Final Quizlet

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3565. (Refer to Figure 25.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east. A— 003°. B— 017°. C— 023°.

A— 003°.

3143. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is A— 1 mile. B— 3 miles. C— 5 miles.

A— 1 mile.

3707. (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT .................................................100°F Pressure altitude .......................2,000 ft Takeoff weight ............................2,750 lb Headwind component ............Calm A— 1,150 feet. B— 1,300 feet. C— 1,800 feet.

A— 1,150 feet.

3560. (Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)? A— 101°. B— 108°. C— 281°.

A— 101°.

3576. (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport? A— 1645 PST. B— 1745 PST. C— 1845 PST.

A— 1645 PST.

3464. (Refer to Figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from A— 180° true at 4 knots. B— 180° magnetic at 4 knots. C— 040° true at 18 knots.

A— 180° true at 4 knots.

3098. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is A— 200 knots. B— 230 knots. C— 250 knots.

A— 200 knots.

3099. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A— 200 knots. B— 230 knots. C— 250 knots.

A— 200 knots.

3503. (Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 feet. A— 200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C. B— 050° true at 7 knots, temperature missing. C— 200° magnetic at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.

A— 200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.

3570. (Refer to Figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which VOR indication is correct? A— 2. B— 5. C— 8.

B— 5.

3103. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? A— An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B— An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C— An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

B— An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

3066. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? A— If the passengers pay all the operating expenses. B— If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. C— There is no exception

B— If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

3635. (Refer to Figure 21.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? A— Minot Intl. (area 1) and Garrison (area 2). B— Minot Intl. (area 1). C— Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) and Garrison (area 2).

B— Minot Intl. (area 1).

3283-1. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? A— The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. B— The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. C— The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

B— The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

3209. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left? A— When at low angles of attack. B— When at high angles of attack. C— When at high airspeeds.

B— When at high angles of attack.

3666. (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows? Front seat occupants ......................................... 387 lb Rear seat occupants .......................................... 293 lb Fuel .................................................................... 35 gal A— 45 pounds. B— 63 pounds. C— 220 pounds.

A— 45 pounds.

3567. (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? A— 47°25'N - 98°06'W. B— 47°25'N - 99°54'W. C— 47°55'N - 98°06'W.

A— 47°25'N - 98°06'W.

3844. Which statement best defines hypoxia? A— A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. B— An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed. C— A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.

A— A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.

3207. In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane? A— Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack. B— Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack. C— High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

A— Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

3301. What force makes an airplane turn? A— The horizontal component of lift. B— The vertical component of lift. C— Centrifugal force.

A— The horizontal component of lift.

3716. During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A— The other aircraft is flying away from you. B— The other aircraft is crossing to the left. C— The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

A— The other aircraft is flying away from you.

3382. What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? A— Unequal heating of the Earth's surface. B— Variation of terrain elevation. C— Coriolis force.

A— Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.

3006. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? A— V A . B— V LO . C— V NE .

A— V A .

3008. Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? A— V LE . B— V LO . C— V FE .

A— V LE .

3443. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog? A— Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. B— Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. C— The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

A— Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

3676. (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff? A— Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits. B— Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is unaffected. C— Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG moves forward.

A— Weight is reduced by 210

3829. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying A— above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point. B— below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point. C— above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

A— above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.

3181-1. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the A— owner or operator. B— pilot in command. C— mechanic who performed the work.

A— owner or operator.

3796. Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as A— safety alerts, traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft. B— mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program. C— wind-shear warning at participating airports.

A— safety alerts, traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.

3316. During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to A— stall at a higher airspeed. B— have a tendency to spin. C— be more difficult to control.

A— stall at a higher airspeed.

3086. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during A— taxi, takeoffs, and landings. B— all flight conditions. C— flight in turbulent air.

A— taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

3033. The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from A— sunset to sunrise. B— 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C— the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

B— 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

3706. (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT .........Std Pressure altitude ................Sea level Takeoff weight..........................2,700 lb Headwind component ...........Calm A— 1,000 feet. B— 1,400 feet. C— 1,700 feet.

B— 1,400 feet.

3692. (Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. OAT ...............................................90°F Pressure altitude ........................4,000 ft Weight .............................................2,800 lb Headwind component ..............10 kts A— 1,525 feet. B— 1,775 feet. C— 1,950 feet.

B— 1,775 feet.

3270. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum flapsextended speed? A— 65 knots. B— 100 knots. C— 165 knots.

B— 100 knots.

3681. (Refer to Figure 35.) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power? A— 10.6 gallons per hour. B— 11.2 gallons per hour. C— 11.8 gallons per hour.

B— 11.2 gallons per hour.

3819-1. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on A— 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. B— 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. C— 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.

B— 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.

3189. An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? A— 1349.6 hours. B— 1359.6 hours. C— 1369.6 hours.

B— 1359.6 hours.

3665. (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants ..............340 lb Rear seat occupants ...................295 lb Fuel (main wing tanks) ............44 gal Baggage .......................................56 lb A— 20 pounds overweight, CG aft of aft limits. B— 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits. C— 20 pounds overweight, CG forward of forward limits.

