Genetics HW questions Exam 2

b. temperate phage

A _______ frequently integrates into the host genome, forming prophages and utilizing a lysogenic cycle to manufacture new phages. a. virulent phage b. temperate phage c. bacteria d. eukaryotic cell

e. The transcript will not be produced

A deletion in an operon removes the promoter. How will that affect the transcript that is produced from the operon? a. The transcript will be produced and normal in length b. The transcript will be produced, but shorter than normal c. The transcript will be produced, but longer than normal d. The transcript will produced, but will contain a deletion e. The transcript will not be produced

d. Haplo-diploid

A male produced from an unfertilized haploid egg is an example of what type of sex determination system? a. X-Y b. Z-W c. X-O d. Haplo-diploid e. None of the answers are correct

c. 23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes.

A map distance of 23.6 between two genes indicates which of the following? a. The genes are 23.6 millimeters apart. b. There are 23.6 other genes between the two genes of interest. c. 23.6% of the offspring exhibit recombination between the two genes. d. 23.6% of the offspring do not survive.

e. Two n+1 and two n-1 gametes.

A nondisjunction event in meiosis I will lead to what type of gametes? a. Four haploid (n) gametes. b. Four n+1 gametes. c. Four n-1 gametes. d. Two haploid (n) gametes, one n-1 gamete, and one n+1 gamete. e. Two n+1 and two n-1 gametes.

c. Homozygous recessive for the genes

A testcross is always performed between the individual that is heterozygous for the genes to be mapped and an individual who is ____________. a. Heterozygous for the genes b. Homozygous dominant for the genes c. Homozygous recessive for the genes d. Lacking the genes e. None of the answers are correct

a. reciprocal translocation.

A translocation cross may occur in an individual that has a(n) a. reciprocal translocation. b. unbalanced translocation. c. simple translocation. d. All of the answers are correct

b. integration

Azidothymidine (AZT) is an HIV drug. AZT is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor. That means AZT acts during the ______ stage of the viral life cycle. a. entry b. integration c. viral assembly d. release

identical, identical, different

Binary fission produces genetically ________ cells, mitosis produces genetically ________ cells, and meiosis produces genetically ________ cells

b. binary fission ; mitosis

Cell division in prokaryotic cells is called ________, while in eukaryotic cells it is called ________. a. binary fission ; binary fission b. binary fission ; mitosis c. meiosis ; mitosis d. mitosis ; binary fission

c. The transposon at the agouti locus in the progeny is hypermethylated

Consider the example from your book/lecture: feeding a specific diet to female mice resulted in an increased proportion of pseudoagouti offspring because a. The female carries the mutant agouti allele b. The offspring have more expression of the mutant agouti allele c. The transposon at the agouti locus in the progeny is hypermethylated d. The transposon at the agouti locus in the progeny is hypomethylated

b. DNA methylation

CpG islands are associated with which of the following? a. Nucleosome location b. DNA methylation c. Steroid hormone activity d. cAMP pathway

b. far apart

Crossing over is more likely to occur between genes that are ______ on a chromosome. a. close together b. far apart

c. homologs

During sexual reproduction, each parent contributes one set of chromosomes. Members of a pair of chromosomes (one from each parent) are called __________. a. karyotypes b. sister chromatids c. homologs d. sex chromosomes

b. Prometaphase

During this phase of the cell cycle the microtubules of the spindle fiber attach to the kinetochore. a. Metaphase b. Prometaphase c. Telophase d. Anaphase e. Prophase

c. S phase

During this phase of the cell cycle, the sister chromatids are formed. a. G 1 phase b. G 2 phase c. S phase d. Prophase e. Cytokinesis

d. All of the answers are correct

Epigenetic inheritance may occur at which of the following stages? a. Oogenesis b. Spermatogenesis c. Embryogenesis d. All of the answers are correct

a. the crossing over of misaligned chromosomes.

Gene duplications may be caused by a. the crossing over of misaligned chromosomes. b. deletion of important genetic information. c. reciprocal translocations. d. position effect. e. None of the answers are correct

b. Promoting open chromatin e. Addition of acetyl groups to histones

Histone acetyltransferases are directly involved in which of the following? Select all that apply a. Removal of histones from chromatin b. Promoting open chromatin c. Promoting closed chromatin d. Insertion of variant histone proteins e. Addition of acetyl groups to histones f. Removal of acetyl groups from histones

a. The female

In birds, ZZ birds are males while ZW birds are females. Which is the heterogametic sex? a. The female b. The male c. Either one can be, depending on how meiosis happens. d. Neither, only humans have a heterogametic sex.

