Functional Anatomy Exam 1 Questions

Pinocytosis

Cell drinking of extracellular fluids via invagination of membrane.

Phagocytosis

Cell eating of extracellular solids via extensions of the membrane.

Heterochromatin

Coiled, inactive chromatin

Channel Protein

ATP driven membrane tunnel for molecules.

Top: Caudal view of atlas. Bottom: cranial view of atlas. A = vertebral canal; B = transverse process.

Determine the orientation of each image. Identify the labeled structures.

Left image: cranial view of thoracic vertebrae. Middle image: left lateral view. Right image: caudal view. A = vertebral canal; B = transverse process; C = dorsal spinus process. D = vertebral arch; E = body; F = cranial articular process; H = cranial costal fovea; I = caudal costa fovea

Determine the orientation of each image. Identify the marked structures.

Yes, the nucleus is off to one side. These cells show cilia on the basal region?

Do these cells from the tracheal epithelium exhibit polarity? On which surface is the surface modification and what is it?

Polarity... The nuclei are euchromatic and heterochromatic. This indicates some cells are replicating while some are functioning otherwise (secretion or excretion).

Do these cells from the urinary bladder exhibit polarity? How would you describe the nuclei? What do the nuclei indicate to you?

Secrete

Does the Golgi Apparatus excrete or secrete?

Simple. A = epidermis; B = dermis; C = hypodermis.

What is the arrangement of the hair follicle? Identify A, B, and C.

Oily sebum lubricates skin to keep pliable, gives luster to the coat, minimize water loss, and antimicrobial effect.

What is the function of sebum?

Image 1 = left medial view. Image 2 = cranial view. Image 3 = caudal view. Image 4 = left lateral view. A = femoral head; B = neck; C = greater trochanter; D = patella; E = trochlea; F = metaphysis; G = cranial body/diaphysis; H = caudal body/diaphysis.

What is the orientation of each image? Identify the marked structures.

Unilocular adipose tissue. Merocrine method of secretion. Bovine muzzle and pancreatic acinar cells.

What is the predominant tissue in the hypodermis of this digital pad sweat gland? What is the method of secretion here? Where else is this method of secretion?

Platelets are responsible for blood clotting via creation of a platelet plug in the event of a vascular tear. Thrombocyte.

What is the purpose of platelets? What is the term for an avian/reptilian platelet?

Loose connective tissue. Cillia as a surface modification.

What is the tissue and function of the surface modification does the trachea exhibit?

Transitional epithelium

What is this epithelium in the Renal Pelvis of the Kidney?

Simple Cuboidal Microvillus Epithelium. Mitochondria

What is this epithelium in the kidney cortex? Why is it acidophilic?

Venule. Simple squamous epithlium.

What is this structure from the liver? What epithelium lines it?

Loose connective tissue. A = Fibroblasts; B = Fibrocytes. Fibroblasts are wider, euchromatic, and have an elongated nuclus. Fibrocytes are narrower and heterochromatic.

What is this tissue? Identify A and B. How do we differentiate a fibroblast from a fibrocyte?

stratified cuboidal epithelium.

What kind of epidermis is present in this bovine teat mucosa? Where else is the epidermis found?

stratified columnar epithelium.

What kind of epidermis is present in this bovine teat mucosa? Where else is this epidermis found?

Loose connective tissue. A = fibroblast; B = fibrocyte; C = plasma cell.

What kind of tissue is exhibited in the limina propria of the jujunum? Identify cells A, B, and C.

Dense Irregular Connective Tissue

What kind of tissue is in the Kidney Capsule?

Apocrine

What method of secretion is demonstrated by these sweat glands found in the lip?

Smooth ER

What organelle is responsible for testosterone production in the equine testes?

Free polyribsomes? The produce (secrete?) proteins for in-cell use. The Golgi complex secretes proteins for extracellular use.

What organelle is responsible for the basophilia of the cytoplasm in this plasma cell from the lamina propria of the jejunum? What is the function of this organelle? What is the function of the Golgi complex?

Mitochondria and Smooth ER because of their proteins and membranes.

What organelles stain acidophilic? Why?

Rough ER and free polyribosomes because of their DNA/RNA.

