessential nutrient.

true

Tea can serve as a source of manganese.

true

The liver absorbs bilirubin and eliminates it as part of bile.

true

The liver is involved in the metabolism of each of the three major nutrient biomolecules.

true

The liver serves as a storage site for vitamin A and vitamin D.

true

Thyroid hormone increases metabolic rate.

true

Vegetable oils and fish oils are dietary sources of triglycerides. T/F

true

Fluid contained within the lumen of a nephron loop is called

tubular fluid

The active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called

tubular secretion

The active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called

tubular secretion.

Someone with a diet that is high in vegetables but low in animal protein is likely to have very active

type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+.

By the 4th month of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is located inches below the ________ and by the ninth month it is located at the level of the ____________.

umbilicus; xiphoid process

Subclavian trunks drain lymph from the

upper limbs, breasts, and superficial thorax.

The ___________ transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

ureters

Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste product produced from nucleic acid breakdown in the liver?

uric acid

During fetal development, the vagina forms from the _________ sinus.

urogenital

The perineum consists of an anterior

urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle

Which is not a uterine function?

usual site of fertilization

What fibromuscular structure is about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal?

vagina

Frostbite results from peripheral _________ due to exposure to cold temperatures.

vasoconstriction

If there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive

vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

Because lymphatic vessels have three tunics (intima, media, and externa) and valves, they structurally resemble - ?

veins

The region of the nasal cavity immediately internal to the nostrils is the _________; it contains coarse guard hairs.

vestibule

Podocytes are cells with foot-like processes called pedicels. Podocytes are found in the

visceral layer of the glomerular capsule.

Carbonic acid is a _______ acid

volatile

a chemical buffering system is composed of which of the following

weak acid weak base

Match the components of the bicarbonate buffer system:

weak acid --> H2CO3 weak base --> HCO3-

Implantation usually begins at about the end of the first ________ of development.

week

Teratogens are most damaging to organ systems if exposure to them occurs

when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo.

B-lymphocytes are

white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow

Late in pregnancy, levels of estrogen and oxytocin rise. A. True B. False

A. True

True/False: Lymph contains red blood cells.

False

The presence of proteins in the plasma tends to

draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

Braxton-Hicks contractions are those that occur

during false labor.

Food is normally prevented from entering the nasopharynx by the

elevation of the soft palate.

Gastrulation results in the formation of a(n)

embryo.

The third through eighth weeks of development are known as the ___________ period.

embryonic

Fimbriae

enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.

The primary germ layer that takes the place of the hypoblast is the

endoderm.

The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the

endometrium.

*Which is not part of the vulva?

*vagina

Which of the following can cause respiratory acidosis?

- Airway obstruction - Emphysema - Pulmonary edema

The physiological roles of phosphate include which of the following?

- Component of phospholipids -With Ca2+, hardening of extracellular matrix

c

"Segmentation" within the small intestine refers to the a: propulsion of material between the segments of the GI tract. b: division of function between the different segments of the small intestine. c: back-and-forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions. d: gastroileal reflex that moves materials from the stomach to the large intestine.

&Lymphatic capillaries

&lack a basement membrane.

*Which of the following choices lists structures in the order in which urine flows through them?

*Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis

*Into what region of the pharynx do auditory tubes open?

*Nasopharynx

*Which of these male reproductive structures is unpaired (meaning there is only one in the body)?

*Prostate gland

*Interferons are one of the classes of

*cytokines.

*Which is not a function of the spleen?

*filters lymph

*Although pregnancies are highly variable, morning sickness is most commonly experienced in the ________ trimester.

*first

*What connects the pharynx to the trachea?

*larynx

*Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured _____ follicle.

*mature

*Which type of cell attacks a variety of unwanted cells and causes those cells to undergo apoptosis?

*natural killer cells

*Most activated B-lymphocytes differentiate into

*plasma cells

*Although pregnancy sometimes results in frequent urination, the one trimester when this tends to be not as problematic is the

*second

Lateral plate mesoderm gives rise to most of the components of the cardiovascular system. A. True B. False

A. True

Which pathogen (within the mother) is most likely to be transmitted across the placenta?

A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

B. two-thirds of the total fluid is within our cells and one-third is outside our cells.

A comparison of the two major body fluid compartments reveals that: A. two-thirds of the total fluid is outside our cells and one-third is within our cells. B. two-thirds of the total fluid is within our cells and one-third is outside our cells. C. half of the total fluid is within our cells and half is outside our cells. D. six-sevenths of the total fluid is within our cells and one-seventh is outside our cells. E. six-sevenths of the total fluid is outside our cells and one-seventh is within our cells.

C. fixed acid

A diet richer in animal proteins leads to blood with more: A. volatile acid. B. bicarbonate ions. C. fixed acid.

You may have noticed that after a large meal you have had some difficulty breathing. Which explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation?

A full stomach impedes contraction of the diaphragm, limiting inhalation.

b

A sphincter is a a: thickening of the longitudinal layer of the muscularis that propels materials through the GI tract. b: thickening of the circular layer of the muscularis that controls movement of materials through the GI tract. c: fold of the mucosa of the GI tract that increases the total surface area for absorption of nutrients. d: circle of adventitia that anchors the GI tract to neighboring structures.

Pregnancy increases a woman's risk of urinary tract infection. A. True B. False

A. True

Presence of hCG in a woman's urine indicates that she is pregnant. A. True B. False

A. True

How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

A. 1

The average adult kidney weighs about 100 grams and measures about A. 12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick. B. 8 cm long, 4 cm wide, and 1.5 cm thick. C. 15 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 4.5 cm thick. D. 8 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick. E. 12 cm long, 2.5 cm wide, and 8 cm thick.

A. 12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick.

Mendelian inheritance specifies that if two heterozygous individuals mate, the chances that a child would be homozygous for the recessive allele would be A. 25%. B. 50%. C. 75%. D. impossible to predict.

A. 25%.

The external genitalia do not become clearly differentiated until about week ____ of development. A. 6 B. 12 C. 20 D. 32 E. 38

A. 6

A deficiency in vitamin _____ may result in night blindness as well as dry, flaky skin. A. A B. B12 C. C D. D E. E

A. A

The visual pigment rhodopsin contains retinal, which is synthesized from its vitamin ____ precursor. A. A B. B12 C. C D. D E. E

A. A

Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions? A. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction. B. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins inhibit uterine contraction. C. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, but prostaglandins inhibit them. D. Prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions, but oxytocin inhibits them.

A. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction.

Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions? A. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction. B. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins inhibit uterine contraction. C. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, but prostaglandins inhibit them. D. Prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions, but oxytocin inhibits them.

A. Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction.

Which type of food do women suffering from morning sickness generally prefer? A. Carbohydrate-rich foods B. Protein-rich foods

A. Carbohydrate-rich foods

Approximately when in development does the bilaminar germinal disc begins to form? A. Day 8 B. Day 32 C. Week 8 D. Week 24

A. Day 8

Approximately when in development does the bilaminar germinal disc begins to form? A. Day 8 B. Day 32 C. Week 8 D. Week 24

A. Day 8

The second signal during B-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation from

IL-4 released by helper T-lymphocytes.

Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature? A. Epididymis B. Rete testis C. Ductus deferens D. Seminiferous tubules E. Efferent ductules

A. Epididymis

Which type of vitamins will be absorbed from the intestine into lacteals (lymphatic capillaries)? A. Fat-soluble B. Water-soluble

A. Fat-soluble

If the filtration membrane were made more porous, how would you expect the glomerular filtration rate to change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No change

A. Increase

MALT is found in which layer of the wall of a hollow organ?

Lamina propria

What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle, beginning with day 1? A. Menstrual - proliferative - secretory B. Proliferative - secretory - menstrual C. Secretory - proliferative - menstrual D. Menstrual - secretory - proliferative E. Proliferative - menstrual - secretory

A. Menstrual - proliferative - secretory

Which of the following is true? A. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm. B. Seminal fluid is composed of semen and sperm. C. Sperm are composed of seminal fluid within a cell membrane. D. The three ingredients of ejaculate are sperm, semen, and prostate-specific antigen.

A. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.

Which gland secretes a fluid containing fructose? A. Seminal vesicle B. Bulbourethral gland C. Vestibular gland D. Prostate gland E. Urethral gland

A. Seminal vesicle

Which type of gamete remains viable for a longer time after it enters the female reproductive tract? A. Sperm B. Egg

A. Sperm

Which is the larger of the sex chromosomes and is more commonly involved in sex-linked inheritance? A. The X chromosome B. The Y chromosome

A. The X chromosome

Cells within the embryoblast have the ability to differentiate into any type of cell within the body. A. True B. False

A. True

Increased levels of estrogen, progesterone, and corticosteroids result in increased insulin resistance during preganancy. A. True B. False

A. True

Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the A. amnion and embryonic disc. B. yolk sac.

A. amnion and embryonic disc.

Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the A. amnion and embryonic disc. B. yolk sac.

A. amnion and embryonic disc.

The ejaculatory duct is formed by the A. ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle. B. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland. C. ampulla and the distal portions of the bulbourethral glands. D. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. E. ampulla and the prostatic urethra.

A. ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle.

In response to decreases in body temperature, the brain signals the A. anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone. B. anterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone. C. posterior pituitary to release thyroid-releasing hormone. D. posterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone.

A. anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone.

Disaccharides are one type of A. carbohydrate. B. starch. C. lipid. D. essential amino acid. E. triglyceride.

A. carbohydrate

In females, the genital tubercle forms the A. clitoris. B. vagina. C. labia majora. D. labia minora. E. uterus.

A. clitoris.

Stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to A. contract. B. relax. C. release calcitriol. D. increase endocytosis.

A. contract.

The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with a A. cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area. B. simple columnar epithelium with a slick smooth surface. C. stratified squamous epithelium with a large surface area. D. stratified squamous epithelium with a tough, durable surface. E. simple squamous endothelium that makes a slick surface.

A. cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area.

The fibrous capsule of the kidney is composed of A. dense irregular connective tissue. B. adipose connective tissue. C. reticular connective tissue. D. smooth muscle fibers.

A. dense irregular connective tissue.

The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the _____ muscle. A. detrusor B. trigone C. extrusor D. extrinsic

A. detrusor

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are A. fat-soluble. B. water-soluble.

A. fat-soluble.

The endothelium of the glomerulus is made up of _________ capillaries. A. fenestrated B. continuous

A. fenestrated

From innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the A. fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. B. renal corpuscle, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. C. renal fascia, paranephric fat, renal corpuscle, perinephric fat. D. renal fascia, perinephric fat, fibrous capsule, paranephric fat. E. fibrous capsule, paranephric fat, renal fascia, perinephric fat.

A. fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat.

In the process of urine formation, first A. filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine. B. tubular fluid is formed, then filtrate, then urine.

A. filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine.

Although pregnancies are highly variable, morning sickness is most commonly experienced in the ________ trimester. A. first B. second C. third

A. first

Although pregnancies are highly variable, morning sickness is most commonly experienced in the ________ trimester. A. first B. second C. third

A. first

The trimester during which an embryo becomes a fetus is the _________ trimester. A. first B. second C. third

A. first

The trimester during which an embryo becomes a fetus is the _________ trimester. A. first B. second C. third

A. first

In general, the greater the surface area of the skin, the ________ the basal metabolic rate. A. higher B. lower

A. higher

Blood pressure in the glomerulus is _______ than in other capillaries due to the relatively large diameter of ________ arterioles. A. higher; afferent B. higher; efferent C. lower; afferent D. lower; efferent

A. higher; afferent

Normal urine has a specific gravity that is ________ than the specific gravity of pure water; dehydration leads to a __________ in the specific gravity of urine. A. higher; increase B. higher; decrease C. lower; decrease D. lower; increase

A. higher; increase

In response to the increased availability of nutrients during the absorptive state, liver and muscle A. increase glycogenesis. B. increase gluconeogenesis. C. decrease amino acid uptake. D. All of the choices are correct.

A. increase glycogenesis.

Stretching of the cervix causes oxytocin secretion to A. increase. B. decrease.

A. increase.

Dehydration results in A. increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption. B. increased ADH secretion and decreased water reabsorption. C. decreased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption. D. decreased ADH secretion and decreased water reabsorption.

A. increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption.

The myogenic response that occurs within afferent arterioles of the kidney is an __________ control of GFR. A. intrinsic B. extrinsic

A. intrinsic

The place on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is its A. locus. B. phenotype. C. karyotype. D. genotype. E. linkage.

A. locus.

Calcium, chloride, and cobalt are all examples of _______ minerals. A. major B. trace C. fat-soluble D. nonessential

A. major

The countercurrent multiplier is a system by which the A. nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla. B. nephron loop dilutes the concentration of solutes in the tubular fluid at its hairpin turn. C. vasa recta secretes multiple amounts of metabolic wastes against their concentration gradient. D. vasa recta becomes more concentrated with nitrogenous wastes than the urine.

A. nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla.

The external os is the A. opening of the cervix into the vagina. B. inferior portion of the central cavity. C. bone that supports the uterus during pregnancy. D. uterine tube attachment site. E. primary suspensory ligament for the uterus.

A. opening of the cervix into the vagina.

The trophoblast is located at the A. periphery of the blastocyst. B. center of the blastocyst. C. periphery of the morula. D. center of the morula. E. center of the embryoblast.

A. periphery of the blastocyst.

The trophoblast is located at the A. periphery of the blastocyst. B. center of the blastocyst. C. periphery of the morula. D. center of the morula. E. center of the embryoblast.

A. periphery of the blastocyst.

Interphase occurs A. prior to meiosis. B. between meiosis I and meiosis II. C. between anaphase I and telophase I. D. between prophase I and prophase II. E. between telophase II and cytokinesis.

A. prior to meiosis.

Throughout childhood, primary oocytes are arrested in A. prophase I. B. anaphase I. C. prophase II. D. metaphase II. E. metaphase I.

A. prophase I.

The rete testis A. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules. B. is the nerve plexus that supplies the testis. C. is a venous network that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis. D. transports seminal fluid to the efferent ductules. E. is the site of spermiogenesis.

A. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules.

In males, the labioscrotal swellings form the A. scrotum. B. scrotum and testes. C. scrotum and root of the penis. D. scrotum and dorsal side of the penis. E. scrotum and ventral side of the penis.

A. scrotum.

Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that __________ synthesis of Na+/K+ pumps and Na+ channels in principal cells of kidney tubules. A. stimulates B. inhibits

A. stimulates

In pregnant women, the high levels of estrogen and progesterone secretion seem to lead to A. stronger nails and fuller hair. B. weaker nails and thinner hair.

A. stronger nails and fuller hair.

In pregnant women, the high levels of estrogen and progesterone secretion seem to lead to A. stronger nails and fuller hair. B. weaker nails and thinner hair.

A. stronger nails and fuller hair.

The ___________ transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. A. ureters B. urethras C. vas deferens and uterine tubes D. efferent arteries

A. ureters

Frostbite results from peripheral _________ due to exposure to cold temperatures. A. vasoconstriction B. vasodilation

A. vasoconstriction

An increase in which of the following would ultimately or directly result in a decrease in fluid output by the kidneys?

ADH, Aldosterone, Renin

Paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone ________ is present.

AMH

Which accurately describes the handling of urea by the kidney?

About half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine.

Patients with a COPD, such as chronic bronchitis, cannot fully exhale causing their CO2 levels to increase. Because of this they are often in a state of respiratory ________.

Acidosis

if your arterial blood pH drops below 7.35 you are said to be in a state of physiological _____________

Acidosis

A. metabolic water intake

Aerobic cellular respiration and dehydration synthesis reactions result in: A. metabolic water intake. B. preformed water intake. C. insensible water output. D. preformed water output. E. obligatory water output.

B.

Aldosterone causes kidney tubules to: A. reabsorb more sodium, water, and potassium. B. reabsorb more sodium and water, and secrete more potassium. C. reabsorb more sodium, and secret more water and potassium. D. secrete more sodium, water, and potassium. E. secrete more sodium and reabsorb more potassium.

C. increased numbers of Na+/K+ pumps.

Aldosterone exerts effects on principal cells of the kidney by causing: A. increased levels of cAMP and increases in the total number ofNa+ channels. B. decreased levels of cAMP and decreases in the number of open K+ channels. C. increased numbers of Na+/K+ pumps. D. decreased numbers of Na+/K+ pumps.

Micturition

All of the choices are correct. - Is another name for urination. - Is a reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the urinary bladder. - Requires the opening of two sphincters. - Requires contraction of the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder.

The gonads

All of the choices are correct. -Are the male testes and female ovaries. -Secrete sex hormones. -Produce gametes. -Are dormant until puberty.

Which is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system?

Alveoli

What thin membrane, continuous with the epiblast layer, secretes fluid to bathe the embryo?

Amnion

starch

Amylase from saliva digests

c

An enzyme found within saliva is salivary a; pancreatase. b: nuclease. c: amylase. d: protease. e: pepsin.

c

An increased secretion of watery saliva will result when the a: basal nuclei of the brainstem activate sympathetic pathways to salivary glands. b: basal nuclei of the cerebrum activate somatic pathways to salivary glands. c: salivary nuclei of the brainstem activate parasympathetic pathways to salivary glands. d: salivary nuclei of the cerebrum activate sympathetic pathways to salivary glands. e: glossopharyngeal nuclei of the pons activate somatic and sympathetic pathways to the salivary glands.

B. alkalosis

An individual who consumes many antacids for stomach upset and many diuretics for high blood pressure will be at risk for metabolic: A. acidosis. B. alkalosis.

b

An organ that helps break down food but is not part of the tube through which the foodstuffs pass is referred to as a(n) a: chemically digesting organ. b: accessory digestive organ. c: alimentary canal organ. d: diffuse ingestive structure. e: organ of mastication.

A. stimulation of the thirst center and increased release of ADH.

Angiotensin II causes a(n): A. stimulation of the thirst center and increased release of ADH. B. stimulation of the thirst center and decreased release of ADH. C. inhibition of the thirst center and increased release of ADH. D. inhibition of the thirst center and decreased release of ADH.

B. vasoconstriction and decreased urine output from the kidneys.

Angiotensin II triggers: A. vasoconstriction and increased urine output from the kidneys. B. vasoconstriction and decreased urine output from the kidneys. C. vasodilation and increased urine output from the kidneys. D. vasodilation and decreased urine output from the kidneys.

To prepare for the strain of labor and delivery, female reproductive hormones cause ligaments of pelvic joints to tighten. A. True B. False

B. False

When pregnant, a woman has an increased sensitivity to the hormone angiotensin. A. True B. False

B. False

What are considered the effectors of humoral immunity?

Antibodies

Hormones that play a major role in homeostatic regulation of both electrolytes and fluids include:

Antidiuretic hormone Angiotensin II Aldosterone

C. hypothalamus, posterior pituitary

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesized in the _________ and released from the _________. A. anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary B. anterior pituitary, hypothalamus C. hypothalamus, posterior pituitary D. hypothalamus, anterior pituitary

c

As a protein is broken down into smaller and smaller fragments, each fragment ultimately requires splitting of the last peptide bond within it. The breaking of the bond between those last two amino acids is catalyzed by the enzyme a: pepsin. b: chymotrypsin. c: dipeptidase. d: trypsin. e: glucoamylase.

A. Infancy

At which stage of life is the percentage of fluid in the human body highest? A. Infancy B. Childhood C. Middle age D. Advanced age

D. dilation, relaxation

Atrial natriuretic peptide causes __________ of afferent arterioles and _________ of mesangial cells. A. constriction, contraction B. constriction, relaxation C. dilation, contraction D. dilation, relaxation

After childbirth, lochia lasts for A. 3-4 days. B. 2-3 weeks. C. 3-5 months.

B. 2-3 weeks.

After childbirth, lochia lasts for A. 3-4 days. B. 2-3 weeks. C. 3-5 months.

B. 2-3 weeks.

A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes. A. 12 B. 23 C. 46 D. 92 E. 2

B. 23

The second trimester of a pregnancy includes months A. 2-5 B. 4-6 C. 5-7 D. 5-9

B. 4-6

The second trimester of a pregnancy includes months A. 2-5 B. 4-6 C. 5-7 D. 5-9

B. 4-6

Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks A. 1-2 of development, before the placenta is fully formed. B. 4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development. C. 12-16 of development, when limbs have formed but are not fully mature. D. 24-28 of development, when plasticity of surrounding tissues has been lost.

B. 4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development.

Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks A. 1-2 of development, before the placenta is fully formed. B. 4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development. C. 12-16 of development, when limbs have formed but are not fully mature. D. 24-28 of development, when plasticity of surrounding tissues has been lost.

B. 4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development.

An adult human kidney typically contains ______ renal pyramid(s). A. 2 to 5 B. 8 to 15 C. 16 to 24 D. 1 E. 30 to 40

B. 8 to 15

Which accurately describes the handling of urea by the kidney? A. All of the urea that reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine. B. About half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine. C. None of the urea that reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine.