a. two trisomic and two monosomic products

In meiotic nondisjunction, meiotic products can be n+1, n-1, or n depending on when nondisjunction occurs. If non disjunction occurs in Meiosis I, what is the outcome? a. two trisomic and two monosomic products b. one trisomic and three monosomic products c. one trisomic, one monosomic, and two normal products d. None of these answers are correct

A@Bcd@a

Practice drawing an inversion loop that would result from a pairing of the following chromosomes (@ denotes the centromere). A @ B C D E F a @ d c b e f If a crossover occurs between B and C, what would the resultant dicentric chromosome look like? Write your answer as above with @ denoting a centromere.

b. They are more likely to cause infections than previous strains. c. H1N1 influenza and SARS are examples. e. Some emerging viruses began as viruses that infected other species.

Select all features that are true about emerging viruses: a. They are viruses that are not particularly dangerous. b. They are more likely to cause infections than previous strains. c. H1N1 influenza and SARS are examples. d. Healthy people do not contract them. e. Some emerging viruses began as viruses that infected other species.

a. Mitosis c. Meiosis II

Sister chromatids are separated during anaphase of ______________. Select all that apply. a. Mitosis b. Meiosis I c. Meiosis II d. Cytokinesis

c. it is copied by reverse transcriptase, which lacks a proofreading function.

The HIV genome is especially prone to mutation because a. it is made of DNA. b. it is an emerging virus. c. it is copied by reverse transcriptase, which lacks a proofreading function. d. of the many different drugs HIV patients must take

b. Genomic imprinting

The expression of a single allele is associated with which of the following? a. Sex-linked inheritance b. Genomic imprinting c. Maternal inheritance d. Extra nuclear inheritance

true

The majority of autosomal aneuploid conditions are lethal, but sex chromosome aneuploids are usually not lethal. Select one: True False

b. Xist

What gene is most responsible for X-inactivation? a. Xic b. Xist c. Tsix d. Xce

d. Both the Tsix and Xist are genes are in the Xic region

What gene(s) is/are encoded in the Xic? a. Xce b. Xist c. Tsix d. Both the Tsix and Xist are genes are in the Xic region

b. TFIID

What general transcription factor is most often affected by regulatory transcription factors? a. TFIIB b. TFIID c. TFIIE d. TFIIF

c. Attachment-Entry-Integration-Synthesis of viral components-Viral assembly-Release

What is the correct order of the reproductive cycle of viruses? a. Attachment-Entry-Viral assembly-Integration-Synthesis of viral components-Release b. Viral Assembly-Attachment-Entry-Integration-Synthesis of viral components-Release c. Attachment-Entry-Integration-Synthesis of viral components-Viral assembly-Release d. Integration-Attachment-Entry-Viral assembly-Synthesis of viral components-Release

a. To identify which genes are associated with a specific type of histones.

What is the purpose of ChIP-seq? a. To identify which genes are associated with a specific type of histones. b. To identify which genes are methylated. c. To identify which genes are being expressed. d. To identify which proteins are being expressed.

c. GRE-regulated genes would become constitutively expressed.

What would be the result of a mutation in the heat shock protein Hsp90 that prevented its binding to the glucocorticoid receptor? a. GRE-regulated genes would always be silenced. b. The receptor could no longer get into the nucleus. c. GRE-regulated genes would become constitutively expressed. d. The hormone would not be able to bind to the glucocorticoid receptor

a. many new copies of the phage genetic material and coat proteins are assembled to make new phages. The host cell is lysed.

When phage λ enters the lytic cycle a. many new copies of the phage genetic material and coat proteins are assembled to make new phages. The host cell is lysed. b. many new copies of the phage genetic material and coat proteins are assembled to make new phages. The host cell remains intact. c. the genetic material of the phage is integrated into the chromosome of the bacterium. d. it immediately lyses the host cells without producing any new viruses

a. bind, inhibit

When tryptophan binds to the trp repressor, this causes the trp repressor to _________ the trp operator and _________ transcription. a. bind, inhibit b. bind, activate c. not bind, inhibit d. not bind, activate

c. 2n + 1

Which algebraic expression would be used to denote a trisomic organism? a. 3n b. 2n− 1 c. 2n + 1 d. 2n + 2

b. Aster microtubules - positioning of the spindle apparatus

Which microtubule type is paired to its correct function? a. Polar microtubules - positioning of the spindle apparatus b. Aster microtubules - positioning of the spindle apparatus c. Kinetochore microtubules - separate the poles d. Polar microtubules - bind kinetochore to centromere

d. Answers A, B, and C are correct

Which of the following are molecular mechanisms used in epigenetic gene regulation? a. DNA methylation b. Covalent histone modification c. Chromatin remodeling d. Answers A, B, and C are correct

b. It is an enveloped virus with spikes

Which of the following correctly describes the SARS CoV2 virus? a. It lacks a protein capsid b. It is an enveloped virus with spikes c. It is an influenza virus d. It is a temperate phage

b. Phosphorylation of an enzyme. c. Modifying the stability of a protein.