What organelles stain basophilic? Why?

D = Telophase

What phase of mitosis is occurring at D in this crypt of the jejunum?

F = anaphase

What phase of mitosis is occurring at F of this fish blastula?

G = telophase; H = anaphase

What phase of mitosis is occurring at G and H of this fish blastula?

D = metaphase; E = anaphase

What phases of mitosis are occurring at D and E of this fish blastula?

A = Prophase; B = metaphase; C = prophase

What stages of mitosis are occurring at A, B, and C of this fish blastula?

B = Metaphase; C = Anaphase

What stages of mitosis is exhibited in B and C of this crypt of the jejunum?

Acini (acinus singluar). Basal region? The rough ER produces the basophilia? The smooth ER produces the acidophilia?

What structures are present in this pancreas? Are the basophilic nuclei region the basal or apical region? What organelle are responsible for the basophilia? What organelles are responsible for the acidophilia?

Cranial skeleton (skull and hyoid), axial skeleton (vertebrae and ribs), and appendicular skeleton (limbs and pelvis).

What three segments can the skeleton be divided into? What bones consist of each category?

Loose connective tissue, unilocular adipose tissue.

What tissue is present in the image?

Hyaline Cartilage

What type of cartilage is this found in the trachea?

Elastic Cartilage

What type of cartilage is this?

Simple cuboidal epithelium

What type of epithelium lines this pancreas duct? Identify the acini and the apical/basal regions.

Simple squamous epithelium

What type of epithelium lines this pancreas duct? Identify the acini and the apical/basal regions.

Unilocular adipose tissue. It's functions are heat retention, energy storage, shock absorption, and bodily contours. Mutilocular adipose tissue looks different in that it... It exists in neonatal and hibernating animals and it does thermogenesis.

What type of fat is this from the Renal Pelvis of the Kidney? What are its functions? How would the opposite fat tissue look different and what is it function?

Dense regular connective tissue. Collagen has a high tensile strength.

What type of tissue if found in this slide? What characteristic of collagen makes this tissue ideal for tendons?

Dense irregular connective tissue. Fibroblasts, fibrocytes, and macrophages. White space is amorphous ground substance. The pink spaces are collagen fibers.

What type of tissue is found in this lip dermis? What is the most common cell found in this type of tissue, generally? What is the white space? What is the pink space?

Dense irregular connective tissue. Kidney Capsule.

What type of tissue is present in this bovine teat dermis? Where else is this type of tissue found?

Dense irregular connective tissue.

What type of tissue is present in this digital pad dermis?

Hayline = tracheal/broncheal rings, physes, articular surfaces, larynx, nose, ventral portions of ribs, and temporary fetal skeleton. Elastic cartilage = external ear, auditory tubes, and larynx epiglottis and arytenoid cartilage processes. Fibrocartilage = menisci of stifle joint, symphyses, annulus fibrosis of intervertebral discs, and ligament/tendon attachments at hyaline cartilage.

Where are hayline, elastic, and fibrocartilage found?

Horses have a larger lung capacity.

Why are the 18 ribs in the horse compared to the 13 ribs in the dog and ox?

thermoregulation via air pockets

arrector pili muscle function

cell size and nutrition decrease.

atrophy

Connects epithelium to underlying tissue. Diffusion of nutrients. Filter in urinary system.

basal lamina. function?

inflammation chronic inflammation large, obvious, basophilic granules = histamine, heparin (basophilia), eosinophilic chemotactic factor concurrent eosinophilia

basophils

cell lateral support

belt desmosome

transport nutrients, engage in gaseous exchange, remove waste products, exchange heat

blood functions

support fleshy structures, attachment for muscles, leverage, protect vital organs, bone marrow for blood production, Ca, P, Mg storage

bone functions

bone has less proteoglycans, less water, more collagen, acidophilic. bone has canalicular system (nutrient transportation), is vascular, grows by apposition.

bone vs cartilage

assemble proteins in the RER. basophilic

bound polyribosomes. staining?

canals in lacunae gap junctions

canaliculi

spongy bone At immature bone and ends of bones for compression forces

cancellous bone. location?