B. About half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine.

What thin membrane, continuous with the epiblast layer, secretes fluid to bathe the embryo? A. Chorion B. Amnion C. Yolk sac D. Corona radiata

B. Amnion

What thin membrane, continuous with the epiblast layer, secretes fluid to bathe the embryo? A. Chorion B. Amnion C. Yolk sac D. Corona radiata

B. Amnion

Which statement accurately describes the flow of blood through sinusoids of the liver? A. Blood flows within the sinusoids away from the central blood vessel. B. Blood flows within the sinusoids toward the central blood vessel. C. Some sinusoids contain blood flowing toward the center of the lobule, other sinusoids contain blood flowing away from the center of the lobule. D. Blood and bile mix within the sinusoids and flow toward larger and larger bile ducts.

B. Blood flows within the sinusoids toward the central blood vessel.

Which stage would you expect to take the longest time? A. Dilation stage of labor of a parous woman B. Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman C. Expulsion stage of labor of a parous woman D. Expulsion stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

B. Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

Which stage would you expect to take the longest time? A. Dilation stage of labor of a parous woman B. Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman C. Expulsion stage of labor of a parous woman D. Expulsion stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

B. Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

Which structure develops directly into a bilaminar germinal disc? A. Trophoblast B. Embryoblast C. Morula D. Cytotrophoblast

B. Embryoblast

Which structure develops directly into a bilaminar germinal disc? A. Trophoblast B. Embryoblast C. Morula D. Cytotrophoblast

B. Embryoblast

Blood cells and antibodies pass freely across the placenta. A. True B. False

B. False

Breast milk contains large amounts of vitamin D. A. True B. False

B. False

Breastfeeding prolongs the duration of time it takes for the uterus to shrink to its pre-pregnancy size. A. True B. False

B. False

During pregnancy, the levels of CRH and aldosterone within a mother's blood decline. A. True B. False

B. False

Human chorionic gonadotropin stimulates the degeneration of the corpus luteum. A. True B. False

B. False

Neonates will take their first breath only after umbilical cord vessels have been clamped. A. True B. False

B. False

Polyspermy results in the production of monozygotic twins. A. True B. False

B. False

Progesterone makes the uterine myometrium more irritable. A. True B. False

B. False

Shortly after birth the pressure within the right side of the heart rises. A. True B. False

B. False

Sickle-cell disease exhibits strict dominant-recessive inheritance. A. True B. False

B. False

The process of organogenesis begins in the fetal period. A. True B. False

B. False

Which processes does urea undergo within the kidney? A. It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted. B. It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted. C. It is filtered and can also be secreted but not reabsorbed. D. It is not filtered nor reabsorbed but can be secreted. E. It is not filtered but can be secreted and reabsorbed.

B. It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted.

Which class of nephron is crucially important in establishing a salt concentration gradient in the kidney so that urine concentration can be regulated? A. Intercalated nephrons B. Juxtamedullary nephrons C. Adrenal nephrons D. Cortical nephrons

B. Juxtamedullary nephrons

A deficiency in vitamin ______ may lead to bleeding problems. A. A B. K C. D D. E E. C

B. K

What is the correct sequence of organs for the formation and elimination of urine? A. Bladder, urethra, kidney, ureter B. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra C. Kidney, urethra, bladder, ureter D. Kidney, bladder, ureter, urethra E. Urethra, bladder, kidney, ureter

B. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra

How do low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) move into cells? A. LDLs diffuse through channels in the membrane. B. LDLs are engulfed through receptor-mediated endocytosis. C. LDLs diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer. D. LDLs are transported through a pump that is also an ATPase.

B. LDLs are engulfed through receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of A. inhibin. B. LH. C. ovulin. D. estrogen. E. progesterone.

B. LH.

How are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related? A. They both involve movement of material from the blood into the tubular fluid. B. Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood. C. Materials move in opposite directions: secretion moves materials into the blood, whereas reabsorption removes them from the blood. D. They both involve movement of material from the tubular fluid into the blood.

B. Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood.

For glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen, it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a A. glucose uniporter. B. Na+/glucose symporter. C. glucose protein channel. D. Na+/glucose antiporter.

B. Na+/glucose symporter.

Recommended daily allowances were established by the Food and Nutrition board as directed by the A. largest food-producing companies. B. National Academy of Sciences.

B. National Academy of Sciences.

How are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other? A. One collecting duct drains into one nephron, and one nephron drains into one collecting tubule. B. One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct. C. One nephron drains into one collecting duct, and several collecting ducts empty into a collecting tubule. D. One collecting tubule drains into one nephron, and several nephrons drain into one collecting duct. E. One nephron drains into several collecting tubules, and all tubules eventually lead to one collecting duct.

B. One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct.

The expression of the ________ gene results in the production of proteins that stimulate synthesis of androgens that initiate development of a male phenotype. A. MDF B. SRY C. GRH D. YXP

B. SRY

What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor? A. Colostrum B. The fetus C. The placenta and remaining fetal membranes D. Only amniotic fluid

B. The fetus

What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor? A. Colostrum B. The fetus C. The placenta and remaining fetal membranes D. Only amniotic fluid

B. The fetus

Which is not a uterine function? A. Protection and support of developing embryo B. Usual site of fertilization C. Site of implantation D. Muscle contraction for labor and delivery E. Passageway for sperm

B. Usual site of fertilization

What fibromuscular structure is about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal? A. Fallopian tube B. Vagina C. Uterus D. Isthmus

B. Vagina

Which structure is an important site for early blood cell formation and is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to form? A. Amnion B. Yolk sac C. Chorion D. Zona pellucida

B. Yolk sac

Which structure is an important site for early blood cell formation and is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to form? A. Amnion B. Yolk sac C. Chorion D. Zona pellucida

B. Yolk sac

Menarche is A. the first four days of menstruation. B. a female's first menstrual cycle. C. the stage immediately preceding menopause. D. marked by a dramatic decline in androgen secretion. E. the final phase of the uterine cycle.

B. a female's first menstrual cycle.

The uterine enlargement that occurs during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy is mostly the result of A. growth of the conceptus from a zygote to a fetus. B. amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta

B. amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta

The uterine enlargement that occurs during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy is mostly the result of A. growth of the conceptus from a zygote to a fetus. B. amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta.

B. amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta.

Fertilization typically occurs in the _________, and it restores the _________ number of chromosomes. A. ampulla of the uterine tube; haploid B. ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid C. body of the uterus; polyploid D. isthmus of the uterine tube; haploid E. isthmus of the uterine tube; polyploid

B. ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid

Fertilization typically occurs in the _________, and it restores the _________ number of chromosomes. A. ampulla of the uterine tube; haploid B. ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid C. body of the uterus; polyploid D. isthmus of the uterine tube; haploid E. isthmus of the uterine tube; polyploid

B. ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid

Positive nitrogen balance is a condition where A. an individual's nitrogen input is equal to its loss in urine and feces. B. an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted. C. an individual's nitrogen intake is greater than phosphate intake. D. too many proteins are being ingested in the diet. E. a food has a positive effect on blood nitrogen levels.

B. an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted.

Nutrients such as glucose and amino acids within the tubular fluid A. are completely secreted. B. are completely reabsorbed. C. have half of their plasma concentration secreted. D. have a little less than half of their tubular fluid concentration reabsorbed. E. have concentrations in the filtrate and urine that match their transport maximum.

B. are completely reabsorbed.

Recommended daily allowances established by the Food and Nutrition Board are based on A. individual needs and factor in sex, age, and body mass. B. averages obtained from population studies.

B. averages obtained from population studies.

bile canaliculi are located A. within branches of the hepatic artery. B. between cords of hepatocytes. C. adjacent to the central artery of a liver lobule. D. adjacent to the central vein of a liver lobule.

B. between cords of hepatocytes.

Beta oxidation is a step in the synthesis of cholesterol that involves A. closing of a linear fatty acid chain into a steroid loop. B. breakdown of fatty acids into two-carbon units to form acetyl CoA. C. synthesis of bile salts from precursor lipids. D. absorption of micelles from the small intestine.

B. breakdown of fatty acids into two-carbon units to form acetyl CoA.

Lacto-ovo vegetarians do not eat animal flesh, A. nor do they eat milk, eggs, or cheese. B. but do eat milk, eggs, and cheese.

B. but do eat milk, eggs, and cheese.

The structures of the male reproductive tract are a: ductus deferens b: urethra c: epididymis d: ejaculatory duct e: ampulla What is the order in which sperm passes through these structures from the testes to the penis? A. a, b, c, e, d B. c, a, e, d, b C. a, c, e, b, d D. c, a, b, d, e E. d, a, c, e, b

B. c, a, e, d, b

Braxton-Hicks contractions are those that occur A. during premature labor. B. during false labor. C. during true labor. D. in smooth muscle near the uterus. E. with the most painful intensity.

B. during false labor.

A nonessential amino acid is one that A. is not used in any physiological functions. B. can be made within the body. C. has the same structure as one of the other amino acids. D. needs to come from the diet.

B. can be made within the body.

Milk is a source of lactose, which is a A. lipid. B. carbohydrate. C. protein. D. vitamin.

B. carbohydrate.

The future head and buttocks regions of the embryo are facilitated by the process of _____________ folding. A. cleavage B. cephalocaudal C. transverse D. amitotic E. chorionic

B. cephalocaudal

Muscle cramps are associated with a deficiency in A. copper. B. chloride. C. vitamin A. D. monosaccharides.

B. chloride.

The outermost extraembryonic membrane that eventually helps form the placenta is the A. amnion. B. chorion. C. yolk sac. D. hypoblast.

B. chorion.

The outermost extraembryonic membrane that eventually helps form the placenta is the A. amnion. B. chorion. C. yolk sac. D. hypoblast.

B. chorion.

The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as A. amniotic villi. B. chorionic villi. C. amniotic stalks. D. chorionic stalks.

B. chorionic villi.

The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as A. amniotic villi. B. chorionic villi. C. amniotic stalks. D. chorionic stalks.

B. chorionic villi.

Blood type is an example of a trait that demonstrates A. strict Mendelian inheritance. B. codominant inheritance. C. incomplete dominance. D. polygenic dominance. E. sex-linked recessiveness. B

B. codominant inheritance.

Blood type is an example of a trait that demonstrates A. strict Mendelian inheritance. B. codominant inheritance. C. incomplete dominance. D. polygenic dominance. E. sex-linked recessiveness.

B. codominant inheritance.

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney results in A. constriction of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. B. constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus. C. dilation of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. D. dilation of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

B. constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

If more glucose is consumed than is needed, the glucose can be A. converted to an essential amino acid so that protein synthesis can increase . B. converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage. C. broken down to 2 NADH molecules that can enter the citric acid cycle. D. deaminated by the liver and sent to the kidney for excretion in the urine.

B. converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage

After delivering a child, the levels of CRH in the mother's blood A. increase. B. decrease. C. remain the same.

B. decrease.

After delivering a child, the levels of CRH in the mother's blood A. increase. B. decrease. C. remain the same.

B. decrease.

As blood flows through the vasa recta alongside the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the blood is flowing A. toward the cortex. B. deep into the medulla.

B. deep into the medulla.

Upon a newborn's first breath, pulmonary arterioles A. constrict. B. dilate.

B. dilate.

Upon a newborn's first breath, pulmonary arterioles A. constrict. B. dilate.

B. dilate.

A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is A. polyploid. B. diploid. C. haploid. D. monoid.

B. diploid.

In nonpregnant women, ____________ inhibits secretion of substantial amounts of prolactin. A. GnRH B. dopamine C. estrogen D. progesterone

B. dopamine

In nonpregnant women, ____________ inhibits secretion of substantial amounts of prolactin. A. GnRH B. dopamine C. estrogen D. progesterone

B. dopamine

The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from most other capillary networks in the body because they A. carry only deoxygenated blood. B. drain into an arteriole instead of a venule. C. contain no endothelium. D. absorb nutrients from the glomerular capsule. E. secrete mucus.

B. drain into an arteriole instead of a venule.

The presence of proteins in the plasma tends to A. push fluid across the filtration membrane. B. draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

B. draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

Braxton-Hicks contractions are those that occur A. during premature labor. B. during false labor. C. during true labor. D. in smooth muscle near the uterus. E. with the most painful intensity.

B. during false labor.

Gastrulation results in the formation of a(n) A. morula. B. embryo. C. blastocyst. D. trophoblast. E. umbilical cord.

B. embryo.

Gastrulation results in the formation of a(n) A. morula. B. embryo. C. blastocyst. D. trophoblast. E. umbilical cord.

B. embryo.

The primary germ layer that takes the place of the hypoblast is the A. mesoderm. B. endoderm. C. centroderm. D. chorion. E. trophoblast.

B. endoderm.

The primary germ layer that takes the place of the hypoblast is the A. mesoderm. B. endoderm. C. centroderm. D. chorion. E. trophoblast.

B. endoderm.

Mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by A. secreting emulsifying agents that dissolve trapped particles. B. engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane. C. opening larger pores in the membrane so that trapped particles move accross. D. secreting antibodies that attack the molecules caught in the endothelium.

B. engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane.

When fatty acids are metabolized for cellular respiration, the first step involves breaking two carbons off the chain at a time to form acetyl CoA molecules. Acetyl CoA then A. undergoes glycolysis. B. enters the citric acid cycle. C. begins the electron transport chain. D. is converted to pyruvate and lactate.

B. enters the citric acid cycle

During the excitement phase of the female sexual response, the uterus shifts to a more _________ position. A. anteverted B. erect

B. erect

Sympathetic nervous system influences on glomerular filtration rate are considered ________ controls. A. intrinsic B. extrinsic

B. extrinsic

Inhibin is secreted by A. uterine lining cells, and it inhibits development of ovarian follicles. B. follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production. C. the anterior pituitary, and it inhibits GnRH production. D. the posterior pituitary, and it inhibits ovulation. E. hypothalamic cells, and it inhibits LH production.

B. follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.

The absorptive state occurs A. about 12 hours after a meal, when you are sleeping. B. from when you are eating until about 4 hours after the meal.

B. from when you are eating until about 4 hours after the meal.

Net filtration pressure is equal to the A. capsular hydrostatic pressure plus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and the glomerular hydrostatic pressure. B. glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure. C. capsular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and glomerular hydrostatic pressure. D. blood colloid osmotic pressure minus the capsular hydrostatic pressure. E. glomerular hydrostatic pressure plus blood colloid osmotic pressure minus capsular hydrostatic pressure.

B. glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure.

The main parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the A. principal cells and macula densa. B. granular cells and macula densa. C. granular cells and intercalated cells. D. intercalated cells and principal cells. E. principal cells and granular cells.

B. granular cells and macula densa.

Negative nitrogen balance is commonly seen in individuals who A. are pregnant or growing. B. have lost blood or are malnourished.

B. have lost blood or are malnourished.

Generally, a very _______ percent of Na+ in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place _________. A. high; only in the nephron loop B. high; along the entire tubule C. small; only in the nephron loop D. small; along the entire tubule

B. high; along the entire tubule

Capacitation lasts several ________ and involves removal of ___________. A. seconds; lipids from the surface of the egg B. hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm C. days; carbohydrates from the surface of the egg D. weeks; glycolipids from the surface of the sperm

B. hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm

Capacitation lasts several ________ and involves removal of ___________. A. seconds; lipids from the surface of the egg B. hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm C. days; carbohydrates from the surface of the egg D. weeks; glycolipids from the surface of the sperm

B. hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm

During development, the __________ ducts form the female duct system. A. mesonephric B. paramesonephric C. metanephric D. parametanephric E. Wolffian

B. paramesonephric

Pregnancy tests often involve checking the urine for the presence of A. bilirubin from the fetus. B. human chorionic gonadotropin. C. sulfonamides. D. epinephrine and prostaglandin.

B. human chorionic gonadotropin.

The hormone that signals that fertilization and implantation have taken place is A. pluripotent prolactin. B. human chorionic gonadotropin. C. gonadotropin releasing hormone. D. progesterone. E. pre-embryonic pellucida factor.

B. human chorionic gonadotropin.

The hormone that signals that fertilization and implantation have taken place is A. pluripotent prolactin. B. human chorionic gonadotropin. C. gonadotropin releasing hormone. D. progesterone. E. pre-embryonic pellucida factor.

B. human chorionic gonadotropin.

One reason that pregnant women's metabolic rates change is that the placenta secretes A. human chorionic gonadotropin, which stimulates metabolism of glucose and raises metabolic rate. B. human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate. C. human placental lactogen, which stimulates glycolysis and raises metabolic rate. D. human chorionic somatomammotropin, which inhibits fatty acid metabolism and lowers metabolic rate. E. prolactin, which lowers metabolic rate so that nutrients can be stored in milk.

B. human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate.

One reason that pregnant women's metabolic rates change is that the placenta secretes A. human chorionic gonadotropin, which stimulates metabolism of glucose and raises metabolic rate. B. human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate. C. human placental lactogen, which stimulates glycolysis and raises metabolic rate. D. human chorionic somatomammotropin, which inhibits fatty acid metabolism and lowers metabolic rate. E. prolactin, which lowers metabolic rate so that nutrients can be stored in milk.

B. human chorionic thyrotropin, which stimulates the thyroid gland and raises metabolic rate.

Vigorous physical activity causes total metabolic rate to A. increase for the duration of the exercise. B. increase during the exercise and for hours afterwards. C. remain constant. D. decrease to conserve energy during the exercise but increase to repay oxygen debt. E. decrease during the exercise and for hours afterwards.

B. increase during the exercise and for hours afterwards.

As the fetus develops, the mother's glomerular filtration rate A. increases by about 10%. B. increases by about 40%. C. decreases by about 10%. D. decreases by about 40%.

B. increases by about 40%.

As the fetus develops, the mother's glomerular filtration rate A. increases by about 10%. B. increases by about 40%. C. decreases by about 10%. D. decreases by about 40%.

B. increases by about 40%.

When an individual is exposed to cold temperatures, total metabolic rate A. decreases. B. increases. C. remains constant.

B. increases.

Hormonal and neural changes during pregnancy function to facilitate diffusion of gases across the placenta. One way this occurs is by _________ respiration rate, thereby __________ CO2 levels in the blood. A. increasing; raising B. increasing; lowering C. decreasing; raising D. decreasing; lowering

B. increasing; lowering

Hormonal and neural changes during pregnancy function to facilitate diffusion of gases across the placenta. One way this occurs is by _________ respiration rate, thereby __________ CO2 levels in the blood. A. increasing; raising B. increasing; lowering C. decreasing; raising D. decreasing; lowering

B. increasing; lowering

During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta A. stimulate FSH and LH secretion and thereby stimulate ovarian follicle development. B. inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development. C. stimulate GnRH secretion and thereby inhibit overgrowth of the uterus. D. inhibit release of corticotropin-releasing hormone and thereby prevent excessive stress responses.

B. inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development.

During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta A. stimulate FSH and LH secretion and thereby stimulate ovarian follicle development. B. inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development. C. stimulate GnRH secretion and thereby inhibit overgrowth of the uterus. D. inhibit release of corticotropin-releasing hormone and thereby prevent excessive stress responses.

B. inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development.

Insulin causes adipose tissue to A. stimulate lipolysis and inhibit lipogenesis. B. inhibit lipolysis and stimulate lipogenesis. C. stimulate both lipolysis and lipogenesis. D. stimulate lipolysis and gluconeogenesis.

B. inhibit lipolysis and stimulate lipogenesis.

Immediately before blood enters arterioles of the kidney, it travels through small arteries that project peripherally into the renal cortex. These arteries are the A. arcuate arteries. B. interlobular arteries. C. segmental arteries. D. lobar arteries. E. peritubular arteries.

B. interlobular arteries.

In men, LH stimulates A. hypothalamic cells to secrete GnRH. B. interstitial cells to secrete testosterone. C. anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH. D. sustentacular cells to secrete testosterone. E. spermatogenic cells to secrete ABP.

B. interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.

When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer, that movement is described as A. capacitation. B. invagination. C. chemotaxation. D. cleavage.

B. invagination.

When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer, that movement is described as A. capacitation. B. invagination. C. chemotaxation. D. cleavage.

B. invagination.

Pain from false labor contractions tends to be more localized to the __________ abdomen than that experienced from contractions of true labor. A. upper B. lower

B. lower

Pain from false labor contractions tends to be more localized to the __________ abdomen than that experienced from contractions of true labor. A. upper B. lower

B. lower

Urine passes from the renal papilla into a A. major calyx, then to a minor calyx, then to a ureter. B. minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis. C. ureter, then to a minor calyx, then to a major calyx. D. renal pelvis, then to a major calyx, then to a ureter. E. collecting duct, then to a minor calyx, then to a major calyx

B. minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis.

The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the A. renal capsule. B. minor calyx. C. renal pelvis. D. renal sinus. E. renal cortex.

B. minor calyx.

The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the A. renal capsule. B. minor calyx. C. renal pelvis. D. renal sinus. E. renal cortex.

B. minor calyx.

When comparing gamete production in males and females, males produce A. more gametes that are larger in size. B. more gametes that are smaller in size. C. fewer gametes that are larger in size. D. fewer gametes that are smaller in size.