Which of the following is an example of post translational regulation in prokaryotes? Select all that apply. a. Sterically blocking the ribosome. b. Phosphorylation of an enzyme. c. Modifying the stability of a protein. d. Altering the structure of the mRNA

b. Colchicine

_______ is a drug that is used to experimentally produce polyploidy in organisms. a. Penicillin b. Colchicine c. Polymosca d. Karyocine

a. mRNA from a transposable element.

piRNA sequences are complimentary to a. mRNA from a transposable element. b. another RNA within the piRISC. c. the Crispr gene. d. bacteriophage DNA

open

what chromosome structure does Addition of acetyl groups to histones make

open conformation

what chromosome structure does activation make

closed chromatin condensation

what chromosome structure does histone acetylation make

open conformation

what chromosome structure does methylation of cytosines make

closed

what chromosome structure removal of histones make

b. 35; 72

A diploid organism has a total of 36 chromosomes. Assuming all possible chromosome combinations are viable: a) If a mutant version of this organism was monosomic for chromosome 9 how many chromosomes would it have? b) If a mutant tetraploid version of this organism was created how many chromosomes would it have? a. 35; 144 b. 35; 72 c. 73; 144 d. 37; 72

d. 34; 17; 17

A diploid organism that you are studying has 17 pairs of chromosomes. How many total chromosomes are found in a somatic cell from this organism? A sperm cell? An egg cell? a. 17; 16; 16 b. 17; 17; 17 c. 34; 17; 34 d. 34; 17; 17

c. Repressor + inducer

A gene is inducible and under negative control. Which of the following pairs will allow expression of this gene? a. Activator + repressor b. Activator + inhibitor c. Repressor + inducer d. Repressor + co-repressor

a. enhancers, silencers

Activators bind to ______ and repressors bind to ______. a. enhancers, silencers b. insulators, insulators c. enhancers, terminators d. promoters, insulators e. promoters, terminators

c. a small molecule that fits into a site on the enzyme that is not the active site.

Allosteric regulation is accomplished by a. a small molecule that fits into an enzyme's active site. b. a large protein that blocks an enzyme's active site. c. a small molecule that fits into a site on the enzyme that is not the active site. d. a small molecule that covalently modifies a site on the enzyme that is not the active site.

a. linkage group

Another name for a chromosome is a _______, since it contains genes that are often inherited together. a. linkage group b. crossing overgroup c. genetic recombinant d. bivalent

c. Binds to the mRNA and prevents translation

Antisense RNA does which of the following? a. Inhibits the formation of the open complex in transcription b. Occupies the A and P sites of the ribosome c. Binds to the mRNA and prevents translation d. Prevents the correct folding of a newly formed peptide

d. Gene duplication

Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the * indicates the centromere)before A B C D * E F G Hafter A B C D * E F E F G H a. Translocation b. Deletion c. Inversion d. Gene duplication

b. Pericentric inversion

Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (the * indicates the centromere)before A B C D * E F G Hafter A B G F E * D C H a. Reciprocal translocation b. Pericentric inversion c. Paracentric inversion d. Gene duplication e. None of the answers are correct

c. Man; meiosis I

Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive blood clotting disorder. A normal man and a woman with hemophilia A have a child with Klinefelter Syndrome (XXY). This child does not have hemophilia. In whom did non-disjunction occur? In meiosis I or meiosis II? a. Woman; meiosis I b. Woman; meiosis II c. Man; meiosis I d. Man; meiosis II

c. By directing the action of histone-modifying enzymes

How does HOTAIR regulate gene expression? a. Formation of a double stranded RNA structure between HOTAIR and the mRNA prevents translation b. Recruitment of repressors to the DNA c. By directing the action of histone-modifying enzymes d. By degrading target RNAs

d. Genes that are far apart on the same chromosome will recombine more frequently.