highly specialized. committed, low mitotic potential

cardiac muscle cell characteristics

Carries substances through the membrane

carrier protien

glycoaminoglycans = basophilia risilient, contains amorphous ground substance, chondroblasts/cytes with lacunae, avascular - nutrition from perichondrium

cartilage. staining? contents?

when follicle stops growing hair

catagen

Cell division and microtubules in cillia.

centrioles

Tunnel for substances to move through membrane.

channel protein

prominent nucleolus abundant euchromatin lots of free polyribosomes

characteristics of metabolically active cells

sebaceous glands (superficial) and hepatoid cells (deep) in cutaneous zone.

circumanal (perianal) glands

plates from internal and external circumference.

circumferential lamella

high tensile strength Locations: tendons, ligaments, joint capsules acidophilic

collagen fibers. locations?

simple columnar epithelium. anal gland.

columnar and intermediate zone epithelium of rectum. What structure?

outer surface of bones strong compression strength at diaphysis

compact bone

susceptible to differentiation by micro-environment

competent

circular plates forming osteons

concentric lamellae

mesoderm

connective tissue common origin

hold tissues and organs together, support, connect and anchor structures. packing, transport metabolites, store energy (fat), provide nutrition, remove waste, tissue defense and repair.

connective tissue function

inflammation form from bone stem cells granules = basophilia granules contain histamine, heparin, eosinophil chemotactic facors

mast cells. staining?

make melanin

melanocytes

pluripotent, competent, high mitotic potential. In active, immature cells.

mesenchymal cells

changing of epithelium

metaplasia

large ability to undergo mitosis

mitotic potential

subacute to chronic inflammation large, pleomorphic nucleus, white spots become macrophages

monocytes. what do they indicate? characteristics?

foamy cytoplasm

mucoid secretions characteristics

lining of cavities that communicate with exterior. epithelium and connective tissue below

mucosa

thermogenesis. contains mitochondria and vessels

multilocular fat

from embryonic myoblast fusion or endomitosis - genetic material replication without cytokinesis. Major locations: liver cells (endomitosis); multinucleated giant cells and skeletal muscle formation (EMF).

multinucleation. locations?

wound contraction. contains actin filaments and myosin.

myofibroblasts. contents?

highly specialized, low to no mitotic potential

nerve cell characteristics

phagocytosis, diapedesis acute infection forms abscess on big things acidophilic granules segmented nucleus

neutrophils. what do they indicate? characteristics? staining?

double membrane around nucleus

nuclear envelope

In highly active cells, rich in rRNA.

nucleolus

synthesis of RNA

nucleus function

bone surface synthesize collagen and glycoprotiens (osteoid) mineralization and hydroxyapatite

osteoblast

sheath around bone. contains osteoblasts in developing bone

periosteum

apocrine glands that secrete into anal sacs. identification in feces and when smelling butts in dogs.

perisaccular glands. what kind of gland?

melanin for red, yellow, brown

phaeomelanin

antibody synthesis. form from B-lymphocytes RER = basophilic golgi = pale area

plasma cells. staining?

antibodies, chemotactic agents, coagulation cascade. hemoglobin

plasma protein

blood clotting made of megakaryoctes

platelet contents and function?

immature cells with many options of differentiaion

pluripotent

Functions: protection, secretion. absorption, cilia-mediated transport when present. Locations: respiratory tract, oviduct. epididymis.

pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium function and location

small, dark nucleus associated with cell death

pyknosis

activate/inhibit cell function

receptors

Thin Locations: around capillaries, muscle fibers, nerves, adipocytes. liver. spleen, lymph nodes, endocrine glands

reticular fibers

holocrine method of secretion, secretes sebum

sebaceous glands

keeps skin pliable, gives luster to coat, minimize water loss, antimicrobial effect

sebum functions

simple squamous epithelium lining body cavities (mesothelium and connective tissue underneath)

serosa

Function: stretching (with tight junctions) Location: urinary tract

transitional epithelium function and location

growth within cartilage, forms isogenous groups Locations: epiphyseal plates

interstitial growth

old osteons

interstitial lamella

subsequent growth

intramembranous ossification

Epithelia. connective tissues, muscle, nervous tissue

Four forms of tissue

communication between adjacent cells.