B. more gametes that are smaller in size.

Cofactors such as NADH are found in all cells of the body and are often recycled. Such cofactors are categorized as __________ vitamins. A. essential B. nonessential

B. nonessential

Typically, at the moment a full-term baby is born, the child's lungs are A. fully inflated due to practice respiratory movements in the womb. B. not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds. C. not fully inflated, and will not inflate fully for ten days, when surfactant production begins.

B. not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds.

Typically, at the moment a full-term baby is born, the child's lungs are A. fully inflated due to practice respiratory movements in the womb. B. not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds. C. not fully inflated, and will not inflate fully for ten days, when surfactant production begins.

B. not fully inflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds.

One of the metabolic functions of the liver is transamination, which is conversion of A. NH2 to urea. B. one amino acid form to another. C. amino acid into carbohydrate. D. acetyl CoA to a ketone body.

B. one amino acid form to another.

The primary mechanism of water reabsorption in the kidney is A. primary active transport by means of a protein pump. B. osmosis through aquaporins. C. secondary active transport by means of a sodium-water symporter. D. bulk transport by means of endocytosis.

B. osmosis through aquaporins.

In response to low blood ________, the kidneys secrete __________. A. calcium; renin B. oxygen; erythropoietin C. sodium; calcitriol D. potassium; erythropoietin E. glucose; calcitriol

B. oxygen; erythropoietin

In a mother who has recently delivered a child, afterpains occur when A. dopamine triggers uterine contractions. B. oxytocin triggers uterine contractions. C. estrogen triggers prostaglandin release. D. progesterone inhibits prostaglandin release.

B. oxytocin triggers uterine contractions.

Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone __________ stimulates _________ cells to contract. A. prolactin; mechanoreceptor B. oxytocin; myoepithelial C. estrogen; areolar D. prolactin; mammary acini E. oxytocin; suspensory

B. oxytocin; myoepithelial

Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone __________ stimulates _________ cells to contract. A. prolactin; mechanoreceptor B. oxytocin; myoepithelial C. estrogen; areolar D. prolactin; mammary acini E. oxytocin; suspensory

B. oxytocin; myoepithelial

Someone with the genotype associated with hereditary pancreatitis might not show symptoms of the disorder because the disorder does not have a _________ level of 100%. A. dominance B. penetrance C. polygenicity D. homozygous E. sex-linkage

B. penetrance

Someone with the genotype associated with hereditary pancreatitis might not show symptoms of the disorder because the disorder does not have a _________ level of 100%. A. dominance B. penetrance C. polygenicity D. homozygous E. sex-linkage

B. penetrance

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are associated with the tranport of lipid from the A. liver to periperal tissues. B. peripheral tissues to the liver.

B. peripheral tissues to the liver.

During orgasm, the ductus deferens undergoes A. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder relaxes. B. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts. C. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter contracts. D. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter becomes engorged with blood.

B. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.

Proteins that are recaptured from tubular fluid are transported into the luminal membrane by way of A. diffusion. B. pinocytosis. C. secondary active transport with a symporter. D. primary active transport with a protein pump. E. facilitated diffusion with a carrier.

B. pinocytosis.

In a female infant, the ovaries contain A. primordial oocytes within primordial follicles. B. primary oocytes within primordial follicles. C. primordial oocytes within secondary follicles. D. primary oocytes within corpora lutea. E. primordial oocytes within corpora albicans.

B. primary oocytes within primordial follicles.

Growth of the functional layer and prevention of menstruation during pregnancy are brought about by secretion of A. relaxin. B. progesterone. C. cortisol. D. human chorionic thyrotropin. E. human placental lactogen.

B. progesterone.

Growth of the functional layer and prevention of menstruation during pregnancy are brought about by secretion of A. relaxin. B. progesterone. C. cortisol. D. human chorionic thyrotropin. E. human placental lactogen.

B. progesterone.

Most tubular reabsorption occurs in the A. proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many flagella. B. proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli. C. distal convoluted tubule, where cells have many flagella. D. distal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli.

B. proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli.

The anterior border to the perineum is the A. anus. B. pubic symphysis. C. ischial tuberosity. D. bulbospongiosus muscle.

B. pubic symphysis.

The ridge that is visible externally along the midline of the scrotum is called the A. septum. B. raphe. C. perineum. D. tunica albuginea. E. scrotal cord.

B. raphe.

The changes that occur in a woman's body at menopause are due to A. atrophy of the thermoregulatory center of the hypothalamus. B. reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone. C. increased production of androgens by the adrenal gland. D. depletion of oocyte supply. E. fluid retention that disrupts the osmotic balance of the body.

B. reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone

The male homologue to the labia majora is the A. testis. B. scrotum. C. penis. D. bulbourethral gland. E. prostate gland.

B. scrotum.

Although pregnancy sometimes results in frequent urination, the one trimester when this tends to be not as problematic is the A. first. B. second. C. third.

B. second.

Although pregnancy sometimes results in frequent urination, the one trimester when this tends to be not as problematic is the A. first. B. second. C. third.

B. second.

Although the length of the menstrual cycle varies between women, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the _________ phase is constant in length. A. follicular B. secretory C. proliferative D. menstrual

B. secretory

Sperm are produced in the A. rete testis. B. seminiferous tubules. C. epididymis. D. seminal vesicles. E. efferent ductules.

B. seminiferous tubules.

Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not, the epithelium within both organs is categorized as A. pseudostratified columnar epithelium. B. simple columnar epithelium. C. nonkeratinized squamous epithelium. D. stratified cuboidal epithelium. E. simple cuboidal epithelium.

B. simple columnar epithelium.

A replicated chromosome consists of two identical structures known as A. centromeres. B. sister chromatids. C. telomeres. D. haploids. E. tetrads.

B. sister chromatids.

During the absorptive state, insulin release is A. inhibited. B. stimulated.

B. stimulated.

An increase in metabolic rate would alter body temperature and trigger a compensatory A. stimulation of sweat glands and vasoconstriction in blood vessels of the skin. B. stimulation of sweat glands and vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin. C. inhibition of sweat glands and vasoconstriction in blood vessels of the skin. D. inhibition of sweat glands and vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin.

B. stimulation of sweat glands and vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin.

Fruits, maple syrup, and sugar are all sources of A. cellulose. B. sucrose. C. lactose. D. nitrogen.

B. sucrose.

Pain from the kidneys is usually referred by way of the: A. autonomic pathways to the inferior pelvic organs. B. sympathetic pathways to the T10-T12 dermatomes. C. somatic pathways to the left shoulder. D. parasympathetic pathways to the T1-T2 region.

B. sympathetic pathways to the T10-T12 dermatomes.

The outer layer of the trophoblast that burrows into the lining of the uterus is the A. embryoblast. B. syncytiotrophoblast. C. cytotrophoblast. D. morula. E. zona pellucida.

B. syncytiotrophoblast.

The outer layer of the trophoblast that burrows into the lining of the uterus is the A. embryoblast. B. syncytiotrophoblast. C. cytotrophoblast. D. morula. E. zona pellucida.

B. syncytiotrophoblast.

When homologous replicated chromosomes pair up during meiosis, they form a A. sister chromatid. B. tetrad. C. single-stranded chromosome. D. centromere.

B. tetrad.

A reduction division is one in which A. the chemical reactions of oxidation and reduction take place. B. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had. C. one daughter cell is substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell. D. the size of chromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.

B. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.

By the 4th month of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is located inches below the ________ and by the ninth month it is located at the level of the ____________. A. urinary bladder; umbilicus B. umbilicus; xiphoid process C. diaphragm; laryngeal prominence D. pubic symphysis; heart

B. umbilicus; xiphoid process

Sweating and shivering are necessary adaptations because A. all parts of the body must remain at normal body temperature to maintain life. B. the health of vital organs requires a near-normal temperature, and metabolic rate fluctuates with changes in the environment. C. to ensure that total metabolic rate remains constant, the body generates or releases heat as needed. D. proteins rapidly denature when tissue temperature drops below 98.5F.

B. the health of vital organs requires a near-normal temperature, and metabolic rate fluctuates with changes in the environment.

The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with A. ovulation. B. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle. C. menstruation. D. the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. E. proliferation.

B. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.

The renal threshold of a substance refers to A. the number of protein transporters for the substance per tubule. B. the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine. C. the concentration of the substance found in the kidney before the substance becomes toxic. D. the concentration of the substance in the urine that results in an overall increase in urine volume.

B. the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine.

Cleavage occurs during A. the fetal period. B. the pre-embryonic period. C. organogenesis. D. the embryonic period. E. fertilization.

B. the pre-embryonic period.

Cleavage occurs during A. the fetal period. B. the pre-embryonic period. C. organogenesis. D. the embryonic period. E. fertilization.

B. the pre-embryonic period.

In order to accommodate the large liver, A. the left kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the right kidney. B. the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

B. the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

Iron is considered a A. major mineral, because it has a crucial physiological role. B. trace mineral, because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet. C. major mineral, because it is extremely abundant in the Earth. D. trace mineral, because it is rare on the Earth.

B. trace mineral, because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet.

By the 4th month of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is located inches below the ________ and by the ninth month it is located at the level of the ____________. A. urinary bladder; umbilicus B. umbilicus; xiphoid process C. diaphragm; laryngeal prominence D. pubic symphysis; heart

B. umbilicus; xiphoid process

If there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive A. vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles to raise GFR. B. vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal. C. vasodilation of efferent arterioles to lower GFR. D. vasodilation of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

B. vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

Podocytes are cells with foot-like processes called pedicels. Podocytes are found in the A. basement membrane of the glomerulus. B. visceral layer of the glomerular capsule. C. periphery of the distal convoluted tubule. D. endothelium of the glomerulus.

B. visceral layer of the glomerular capsule.

Implantation usually begins at about the end of the first ________ of development. A. day B. week C. month D. trimester

B. week

Implantation usually begins at about the end of the first ________ of development. A. day B. week C. month D. trimester

B. week

Teratogens are most damaging to organ systems if exposure to them occurs A. early in pre-embryonic development. B. when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo. C. in the fetal period, after systems have formed but have not completed maturation.

B. when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo.

Teratogens are most damaging to organ systems if exposure to them occurs A. early in pre-embryonic development. B. when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo. C. in the fetal period, after systems have formed but have not completed maturation.

B. when the organ systems are undergoing peak development in the embryo.

b

Bacteria within the large intestine are called a: indigenous macrobiota. b: indigenous microbiota. c: exogenous macrobiota. d: exogenous microbiota.

Which type of receptor initiates the inhalation (or Hering-Breuer) reflex?

Baroreceptors

Why are functions of T-lymphocytes referred to as "cell-mediated" immunity?

Because T-lymphocytes work against antigens associated with cells

(Short answer essay): Someone born with an inherited condition known as adrenal hyperplasia might have two X chromosomes but genitalia that resemble those of a male. Explain the effects on the individual's phenotypic and genotypic sex.

Because a genetic mutation led to excessive production of androgens in the fetus, the individual's genetic sex is female, but the individual's phenotypic sex could be considered ambiguous or male.

Where would you find the trachealis muscle?

Between the esophagus and the trachea

a

Bile salts are a; amphipathic. b: completely hydrophilic. c: completely hydrophobic.

C. edema, which is an example of fluid sequestration.

Blockage of lymphatic vessels or surgical removal of lymphatic vessels increases the likelihood of: A. ascites, which is an example of volume depletion. B. ascites, which is an example of hypertonicity. C. edema, which is a an example of fluid sequestration. D. edema, which is a an example of volume depletion. E. pleural effusion, which is an example of hypertonic hydration.

Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions?

Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction.

Of the lymphatic trunks, which ones drain lymph from deep thoracic structures?

Bronchomediastinal trunks

These tubuloalveolar glands produce a clear, viscous mucin that serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.

Bulbourethral glands

What prevents the trachea from collapsing?

C-shaped cartilaginous rings

Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days A. 1-5. B. 6-14. C. 15-28. D. 8-18.

C. 15-28.

What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development? A. 4 weeks B. 12 weeks C. 29 weeks D. 39 weeks

C. 29 weeks

What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development? A. 4 weeks B. 12 weeks C. 29 weeks D. 39 weeks

C. 29 weeks

These tubuloalveolar glands produce a clear, viscous mucin that serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse. A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate glands C. Bulbourethral glands D. Areolar glands

C. Bulbourethral glands

What is the correct order of structures through which the sperm penetrates during fertilization? A. Corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida B. Zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane C. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane D. Zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata

C. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane

What is the correct order of structures through which the sperm penetrates during fertilization? A. Corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida B. Zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane C. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane D. Zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata

C. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane

To measure GFR, an individual's urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. How is that test substance treated by the kidney? A. It is filtered, reabsorbed, and excreted, but it is not secreted. B. It is neither filtered nor reabsorbed, but it is secreted. C. It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted. D. It is filtered and secreted, but not reabsorbed. E. It is not filtered, but it is secreted and reabsorbed.

C. It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted.

Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte? A. Secondary follicle B. Primary follicle C. Mature follicle D. Primordial follicle E. Polar follicle

C. Mature follicle

Which cord or sheet of connective tissue attaches to the ovary at the hilum? A. Suspensory ligament B. Ovarian ligament C. Mesovarium D. Broad ligament E. Round ligament

C. Mesovarium

Which of the following choices lists structures in the order in which urine flows through them? A. Major calyx, minor calyx, renal pelvis B. Renal pelvis, major calyx, minor pelvis C. Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis D. Major pelvis, minor calyx, renal pelvis E. Major calyx, renal pelvis, minor calyx

C. Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis

Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis? A. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell. B. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. C. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell. D. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.

C. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.

In 2011, the USDA created ________ to replace the food pyramid. A. RDA B. the Food and Nutrition Board C. MyPlate D. Nutrition Facts

C. MyPlate

The tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism responds to an increase in A. systemic blood pressure by signaling for a decrease in heart rate through blood-borne hormones. B. urine production by signaling for a decrease in urine production through the hormone ADH. C. NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers. D. glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure by signaling for afferent arterioles to constrict and increase filtration rate.

C. NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers.

Which type of distal cell within kidney tubules and collecting ducts are responsive to aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone? A. Type A cells B. Type B cells C. Principal cells D. Intercalated endocrine cells

C. Principal cells

Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra? A. Seminal vesicle B. Bulbourethral gland C. Prostate gland D. Cowper's gland E. Urethral gland

C. Prostate gland

Which of these male reproductive structures is unpaired (meaning there is only one in the body)? A. Epididymis B. Bulbourethral gland C. Prostate gland D. Seminal vesicle E. Corpus cavernosum

C. Prostate gland

What structures fuse during female development to form the uterus? A. The superior ends of the mesonephric ducts B. The anterior ends of the Wolffian ducts C. The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts D. The posterior ends of the gubernaculum

C. The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts

Where in the urinary tract is transitional epithelium found? A. Urinary bladder B. Urethra C. Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra D. Ureters E. Ureters and urinary bladder

C. Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra

Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste product produced from nucleic acid breakdown in the liver? A. Urea B. Deoxyribose C. Uric acid D. Creatinine

C. Uric acid

Individuals who are described as heterozygous have different A. genotypes than the predominant genotype. B. genes for one trait on several chromosomes. C. alleles for a particular trait. D. parents who displayed two different phenotypes.

C. alleles for a particular trait.

The secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female are the A. lactiferous sinuses. B. lactiferous ducts. C. alveoli. D. areolar glands. E. Bartholin glands.

C. alveoli.

All of the following are associated with a deficiency in calcium, except A. loss of bone mass. B. muscle weakness. C. anemia. D. depressed nerve activity.

C. anemia.

The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the A. hypothalamus. B. gonads. C. anterior pituitary gland. D. adrenal gland. E. genitals.

C. anterior pituitary gland.

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of A. blood in the nephron capsule. B. tubular fluid in the glomerular capsule. C. blood in the glomerular capillaries. D. filtrate in the glomerular capillaries. E. solutes in the tubular fluid.

C. blood in the glomerular capillaries.

Changes in the size of the uterus during pregnancy are due to A. hypertrophy but not hyperplasia. B. hyperplasia but not hypertrophy. C. both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

C. both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

Changes in the size of the uterus during pregnancy are due to A. hypertrophy but not hyperplasia. B. hyperplasia but not hypertrophy. C. both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

C. both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are a: spermatid b: primary spermatocyte c: spermatogonium d: spermatozoon e: secondary spermatocyte What is the correct order of appearance of these stages? A. b, e, c, d, a B. c, e, d, a, b C. c, b, e, a, d D. a, c, b, e, d E. d, b, c, e, a

C. c, b, e, a, d

During pregnancy, the mother's A. cardiac output and hematocrit rise. B. cardiac output and hematocrit fall. C. cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls. D. cardiac output falls and hematocrit rises.

C. cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls.

During pregnancy, the mother's A. cardiac output and hematocrit rise. B. cardiac output and hematocrit fall. C. cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls. D. cardiac output falls and hematocrit rises.

C. cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls.

Edema and varicose veins in the lower extremities sometimes develop in the third trimester of a pregnancy due to A. decreased cardiac output. B. elevated blood pressure. C. compression of abdominal blood vessels. D. elevated hematocrit.

C. compression of abdominal blood vessels.

Edema and varicose veins in the lower extremities sometimes develop in the third trimester of a pregnancy due to A. decreased cardiac output. B. elevated blood pressure. C. compression of abdominal blood vessels. D. elevated hematocrit.

C. compression of abdominal blood vessels.

An amine group that is removed from an amino acid within a hepatocyte is then A. used to form a peptide bond between a protein and a lipid. B. used to generate bile salts and excreted in the feces. C. converted to urea and eliminated as part of urine. D. sent to a mitochondria to enter the citric acid cycle.

C. converted to urea and eliminated as part of urine.

The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as A. crossing over, and it occurs in interphase. B. crossing over, and it occurs in mitosis. C. crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis. D. interphase, and it occurs in meiosis. E. interphase, and it occurs in mitosis.

C. crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.

Neurulation is the development of the nervous system from the A. endoderm. B. mesoderm. C. ectoderm. D. hypoderm.

C. ectoderm.

An obstruction in the glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the A. renal artery. B. proximal convoluted tubule. C. efferent arteriole. D. distal convoluted tubule. E. afferent arteriole.

C. efferent arteriole.

The third through eighth weeks of development are known as the ___________ period. A. fetal B. pre-embryonic C. embryonic D. cleavage

C. embryonic

The third through eighth weeks of development are known as the ___________ period. A. fetal B. pre-embryonic C. embryonic D. cleavage

C. embryonic

Fimbriae A. are extensions of the ovarian ligament. B. line the ampulla of the uterine tube. C. enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation. D. are sloughed off during menstruation. E. assist in the movement of sperm through the female reproductive tract.

C. enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.

The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the A. myometrium. B. perimetrium. C. endometrium. D. serosa. E. muscularis.

C. endometrium.

Metabolic rate is a measurement of the A. total number of calories consumed per hour. B. amount of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight. C. energy used in a given period of time. D. heat given off by contracting muscles.

C. energy used in a given period of time.

The acrosome cap contains A. testosterone. B. nutrients to sustain the sperm. C. enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte. D. mitochondria to provide energy for movement. E. buffers to neutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.

C. enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.

Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the A. sequence of base pairs in the genes of the fetus. B. structural integrity of the chromosomes of the fetus. C. expression of genes in the fetus. D. gametes of the fetus.

C. expression of genes in the fetus.

Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the A. sequence of base pairs in the genes of the fetus. B. structural integrity of the chromosomes of the fetus. C. expression of genes in the fetus. D. gametes of the fetus.

C. expression of genes in the fetus.

Postpartum, estrogen and progesterone levels A. rise steeply. B. rise gradually. C. fall steeply. D. fall gradually.

C. fall steeply.

Postpartum, estrogen and progesterone levels A. rise steeply. B. rise gradually. C. fall steeply. D. fall gradually.

C. fall steeply.

The maternal portion of the placenta arises from the A. amnion. B. ectoderm. C. functional layer of the uterus. D. germinal disc. E. myometrium.

C. functional layer of the uterus.

The maternal portion of the placenta arises from the A. amnion. B. ectoderm. C. functional layer of the uterus. D. germinal disc. E. myometrium.

C. functional layer of the uterus.

The external urethral orifice is found at the _________ of the penis. A. bulb B. crus C. glans D. corpus cavernosum E. body

C. glans

Sympathetic stimulation causes A. mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell contraction. B. mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell relaxation. C. granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction. D. granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell relaxation. E. inhibited release of erythropoietin and contraction of granular and mesangial cells.

C. granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction.

The area of the brain that provides the primary control of body temperature is the A. cerebellum. B. cerebral cortex. C. hypothalamus. D. pineal gland. E. medulla.

C. hypothalamus.

The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as A. cleavage. B. morulation. C. implantation. D. capacitation. E. the acrosome reaction.

C. implantation.

The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as A. cleavage. B. morulation. C. implantation. D. capacitation. E. the acrosome reaction.