B— 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.

3665. (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants ......................................... 340 lb Rear seat occupants .......................................... 295 lb Fuel (main wing tanks) ...................................... 44 gal Baggage .............................................................. 56 lb A— 20 pounds overweight, CG aft of aft limits. B— 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits. C— 20 pounds overweight, CG forward of forward limits.

B— 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.

3097. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? A— 200 knots. B— 250 knots. C— 288 knots.

B— 250 knots.

3142. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR f light at night is A— 1 mile. B— 3 miles. C— 5 miles.

B— 3 miles.

3190. A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? A— 3312.5 hours. B— 3402.5 hours. C— 3395.5 hours.

B— 3402.5 hours.

3539. (Refer to Figure 21.) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication? A— 001°. B— 359°. C— 179°.

B— 359°.

3543. (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport. A— 47°02'N - 116°11'W B— 47°33'N - 116°11'W C— 47°32'N - 116°41'W

B— 47°33'N - 116°11'W

3533. (Refer to Figure 20, area 3; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct? A— 2. B— 5. C— 8.

B— 5.

3834. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use A— regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. B— a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector. C— peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

B— a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

3830. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft A— below and downwind from the heavy aircraft. B— above and upwind from the heavy aircraft. C— below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

B— above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

3766. (Refer to Figure 47.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is A— off course to the left. B— above the glide slope. C— below the glide slope.

B— above the glide slope.

3398. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the A— dewpoint. B— air temperature. C— stability of the air.

B— air temperature.

3150. A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is A— less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. B— at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. C— at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

B— at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

3226. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to A— decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density. B— decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density. C— increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

B— decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

3850. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by A— shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. B— having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. C— leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.

B— having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.

3916-1. The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating A— in Class B airspace. B— in conditions of reduced visibility. C— within 15 miles of a towered airport.

B— in conditions of reduced visibility.

3765. (Refer to Figure 47.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is A— below the glide slope. B— on the glide slope. C— above the glide slope.

B— on the glide slope.

3070. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the A— Federal Aviation Administration. B— pilot in command. C— aircraft manufacturer.

B— pilot in command.

3466. (Refer to Figure 12.) The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means A— blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM. B— rain began at 1835Z. C— the barometer has risen .35" Hg.

B— rain began at 1835Z.

852. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A— they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B— visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). C— eyes are moved often in the process of crosschecking the flight instruments.

B— visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

3118. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only A— when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. B— when the associated control tower is in operation. C— when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

B— when the associated control tower is in operation.

3269. (Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration? A— Upper limit of the green arc. B— Upper limit of the white arc. C— Lower limit of the green arc.

C— Lower limit of the green arc.

3691. (Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the total distance required to land. OAT 90F Pressure Altitude 3000ft Weight 2900 lbs Headwind Component 10 kts Obstacle 50 ft A— 1,450 feet. B— 1,550 feet. C— 1,725 feet.

C— 1,725 feet.

3029. If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is A— 1829. B— 1859. C— 1929.

C— 1929.

3682. (Refer to Figure 35.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard. A— 19.8" Hg. B— 20.8" Hg. C— 21.0" Hg.

C— 21.0" Hg.

3575. (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A— 2030Z. B— 2130Z. C— 2230Z.

C— 2230Z.

3502. (Refer to Figure 17.) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 feet. A— 230° magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47°C. B— 230° true at 53 knots, temperature -47°C. C— 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.

C— 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.

3215. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude? A— 1,200 pounds. B— 3,100 pounds. C— 3,960 pounds.

C— 3,960 pounds.

3538. (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east. A— 002° B— 012°. C— 352°.

C— 352°.

3214. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude? A— 2,300 pounds. B— 3,400 pounds. C— 4,600 pounds.

C— 4,600 pounds

3409. What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F? A— 4,000 feet MSL. B— 5,000 feet MSL. C— 6,000 feet MSL.

C— 6,000 feet MSL.

3294. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting ..................29.25 Runway temperature ......................+81°F Airport elevation ..............5,250 ft MSL A— 4,600 feet MSL. B— 5,877 feet MSL. C— 8,500 feet MSL.

C— 8,500 feet MSL.

3262. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument? A— Altimeter. B— Vertical-speed indicator. C— Airspeed indicator.

C— Airspeed indicator.

3249. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? A— Airspeed only. B— Altimeter only. C— Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

C— Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

3102. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? A— An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. B— An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft. C— An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

C— An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

3444. If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type weather is most likely to develop? A— Freezing precipitation. B— Thunderstorms. C— Fog or low clouds.

C— Fog or low clouds.

3082. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A— review traffic control light signal procedures. B— check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). C— determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

C— determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

3065. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A— be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days. B— not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight. C— not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

C— not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

3787. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on A— the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. B— 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport. C— the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

C— the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

3632. (Refer to Figure 20, area 2.) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a A— compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace. B— compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport. C— visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.

C— visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.


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