Gap junctions

The dense is on the front of the axis. B = transverse process; C = dorsal spinous process. Canal = vertebral canal. Entrance to canal = vertebral arch.

Identify orientation, B, C, the canal, and the entrance to the canal of this vertebrae.

A = the dermal papilla provides nutrients to germinal matrix; B = germinal matrix gives rise to the hair follicle.

Identify the function of A and B.

A = incisive bone; palatine fissure; C = maxilla bone; F = zygomatic process of the temporal bone; G = tympanic bulla; H = ocipital bone; J = zygomatic bone; K = palantine bone; L = sphenoid bone; M = vomer bone; N = pterygoid bone; P = mandibular fossa; a, b, c = 1st, 2nd, 3rd incisor teeth; d = canine tooth; e, f, g, h = 1st - 4th premolars; i, j = 1st and 2nd molars.

Identify the labeled structures.

A = incisor bone; B = nasal bone; C = maxillary bone; D = frontal bone; E = pariental bone; F = temporal bone; G = saggital crest; H = external ocipictal protuberance; I = nuchal crest; J = lacrimal bone; K = zygomatic bone

Identify the marked areas.

J = head; K = tuberculum

Identify the marked areas.

M = body of mandible; N = rambus; O = coronoid process; P = condylar process; a = 1st incisor; b = 2nd incisor; c = 3rd incisor; d = canine; e = 1st premolar; f = 2nd premolar; g = 3rd premolar; h = 4th premolar; i = 1st molar; j = 2nd molar; k = 3rd molar. Carnassial teeth.

Identify the marked areas. The fourth upper premolar and the first lower molar have what name in carnivores?

A = incisive bone; B = nasal bone; C = maxilla bone; infraorbital foramen; D = zygomatic process of the frontal bone; E = pariental bone; F = temporal bone; G = typmanic bulla; external auditory meatus; H = ocipital bone; I = lacrimol bone; J = zygomatic bone; K = palantine bone; L = sphenoid bone; a = 1st incisor; b = 2nd incisor; c = 3rd incisor; d = canine tooth; e? = 1st premolar; f = 2nd premolar; g = 3rd premolar; h = 4th premolar; i = 1st molar; j = 2nd molar. Maxillary, zygomatic, and temporal bones make the zygomatic arch.

Identify the marked areas. Which 3 bones make up the zygomatic arch?

A = vertebral canal; B = transverse process; C = dorsal spinous process; D = vertebral arch; E = body; F = cranial articular process; G = cadual articular process. Left image: cadual view. Middle view: cranial view. Right image: left lateral view.

Identify the marked structures on this image. Identify the orientation of each image.

A1 = Wing of illium ; A2 = body of illium; B = ishium; C = ishiatic tuberosity; D = pubis bone; E = acetabulum and acetabular fossa; F = pelvic symphysis with fibrocartilage. G = obturator foramen.

Identify the marked structures. What cartilage does F contain?

A = sagital crest; B = external occipital protuberance; C = nuchal crest; D = ocipital bone; E = foramen magnum; F = parietal bone; G = temporal bone; H = typmanic bulla. The spinal chord passes through E.

Identify the marked surfaces on this caudal surface of the skull. What passed through E?

Left image: left lateral view. Right image: left medial view. Left image: cranial to caudal. Right image: caudal to cranial. A = spinous process; B = acromium process; C = supraspinus fossa; D = infraspinous fossa; E = glenoid cavity; F = supraglenoid tubercle; G = corocoid process; H = subscapular foss; I = serrated face.

Identify the surface/aspect of each image. Identify the orientations. Identify the marked structures.

A = the epidermis contains keratinized stratified squamous epithelium; B = the dermis contains dense irregular connective tissue; C = the hypodermis contains loose connective tissue with unilocular tissue. A is the stratum corneum and contains keratin.

Identify the tissue at A, B, and C in this digital pad. What superficial layer is A and what does it consist of?

(Loose connective tissue?) Pseudostratified columnar (cuboidal) ciliated epithelium. Goblet cell.