C. implantation.

Careful measurements of GFR are made by injection of _______, but approximations of GFR can be made more simply by measuring renal plasma clearance of _________. A. creatine phosphate; insulin B. insulin; creatine phosphate C. inulin; creatinine D. creatinine; inulin

C. inulin; creatinine

Braxton-Hicks contractions tend to be A. regular and increasingly frequent as time passes. B. increasingly intense as time passes. C. irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes. D. regular in timing but relatively weak.

C. irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes.

Braxton-Hicks contractions tend to be A. regular and increasingly frequent as time passes. B. increasingly intense as time passes. C. irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes. D. regular in timing but relatively weak.

C. irregularly spaced and do not become more frequent as time passes.

When glucose enters glycolysis, it A. is converted into acetyl CoA. B. binds to oxaloacetic acid and forms citric acid. C. is oxidized to two pyruvate molecules. D. forms the coenzyme NAD.

C. is oxidized to two pyruvate molecules.

The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size and similar features is known as the A. genotype. B. Punnet square. C. karyotype. D. heredity gel.

C. karyotype.

The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size and similar features is known as the A. genotype. B. Punnet square. C. karyotype. D. heredity gel.

C. karyotype.

Increases in weight of the conceptus are largest during the _________ two months of pregnancy. A. first B. middle C. last

C. last

Increases in weight of the conceptus are largest during the _________ two months of pregnancy. A. first B. middle C. last

C. last

Compared to breast milk, colostrum contains A. more fat and more immunoglobulins. B. more fat but less immunoglobulins. C. less fat but more immunoglobulins. D. less fat and less immunoglobulins.

C. less fat but more immunoglobulins.

Compared to breast milk, colostrum contains A. more fat and more immunoglobulins. B. more fat but less immunoglobulins. C. less fat but more immunoglobulins. D. less fat and less immunoglobulins.

C. less fat but more immunoglobulins.

Triglycerides and steroids are both examples of A. essential amino acids. B. nonessential amino acids. C. lipids. D. carbohydrates. E. proteins.

C. lipids.

Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured _____ follicle. A. secondary B. primary C. mature D. primordial E. oogonial

C. mature

The nephron loop makes a hairpin turn within the ________ and its ________ limb ends at the distal convoluted tubule. A. cortex; ascending B. cortex; descending C. medulla; ascending D. medulla; descending

C. medulla; ascending

During pregnancy, a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of A. melanin from the pineal gland. B. vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland. C. melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta. D. estrogen and progesterone from the ovary.

C. melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.

During pregnancy, a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of A. melanin from the pineal gland. B. vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland. C. melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta. D. estrogen and progesterone from the ovary.

C. melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.

Iodine is an example of a(n) A. essential amino acid. B. vitamin. C. mineral. D. nitrogenous base.

C. mineral.

Inorganic ions such as sodium and potassium are A. vitamins. B. essential amino acids. C. minerals. D. trace carbohydrates.

C. minerals.

The structure of the mesoderm that induces formation of the neural tube is the A. head mesenchyme. B. amnion. C. notochord. D. paraxial mesoderm.

C. notochord.

The structure of the mesoderm that induces formation of the neural tube is the A. head mesenchyme. B. amnion. C. notochord. D. paraxial mesoderm.

C. notochord.

Consider a mother with normal vision who has a son with red-green color blindness. The mother was a "carrier" of the affected gene, as she had a normal phenotype but A. two recessive alleles. B. two dominant alleles. C. one dominant and one recessive allele. D. a codominant set of alleles. E. an incompletely penetrating genotype.

C. one dominant and one recessive allele.

MyPlate depicts fruits and vegetables occupying _______ of the plate. A. one-tenth B. one-fourth C. one-half D. nine-tenths

C. one-half

The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is A. LH. B. GnRH. C. oxytocin. D. prolactin. E. progesterone.

C. oxytocin.

The beginning of labor involves increased production of ________ from the fetal hypothalamus, resulting in secretion of _________ by the placenta. A. GnRH; prolactin B. prolactin; oxytocin C. oxytocin; prostaglandins D. prostaglandin; prolactin E. prolactin; GnRH

C. oxytocin; prostaglandins

The beginning of labor involves increased production of ________ from the fetal hypothalamus, resulting in secretion of _________ by the placenta. A. GnRH; prolactin B. prolactin; oxytocin C. oxytocin; prostaglandins D. prostaglandin; prolactin E. prolactin; GnRH

C. oxytocin; prostaglandins

The ___________ nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of __________. A. sympathetic, nitric oxide B. sympathetic, norepinephrine C. parasympathetic, nitric oxide D. parasympathetic, norepinephrine E. somatic, acetylcholine

C. parasympathetic, nitric oxide

Cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the _________ edge of the cortex and are the ______ common type of nephron. A. deeper; more B. deeper; less C. peripheral; more D. peripheral; less

C. peripheral; more

Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by A. ciliary action in the renal pelvis. B. suction from the urinary bladder. C. peristalsis of the ureters. D. hydrostatic pressure from the small intestine. E. contraction of the detrusor muscle.

C. peristalsis of the ureters.

The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's A. gender identity. B. genetic sex. C. phenotypic sex. D. genotypic sex.

C. phenotypic sex.

The kidneys are located ___________ the peritoneum. A. within B. anterior to C. posterior to

C. posterior to

Generally, most water reabsorption in a nephron occurs at the A. nephron loop and is called obligatory water reabsorption. B. nephron loop and is called facultative water reabsorption. C. proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption. D. proximal convoluted tubule and is called facultative water reabsorption.

C. proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption.

The normal pH for urine A. is anything below 7.0. B. is anything above 7.0 C. ranges between 4.5 and 8.0. D. ranges between 3.0 and 6.0. E. ranges between 8.0 and 9.0 for someone with a diet high in protein.

C. ranges between 4.5 and 8.0.

The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to A. attach the penis to the body wall. B. produce erections. C. regulate the temperature of the testes. D. help the testes descend into the scrotum prior to birth. E. move sperm along the ductus deferens.

C. regulate the temperature of the testes.

After ovulation, the oocyte A. waits passively for a sperm to penetrate. B. releases negative ions that create an electrical gradient that all sperm swim toward. C. releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location. D. propels itself toward seminal fluid by calcium-dependent kinesis.

C. releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location.

After ovulation, the oocyte A. waits passively for a sperm to penetrate. B. releases negative ions that create an electrical gradient that all sperm swim toward. C. releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location. D. propels itself toward seminal fluid by calcium-dependent kinesis.

C. releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location.

The renal corpuscle is located within the A. collecting duct. B. renal medulla. C. renal cortex. D. renal pelvis.

C. renal cortex.

Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme A. angiotensinogen. B. antidiuretic hormone. C. renin. D. calcitriol.

C. renin.

Generally, negatively charged plasma proteins are A. moved across the filtration membrane by active transport pumps. B. attracted by the positive charge of the filtration membrane. C. repelled by the negative charge of the filtration membrane. D. engulfed by endocytosis and reabsorbed at the filtration membrane.

C. repelled by the negative charge of the filtration membrane.

The interstitial cells in the testes A. undergo mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes. B. support and protect the developing sperm cells. C. secrete testosterone. D. convert fructose to glucose to nourish the sperm. E. form the lining of the seminiferous tubules.

C. secrete testosterone.

Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of A. glucose in the blood. B. antidiuretic hormone in the urine. C. sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. D. calcium in the fluid of the proximal convoluted tubule. E. aldosterone in the afferent arteriole.

C. sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

At the start of gastrulation, a long, thin depression known as the primitive __________ forms on the surface of the epiblast. A. furrow B. node C. streak D. groove E. yolk

C. streak

At the start of gastrulation, a long, thin depression known as the primitive __________ forms on the surface of the epiblast. A. furrow B. node C. streak D. groove E. yolk

C. streak

Anti-Mullerian hormone is sectreted by A. ovarian follicular cells. B. primary spermatocytes. C. sustentacular cells. D. interstitial cells. E. paramesonephric cells.

C. sustentacular cells.

Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted from cells of the A. morula. B. embryoblast. C. syncytiotrophoblast. D. zygote.

C. syncytiotrophoblast.

Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted from cells of the A. morula. B. embryoblast. C. syncytiotrophoblast. D. zygote.

C. syncytiotrophoblast.

Core body temperature is the A. average temperature across all portions of the body. B. average body temperature across all hours of the day. C. temperature of the head and torso. D. temperature recorded at the center of the long bones of the limbs.

C. temperature of the head and torso.

The pre-embryonic period ends when A. a morula is formed. B. the zygote undergoes cleavage. C. the blastocyst implants in the uterus. D. the morula develops a trophoblast.

C. the blastocyst implants in the uterus.

The pre-embryonic period ends when A. a morula is formed. B. the zygote undergoes cleavage. C. the blastocyst implants in the uterus. D. the morula develops a trophoblast.

C. the blastocyst implants in the uterus.

Which of the following is a reason why acidosis occurs when the lungs cannot expel enough carbon dioxide?

Carbon dioxide is transported as carbonic acid.

During menopause, the vaginal wall becomes ________, and hormonal changes lead to ________ risk of heart disease. A. thicker; increased B. thicker; decreased C. thinner; increased D. thinner; decreased

C. thinner; increased

The largest possible amount of a substance that can be reabsorbed or secreted across a kidney tubule wall in a given duration of time is known as the A. glomerular filtration rate. B. renal threshold. C. transport maximum. D. net filtration pressure. E. renal clearance exponent.

C. transport maximum.

The process that involves the fusion of the two sides of the embryonic disc at a newly formed midline, thereby creating a cylindrical embryo is __________ folding. A. invagination B. cephalocaudal C. transverse D. amphiamniotic E. coronal

C. transverse

The process that involves the fusion of the two sides of the embryonic disc at a newly formed midline, thereby creating a cylindrical embryo is __________ folding. A. invagination B. cephalocaudal C. transverse D. amphiamniotic E. coronal

C. transverse

Gram for gram, the largest amount of energy can be stored in the body in the form of A. vitamins. B. steroids. C. triglycerides. D. monosaccharides. E. polysaccharides.

C. triglycerides.

The active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called A. filtration. B. tubular reabsorption. C. tubular secretion. D. fenestration. E. titration.

C. tubular secretion.

Someone with a diet that is high in vegetables but low in animal protein is likely to have very active A. type A cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. B. type A cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+. C. type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. D. type B cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+.

C. type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+.

At the middle of a liver lobule is a central A. artery. B. arteriole. C. vein. D. sinusoidal capillary. E. biliary ductule.

C. vein.

Vitamin C is a A. fat-soluble, essential vitamin. B. fat-soluble, nonessential vitamin. C. water-soluble, essential vitamin. D. water-soluble, nonessential vitamin.

C. water-soluble, essential vitamin.

The first signal during helper T-lymphocyte activation involves

CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.

Helper T-lymphocytes are also known as

CD4+ cells.

The three major hormones that regulate calcium levels are parathyroid hormone, __________ and , __________.

Calcitonin Calcitriol

Which of the following is not a component of seminal fluid?

Calcium

_______ is the most abundant electrolyte in bones and teeth

Calcium

C. pumps that move calcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Calcium hardens bone and teeth, but its levels are carefully controlled throughout the body. Low levels of calcium within cells are maintained by: A. a high number of voltage-gated and leakage channels for calcium in cell membranes. B. frequent exocytosis and endocytosis of calcium-containing vesicles. C. pumps that move calcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D. osmosis of large amounts of water into cells that have any calcium within them.

Lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways. What is the correct order of these, from smallest diameter to largest diameter?

Capillaries, vessels, trunks, ducts

c

Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme that helps digest a: amino acids within the stomach. b: complex carbohydrates within the small intestine. c: peptides within the small intestine. d: disaccharides within the duodenum. e: starch within the stomach.

B. extracellular fluid.

Cerebrospinal fluid of the central nervous system and synovial fluid of joint capsules are both examples of: A. intracellular fluid. B. extracellular fluid.

the most abundant anion in the ECF is _____

Chloride

d

Cholecystokinin is a(n) _________ released by the _________. a: enzyme; stomach b: enzyme; small intestine c: enzyme; gallbladder d: hormone; small intestine e: hormone; gallbladder

Which are common electrolytes found in body fluids?

Cl-, Na+, K+

B. respiratory alkalosis

Climbing at high altitude where oxygen levels are insufficient can lead to: A. respiratory acidosis. B. respiratory alkalosis. C. metabolic acidosis. D. metabolic alkalosis.

Which class of chemical messenger facilitates white blood cell formation in bone marrow?

Colony-stimulating factors

B. more, residual volume

Compared to adults, infants are _______ susceptible to respiratory acidosis due to lower _________. A. more, carbon dioxide levels. B. more, residual volume. C. less, carbon dioxide levels. D. less, residual volume.

The correction by the respiratory and urinary systems to an acid-base disturbance is called

Compensation

What is the correct order of structures through which the sperm penetrates during fertilization?

Corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane

What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation?

Corpus luteum

Autonomic innervation of the kidney includes

Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12.

Vitamin _____ is crucial for the absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, a deficiency in this vitamin may result in rickets and other bone abnormalities.

D

When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for _________, she is said to be in menopause. A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 1 year E. 18 months

D. 1 year

How many spermatozoa ultimately develop from each primary spermatocyte? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

D. 4

Which pathogen (within the mother) is most likely to be transmitted across the placenta? A. A multicellular parasite that is present during the first week of pregnancy B. A multicellular parasite that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy C. A blood-borne virus that is present during the first week of pregnancy D. A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

D. A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

Which pathogen (within the mother) is most likely to be transmitted across the placenta? A. A multicellular parasite that is present during the first week of pregnancy B. A multicellular parasite that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy C. A blood-borne virus that is present during the first week of pregnancy D. A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

D. A blood-borne virus that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

Paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone ________ is present. A. inhibin B. estrogen C. testosterone D. AMH E. TSH

D. AMH

What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation? A. Corona radiata B. Zona pellucida C. Corpus albicans D. Corpus luteum E. Antrum

D. Corpus luteum

Autonomic innervation of the kidney includes A. Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T1-T2. B. Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12. C. Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T1-T2. D. Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12.

D. Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12.

Mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by

engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane.

Which of the following is a thin layer of smooth muscle just beneath the skin of the scrotum? A. Raphe B. Cremaster C. Tunica vaginalis D. Dartos muscle E. Inguinal muscle

D. Dartos muscle

Which layer of the uterine wall is sloughed off during menstruation? A. Perimetrium B. Basal layer of endometrium C. Myometrium D. Functional layer of endometrium E. Epimetrium

D. Functional layer of endometrium

The process by which the three primary germ layers are formed during the third week of development is known as __________. A. morula. B. embryo. C. blastocyst. D. Gastrulation

D. Gastrulation

What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube, beginning at the ovary? A. Infundibulum - isthmus - ampulla - uterine part B. Uterine part - infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus C. Ampulla - infundibulum - uterine part - isthmus D. Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part E. Uterine part - isthmus - ampulla - infundibulum

D. Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part

Which part of the embryo develops into the kidneys? A. Endoderm B. Paraxial mesoderm C. Notochord D. Intermediate mesoderm

D. Intermediate mesoderm

Which part of the embryo develops into the kidneys? A. Endoderm B. Paraxial mesoderm C. Notochord D. Intermediate mesoderm

D. Intermediate mesoderm

59. What effect does glucagon have on protein metabolism? A. It directly stimulates catabolism of proteins. B. It stimulates the buildup of proteins from amino acids. C. It increases absorption of amino acids in the intestine. D. It has no effect on body proteins.

D. It has no effect on body proteins.

Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands? A. Clitoris B. Vestibular bulb C. Mons pubis D. Labia minora E. Prepuce

D. Labia minora

Which is not a function of the kidneys? A. Regulation of blood pressure B. Removal of wastes from the blood C. Regulation of erythrocyte production D. Regulation of lymphocyte production E. Regulation of acid-base balance

D. Regulation of lymphocyte production

Which is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus? A. Segmental artery - interlobar artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery B. Interlobar artery - segmental artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery C. Renal artery - interlobar artery - segmental artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery D. Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery E. Arcuate artery - interlobular artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - renal artery

D. Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery

Where are the renal pyramids located within the kidney? A. Renal cortex B. Renal sinus C. Renal pelvis D. Renal medulla E. Renal papilla

D. Renal medulla

In males, the _________ region on the Y chromosome initiates male phenotypic development. A. HRT B. AMH C. TDF D. SRY E. BPH

D. SRY

Which is not true about spermatogenesis? A. The process includes two meiotic divisions. B. The final stage of the process is called spermiogenesis. C. Mature spermatozoa are haploid (n=23). D. Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a man's life. E. The process takes place in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.

D. Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a man's life.

Which layer is not found in the wall of the ureter? A. Adventitia B. Muscularis C. Mucosa D. Submucosa

D. Submucosa

Which is not correct regarding the ovaries? A. Each ovary has an outer cortex and an inner medulla. B. The ovaries are located lateral to the uterus. C. The ovarian artery and vein join the ovary at its hilum. D. The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium. E. The tunica albuginea is deep to the germinal epithelium.

D. The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium.

Which does not provide structural support for the uterus? A. Round ligament B. Transverse cervical ligament C. Uterosacral ligament D. Uterine ligament E. Urogenital diaphragm

D. Uterine ligament

The normal site of fertilization is the A. vagina. B. body of the uterus. C. fundus of the uterus. D. ampulla of the uterine tube. E. uterine part of the uterine tube.

D. ampulla of the uterine tube.

To maintain homeostasis, the hormone that is secreted during the postabsorptive state causes A. a decrease in the level of fatty acids in the blood . B. an increase in protein synthesis in tissue cells. C. formation of tryglicerides from fatty acids. D. an increase in the level of blood sugar.

D. an increase in the level of blood sugar.

Prolactin is secreted from the ________ gland, and its levels ___________ during pregnancy. A. hypothalamus; double B. mammary; double C. corpus luteum; increase tenfold D. anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

D. anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

Prolactin is secreted from the ________ gland, and its levels ___________ during pregnancy. A. hypothalamus; double B. mammary; double C. corpus luteum; increase tenfold D. anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

D. anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

An increase in blood pressure inhibits renal secretion of the hormone __ which in turn inhibits thirst.

renin

An erection of the penis is caused by A. semen pressure from the testes and ductus deferens. B. muscle flexion of the penile muscles. C. increased secretions of lymph into the spongy tissue. D. blood filling the erectile bodies and compressing the veins. E. ejaculatory muscles.

D. blood filling the erectile bodies and compressing the veins.

Cellulose is a type of __________ from plants that remains in the GI tract as fiber and aids in the movement of material through the tract. A. vitamin B. lipid C. protein D. carbohydrate E. mineral

D. carbohydrate

The hypoblast layer of the blastodisc is made of A. columnar cells and forms during the morula stage. B. columnar cells and forms during gastrulation. C. cuboidal cells and forms during the fetal period. D. cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period

D. cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period

The hypoblast layer of the blastodisc is made of A. columnar cells and forms during the morula stage. B. columnar cells and forms during gastrulation. C.cuboidal cells and forms during the fetal period. D. cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period.

D. cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period.

After childbirth, a woman's aldosterone levels ________ which results in _________ urine volume. A. increase; increased B. increase; decreased C. decrease; decreased D. decrease; increased

D. decrease; increased

After childbirth, a woman's aldosterone levels ________ which results in _________ urine volume. A. increase; increased B. increase; decreased C. decrease; decreased D. decrease; increased

D. decrease; increased

Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme

renin

ANP is a hormone that causes A. constriction of the afferent arterioles and release of renin. B. constriction of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release. C. dilation of the afferent arterioles and release of renin. D. dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release.

D. dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release.

Prostaglandins are _________ acids that ___________ the cervix. A. amino; constrict B. amino; dilate C. fatty; constrict D. fatty; dilate

D. fatty; dilate

When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is A. two daughter cells that are diploid. B. two daughter cells that are haploid. C. four daughter cells that are diploid. D. four daughter cells that are haploid.

D. four daughter cells that are haploid.

The thick tangle of capillary loops found within a corpuscle is known as the A. Bowman. B. convoluted capillary bed. C. glomerular capsule. D. glomerulus. E. nephron.

D. glomerulus.

Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting A. luteinizing hormone. B. estrogen or testosterone. C. follicle-stimulating hormone. D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone. E. androgens.

D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are A. diploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes. B. diploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes. C. haploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes. D. haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.

D. haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.

The lateral margin of the uterine tube, which bears the fimbriae, is called the A. ampulla. B. fornix. C. isthmus. D. infundibulum. E. uterine part.

D. infundibulum.

Human placental lactogen _________ the effects of insulin and causes a pregnant woman's tissues to metabolize ______ glucose. A. facilitates; more B. facilitates; less C. inhibits; more D. inhibits; less

D. inhibits; less

Renal plasma clearance A. is lower than GFR for substances that are both filtered and secreted. B. is the same as GFR for substances that are both filtered and secreted. C. is the amount of water loss from the plasma to the urine over the course of one hour. D. is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

D. is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

The units for measurement of glomerular filtration rate are A. mm Hg. B. mm Hg per minute. C. liters. D. liters per minute.

D. liters per minute.

Peritubular capillaries tend to exhibit A. high hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure. B. high hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. C. low hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. D. low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

D. low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

Progesterone levels are highest during the ________ phase. A. menstrual B. proliferative C. follicular D. luteal E. ovulation

D. luteal

A secondary oocyte arrests in A. prophase I. B. anaphase II. C. prophase II. D. metaphase II. E. metaphase I.

D. metaphase II.

Metabolic rate can be measured with a respirometer that measures A. water content of the breath in order to directly measure the products of cellular respiration. B. water content of the breath in order to indirectly measure the products of cellular respiration. C. temperature of the expired air in order to measure the rate of the sum of all reactions within the body. D. oxygen consumption in order to indirectly measure heat production and energy expenditure. E. temperatures of carbon dioxide and oxygen to determine how much the body warmed the respiratory gas.

D. oxygen consumption in order to indirectly measure heat production and energy expenditure.

In the late stages of pregnancy, estrogen stimulates increased A. release of hCG. B. secretion of atrial natriuretic factor by the heart. C. growth of the corpus luteum. D. production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

D. production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

In the late stages of pregnancy, estrogen stimulates increased A. release of hCG. B. secretion of atrial natriuretic factor by the heart. C. growth of the corpus luteum. D. production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

D. production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

The basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and _________, and it restricts the passage of _________. A. phospholipids; plasma ions B. phospholipids; plasma proteins C. proteoglycans; plasma ions D. proteoglycans; plasma proteins

D. proteoglycans; plasma proteins

Human somatic cells contain only one pair of A. chromosomes. B. autosomes. C. homologous chromosomes. D. sex chromosomes.

D. sex chromosomes.

B. dehydration

Diabetes mellitus, profuse sweating, and hyposecretion of ADH can each lead to: A. volume excess. B. dehydration. C. hypotonic plasma. D. overhydration.

The capsular hydrostatic pressure is generally ______ than the glomerular hydrostatic pressure; increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure _________ the formation of additional filtrate. A. larger; facilitate B. larger; impede C. smaller; facilitate D. smaller; impede

D. smaller; impede

Developing sperm cells are protected by a blood-testis barrier formed by A. connective tissue septa. B. interstitial spaces. C. Leydig cells. D. sustentacular cells. E. leukocytes.

D. sustentacular cells.

The perineum consists of an anterior A. ischial tuberosity and a posterior anal ellipse. B. urethral orifice and a posterior pubic crest. C. false pelvis and a posterior true pelvis. D. urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle. E. pubic quadralateral and a posterior anal rhombus.

D. urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle.

Which of the following is a thin layer of smooth muscle just beneath the skin of the scrotum?

Dartos muscle

Approximately when in development does the bilaminar germinal disc begins to form?

Day 8

An acid-base imbalance below 7.0 or above 7.7 will result in:

Death within a few hours

Which of the following could contribute to the development of edema?

Decreased fluid removal by lymph vessels

A. on

Decreases in blood pressure turn _____ the thirst center of the brain. A. on B. off

c

Digestion of carbohydrates within the small intestine involves enzymes that come from the a: mouth. b: stomach. c: pancreas. d: lining of the small intestine. a: a, b b: b, c c: c, d d: a, d e: a, b, c, d

d

Digestion of proteins is initiated by the enzyme a: amylase. b: hydrochloric acid. c: aminopeptidase. d: pepsin. e: CCK.

Which stage would you expect to take the longest time?

Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman

B. decrease

Drinking a liter of water will cause the osmolarity of blood plasma to: A. increase. B. decrease.

submucosa

Duodenal glands (Brunner glands) that secrete a viscous mucus into the small intestine are located in the

Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme

renin.

Micturition A. is another name for urination. B. is a reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the urinary bladder. C. requires the opening of two sphincters. D. requires contraction of the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

The gonads A. are the male testes and female ovaries. B. secrete sex hormones. C. produce gametes. D. are dormant until puberty. E. All of the choices are correct.

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is not a component of seminal fluid? A. Prostaglandin B. Citric acid C. Mucous D. Seminalplasmin E. Calcium

E. Calcium

Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney? A. Parasympathetic innervation is from the vagus nerve. B. The kidney is served by the renal plexus. C. Sympathetic innervation is from segments T10-T12 of the spinal cord. D. Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the renal blood vessels. E. Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

E. Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

Which step(s) in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule? A. Filtration only B. Secretion only C. Reabsorption only D. Filtration, secretion, and reabsorption E. Secretion and reabsorption only

E. Secretion and reabsorption only

Which is not considered to be a change associated with aging in males? A. Erectile dysfunction B. Impotence C. Decreased testosterone levels D. Prostate enlargement E. Termination of spermatogenesis

E. Termination of spermatogenesis

Which is not correct regarding nephrons? A. The renal corpuscle includes the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule. B. The renal tubule is composed of the proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, and distal convoluted tubule. C. The nephron is the functional filtration unit in the kidney. D. Eighty-five percent of nephrons are cortical nephrons. E. The renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla.

E. The renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla.

Which is not part of the vulva? A. Mons pubis B. Clitoris C. Labia majora D. Labia minora E. Vagina

E. Vagina

Which structure is not found in both males and females? A. Glans B. Corpora cavernosa C. Tunica albuginea D. Prepuce E. Vestibular gland

E. Vestibular gland

Sister chromatids are pulled apart in A. prophase I. B. anaphase I. C. interphase. D. prophase II. E. anaphase II.

E. anaphase II.

The volume of the antrum is largest in a __________ follicle. A. primary B. secondary C. primordial D. polar E. mature

E. mature

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located A. within the renal sinus. B. in the renal papilla. C. in the perinephric fat. D. inside the tubular pole of the glomerulus. E. near the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle.

E. near the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle.

The myometrium of the uterus is composed of A. skeletal muscle. B. mucous membrane. C. fibrous connective tissue. D. loose connective tissue. E. smooth muscle.

E. smooth muscle.

D. fluid sequestration

Edema is an example of: A. dehydration. B. volume depletion. C. total volume excess. D. fluid sequestration.

D. Low, more

Elderly individuals generally have a _______ percentage of body fluid and are therefore _______ prone to fluid imbalances. A. high, more B. high, less C. low, less D. low, more

D. metabolic alkalosis

Elevated HCO3- levels brought about by vomiting is classified as: A. respiratory acidosis. B. respiratory alkalosis. C. metabolic acidosis. D. metabolic alkalosis.

Which structure develops directly into a bilaminar germinal disc?

Embryoblast

A. acidosis

Emphysema causes a decrease in the surface area of the respiratory membrane and thereby leads to respiratory: A. acidosis. B. alkalosis.

Which type of cell is the most effective to attack multicellular parasites such as tapeworms?

Eosinophils

Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature?

Epididymis

(Essay Question) : Describe how internal reproductive structures develop. What genetic factors determine whether development proceeds in a male or female manner? What ducts are formed in male and female embryos and fetuses?

Expression of SRY from the Y chromosome causes Sertoli cells to secrete AMH, which leads to degeneration of the paramesonpheric ducts and continued development of Wolffian ducts to form the epididymis and ductus deferens. In the absence of SRY proteins, mesonephric ducts degenerate and paramesonephric ducts continue to develop helping to form the uterus and uterine tubes.

Which of the following lists the body's first, second, and third lines of defense in order?

External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity

These muscles extend from a superior rib inferomedially to the adjacent inferior rib. They elevate the ribs upon contraction, thereby increasing the transverse dimensions of the thoracic cavity during inhalation.

External intercostals

(T/F) Mitosis involves crossing over and the production of haploid daughter cells.

FALSE

(T/F) Production of new primary oocytes by mitosis continues throughout a woman's life.

FALSE

(T/F) Sperm begin to exhibit motility once they exit the seminiferous tubules.

FALSE

(T/F) The X and Y chromosomes are considered homologous autosomes.

FALSE

(T/F) The corpora cavernosa extend within the glans of the penis.

FALSE

(T/F) The testes are the male gametes.

FALSE

Citrus fruit is a good source of fat-soluble vitamins. (T/F)

FALSE

Minerals are organic molecules. (t/f)

FALSE

(T/F) Primary follicles form before birth.

FALSe

B. is controlled by hormone effect on the kidney

Facultative water loss is loss that: A. occurs regardless of the state of hydration of the body. B. is controlled by hormone effects on the kidney. C. occurs through sweating and breathing.

Essential amino acids are so physiologically important that the body can synthesize them by modifying other (nonessential) amino acids. (T/F)

False

Most amino acids are essential amino acids. (T/F

False

The body is able to produce and recycle vitamin A (retinol) as needed. (T/F)

False

Which layer of the uterine wall is sloughed off during menstruation?

Functional layer of endometrium

c

Gastric mixing changes a: foodstuffs into bile. b: food into chyle. c: a bolus into chyme. d: chyle into pepsin. e: proteins into lipids.

The process by which the three primary germ layers are formed during the third week of development is known as __________.

Gastrulation

In both males and females, primary sex organs called _________________ produce the gametes.

Gonads

carbonic acid is formed by which two reactants

H2O and CO2

Which reaction involving CO2 predominates within erythrocytes in the pulmonary capillaries of the lung?

HCO-3 combines with H+ to form H2CO3, which dissociates into CO2 and H2O.

What part of a spermatozoon contains the nuclear material?

Head

Which cell type is targeted by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Helper T-lymphocyte

ADH secretion is stimulated by which of the following?

High blood osmolarity Low blood pressure

To calculate GFR, the concentration of a marker molecule is measured in both the blood and the urine, and the total volume of urine produced is also measured. Which of the following sets of results indicates the highest GFR?

High concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood

A. vasoconstriction and therefore increases in blood pressure.

High levels of ADH cause: A. vasoconstriction and therefore increases in blood pressure. B. vasoconstriction and therefore decreases in blood pressure. C. vasodilation and therefore increases in blood pressure. D. vasodilation and therefore decreases in blood pressure.

C. Increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure.

How are sodium levels and blood pressure related? A. Increased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention, decrease blood volume, and increase blood pressure. B. Decreased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, increase blood volume, and decrease blood pressure. C. Increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure. D. Decreased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention, increase blood volume, and increase blood pressure.

B. It increases potassium secretion by the kidneys and decreases potassium blood concentration.

How does the hormone aldosterone influence potassium levels? A. It increases potassium secretion by the kidneys and increases potassium blood concentration. B. It increases potassium secretion by the kidneys and decreases potassium blood concentration. C. It increases potassium reabsorption by the kidneys and decreases potassium blood concentration. D. It increases potassium reabsorption by the kidneys and increases potassium blood concentration.

c

If a fatty meal has been ingested, the liver and gallbladder need to be alerted about the need for bile. The receptors that are responsible for sensing the fat in the ingested food are refered to as a: bilireceptors. b: mechanoreceptors. c: chemoreceptors. d: omental neurons e: osmodetectors.

C. compensation

If a physiological condition resulted in blood pH reaching 7.2, but then physiological buffering systems brought the pH to 7.4, that increase in pH would be called: A. acidosis. B. alkalosis. C. compensation. D. imbalance. E. partial noncompensation.

C. hypotonic hydration

If a runner drinks too much water before a marathon, they run a risk of water intoxication, also known as: A. diabetes insipidus. B. volume excess. C. hypotonic hydration. D. volume depletion. E. hypertonic ascites.

B. rise, blood H+ levels rise, and blood pH falls.

If an individual's respiratory rate decreases, then blood CO2 levels: A. rise, blood H+ levels rise, and blood pH rises. B. rise, blood H+ levels rise, and blood pH falls. C. rise, blood H+ levels fall, and blood pH falls. D. fall, blood H+ levels rise, and blood pH rises. E. fall, blood H+ levels fall, and blood pH falls.

A. an increase

If someone begins to hyperventilate due to anxiety, the CO2 concentration in their blood decreases; this causes __________ in blood pH. A. an increase B. a decrease C. no change

B. volume depletion

If someone in an accident suffered severe burns as well as hemorrhage, they would be at high risk for: A. hypotonic hydration. B. volume depletion. C. hypotonic dehydration. D. volume excess.

A. rises and becomes hypertonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments.

If someone runs a marathon through a desert while eating pretzels and not drinking water, their plasma osmolarity: A. rises and becomes hypertonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments. B. rises and becomes hypotonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments. C. decreases and becomes hypertonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments. D. decreases and becomes hypotonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments.

What are the five main classes of immunoglobulins found in humans?

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

Which type of antibody is formed in response to parasitic infections and allergies, and has the effect of activating mast cells and basophils?

IgE

The most prevalent antibody in blood and lymph is

IgG

Agglutination of mismatched blood is a function of

IgM, which is a pentamer.

Which statement accurately describes alveolar and systemic gas exchanges?

In alveolar gas exchange oxygen diffuses into the blood, but in systemic gas exchange it diffuses out of the blood.

d

In some digestive reflexes, the facial nerve stimulates salivary glands; the salivary glands are acting as a: afferents. b: receptors. c: efferents. d: effectors. e: control centers.

B. stimulates, reabsorption

In the brain ADH _______ the thirst center, and in the kidneys ADH causes an increase in water __________. A. stimulates, secretion B. stimulates, reabsorption C. inhibits, secretion D. inhibits, reabsorption

C. no change in the osmolarity of body fluid

In the condition of volume excess, fluid gain involves: A. an increase in osmolarity of body fluid. B. a decrease in osmolarity of body fluid. C. no change in the osmolarity of body fluid.

If the filtration membrane were made more porous, how would you expect the glomerular filtration rate to change?

Increase

If an acid is added to a solution, the concentration of H+ will _________, and the pH will ________.

Increase, Decrease

C. decrease

Increases in secretion of the hormone ADH cause sodium concentration in the blood plasma to: A. increase. B. stay at the same level. C. decrease.

Define the term "independent assortment" and indicate how this leads to diversity in the genetic content of gametes.

Independent assortment is described in the text as the random alignment of homologous chromosomes (maternal and paternal) along the equator during metaphase I of meiosis. Because the cellular division distributes the maternal and paternal chromosomes randomly, a wide variety of gametes are generated.

A. intake, as food contains some water.

Ingestion of food results in water: A. intake, as food contains some water. B. output, as food absorbs water and we lose more water through feces than we gain through eating.

The hormone _______ is released after a meal and stimulates cellular uptake of glucose and K+.

Insulin

C. decrease, stimulating

Insulin causes blood plasma levels of potassium to ________ by _______ activity of the Na+/K+ pumps. A. increase, stimulating B. increase, inhibiting C. decrease, stimulating D. decrease, inhibiting

Which part of the embryo develops into the kidneys?

Intermediate mesoderm

Which fluid does lymph most closely resemble?

Interstitial fluid

D. two-thirds

Interstitial fluid composes about ________ of the body's extracellular fluid. A. one-tenth B. one-third C. one-half D. two-thirds E. nine-tenths

B. high, different

Interstitial fluid has a relatively _______ concentration of sodium and chloride; the concentrations of ions within the interstitial fluid and blood plasma are very ______. A. high, similar B. high, different C. low, similar D. low, different

Which of the lymphatic trunks drain into the cisterna chyli?

Intestinal trunks and lumbar trunks

98% of the K+ in the body is located in the _____ fluid.

Intracellular

Which is not correct about the left lung?

It has an esophageal depression.

Which is not correct regarding the spleen?

It has an outer cortex and inner medulla.

Which statement is false regarding the oropharynx?

It houses the pharyngeal tonsil.

Which processes does urea undergo within the kidney?

It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted.

To measure GFR, an individual's urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. How is that test substance treated by the kidney?

It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted.

Which statement is true regarding the location of the trachea?

It lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs.

Which is not correct regarding the white pulp of the spleen?

It serves as a blood reservoir.

Which is not an action of interferon?

It signals the immune system that the secreting cell is part of the body and so should not be attacked.

Which class of nephron is crucially important in establishing a salt concentration gradient in the kidney so that urine concentration can be regulated?

Juxtamedullary nephrons

What is the correct sequence of organs for the formation and elimination of urine?

Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra

Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of

LH

Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands?

Labia minora

b

Lacteals a: are found only in the large intestine. b: absorb the products of fat digestion. c: secrete intestinal juice. d: connect directly to the liver. e: All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following are considered fixed acids?

Lactic acid Ketoacid

b

Lactose intolerant individuals cannot digest the _________ lactose because they lack the enzyme _________. a; polysaccharide; maltase b: disaccharide; lactase c: monosaccharide; dextrolactase d: lipid; pancreatic lipase e: fatty acid; sucrolactase

d

Late one night, while studying for your anatomy class, you open a box of saltine crackers to do a little snacking. After chewing on a starchy morsel for a few minutes, you begin to notice a sweet taste in your mouth. What accounts for this? a: "Sweet" taste receptors are slower to respond than others b: Activity of bacteria in the mouth lowers the pH c: Esophageal reflux d: Salivary amylase activity e: Phagocytosis by the pharyngeal tonsils produces by-products that taste sweet

c

Lipid molecules that are absorbed from the GI tract enter a: mesenteric arteries. b: mesenteric veins. c: lymphatic capillaries. d: the liver.

Which of the following does not contain red marrow?

Long bones of digits

c

Lysozyme within saliva primarily functions to a: moisten and disperse food. b: initiate the chemical breakdown of starch. c: inhibit bacterial growth. d: wash materials off teeth.

Which class of major histocompatibility molecules is specific to antigen-presenting cells?

MHC class II

b

Manufacturers of some medications used to treat heartburn advertise that their products shut down the acid-producing pumps in the stomach. Where are these "acid-producing pumps"? In other words, which type of gastric gland cell secretes acid? a; Chief cells b: Parietal cells c: Mucous neck cells d: Surface mucous cells e: Enteroendocrine cells

c

Mastication is a process that facilitates a: propulsion of materials through the intestine, and it involves simultaneous secretion of enzymes. b: mixing of food within the stomach, and it occurs with simultaneous hormone secretion there. c: swallowing of food, and it increases the surface area of the food for exposure to enzymes. d: absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream, and it involves carrier proteins in the epithelium.

How are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related?

Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood.

Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte?

Mature follicle

c

Mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors are found in the a: adventitia of the upper portion of the GI tract. b: epithelium of the inferior portion of the GI tract. c: mucosa and submucosa of the GI tract along its length. d: myenteric plexus of the mucosa of the intestine. e: muscularis interna of the entire length of the GI tract.

B. respiratory alkalosis

Medicines that overstimulate respiratory centers in the brain lead to: A. respiratory acidosis. B. respiratory alkalosis. C. metabolic acidosis. D. metabolic alkalosis.

What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle, beginning with day 1?

Menstrual - proliferative - secretory

Which cord or sheet of connective tissue attaches to the ovary at the hilum?

Mesovarium

Which cations are found in higher concentration in the ICF?

Mg2+, K+

In order to account for the difference in osmotic pressure, electrolytes are expressed as _____________.

Milliequivalents (mEq/L)

Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis?

Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.

B. acid absorbed from the GI tract.

Most of the fixed acid in our body comes from: A. the oxygen we breathe. B. acid absorbed from the GI tract. C. loss of bicarbonate in feces. D. lactic acid from muscle.

B. urine

Most potassium loss from the body occurs through: A. sweat. B. urine. C. feces. D. respiration.

b

Most saliva is produced by the _________ gland. a: parotid b: submandibular c: sublingual d: lingual e: buccal

With respect to the lymphatic system, what do the letters in the acronym MALT stand for?

Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue

Which transporter is responsible for setting up the concentration gradient found between the intracellular and extracellular fluids?

Na+/K+ ATPase

For glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen, it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a

Na+/glucose symporter.

The tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism responds to an increase in

NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers.

Which type of cell responds to multiple antigens?

Natural killer cell

Which is not correct regarding lymph nodes?

No exceptions; all are true of lymph nodes. (They contain strands of lymphatic cells supported by medullary cords, They are drained by efferent lymphatic vessels, They contain macrophages, They filter lymph)

Which area does not contain MALT?

No exceptions; all choices contain MALT (Urinary tract, Respiratory tract, Genital tract, Gastrointestinal tract)

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes that have killed a foreign cell may transform into

None of the choices is correct (a: memory B-lymphocytes.b: natural killer cells.c: plasma cells.d: helper T-lymphocytes.e: )

Solutes can be divided into two categories electrolytes and ________.

Nonelectrolytes

How are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other?

One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct.

Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenicity?

One that is large, complex, foreign, and abundant

What structures are used by both the respiratory and digestive systems?

Oropharynx laryngopharynx

Which statement accurately describes alveolar exchange of oxygen?

Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen.

What changes in the blood levels of respiratory gases result from hyperventilation?

Oxygen levels do not change but carbon dioxide levels fall.

Which are not tonsils?

Palatoglossal tonsils

Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney?

Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

b

Pepsinogen is an a: active enzyme that is released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates. b: inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach. c: active enzyme that digests proteins within the small intestine. d: inactive precursor to a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and released in the small intestine.

d

Peristalsis a: is under voluntary control. b: involves the opening and closing of muscular sphincters. c: involves back-and-forth movement for mixing. d: is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract. e: All of the choices are correct.