Identify the tissue that lines the inner surgace of the trachea. What oval, slightly basophilic cell with foamy contents is present on the left of the image?

Dermis = dense irregular connective tissue. This tissue is present in the skin because it has tinsile strength and elasticity in multiple directions. The skin contains collagen fibers. Fibrocytes, fibroblasts, and macrophages.

Identify the tissue that makes up the dermis of this skin sample. Why is this tissue present here? What is the predominant fiber type here? What are the predominant cell ypes here?

A = prophase; B = metaphase

In this crypt of the jejunum, what phase of mitosis is A and B?

Apical surface. The band seen represents microvilli, an apical surface modification.

Is the lower surface the basal, apical, or lateral surface of these cells from the epithelium lining the lumen of the intestine?

fragmenting of the nucleus after pyknosis, associated with cell death.

Karyorrhexis

Sweat glands. Simple cuboidal epithelium.

What glands are present? Identify the epithelium is lining these glands?

Carrier Protein

Binds and travel through membrane with molecule.

Sebaceous glands. Sebum.

What glands are present? Identify the product that is secreted by the sebaceous glands.

Completes post-translational modifications of products for secretion. Cis-face: immature, recieves vesicles. Trans-face: mature, sends vesicles. Doesn't stain. Major locations: plasma cells

Golgi apparatus. staining? location?

Multinucleation occurs via endomitosis (when genetic material is replicated without cytokinesis). Smooth ER detoxifies blood. Its membranes make it acidophilic. Its other functions include phospholipid synthesis, lipid metabolism, carbohydrate synthesis, and steroid synthesis. The other acidophilic organelle in hepatocytes is the mitochondria because of its membrane. The mitochondria provides energy for lipid metabolism.

How does multinucleation occur in hepatocytes? What organelle is responsible for detoxifying blood from the intestines and this acidophilia? What other functions does this organelle posses? What other organelle stains acidophilic in hepatocytes and what is their specific function in hepatocytes?

Embryonic myoblast cell fusion. Microfilament is responsible for these striations, specifically, actin, a contractile protein.

How might multinucleation occur in a skeletal muscle cell? What organelle is responsible for the striations and contractile property of this muscle?

synovial fluids provide nutrients. contains fibrils, glycosaminoglycans (avascularity), perichondrium Locations: artilcular cartilage, physes, tracheal/bronchial rings, larynx, nose, ventral ribs, fetal temporay skeleton

Hyaline cartilage. contents? locations?

A = germinal matrx; B = dermal papilla

Identify A and B in this canine lip.

A = sebaceus gland; B = sweat gland

Identify A and B in this canine lip.

A = Stratum basale; B = stratum spinosum. Spot desmosomes. Stratum germinativum (stratum basale and stratum spinosum).

Identify A and B. What junctions/attachments lies between the identified layers? What layers are responsible for mitosis?

A = cortex; B = medulla; C = internal root sheath; D = External root sheath

Identify A, B, C, and D in this canine lip.

A = external root sheath; B = internal root sheath; C = cortex; D = medulla

Identify A, B, C, and D, in this canine lip tactile hair.

A = Stratum basale; B = Stratum spinosum; C = Stratum granulosum; D = Stratum corneum. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Keratohyalin.

Identify A, B, C, and D. What epithelium is this? What accounts for the basophilic granules?

A = Arteriole; B = venule; C = bile duct. Endothelium lining in vessels. (Non-keratinized?) simple squamous epithelium in the muscle (using B to determine). Simple cuboidal epithelium around the bile duct (using C to determine).

Identify A, B, and C in this portal region of the liver. What are vessels lined by? What epithelium is present in this muscle? What epithelium is present in the bile duct?

A = epidermis; B = dermis; C = hypodermis

Identify A, B, and C in this slide of the digital pad.

A = osteoblast with basophilic rough ER; B = osteocyte; C = osteoclast with basophilic rough ER.

Identify A, B, and C on this bone. What causes the acidophilic or basophilic nature of structure A and C?

C = Stratum granulosum; D = stratum corneum. The stratum granulosum contains keratohaylin granules. The stratum corneum is made of keratinized squamous epithelium.