The most abundant anion in the ICF is

Phosphate

Which type of cell produces and secretes antibodies?

Plasma cell

Which is not part of the respiratory membrane?

Plasma membrane of Type II cell

Compared to its partial pressure at sea level, what would be the partial pressure of oxygen at an altitude with an atmospheric pressure of only 380 mm Hg (recall that sea level atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg)?

Po2 would be half as much as it would be at sea level.

Also known as the pneumotaxic center, this area allows for smooth transitions between inspiration and expiration.

Pontine respiratory center

Which type of distal cell within kidney tubules and collecting ducts are responsive to aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone?

Principal cells

Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra?

Prostate gland

Match each chemical buffer system with its location:

Protein --> within cells and blood phosphate --> within cells bicarbonate --> within the blood

stomach

Protein digestion begins in the

b

Proteolytic enzymes secreted from the pancreas are activated a: once they reach the pancreatic duct. b: within the lumen of the small intestine. c: in secretory vesicles within pancreatic secretory cells. d: once they reach the large intestine.

Which is not a function of the kidneys?

Regulation of lymphocyte production

C. urine with a low pH and an elevation of blood bicarbonate levels.

Renal compensation for acidosis results in: A. urine with a high pH and an elevation of blood bicarbonate levels. B. urine with a high pH and a decline of blood bicarbonate levels. C. urine with a low pH and an elevation of blood bicarbonate levels. D. urine with a low pH and a decline of blood bicarbonate levels.

C. B cells to excrete more bicarbonate.

Renal compensation to a decrease in blood H+ levels is to increase the activity of type: A. A cells to excrete more bicarbonate. B. A cells to excrete less bicarbonate. C. B cells to excrete more bicarbonate. D. B cells to excrete less bicarbonate.

C. volume excess.

Renal failure would likely lead to: A. volume depletion. B. hypotonicity. C. volume excess. D. hypertonic ascites.

Where are the renal pyramids located within the kidney?

Renal medulla

D. low blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

Renin is released from the JG apparatus in response to: A. high blood pressure or increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. B. high blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. C. low blood pressure or increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. D. low blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

A variety of lymphatic cells are involved in the immune response. Which is not part of the process?

Replication of antigens

B. decrease

Researchers have inflated balloons inside the stomachs of experimental subjects and have found that distention of the stomach causes thirst to: A. increase. B. decrease.

C. carbon dioxide rises.

Respiratory acidosis occurs when the partial pressure of: A. oxygen rises. B. oxygen falls. C. carbon dioxide rises. D. carbon dioxide falls.

Which would be the route taken by lymph traveling from lymphatic vessels in the right leg to the bloodstream?

Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein

Which is not drained by the right lymphatic duct?

Right side of abdomen

In males, the _________ region on the Y chromosome initiates male phenotypic development.

SRY

These muscles increase thoracic cavity dimensions by elevating the first and second ribs during forced inhalation.

Scalenes

small intestine

Secretin is a hormone that is secreted by the

Which step(s) in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule?

Secretion and reabsorption only

Which of the following is true?

Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.

C. bicarbonate ions and therefore causes acidosis

Severe diarrhea results in the increased elimination of: A. hydrogen ions and therefore causes acidosis. B. hydrogen ions and therefore causes alkalosis. C. bicarbonate ions and therefore causes acidosis. D. bicarbonate ions and therefore causes alkalosis.

(T/F) Efferent ductules contain cilia that propel sperm toward the epididymis.

TRUE

Which is not true about spermatogenesis?

Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a man's life.

a

Stenosis (constriction) of the hepatopancreatic ampulla would interfere with a: the transport of bile and pancreatic juice. b: the secretion of mucus. c: the passage of chyme into the small intestine. d: peristalsis. e: salivary gland secretion

d

Stenosis (constriction) of the pyloric sphincter would interfere with a: passage of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum. b: peristalsis. c: passage of a bolus into the stomach. d: passage of chyme into the duodenum. e: mucus secretion.

Which layer is not found in the wall of the ureter?

Submucosa

Simple sugars are carbohydrates. (T/F)

T

Which type of lymphocyte has coreceptors that assist in the interaction of the lymphocyte with a cell presenting antigen?

T-lymphocyte

(T/F) An erection is the result of parasympathetic innervation, and ejaculation is the result of sympathetic innervation.

TRUE

(T/F) Both males and females have accessory reproductive organs, including ducts through which gametes are carried.

TRUE

(T/F) During female sexual excitement, the mammary glands, clitoris, and labia become engorged with blood.

TRUE

(T/F) During the resolution phase, the central artery of the penis decreases in diameter.

TRUE

When women with breast cancer undergo surgery to remove the tumor or the entire breast, the axillary lymph nodes are often removed as well. Why?

The axillary lymph nodes receive lymph from the breast and may contain cancer cells.

B. H2CO3 is a weak acid, and HCO3- is a weak base.

The bicarbonate system is composed of H2CO3 and HCO3-. Which statement accurately describes these molecules? A. H2CO3 and HCO3- are both weak acids. B. H2CO3 is a weak acid, and HCO3- is a weak base. C. H2CO3 is a weak base, and HCO3- is a weak acid. D. H2CO3 and HCO3- are both strong bases. E. H2CO3 is a strong base, and HCO3- is a weak acid.

intrinsic

The buccal, lingual, and labial salivary glands are __________ salivary glands.

What structures fuse during female development to form the uterus?

The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts

c

The central cavity of a tooth is filled with a: cementum. b: dentin. c: pulp. d: enamel. e: calcium phosphate.

b

The deciduous teeth are the _________ teeth, and there are a total of ____ deciduous teeth. a: milk; 8 b: milk; 20 c: wisdom; 4 d: permanent; 20 e: permanent; 28

B. alkalosis

The development of hypoxia can limit the effectiveness of respiratory compensation for metabolic: A. acidosis. B. alkalosis.

low

The enzyme pepsin becomes active when pH is

d

The esophagus a; secretes digestive enzymes from its mucosa. b: is located anterior to the trachea. c: opens to the stomach at the pyloric sphincter. d: contains both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers. e; is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor?

The fetus

Which is not correct regarding the ovaries?

The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium.

d

The gastroenterologist has just determined that you have a blockage in your jejunum and he will have to perform surgery, making a small incision in the wall to remove the obstruction. Which tunic will be cut first? a: Mucosa b: Submucosa c: Tunica muscularis d: Serosa e: Adventitia

A. acidosis

The high metabolic rate of infants puts them at increased risk of metabolic: A. acidosis. B. alkalosis.

D. dilate, which lowers blood pressure

The hormone ANP causes systemic blood vessels to: A. constrict, which raises blood pressure. B. constrict, which lowers blood pressure. C. dilate, which raises blood pressure. D. dilate, which lowers blood pressure.

B. increases urine output and decreases blood volume

The hormone ANP: A. increases urine output and increases blood volume. B. increases urine output and decreases blood volume. C. decreases urine output and decreases blood volume. D. decreases urine output and increases blood volume.

a

The inferior esophageal sphincter is also known as the a: cardiac sphincter. b: pyloric sphincter. c: pharyngoesophageal sphincter. d: pharyngealgastric sphincter. e: esophageal hiatus.

d

The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion is the a: stomach. b: small intestine. c: esophagus. d: oral cavity. e: pharynx.

d

The lining of the gastrointestinal tract that allows for absorption and secretion is a: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. b: nonkeratinized stratfied squamous epithelium. c: areolar connective tissue. d: simple columnar epithelium. e: simple squamous epithelium.

b

The mastication center is located in the _____________ of the brain. a: hippocampus and amygdala b: medulla and pons c: hypothalamus d: entorhinal cortex and basal nuclei e: solitary nucleus

A. electrolyte

The molecule HCl is an example of a(n): A. electrolyte. B. nonelectrolyte. C. base.

C. chloride

The most abundant anion in the extracellular fluid is: A. negatively charged proteins. B. phosphate. C. chloride. D. hydrogen. E. acetic acid.

B. potassium

The most abundant cation within cells is: A. sodium. B. potassium. C. calcium. D. chloride. E. magnesium.

C. respiratory acidosis

The most common type of acid-base imbalance is: A. metabolic acidosis. B. metabolic alkalosis. C. respiratory acidosis. D. respiratory alkalosis.

b

The pancreas is located primarily on the ______ side of the body, and it produces an _______ juice that is rich in a variety of enzymes. a: left, acidic b: left, alkaline c: right, acidic d: right, alkaline

D. less, extracellular

The plasma of our blood constitutes ______ than half of the fluid in our body; plasma is part of the _____________ fluid. A. more, intracellular B. more, extracellular C. less, intracellular D. less, extracellular

b

The presence of fatty chyme in the small intestine stimulates it to release _______, which causes the a: gastrin, liver to secrete an alkaline solution. b: CCK, gallbladder to release bile. c: CCK, stomach to increase gastric secretion. d: secretin, stomach to increase motility. e: secretin, pancreas to release acidic pancreatic juice.

b

The presence of food in the stomach triggers the release of a hormone that stimulates contraction of the pyloric sphincter. Specifically, these events involve release of a: secretin in the cephalic phase of digestion. b: gastrin in the gastric phase of digestion. c: CCK in the intestinal phase of digestion. d: lipase in the intestinal phase of digestion. e: chyle in the secretory phase of digestion

C. slow (takes hours to days) but powerful.

The process by which the kidneys eliminate excess acid or base is relatively: A. quick (takes minutes) and powerful. B. quick (takes minutes) but limited (is not very powerful). C. slow (takes hours to days) but powerful. D. slow (takes hours to days) and limited (is not very powerful).

e

The projections on the superior surface of the tongue, some of which house taste buds, are the a; tonsils. b: cilia. c: rugae. d: glossal spines. e: papillae.

Which is not correct regarding nephrons?

The renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla.

c

The type of receptor within the GI tract wall that detects stretch is the a: steroid receptor. b: chemoreceptor. c: mechanoreceptor. d: retroperitoneal proprioceptor.

Which part of an antibody attaches to an antigen?

The variable region

Two individuals of the same size (same dead space) have a pulmonary ventilation rate of 6 L/min, but one is breathing 10 breaths/min and the other is breathing 15 breaths/min. How do their alveolar ventilation rates compare?

The slower breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate.

C.low blood pressure, low blood volume, and high blood osmolarity.

The stimuli that trigger the release of ADH are: A. high blood pressure, high blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. B. high blood pressure, low blood volume, and low blood osmolarity. C. low blood pressure, low blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. D. low blood pressure, high blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. E. low blood pressure, low blood volume, and low blood osmolarity.

B. increased stretch of the heart atria

The stimulus that directly triggers release of ANP is: A. decreased pressure detected by baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid arteries. B. increased stretch of the heart atria. C. increased saltiness in the cerebrospinal fluid bathing the hypothalamus of the brain. D. increased saltiness of tubular fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule.

Which of the following has the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide?

The systemic cells

b

The term "canines" describes the teeth that a: are most anterior, used for slicing and cutting. b: are lateral to the incisors, used for puncturing and tearing. c: bear dental cusps for cutting and grinding. d: are only found as permanent teeth.

b

The term "retroperitoneal" may be used to describe the location of certain abdominal organs. This means that such organs are located a: between the visceral and parietal layers of the peritoneum. b: posterior to the parietal peritoneum. c: in the peritoneal cavity. d: between folds of the parietal peritoneum. e: deep to the visceral peritoneum.

B. hypothalamus

The thirst center of the brain is located in the: A. hippocampus. B. hypothalamus. C. occipital lobe. D. pons.

During quiet expiration,

Thoracic cavity volume decreases

C. milliequivalents per liter

To account for their effects on osmotic pressure, the concentration of electrolytes is often expressed in: A. moles. B. moieties. C. milliequivalents per liter. D. moles per liter. E. milliliters.

A deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1) may result in a weakened heart and edema. (T/F)

True

Essential vitamins must be provided in the diet. (T/F)

True

Individuals who are growing or recovering from an injury exhibit positive nitrogen balance. (T/F)

True

True/False: Lymph contains protein.

True

True/False: Mucous secretions of the respiratory tract include antimicrobial substances such as lysozyme and defensins.

True

Where in the urinary tract is transitional epithelium found?

Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra

Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste product produced from nucleic acid breakdown in the liver?

Uric acid

Which of the following are ways in which we lose fluid from the body?

Urinating Sweating Breathing

Which does not provide structural support for the uterus?

Uterine ligament

stimulates

Vagus nerve activity ________ release of pancreatic juice.

What is the name of the column of neurons within the medulla that initiates neural impulses for inspiration and expiration?

Ventral respiratory group

Which structure is not found in both males and females?

Vestibular gland

c

Villi a: are found throughout the gastrointestinal tract. b: generate movement of materials in the large intestine. c: increase surface area in the small intestine. d: contain both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers. e: All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following may cause metabolic alkalosis?

Vomiting Overuse of diuretics Overuse of antacids

A. sensible, obligatory

Water lost through feces is considered ___________ water loss. A. sensible, obligatory B. sensible, facultative C. insensible, obligatory D. insensible, facultative

d

What is the correct order for the layers of the GI tract wall, from innermost (next to lumen) to outermost? a; Mucosa - submucosa - adventitia/serosa - muscularis b: Muscularis - mucosa - adventitia/serosa - submucosa c: Adventitia/serosa - mucosa - submucosa - muscularis d: Mucosa - submucosa - muscularis - adventitia/serosa e: Adventitia/serosa - muscularis - mucosa - submucosa

b

What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum? a: Left colic flexure b: Ascending colon c: Transverse colon d: Right colic flexure e: Sigmoid colon f: Descending colon a: f, c, d, e, a, b b: b, d, c, a, f, e c: e, b, a, c, d, f d: b, a, c, d, f, e e: e, b, d, c, a, f

c

What is the primary function of the large intestine? a: Storage of vitamins and minerals b: Protein digestion and nutrient absorption c: Water and electrolyte absorption d: Secretion of water, salts, sodium bicarbonate, and enzymes

d

What material is transported in the sinusoids of the liver? a: Bile b: Arterial blood c: Venous blood d: Mixed arterial and venous blood e: Hepatic juice

d

What structures compose a portal triad? A: Branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and hepatic duct b: Branches of the common bile duct, central vein, and hepatic artery c: Branches of the hepatic duct, cystic duct, and central vein d: Branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic duct e: Branches of the cystic duct, central vein, and hepatic artery

b

What type of epithelium lines the majority of the oral cavity? a: Keratinized stratified squamous b: Nonkeratinized stratified squamous c: Pseudostratified ciliated columnar d: Keratinized stratified cuboidal e: Nonkeratinized stratified cuboidal

B. two solute particles per NaCl molecule and exerts twice the osmotic pressure of the same number of nonelectrolyte molecules.

When NaCl is added to body fluids it results in the addition of: A. one solute particle per NaCl molecule and exerts an osmotic pressure equivalent to that of a nonelectrolyte. B. two solute particles per NaCl molecule and exerts twice the osmotic pressure of the same number of nonelectrolyte molecules. C. three solute particles per NaCl molecule and exerts one-third the osmotic pressure of the same number of nonelectrolyte molecules. D. one solute particle per NaCl molecule, but because it is uncharged it does not result in osmotic pressure.

A. metabolic acidosis

When bicarbonate levels fall due to an accumulation of fixed acids in the body, the result is: A. metabolic acidosis. B. metabolic alkalosis. C. insufficient respiration. D. respiratory acidosis. E. respiratory alkalosis.

B. secrete bicarbonate while reabsorbing H+ in exchange through type B cells.

When blood starts to become more alkaline than normal the renal tubules begin to: A. secrete bicarbonate and H+ through type B cells. B. secrete bicarbonate while reabsorbing H+ in exchange through type B cells. C. secrete H+ while reabsorbing bicarbonate in exchange through type A cells. D. absorb bicarbonate and H+ through type A cells.

C. synthesizing and reabsorbing bicarbonate ions while secreting H+.

When blood starts to become too acidic, the kidneys respond by: A. synthesizing and secreting bicarbonate ions while reabsorbing H+. B. synthesizing and reabsorbing H+ while filtering bicarbonate ions. C. synthesizing and reabsorbing bicarbonate ions while secreting H+. D. decreasing filtration rate and increasing reabsorption of both bicarbonate ions and H+. E. increasing filtration rate and increasing reabsorption of H+.

A. more potassium and more negatively charged proteins.

When compared to extracellular fluid, intracellular fluid contains: A. more potassium and more negatively charged proteins. B. more potassium but fewer negatively charged proteins. C. less potassium but more negatively charged proteins. D. less potassium and less negatively charged proteins.

B. more immediate but less accurate

When compared with the effects of blood pressure and osmolarity on fluid intake, the effects of saliva and stomach distention are: A. more immediate and more accurate. B. more immediate but less accurate. C. more long-term and more accurate. D. more long-term but less accurate.

B. The male

When comparing a lean adult female to a lean adult male, which will most likely have a higher percentage of body fluid? A. The female B. The male

B. ICF to the ECF

When the pH of the ECF decreases, K+ starts to move from the: A. ECF to the ICF. B. ICF to the ECF.

c

Where are the transverse palatine folds located? a: Soft palate b: Glossopalatine arch c: Hard palate d: Pharyngopalatine arch e: Labial frenulum

d

Which bones form the hard palate? A: Palatine bones b: Maxillae and inferior nasal conchae c: Ethmoid and sphenoid bones d: Palatine bones and maxillae e: Maxillae and sphenoid

c

Which cranial nerves innervate the salivary glands? a: V and VII b: XI and XII c: VII and IX d: VI and IX e: V and XI

cystic duct

Which duct transports bile to and from the gallbladder?

D. sodium

Which ion is the principal solute of the ECF and is crucial for neuromuscular and renal function? A. Magnesium B. Phosphate C. Calcium D. Sodium E. Potassium

b

Which is an accurate description of glucose and sucrose? a: Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a polysaccharide, both molecules are starches. b: Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a disaccharide, both molecules are carbohydrates. c: Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a monosaccharide, both molecules are lipids. d: Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a glycolipid, both molecules are essential nutrients. e: Glucose is a monoamine, sucrose is a dipeptide, both molecules are acidic.

e

Which is not a fold of peritoneum that forms a mesentery? a: Lesser omentum b: Falciform ligament c: Mesentery proper d: Mesocolon e: Intraperitoneal ligament

d

Which is not a function of the digestive system? a: Absorption b: Ingestion c: Secretion d: Micturition e: Elimination

c

Which is not a lobe of the liver? a; Right lobe b: Caudate lobe c: Round lobe d: Quadrate lobe e: Left lobe

d

Which is not found in the wall of the large intestine? a: Goblet cells b: Simple columnar epithelium c: Lymphatic nodules d: Villi e: Intestinal glands

b

Which is the layer of the serous membrane that directly covers the surface of internal organs? a: Omental layer b: Visceral peritoneum c: Parietal peritoneum d: Rectal peritoneum e: Muscularis mucosa

e

Which layer(s) of the wall of the GI tract contain a nerve plexus? a: Muscularis only b: Mucosa and serosa c: Adventitia only d: Mucosa and muscularis e: Submucosa and muscularis

b

Which list of terms progresses from the most superficial structure to the deepest? a: Peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum, parietal peritonoeum b: Parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum c: Visceral peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, parietal peritoneum d: Visceral peritoneum, parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity

C. decreased salivary secretions

Which of the following does not turn off the thirst center of the brain? A. Decreased blood osmolarity B. Entry of fluid in the stomach C. Decreased salivary secretions D. Increased blood pressure

b

Which of the following is considered to be one of the primary digestive system hormones? a: Bile b: Gastrin c: Hydrochloric acid d: Pancreatic amylase

e

Which of the following is the correct sequence of regions of the small intestine, from beginning to end? a; Ileum - duodenum - jejunum b: Jejunum - duodenum - ileum c: Duodenum - ileum - jejunum d: Ileum - jejunum - duodenum e: Duodenum - jejunum - ileum

d

Which of the following statements is true about teeth? a: The primary component of teeth is dentin. b: The outer surface of enamel forms the crown of a tooth. c: The root is covered by cementum. d: All of the choices are correct.

e

Which organ is not considered an accessory digestive organ? a: Tongue b: Teeth c: Pancreas d: Salivary glands e: Pharynx

e

Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract? a: Esophagus b: Large intestine c: Stomach d: Oral cavity e: Liver

pancreas

Which organ is retroperitoneal?

b

Which peritoneal fold attaches the liver to the anterior internal body wall? a: Coronary ligament b: Falciform ligament c: Mesentery proper d: Intraperitoneal ligament e: Hepatic ligament

d

Which peritoneal fold supports the large intestine? a: Greater omentum b: Lesser omentum c: Falciform ligament d: Mesocolon e: Peritoneal ligament

b

Which phase of digestion involves the thought, smell, and sight of food? a: Gastric phase b: Cephalic phase c: Enteric phase d: Colic phase

large intestine

Which region of the digestive tract moves material by peristalsis, haustral churning, and mass movement?