Identify C and D in this bovine teat epidermis. What granules are present in C? What epithelium makes up D?

Contains hydrolytic enzymes. Intracellular digestion. Fusion with phagosomes to form secondary lysosomes - heterophagy. Fusion with autophagosomes - lipfuscin. basophilic?

Lysosomes. contains what enzymes?

locations: long bones characteristics: organized into concentric lamellae, circumferential lamellae, and interstitial lamellae

Mature bone

exocytosis secretions. footpads, cattle muzzles, and exocrin portion of pancreas

Merocrine method of secretion

Composed of actin. Endo/exocytosis and cell migration. Structure to microvilli and move small structures around cell.

Microfilaments

intracellular scafolding for cellular/inner cell movement. Found in cilia, flagella, centrioles.

Microtubules

Active ion transport against a concentration gradient. synthesis and breakdown of fat/hepatocytes. Conversion of chemical to mechanical energy. Major locations: Kidney (concentration gradient), liver (fat synthesis/breakdown), muscle cells (energy conversion). 50% energy used as heat. Acidophilic.

Mitochondria. where? staining?

Move along microtubules to herd chromosomes and transport nutrients.

Molecular motor proteins

Tibia = big. Fibula = small. Image 1 = cranial view. Image 2 = left lateral view. A = tibia; B = fibula; C = tibial tuberocity; D = tibial crest

Name both bones. Identify orientation. Identify marked structures.

Image 1: cranial view of humerus. Image 2: left lateral view. Image 3: left medial view. Image 4: caudal view. A = greater tubercle; B = lesser tubercle; C = head; D = radial fossa; E = humeral condyle; F = olecranon fossa; G = metaphysis; H = body/diaphysis; e = trhochlea;

Orient each image. Identify the marked structures.

Image 1 = cranial view. Image 2: left lateral view. A = radius body/diaphysis; B = ulna; C = radial head; D = trochlea; E = olecranon; F = styloid process; G = trochlear notch connects to the trochlea of the humerus.

Orient the bones. Identify the marked structures. What is found it the knotch of G?

Image 1: left cranial view. Image 2: left lateral view. A = carpus; A1 = accessory carpal; B = metacarpals; C = phalanges - proximal, middle and distal; D = dew claw; E = styloid process of the ulna. From the carpus down is the manus.

Orient the images. Identify the marked structures. What all of these bones together called?

Use for dehydration and anemia. centifuged, compacted cell volume compared to original volume

Packed cell volume (PCV). what does it determine?

protein synthesis for secretion sent to Golgi. Basophilic.

Rough ER (RER)

Phospholipid, steroid, and carbohydrate synthesis. Lipid metabolism. Detoxification. acidophilic. Major locations: Liver cells.

Smooth ER (SER). functions? staining? location?

Sebaceous glands. Holocrine method of secretion.

What glands are these? What method of secretion to they exhibit?

homeostasis

Steady State within an organism for maintaining health.

A = external root sheath is continuous with the stratum germinativum; B = Internal root sheath is continuous with stratum corneum; C = Cortex; D = medulla.

Structures A and B are continuous with what layers of the epidermis? Identify C and D.

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

What epithelium is present in this digital pad? Identify the layers of the epidermis.

Simple columnar microvillious epithelium.

What epithelium is present in this villi of the jejunum?

Simple cuboidal epithelium

What epithelium lines the inner medulla of the kidney?

Simple columnar cilliated epithelium. The cilia moves spinal fluid through the canal.

What epithelium lines this central canal of the spinal chord? What is the function of its apical surface modification?

Loose connective tissue. A = fibrocyte; B = fibroblast; C = possible macrophage; D = capilaries

What form of tissue is exhibited in the tunica submucosa of the jejunum? Identify A, B, C, and D.

Euchromatin

Uncoiled, active chromatin

Macrophages

What 3 cells are aligned in the center of the image?

Expulsion of the nucleus leaves behind a cytoplasm rich in hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is a protein and responsible for the acidophilia? Its function is oxygen exchange.

What accounts for this central pallor found in equine blood erythrocytes? What is responsible for acidophilia of this cytoplasm? What is its function?