A. Both the plasma membrane and the capillary wall are permeable to water.

Which statement accurately describes the permeability to water of the cell membrane and the capillary wall? A. Both the plasma membrane and the capillary wall are permeable to water. B. The plasma membrane is permeable to water, but the capillary wall is not. C. The plasma membrane is not permeable to water, but the capillary wall is. D. Neither the plasma membrane nor the capillary wall are permeable to water.

B. preformed water

Which type of intake accounts for most of our daily fluid intake? A. Metabolic water B. Preformed water

Which structure is an important site for early blood cell formation and is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to form?

Yolk sac

^Which is not correct regarding lymph nodes?

^Connective tissue bands called tendineae divide nodes.

^What structure prevents food and drink from entering the trachea, conducts air, and produces sound?

^larynx

A deficiency in vitamin _____ may result in night blindness as well as dry, flaky skin. a: A b: B12 c: C d: D e: E

a

Calcium, chloride, and cobalt are all examples of _______ minerals. a: major b: trace c: fat-soluble d: nonessential

a

Disaccharides are one type of a: carbohydrate. b: starch. c: lipid. d: essential amino acid. e: triglyceride.

a

In response to decreases in body temperature, the brain signals the a: anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone. b: anterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone. c: posterior pituitary to release thyroid-releasing hormone. d: posterior pituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone.

a

In response to the increased availability of nutrients during the absorptive state, liver and muscle a: increase glycogenesis. b: increase gluconeogenesis. c: decrease amino acid uptake. d: All of the choices are correct.

a

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are a: fat-soluble. b: water-soluble.

a

Which type of vitamins will be absorbed from the intestine into lacteals (lymphatic capillaries)? a: Fat-soluble b: Water-soluble

a

The average adult kidney weighs about 100 grams and measures about a: 12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick. b: 8 cm long, 4 cm wide, and 1.5 cm thick. c: 15 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 4.5 cm thick. d: 8 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick. e: 12 cm long, 2.5 cm wide, and 8 cm thick.

a 12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, 2.5 cm thick

The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with a a: cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area. b: simple columnar epithelium with a slick smooth surface. c: stratified squamous epithelium with a large surface area. d: stratified squamous epithelium with a tough, durable surface. e: simple squamous endothelium that makes a slick surface.

a cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area.

An increase in dead space results in

a decrease in alveolar ventilation but no change in pulmonary ventilation.

From innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the a: fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. b: renal corpuscle, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. c: renal fascia, paranephric fat, renal corpuscle, perinephric fat. d: renal fascia, perinephric fat, fibrous capsule, paranephric fat. e: fibrous capsule, paranephric fat, renal fascia, perinephric fat.

a fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat.

In the process of urine formation, first a: filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine. b: tubular fluid is formed, then filtrate, then urine.

a filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine.

Dehydration results in a: increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption. b: increased ADH secretion and decreased water reabsorption. c: decreased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption. d: decreased ADH secretion and decreased water reabsorption.

a increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption.

The countercurrent multiplier is a system by which the a: nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla. b: nephron loop dilutes the concentration of solutes in the tubular fluid at its hairpin turn. c: vasa recta secretes multiple amounts of metabolic wastes against their concentration gradient. d: vasa recta becomes more concentrated with nitrogenous wastes than the urine.

a nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla.

Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation. a: Capsular space of glomerulus b: Nephron loop c: Collecting duct d: Distal convoluted tubule e: Proximal convoluted tubule

a, e, b, d, c

The clumping of foreign cells that occurs when antibodies cross-link their antigens is known as

agglutination

which of the options is a hormone that increases k+ secretion into the urine

aldosterone

Normal blood pH is slightly __________.

alkaline

Phagocytic cells of the alveolus are the

alveolar macrophages

The most common cell making up the alveolar wall is the

alveolar type I cell

The alveolar cell that secretes pulmonary surfactant is the

alveolar type II cell

The secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female are the

alveoli

Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the

amnion and embryonic disc.

The uterine enlargement that occurs during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy is mostly the result of

amniotic fluid production as well as growth of uterine muscle and the placenta

The ejaculatory duct is formed by the

ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle.

The normal site of fertilization is the

ampulla of the uterine tube

Fertilization typically occurs in the _________, and it restores the _________ number of chromosomes.

ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid

Sister chromatids are pulled apart in

anaphase II.

The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the

anterior pituitary gland.

Prolactin is secreted from the ________ gland, and its levels ___________ during pregnancy.

anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

Normally, the uterus is angled anterosuperiorly within the body, a position referred to as ________.

anteverted

An immunoglobulin is a(n)

antibody, which is a protein molecule.

In response to increased blood osmolarity, the osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are stimulated to release more _______ hormone

antidiuretic

Nutrients such as glucose and amino acids within the tubular fluid

are completely reabsorbed.

Foreign particles

are more likely to lodge in the right primary bronchus

The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from most other capillary networks in the body because they drain into an ________ instead of a ______.

arteriole, venule.

The thymus is at its maximum size

at puberty.

A deficiency in vitamin ______ may lead to bleeding problems. a: A b: K c: D d: E e: C

b

A nonessential amino acid is one that a: is not used in any physiological functions. b: can be made within the body. c: has the same structure as one of the other amino acids. d: needs to come from the diet.

b

An increase in metabolic rate would alter body temperature and trigger a compensatory a: stimulation of sweat glands and vasoconstriction in blood vessels of the skin. b: stimulation of sweat glands and vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin. c: inhibition of sweat glands and vasoconstriction in blood vessels of the skin. d: inhibition of sweat glands and vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin.

b

Beta oxidation is a step in the synthesis of cholesterol that involves a: closing of a linear fatty acid chain into a steroid loop. b: breakdown of fatty acids into two-carbon units to form acetyl CoA. c: synthesis of bile salts from precursor lipids. d: absorption of micelles from the small intestine.

b

Bile canaliculi are located a: within branches of the hepatic artery. b: between cords of hepatocytes. c: adjacent to the central artery of a liver lobule. d: adjacent to the central vein of a liver lobule.

b

Cofactors such as NADH are found in all cells of the body and are often recycled. Such cofactors are categorized as __________ vitamins. a: essential b: nonessential

b

During the absorptive state, insulin release is a: inhibited. b: stimulated.

b

Fruits, maple syrup, and sugar are all sources of a: cellulose. b: sucrose. c: lactose. d: nitrogen.

b

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are associated with the tranport of lipid from the a: liver to periperal tissues. b: peripheral tissues to the liver.

b

How do low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) move into cells? a: LDLs diffuse through channels in the membrane. b: LDLs are engulfed through receptor-mediated endocytosis. c: LDLs diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer. d: LDLs are transported through a pump that is also an ATPase.

b

If more glucose is consumed than is needed, the glucose can be a: converted to an essential amino acid so that protein synthesis can increase. b: converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage. c: broken down to 2 NADH molecules that can enter the citric acid cycle. d: deaminated by the liver and sent to the kidney for excretion in the urine.

b

Insulin causes adipose tissue to a: stimulate lipolysis and inhibit lipogenesis. b: inhibit lipolysis and stimulate lipogenesis. c: stimulate both lipolysis and lipogenesis. d: stimulate lipolysis and gluconeogenesis.

b

Iron is considered a a: major mineral, because it has a crucial physiological role. b: trace mineral, because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet. c: major mineral, because it is extremely abundant in the Earth. d: trace mineral, because it is rare on the Earth.

b

Lacto-ovo vegetarians do not eat animal flesh, a: nor do they eat milk, eggs, or cheese. b: but do eat milk, eggs, and cheese.

b

Milk is a source of lactose, which is a a: lipid. b: carbohydrate. c: protein. d: vitamin.

b

Muscle cramps are associated with a deficiency in a: copper. b: chloride. c: vitamin A. d: monosaccharides.

b

Negative nitrogen balance is commonly seen in individuals who a: are pregnant or growing. b: have lost blood or are malnourished.

b

One of the metabolic functions of the liver is transamination, which is conversion of a: NH2 to urea. b: one amino acid form to another. c: amino acid into carbohydrate. d: acetyl CoA to a ketone body.

b

Positive nitrogen balance is a condition where a: an individual's nitrogen input is equal to its loss in urine and feces. b: an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted. c: an individual's nitrogen intake is greater than phosphate intake. d: too many proteins are being ingested in the diet. e: a food has a positive effect on blood nitrogen levels.

b

Recommended daily allowances established by the Food and Nutrition Board are based on a: individual needs and factor in sex, age, and body mass. b: averages obtained from population studies.

b

Recommended daily allowances were established by the Food and Nutrition board as directed by the a: largest food-producing companies. b: National Academy of Sciences.

b

Sweating and shivering are necessary adaptations because a: all parts of the body must remain at normal body temperature to maintain life. b: the health of vital organs requires a near-normal temperature, and metabolic rate fluctuates with changes in the environment. c: to ensure that total metabolic rate remains constant, the body generates or releases heat as needed. d: proteins rapidly denature when tissue temperature drops below 98.5°F.

b

The absorptive state occurs a: about 12 hours after a meal, when you are sleeping. b: from when you are eating until about 4 hours after the meal.

b

Vigorous physical activity causes total metabolic rate to a: increase for the duration of the exercise. b: increase during the exercise and for hours afterwards. c: remain constant. d: decrease to conserve energy during the exercise but increase to repay oxygen debt. e: decrease during the exercise and for hours afterwards.

b

When an individual is exposed to cold temperatures, total metabolic rate a: decreases. b: increases. c: remains constant.

b

When fatty acids are metabolized for cellular respiration, the first step involves breaking two carbons off the chain at a time to form acetyl CoA molecules. Acetyl CoA then a: undergoes glycolysis. b: enters the citric acid cycle. c: begins the electron transport chain. d: is converted to pyruvate and lactate.

b

Which statement accurately describes the flow of blood through sinusoids of the liver? a: Blood flows within the sinusoids away from the central blood vessel. b: Blood flows within the sinusoids toward the central blood vessel. c: Some sinusoids contain blood flowing toward the center of the lobule, other sinusoids contain blood flowing away from the center of the lobule. d: Blood and bile mix within the sinusoids and flow toward larger and larger bile ducts.

b

Which accurately describes the handling of urea by the kidney? a: All of the urea that reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine. b: About half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine. c: None of the urea that reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine.

b About half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine.

To calculate GFR, the concentration of a marker molecule is measured in both the blood and the urine, and the total volume of urine produced is also measured. Which of the following sets of results indicates the highest GFR? a: High concentration of the marker in the blood, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the urine b: High concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood c: High concentration of the marker in the urine, low volume of urine, high concentration of the marker in the blood d: High concentration of the marker in the blood, low volume of urine, high concentration of the marker in the blood

b High concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood

Which processes does urea undergo within the kidney? a: It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted. b: It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted. c: It is filtered and can also be secreted but not reabsorbed. d: It is not filtered nor reabsorbed but can be secreted. e: It is not filtered but can be secreted and reabsorbed.

b It is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted.

Which class of nephron is crucially important in establishing a salt concentration gradient in the kidney so that urine concentration can be regulated? a: Intercalated nephrons b: Juxtamedullary nephrons c: Adrenal nephrons d: Cortical nephrons

b Juxtamedullary nephrons

What is the correct sequence of organs for the formation and elimination of urine? a: Bladder, urethra, kidney, ureter b: Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra c: Kidney, urethra, bladder, ureter d: Kidney, bladder, ureter, urethra e: Urethra, bladder, kidney, ureter

b Kidney,ureter,bladder,urethra

How are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related? a: They both involve movement of material from the blood into the tubular fluid. b: Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood. c: Materials move in opposite directions: secretion moves materials into the blood, whereas reabsorption removes them from the blood. d: They both involve movement of material from the tubular fluid into the blood.

b Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood.

For glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen, it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a a: glucose uniporter. b: Na+/glucose symporter. c: glucose protein channel. d: Na+/glucose antiporter.

b Na+/glucose symporter.

How are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other? a: One collecting duct drains into one nephron, and one nephron drains into one collecting tubule. b: One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct. c: One nephron drains into one collecting duct, and several collecting ducts empty into a collecting tubule. d: One collecting tubule drains into one nephron, and several nephrons drain into one collecting duct. e: One nephron drains into several collecting tubules, and all tubules eventually lead to one collecting duct.

b One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct.

Pregnancy tests often involve checking the urine for the presence of a: bilirubin from the fetus. b: human chorionic gonadotropin. c: sulfonamides. d: epinephrine and prostaglandin.

b human chorionic gonadotropin.

Which is not correct regarding the urinary bladder? a: There are two ureteral openings. b: The inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex. c: The mucosa has rugae for distension. d: The peritoneum covers only the superior surface of the bladder.

b The inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex

Nutrients such as glucose and amino acids within the tubular fluid a: are completely secreted. b: are completely reabsorbed. c: have half of their plasma concentration secreted. d: have a little less than half of their tubular fluid concentration reabsorbed. e: have concentrations in the filtrate and urine that match their transport maximum.

b are completely reabsorbed.

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney results in a: constriction of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. b: constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus. c: dilation of afferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. d: dilation of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

b constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus.

The presence of proteins in the plasma tends to a: push fluid across the filtration membrane. b: draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

b draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

Mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by a: secreting emulsifying agents that dissolve trapped particles. b: engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane. c: opening larger pores in the membrane so that trapped particles move accross. d: secreting antibodies that attack the molecules caught in the endothelium.

b engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane.

Net filtration pressure is equal to the a: capsular hydrostatic pressure plus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and the glomerular hydrostatic pressure. b: glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure. c: capsular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and glomerular hydrostatic pressure. d: blood colloid osmotic pressure minus the capsular hydrostatic pressure. e: glomerular hydrostatic pressure plus blood colloid osmotic pressure minus capsular hydrostatic pressure.

b glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure.

The main parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the a: principal cells and macula densa. b: granular cells and macula densa. c: granular cells and intercalated cells. d: intercalated cells and principal cells. e: principal cells and granular cells.

b granular cells and macula densa.

Generally, a very _______ percent of Na+ in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place _________. a: high; only in the nephron loop b: high; along the entire tubule c: small; only in the nephron loop d: small; along the entire tubule

b high; along the entire tubule

If someone is bleeding severely, the body's adaptive response is to a: increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR. b: increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. c: decrease sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. d: decrease sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR.

b increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR.

The hormone ANP is released from the heart and causes the urinary system to a: increase urine volume and blood volume. b: increase urine volume and decrease blood volume. c: decrease urine volume and blood volume. d: decrease urine volume and increase blood volume.

b increase urine volume and decrease blood volume.

Urine passes from the renal papilla into a a: major calyx, then to a minor calyx, then to a ureter. b: minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis. c: ureter, then to a minor calyx, then to a major calyx. d: renal pelvis, then to a major calyx, then to a ureter. e: collecting duct, then to a minor calyx, then to a major calyx.

b minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis.

The primary mechanism of water reabsorption in the kidney is a: primary active transport by means of a protein pump. b: osmosis through aquaporins. c: secondary active transport by means of a sodium-water symporter. d: bulk transport by means of endocytosis.

b osmosis through aquaporins.

Most tubular reabsorption occurs in the a: proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many flagella. b: proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli. c: distal convoluted tubule, where cells have many flagella. d: distal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli.

b proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli.

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) a: stimulates reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate. b: stimulates reabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption. c: inhibits reabsorption of calcium but stimulates phosphate reabsorption. d: inhibits reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate.

b stimulates reabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption.

Pain from the kidneys is usually referred by way of the: a: autonomic pathways to the inferior pelvic organs. b: sympathetic pathways to the T10-T12 dermatomes. c: somatic pathways to the left shoulder. d: parasympathetic pathways to the T1-T2 region.

b sympathetic pathways to the T10-T12 dermatomes.

The renal threshold of a substance refers to a: the number of protein transporters for the substance per tubule. b: the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine. c: the concentration of the substance found in the kidney before the substance becomes toxic. d: the concentration of the substance in the urine that results in an overall increase in urine volume.

b the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine.

In order to accommodate the large liver, a: the left kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the right kidney. b: the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

b the right kidney is about 2 cm inferior to the left kidney

The word "countercurrent" within "countercurrent multiplier" refers to the opposite direction of flow of a: sodium and potassium across the wall of the nephron. b: tubular fluid within the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop. c: salts and water across the wall of the renal tubule. d: tubular fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule.

b tubular fluid within the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop.

If there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive a: vasoconstriction of efferent arterioles to raise GFR. b: vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal. c: vasodilation of efferent arterioles to lower GFR. d: vasodilation of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

b vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

Podocytes are cells with foot-like processes called pedicels. Podocytes are found in the a: basement membrane of the glomerulus. b: visceral layer of the glomerular capsule. c: periphery of the distal convoluted tubule. d: endothelium of the glomerulus.

b visceral layer of the glomerular capsule

Organize the items listed into the proper sequence of events for gas exchange. a: O2 is transported to cells by circulatory system. b: O2 is drawn into the lungs during inhalation. c: Cells use O2 and generate CO2. d: CO2 is exhaled. e: The circulatory system transports CO2 to the lungs.

b, a, c, e, d

Which answer places the following events in proper order for pulmonary ventilation? a: Thoracic cavity volume changes .b: Brainstem nuclei stimulate skeletal muscles to contract. c: Air flows down its pressure gradient. d: Dimensional changes in the thorax lead to pressure changes within the lung.

b, a, d, c

Generally, negatively charged plasma proteins are

repelled by the negative charge of the filtration membrane

The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the __________. a. endoderm b. mesoderm c. ectoderm

b. mesoderm

During fertilization, the nuclei of the sperm and the ovum are referred to as _________, before they come together and fuse to form a single nucleus. a. postparatum b. pronuclei c. postnuclei

b. pronuclei

Blood vessel growth within the uterus is promoted by the hormone __________. a. dialation b. relaxin

b. relaxin

Exudate is

fluid that leaves capillaries to "wash" the interstitial space of an injured tissue.

Immediately before blood enters arterioles of the kidney, it travels through small arteries that project peripherally into the renal cortex. These arteries are the a: arcuate arteries. b: interlobular arteries. c: segmental arteries. d: lobar arteries. e: peritubular arteries.

b: interlobar arteries

metabolic alkalosis is cause by high levels of ___ ions

bicarbonate

metabolic acidosis occurs when arterial blood levels of

bicarbonate ion fall below normal

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of

blood in the glomerular capillaries.

which of the following are locations where phosphate ions are stored as Ca2(PO4)2

bones, teeth

Changes in the size of the uterus during pregnancy are due to

both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.

Consuming meat that has been infected with a prion can lead to the disease

bovine spongiform encephalopathy.

The involuntary, rhythmic activities that deliver and remove respiratory gases are regulated in the

brainstem

Activation of sympathetic nerves that innervate lung tissue results in

bronchodilation

Each lung consists of a number of segments called

bronchopulmonary segments

Mechanisms that neutralize acids, such as bases and physiological means of excretion, are called __________.

buffers

All of the following are associated with a deficiency in calcium, except a: loss of bone mass. b: muscle weakness. c: anemia. d: depressed nerve activity.

c

An amine group that is removed from an amino acid within a hepatocyte is then a: used to form a peptide bond between a protein and a lipid. b: used to generate bile salts and excreted in the feces. c: converted to urea and eliminated as part of urine. d: sent to a mitochondria to enter the citric acid cycle.

c

At the middle of a liver lobule is a central a: artery. b: arteriole. c: vein. d: sinusoidal capillary. e: biliary ductule.

c

Core body temperature is the a: average temperature across all portions of the body. b: average body temperature across all hours of the day. c: temperature of the head and torso. d: temperature recorded at the center of the long bones of the limbs.

c

Gram for gram, the largest amount of energy can be stored in the body in the form of a: vitamins. b: steroids. c: triglycerides. d: monosaccharides. e: polysaccharides.

c

In 2011, the USDA created ________ to replace the food pyramid. a: RDA b: the Food and Nutrition Board c: MyPlate d: NutritionFacts

c

Inorganic ions such as sodium and potassium are a: vitamins. b: essential amino acids. c: minerals. d: trace carbohydrates.

c

Iodine is an example of a(n) a: essential amino acid. b: vitamin. c: mineral. d: nitrogenous base.

c

Metabolic rate is a measurement of the a: total number of calories consumed per hour. b: amount of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight. c: energy used in a given period of time. d: heat given off by contracting muscles.

c

MyPlate depicts fruits and vegetables occupying _______ of the plate. a: one-tenth b: one-fourth c: one-half d: nine-tenths

c

What is the value of transitional epithelium in the urinary system? a: Its cilia help propel the urine. b: It can contract to produce peristalsis. c: It allows distension. d: It protects against trauma. e: It provides cushioning.

c It allows distension.

To measure GFR, an individual's urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. How is that test substance treated by the kidney? a: It is filtered, reabsorbed, and excreted, but it is not secreted. b: It is neither filtered nor reabsorbed, but it is secreted. c: It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted. d: It is filtered and secreted, but not reabsorbed. e: It is not filtered, but it is secreted and reabsorbed.

c It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted.

Which of the following choices lists structures in the order in which urine flows through them? a: Major calyx, minor calyx, renal pelvis b: Renal pelvis, major calyx, minor pelvis c: Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis d: Major pelvis, minor calyx, renal pelvis e: Major calyx, renal pelvis, minor calyx

c Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis

The tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism responds to an increase in a: systemic blood pressure by signaling for a decrease in heart rate through blood-borne hormones. b: urine production by signaling for a decrease in urine production through the hormone ADH. c: NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers. d: glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure by signaling for afferent arterioles to constrict and increase filtration rate.

c NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers.

Where in the urinary tract is transitional epithelium found? a: Urinary bladder b: Urethra c: Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra d: Ureters e: Ureters and urinary bladder

c Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of a: blood in the nephron capsule. b: tubular fluid in the glomerular capsule. c: blood in the glomerular capillaries. d: filtrate in the glomerular capillaries. e: solutes in the tubular fluid.

c blood in the glomerular capillaries.

An obstruction in the glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the a: renal artery. b: proximal convoluted tubule. c: efferent arteriole. d: distal convoluted tubule. e: afferent arteriole.

c efferent arteriole.

Sympathetic stimulation causes a: mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell contraction. b: mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell relaxation. c: granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction. d: granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell relaxation. e: inhibited release of erythropoietin and contraction of granular and mesangial cells.

c granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction.

Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by a: ciliary action in the renal pelvis. b: suction from the urinary bladder. c: peristalsis of the ureters. d: hydrostatic pressure from the small intestine. e: contraction of the detrusor muscle.

c peristalsis of the ureters.

The normal pH for urine a: is anything below 7.0. b: is anything above 7.0 c: ranges between 4.5 and 8.0. d: ranges between 3.0 and 6.0. e: ranges between 8.0 and 9.0 for someone with a diet high in protein.

c ranges between 4.5 and 8.0.

Within the urinary system, the storage reflex involves a: contraction of both the detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter. b: contraction of the detrusor muscle and relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter. c: relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter. d: relaxation of both the detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter.

c relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter.

Generally, negatively charged plasma proteins are a: moved across the filtration membrane by active transport pumps. b: attracted by the positive charge of the filtration membrane. c: repelled by the negative charge of the filtration membrane. d: engulfed by endocytosis and reabsorbed at the filtration membrane.

c repelled by the negative charge of the filtration membrane.

Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of a: glucose in the blood. b: antidiuretic hormone in the urine. c: sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. d: calcium in the fluid of the proximal convoluted tubule. e: aldosterone in the afferent arteriole.

c sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

Someone with a diet that is high in vegetables but low in animal protein is likely to have very active a: type A cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. b: type A cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+. c: type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. d: type B cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+.

c type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+.

The structures of the male reproductive tract are

c, a, e, d, b epididymis ductus deferens ampulla ejaculatory duct urethra

The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are

c, b, e, a, d spermatogonium primary spermatocyte secondary spermatid spermatozoon

Put the portions of the male urethra in the correct order, from the urinary bladder to the exterior. a: Spongy part b: Urethral orifice c: Prostatic part d: Membranous part

c, d, a, b

Put the portions of the male urethra in the correct order, from the urinary bladder to the exterior.

c,d,a,b Prostatic part Membranous part Spongy part Urethral orifice

Substances that can cause birth defects or the death of the embryo are referred to as __________. a. monotogens b. antigens c. teratogens

c. teratogens

Generally, most water reabsorption in a nephron occurs at the a: nephron loop and is called obligatory water reabsorption. b: nephron loop and is called facultative water reabsorption. c: proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption. d: proximal convoluted tubule and is called facultative water reabsorption.

c: proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption.

Vitamin D is crucial for the absorption of the important mineral ________ from the gastrointestinal tract.

calcium

A water-filled chamber into which someone is placed in order to measure her basal metabolic rate is called a __________.

calorimeter

In positive selection of T-lymphocytes, those cells that

can bind MHC survive.

Sperm undergo a process of conditioning known as __________ after they arrive in the female reproductive tract.

capacitation

Sperm undergo a process of conditioning known as __________ after they arrive in the female reproductive tract. a. fertilazation b. capacitation c. implantation

capacitation

In addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also transports

carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions.

Imbalance in K+ levels in the plasma can lead to neuromuscular changes which can lead to _______ and respiratory arrest and death of the organism

cardiac

During pregnancy, the mother's

cardiac output rises and hematocrit falls.

If T-lymphocytes that failed the negative selection test were not destroyed, the immune system would likely

cause autoimmune disorders.

Chemotaxis is the process by which

cells migrate along chemical gradients.

Lymph nodes may be found individually, or clustered in specific regions of the body. Which cluster of lymph nodes receives lymph from the head and neck?

cervical lymph nodes

levels of carbonic acid in the body are regulated by

changing the respiratory rate

If an acid-base disturbance has occurred, which buffering systems are no longer capable of compensating for pH changes in the body?

chemical

The outermost extraembryonic membrane that eventually helps form the placenta is the

chorion.

The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as

chorionic villi.

Decreased testosterone levels in males in their 50s signal a change called the male _________________.

climacteric

Which of the following can cause respiratory alkalosis?

climbing a 14,000 ft peak, congestive heart failure, and hyperventilation

In females, the genital tubercle forms the

clitoris

Blood type is an example of a trait that demonstrates

codominant inheritance.

Foreign particles that are not filtered out by the respiratory epithelium are

collected by lymph nodes.

Stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to

contract

Stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to

contract.

The larynx is supported by nine pieces of cartilage. Which cartilages occur in pairs?

corniculate, cuneiform, arytenoid

The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as

crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.

Tonsils have multiple invaginated outer edges called _______ that help trap material.

crypts

The hypoblast layer of the blastodisc is made of

cuboidal cells and forms during the pre-embryonic period.

The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with a

cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area.

Once a helper T-lymphocyte recognizes an antigen, it begins the immune response by secreting chemical signals called

cytokines

MHC class I molecules on a cell allow it to interact with

cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.

Cellulose is a type of __________ from plants that remains in the GI tract as fiber and aids in the movement of material through the tract. a: vitamin b: lipid c: protein d: carbohydrate e: mineral

d

Metabolic rate can be measured with a respirometer that measures a: water content of the breath in order to directly measure the products of cellular respiration. b: water content of the breath in order to indirectly measure the products of cellular respiration. c: temperature of the expired air in order to measure the rate of the sum of all reactions within the body. d: oxygen consumption in order to indirectly measure heat production and energy expenditure. e: temperatures of carbon dioxide and oxygen to determine how much the body warmed the respiratory gas.

d

To maintain homeostasis, the hormone that is secreted during the postabsorptive state causes a: a decrease in the level of fatty acids in the blood. b: an increase in protein synthesis in tissue cells. c: formation of tryglicerides from fatty acids. d: an increase in the level of blood sugar.

d

What effect does glucagon have on protein metabolism? a: It directly stimulates catabolism of proteins. b: It stimulates the buildup of proteins from amino acids. c: It increases absorption of amino acids in the intestine. d: It has no effect on body proteins.

d

Autonomic innervation of the kidney includes a: Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T1-T2. b: Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12. c: Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T1-T2. d: Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12.

d Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10-T12.

Which is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus? a: Segmental artery - interlobar artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery b: Interlobar artery - segmental artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery c: Renal artery - interlobar artery - segmental artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery d: Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery e: Arcuate artery - interlobular artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - renal artery

d Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery

Which layer is not found in the wall of the ureter? a: Adventitia b: Muscularis c: Mucosa d: Submucosa

d Submucosa

Put the portions of the male urethra in the correct order, from the urinary bladder to the exterior. a: Spongy part b: Urethral orifice c: Prostatic part d: Membranous part a: b, c, a, d b: c, a, d, b c: b, c, d, a d: c, d, a, b e: b, a, c, d

d c, d, a, b

ANP is a hormone that causes a: constriction of the afferent arterioles and release of renin. b: constriction of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release. c: dilation of the afferent arterioles and release of renin. d: dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release.

d dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release.

As it is leaving the kidney, blood passes directly from the arcuate vein to the a: renal vein. b: vasa recta. c: segmental vein. d: interlobar vein. e: interlobular vein.

d interlobar vein.

Renal plasma clearance a: is lower than GFR for substances that are both filtered and secreted. b: is the same as GFR for substances that are both filtered and secreted. c: is the amount of water loss from the plasma to the urine over the course of one hour. d: is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

d is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

Peritubular capillaries tend to exhibit a: high hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure. b: high hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. c: low hydrostatic pressure and low colloid pressure. d: low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

d low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure.

Which is not a function of the kidneys? a: Regulation of blood pressure b: Removal of wastes from the blood c: Regulation of erythrocyte production d: Regulation of lymphocyte production e: Regulation of acid-base balance

d regulation of lymphocyte production

Inhibin is secreted by

follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.

Nonspecific immunity is another name for

innate immunity.

Micturition a: is another name for urination. b: is a reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the urinary bladder. c: requires the opening of two sphincters. d: requires contraction of the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder. e: All of the choices are correct.

e All of the choices are correct.

Airflow is ________ related to the pressure gradient and __________ related to resistance.

directly, inversely

In nonpregnant women, ____________ inhibits secretion of substantial amounts of prolactin.

dopamine

The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from most other capillary networks in the body because they

drain into an arteriole instead of a venule.

Removal of the amine group from amino acids is a process that occurs in the liver known as ___________.

deamination

After delivering a child, the levels of CRH in the mother's blood

decrease.

After childbirth, a woman's aldosterone levels ________ which results in _________ urine volume.

decrease; increased

According to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas _________ if the volume of its container increases.

decreases

Pulmonary fibrosis

decreases elasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow.

As blood flows through the vasa recta alongside the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the blood is flowing

deep into the medulla.

As blood flows through the vasa recta alongside the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the blood is flowing ______ into the _______.

deep, medulla

Fluid imbalances can be organized into five categories including which of the following?

dehydration, fluid sequestration, and hypotonic hydration

The fibrous capsule of the kidney is composed of

dense irregular connective tissue.

The primary goal of the immune response is

destruction or inactivation of pathogens and foreign material.

The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the _____ muscle.

detrusor

An increase in the partial pressure of CO2 causes bronchioles to

dilate

An increase in the partial pressure of oxygen causes pulmonary arterioles to ________, thereby altering _______ to make gas exchange more efficient.

dilate, perfusion

Upon a newborn's first breath, pulmonary arterioles

dilate.

ANP is a hormone that causes

dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release

A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is

diploid

Active immunity requires

direct encounter with the antigen.

Which layer is not found in the wall of the urinary bladder? a: Adventitia b: Muscularis c: Mucosa d: Submucosa e: No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

e No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney? a: Parasympathetic innervation is from the vagus nerve. b: The kidney is served by the renal plexus. c: Sympathetic innervation is from segments T10-T12 of the spinal cord. d: Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the renal blood vessels. e: Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

e Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

Which step(s) in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule? a: Filtration only b: Secretion only c: Reabsorption only d: Filtration, secretion, and reabsorption e: Secretion and reabsorption only

e Secretion and reabsorption only

Which is not correct regarding nephrons? a: The renal corpuscle includes the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule. b: The renal tubule is composed of the proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, and distal convoluted tubule. c: The nephron is the functional filtration unit in the kidney. d: Eighty-five percent of nephrons are cortical nephrons. e: The renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla

e The renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla

Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation. a: Capsular space of glomerulus b: Nephron loop c: Collecting duct d: Distal convoluted tubule e: Proximal convoluted tubule a: a, c, b, e, d b: e, d, b, a, c c: b, e, c, d, a d: b, d, c, e, a e: a, e, b, d, c

e a, e, b, d, c

Neurulation is the development of the nervous system from the

ectoderm.

An obstruction in the glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the

efferent arteriole.

A(n) ____ is any substance that dissociates in solution of form cations and anions

electrolyte

The acrosome cap contains

enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.

The ______________ is a comma-shaped structure that lies on the surface of the testis, and includes a head, body, and tail.

epididymis

The thymus contains lymphatic cells as well as secretory _________ tissue.

epithelial

During the excitement phase of the female sexual response, the uterus shifts to a more _________ position.

erect

Fungi are

eukaryotic cells with a cell wall.

Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the

expression of genes in the fetus.

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and blood in the lungs is called

external respiration

The concentration of Na+ is highest in the __.

extracellular fluid

the concentration of Na+ is the highest in the

extracellular fluid

Sympathetic nervous system influences on glomerular filtration rate are considered ________ controls.

extrinsic

B. HPO42- would act as a weak base and accept an H+ to become H2PO4-.

f a strong acid were to add H+ to the intracellular fluid, the effect would most likely be buffered, as A. HPO42- would act as a weak acid and donate an H+ to become PO4-. B. HPO42- would act as a weak base and accept an H+ to become H2PO4-. C. H2PO4- would act as a weak acid and accept an H+ to become H3PO4-. D. PO4 would act as a strong base and accept an H+ to become HPO4.

If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of

failed external innate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity.

Postpartum, estrogen and progesterone levels

fall steeply.

According to the MyPlate system, bread, cereals, rice, and pasta should make up a little more than half of an individual's diet.

false

Because basal metabolic rate is constant across individuals, everyone has a core body temperature of 98.6F.

false

Blood within liver sinusoids comes from the hepatic artery and is headed toward the hepatic portal vein.

false

Conscious changes in behavior governed by the cerebral cortex do not meaningfully contribute to regulation of body temperature.

false

For a protein to be complete, it must contain twenty-six different types of amino acids. (T/F)

false

Glucagon stimulates the liver to form glycogen from glucose.

false

Incomplete proteins contain all essential amino acids, but none of the others. (T/F)

false

Since beans contain the essential amino acid methionine, beans are considered complete protein sources. (t/f)

false

Spinach is a complete food, as it contains all of the essential amino acids, all of the major minerals, and all of the water-soluble vitamins. T/F

false

The majority of the bile salts synthesized from cholesterol are removed from the body as a component of feces.

false

The number of essential amino acids in a food product is required to be placed on its label.

false

Whenever an amino acid is used for cellular respiration, it enters the pathway at the intermediate stage.

false

The endothelium of the glomerulus is made up of _________ capillaries.

fenestrated

From innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the

fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat.

Lymph nodes

filter lymph.

In the process of urine formation, first

filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine.

The trimester during which an embryo becomes a fetus is the _________ trimester.

first

The force that drives fluid into lymphatic capillaries is?

hydrostatic pressure

When someone exercises vigorously, their breathing is described as demonstrating

hyperpnea, involving deeper but not faster breathing.

The region of the brain that contains the thirst center is the:

hypothalamus

Pyrogens act on the __________ of the brain where they cause release of ________.

hypothalamus; PGE2

water will move from the plasma and ECF into cells if the ECF becomes

hypotonic

Airway obstruction can lead to a: hypoventilation, which can cause

hypoxia and respiratory acidosis.

Antigen-presenting cells are ________________, and they display antigens to both ________________ and ______________.

immune cells; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

The lymphatic system's two main functions are to assist in

immunity and fluid balance.

The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as

implantation.

IgA is primarily found

in external secretions such as tears, saliva, and mucus.

The pharyngeal tonsils are located

in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx .

MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either "self" or "nonself"; in either case, the fragment becomes bound to the molecule while

in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Exposure to irritants causes mucus production to

increase

If the filtration membrane were made more porous, how would you expect the glomerular filtration rate to change?

increase

When someone begins to hyperventilate, the increased movements of their respiratory muscles ________ venous return of blood to the heart.

increase

Dehydration results in

increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption.

Inflamed tissue feels warm due to

increased blood flow and increased metabolic activity

Mucin _______ the viscosity of mucus, facilitating the ______ of dust and dirt particles.

increases trapping

As the fetus develops, the mother's glomerular filtration rate

increases by about 40%.

During expiration, relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals

increases the pressure in the thoracic cavity.

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by

increasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.

Hormonal and neural changes during pregnancy function to facilitate diffusion of gases across the placenta. One way this occurs is by _________ respiration rate, thereby __________ CO2 levels in the blood.

increasing; lowering

Which of the following would not help reverse alkalosis?

induce vomiting

The lateral margin of the uterine tube, which bears the fimbriae, is called the

infundibulum.

The main function of tonsils is to detect and protect against infections agents that are

ingested or inhaled

During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta

inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development.

A fever __________(inhibits/increases) reproduction of bacteria and ___________ (increases/inhibits) CAMs on the endothelium of capillaries of lymph nodes.

inhibits, increases

The function of helper T-lymphocytes is to

initiate and oversee the immune response.

The kidneys are located ___________ to the peritoneum.

posterior

The kidneys are located ___________ the peritoneum.

posterior to

Cleavage occurs during

pre-embryonic period

The fold of the labia minora that forms a hood over the clitoris is the ________.

prepuce

In a female infant, the ovaries contain

primary oocytes within primordial follicles.

The most primitive type of ovarian follicle is a _____________ follicle.

primordial

"Mad cow disease" (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) is caused by a

prion

Interphase occurs

prior to meiosis

In the late stages of pregnancy, estrogen stimulates increased

production of oxytocin receptors in the uterus.

Growth of the functional layer and prevention of menstruation during pregnancy are brought about by secretion of

progesterone.

The anterior pituitary hormone that facilitates milk production is _________.

prolactin

Upon activation, a T-lymphocyte

proliferates to form clones and memory cells.

During fertilization, the nuclei of the sperm and the ovum are referred to as _________, before they come together and fuse to form a single nucleus.

pronuclei

Throughout childhood, primary oocytes are arrested in

prophase I.

In terms of their chemical structure, cytokines are _______; their function is to serve as _________.

proteins; chemical messengers

The basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and _________, and it restricts the passage of _________.

proteoglycans; plasma proteins

Malaria is a disease caused by a

protozoan

The site of infection is the location at which lymphocytes

provide an effector response.

Generally, most water reabsorption in a nephron occurs at the

proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption.

Most tubular reabsorption occurs in the

proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli.

What type of tissue lines the trachea?

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

The anterior border to the perineum is the

pubic symphysis

Interleukin 1 and interferons act as

pyrogens and trigger an elevation of body temperature.

The normal pH for urine

ranges between 4.5 and 8.0

The ridge that is visible externally along the midline of the scrotum is called the

raphe.

The rete testis

receive sperm from seminiferous tubules

The changes that occur in a woman's body at menopause are due to

reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone

The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to

regulate the temperature of the testes.

Within the urinary system, the storage reflex involves

relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter.

Blood vessel growth within the uterus is promoted by the hormone __________.

relaxin

After ovulation, the oocyte

releases chemotaxic signals to attract sperm to its location.

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located near the vascular pole of the ______ ________.

renal corpuscle.

The renal corpuscle is located within the

renal cortex

The renal corpuscle is located within the

renal cortex.

An actively contracting muscle will cause local temperature to rise and will produce acidic molecules. Warmth and lower pH cause the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to shift ______ reflecting that hemoglobin releases ______ oxygen.

right, more

Tracheal cartilages provide for _______ on the ________ aspect of the trachea.

rigidity, anterior

When compared to a primary response, the antibody levels in a secondary response

rise more rapidly and with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies.

In males, the labioscrotal swellings form the

scrotum

The male homologue to the labia majora is the

scrotum

Although they are not a site of lymphocyte formation, _________ lymphatic structures provide sites where immune responses are initiated.

secondary

Activation of lymphocytes occurs in

secondary lymphatic structures.

interstitial cells of the testes

secrete testosterone

Although the length of the menstrual cycle varies between women, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the _________ phase is constant in length.

secretory

Which gland secretes a fluid containing fructose?

seminal vesicle

The condition in which there is a fluid imbalance in one part of the body even though the total body fluid is normal is called fluid __.

sequestration

Human somatic cells contain only one pair of

sex chromosomes

Cytokines have a _____ half-life and exert influence on ________________.

short; immune and non-immune cells.

A secondary response to an infectious agent has a _______ latent phase than a primary response has.

shorter

Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not, the epithelium within both organs is categorized as

simple columnar epithelium.

Terminal bronchioles of the lower respiratory system are lined with

simple cuboidal epithelium.

A replicated chromosome consists of two identical structures known as

sister chromatids.

Regions of MALT called Peyer patches are found in the

small intestine

The capsular hydrostatic pressure is generally ______ than the glomerular hydrostatic pressure; increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure _________ the formation of additional filtrate.

smaller; impede

The capsular hydrostatic pressure is generally ______ than the glomerular hydrostatic pressure; increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure _________ the formation of additional filtrate.

smaller; impede

A virus is ______ than a bacterial cell, and a virus is composed of a _________________.

smaller; nucleic acid within a protein capsid.

The myometrium of the uterus is composed of

smooth muscle

Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of

sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

Breathing muscles such as the diaphragm are controlled by neurons of the _________ nervous system.

somatic

Antigens are

something that an antibody or T-lymphocyte binds to.

Which is not a function of the respiratory system?

sound reception

The path that fluid takes as it enters a lymphatic capillary is through

spaces between capillary endothelial cells that are arranged as one-way flaps.

Red marrow is found within

spaces within spongy bone.

The final stage of spermatogenesis, during which spermatids develop into mature sperm, is known as ___________.

spermiogenesis