Eosinophil. Lysosomes compose it. They contain hydrolytic enzymes and are responsible for hydrophagy (intracellular digestion).

What cell is present in this equine blood? What are the granules around it? What do they contain and what are their function?

Lymphocyte

What cell is present?

Monocyte

What cell is present?

Glial cells. Rough ER? Yes, these cells are active because they supply nutrients to neurons?

What cell is this in the grey matter of the spinal chord or brain? What organelles are responsible for the basophilia? Are these cells very active? Why?

Neutrophils

What cells are present in the image?

Simple squamous epithelium. A thicker endothelium would cause a smaller diameter and constrict blood flow in the vessels.

What cells epithelium lines the endothelium of blood vessels? Why not have a thicker epithelium?

Neutrophil. Acute response.

What center cell is present in this equine blood? What type of response do they exhibit?

Eosinophil. Their numbers will increase in the presence of parasites and allergic disorders.

What center cell is present in this equine blood? When might we see an increase in this cell in circulation and in tissue?

Basophil. The granules contain histamine, heparin, and eosinophilic chemotactic factors.

What center cell is present? What contents does the granules have?

(Non-keratinized?) simple squamous epithelium. Mesothelium.

What epithelium does the arrow point to in this tunica serosa of the jejunum? What is another name for the epithelium that lines the body cavity?

Simple columnar microvillous epithelium. Here, the microvilli increase surface area for absorption of nutrients.

What epithelium does the epithelium of the jejunum exhibit? What is the purpose of the apical surface modification at this location?

Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Its lack of keratinization and thickness allows smooth movement of food down the esophagus without puncture. In a horse, this would be keratinized.

What epithelium does the esophagus exhibit? Why is this epithelium important here? How would it vary in a horse?

Simple cuboidal epithelium

What epithelium does the parathyroid exhibit?

Simple cuboidal epithelium

What epithelium does the thyroid exhibit?

when follicle grows hair

anagen

lipids in dog and cat. mucous in pig.

anal gland secretions

envaginations in anal mucosa cutaneous zone. stratified squamous epithelium.

anal sac. epithelium?

Causes: loss of erythrocytes

anemia

loss of cell membrane with secretion. sweat glands.

apocrine method of secretion

New cartilage produced on existing cartilage via chondroblasts produced in perichondrium. Bone growth

appositional growth

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

cutaneous zone epithelium of anal canal epithelium

made of collagen locations: dermis, organ capsules, tendon sheaths

dense irregular connective tissue. locations?

made of collagen tensile strength in one plane

dense regular connective tissue

provides nutrition and removes waste from germinal matrix

dermal papilla

supports epithelium, supplies nutrients, remove waste, tensile strength in all directions (dense irregular connective tissue)

dermis functions

dense irregular connective tissue

dermis tissue

differentiated cells

determined/committed

use for infections and leukemia blood smeared on slide, 100 cells categorized

differential white blood cell count

cells acquiring unique structures and functional characteristics.

differntiation

elastic fibers, perichondrium locations: external ear, auditory tubes, larynx

elastic cartilage

elasticity and tensile strength made of elastin = acidophilic locations: nuchal ligament, external ear, epiglottis, horse abdominal tunic

elastic fibers. staining? locations?

not connected to epithelium. sends secretions through blood stream.

endocrine glands

lines cavities, cover irregular surfaces of cancellous bone,

endosteum

attacks parasites and allergic disorders phagocitize mast cell inflammation large, obvious, acidophilic granules = lysosomes, major basic protein

eosinophils

thermal protection, penetration barrier, minimize loss of bodily fluids, protection against UV rays, thermoregulation, sensory, vitamin D synthesis.

epidermis fuctions

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium containing keratinocytes with spot desmosomes.

epidermis tissue

highly cellular, rapid rate of cell turnover, avascular, polar.

epithelium characteristics

oxygenate tissue hemoglobin rich biconcave high oxygen = release CO2 low oxygen = release oxygen

erythrocyte characteristics

counts erythroctes in blood volume. Low = anemia

erythrocyte count

melanin for black/brown

eumelanin

connected to epithelium. secrete at the surface via merocrin, apocrine, and holocrine methods of secretion.

exocrine glands

replicating. Makes collagen, elastin, reticular fibers and ground substance, fibrocytes.

fibroblasts. what do they produce?

resilient contains fibroblasts/cytes, chondroblasts/cytes collagen fibers = acidophilia in matrix ground substance/chondroblasts/cytes = basophilia locations: menisci of stifle joint, symphyses, intervertebral disks, ligament/tendon attachments.

fibrocartilage. staining and why? contents? locations?

ciliated cells, brush cells (microvilli), goblet cells, small granule cells (neuroendocrine cells), short cells (stem cells)

five cell types in respiratory system

protein synthesis for internal use. basophilic.

free polyribosomes. function? staining?

where hair produced

germinal matrix

Secrete mucus

goblet cell secretions

thermoinsulation, sensory perception, defense/intimidation, and physical, chemical, and microbial barrier

hair functions

bone marrow of long bones, ribs, sternabrae, vertebrae, cranial bones

hematopoietic adult tissues

bone marrow, liver, spleen

hematopoietic fetus tissue locations

plasma protein osmotic pressue, serum flids within the vessels, transports

hemoglobin

loss of entire cell with secretion. sebaceous glands.

holocrine method of secretion.

increase in cell numbers/mitosis. ex) growth in mammory glands during pregnancy.

hyperplasia

cell size and nutrition growth. ex) muscle growth

hypertrophy

unilocular tissue, bodily contours, energy storage, protection, shock absorption, subcutaneous fluids placed here. check hydration here.

hypodermis

loose connective tissue

hypodermis tissue

decrease in cell numbers and stimulation

hypoplasia

Locations: fracture repair, bony tumers Characteristics: disorganized, highly cellular, large lacunae.

immature (woven) bone

dissolving of nucleus after pyknosis associated with cell death

karyolysis

Stratum basale (cell synthesis), stratum spinosum (keratin filament filled cellular extensions with spot desmosomes), stratum granulosum (keratohyalin granules), stratum corneum (dead non-nucleated cells, keratinization).

layers of stratified squamous epithelium

highly specialized, high mitotic potential

liver cells/hepatocytes characteristics

1. hemorrhaging = blood clot. 2. Low blood supply = osteogenic cells from periosteum become chondroblasts. High blood supply = osteogenic cells from periosteum become osteoblasts 3. intramembranous and endochondral ossification 4. osteoclasts reabsorb primary bone and place secondary bone.

long bone fracture repair

packing and diffusion of nutrients made of collagen, contains fibroblasts/cytes and macrophages. Locations: lamina propria, submucosa, subcutis

loose connective tissue

T-lymphocytes (chemotactic agents), chronic inflammation B-lymphocytes (antibodies), plasma cells

lymphocytes

phagocytosis and form from monocytes. contains foamy cytoplasm and primary and secondary lysosomes. Grow to become epitheloid cells or multinucleated giant cells.

macrophage

basophilic due to RER.

serous secretions staining and why

Functions: protection, lubrication, absorbtion, secretion. Locations: intestines (ciliated)

simple columnar epithelium function and location

Functions: secretion and covering. Locations: thyroid gland, kidney, exocrine glands

simple cuboidal epithelium function and location

Function: filtering and dialysis/diffusion. Locations: mesothelium, pericardial, abdominal cavities, endothelium.

simple squamous epithelium function and location

increases as mitotic potential decreases

specialization

protect against torsion force. In dermis, joints,

spot desmosome. where?

Functions: Locations: salivary glands, pancreas, mammary glands, anestrus or spayed bitch

stratified cuboidal or columnar epithelium locations

Functions: protection Locations:

stratified squamous epithelium function

stratum basale and stratum spinosum (layer production)

stratum germinativum

identifies cell as "self"

surface markers

club/dead hair rests in follicle

telogen

photoperiod-length of daylight, temperature, general health, nutrition, hormones, genetics

the intermittent mitotic activity of the matrix cells in the follicle may be controlled by what?

Urinary system. Keeps cells tightly together.

tight junctions. where? function?

source of energy, heat retention, contours of the body, shock absorption

unilocular fat

counts leukocytes in volume of blood. High = infection, leukemia

white blood cell count