How does the location of two genes affect crossing over? a. Genes that are close together on the same chromosome will recombine more frequently. b. Genes that are on different (non-homologous) chromosomes will recombine more frequently. c. Genes that are on sex chromosomes will recombine more frequently. d. Genes that are far apart on the same chromosome will recombine more frequently.

b. 1

How many Barr bodies would an individual with a XXY genotype possess? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. None of the answers are correct

2^3 = 8

How many possible gametes could be produced from these two chromosomes? Assume that crossing over and double crossing over can happen (chromosome with 3 alleles

c. Transcription would be more difficult to activate in the absence of glucose

If CAP could not bind to its CAP site, then what would be the result? Assume lactose is present in each scenario. a. Transcription would be more difficult to repress in the presence of glucose b. Transcription would be more difficult to activate in the presence of glucose c. Transcription would be more difficult to activate in the absence of glucose d. Transcription would be more difficult to repress in the absence of glucose.

a. Glucose

If a bacteria is placed in an environment that contains both glucose and lactose, the regulation of the lac operon will allow which nutrient to be processed first? a. Glucose b. Lactose c. Both will be processed equally d. Neither will be processed in this environment

b. 100%, 100%

If a cell has the following chromosome and F' factor, what levels of expression would be seen without and with lactose? 100% represents the wildtype expression of beta-galactosidase from the bacterial chromosome alone. Chromosome: I+ P O- Z+ Y+ A+ F' factor: I+ P O Z- Y+ A+ a. 0%, 0% b. 100%, 100% c. 100%, 200% d. 0%, 200% e. 200%, 200%

c. 100%, 200%

If a cell has the following chromosome and F' factor, what levels of expression would be seen without and with lactose? 100% represents the wildtype expression of beta-galactosidase from the bacterial chromosome alone. Chromosome: I- P O Z+ Y+ A+ F' factor: I+ P O- Z+ Y+ A+ a. 0%, 0% b. 100%, 100% c. 100%, 200% d. 0%, 100% e. 200%, 200%

d. Transcription would always be attenuated.

If transcription and translation were not coupled in bacterial cells, which of the following would be true about regulation of the trp operon? a. There would be no attenuation of transcription. b. Transcription would only be attenuated when Trp was high. c. Transcription would only be attenuated when Trp was low. d. Transcription would always be attenuated.

False

If two genes are linked, it means that they independently assort. Select one: True False

a. interference

In a given mapping experiment, you expect that incidence of double crossovers is 3.5%, but you only observe 2.5%. This can be explained by ________________. a. interference b. linkage c. coincidence d. segregation

b. 27%

In a mapping cross, you determine that the recombination frequency between: loci Q and P is 12% loci Q and L is 15%. If locus Q is in between loci P and L, then the recombination frequency between P and L should be approximately a. 3%. b. 27%. c. 50%. d. 75%.

a. Parental phenotypes.

In a mapping experiment with three linked genes, which phenotype should occur most often in the F2 offspring? a. Parental phenotypes. b. Phenotypes of individuals with single crossover events. c. Phenotypes of individuals with double crossover events. d. All of the phenotypes should occur equally in the F2 generation.

b. diploid ; haploid

In animals, somatic cells are ________ and germ cells are __________. a. diploid ; diploid b. diploid ; haploid c. haploid ; diploid d. haploid ; haploid

a. Expression of miRNA gene, processing of miRNA transcript, transport to cytoplasm, binding to RISC, binding to target mRNA

In order of their occurrence what are the steps in RNA interference? a. Expression of miRNA gene, processing of miRNA transcript, transport to cytoplasm, binding to RISC, binding to target mRNA b. Expression of miRNA gene, transport to cytoplasm, binding to RISC, binding to target mRNA, degradation of miRNA transcript c. Expression of miRNA gene, binding to target mRNA, transport to cytoplasm, binding to RISC d. Expression of miRNA gene, processing of miRNA transcript, transport to cytoplasm, binding to target mRNA, binding to RISC

a. Paternal, paternal

In the Igf-2 allele, which chromosome is imprinted (methylated)? Which is expressed? a. Paternal, paternal b. Paternal, maternal c. Maternal, paternal d. Maternal, maternal

b. More of the F2 look like the parental generation than expected. d. The F1 phenotype matches the dominant phenotype

In the case of linkage, which of the following is observed during a two-factor cross of true-breeding individuals? Select all that apply. a. A 9:3:3:1 ratio is seen in the phenotypes of the F2 generation. b. More of the F2 look like the parental generation than expected. c. The F1 phenotype is different than both of the parents. d. The F1 phenotype matches the dominant phenotype

a. Crispr

Into which gene of the CRISPR-Cas system are fragments of bacteriophage DNA inserted? a. Crispr b. tracr c. Cas9 d. Cas1 e. Cas2

d. the virus integrates into the host genome and remains dormant

Latency in HIV occurs when a. the virus switches back to an active form. b. new viral particles are made. c. the viral genome forms an episome and remains dormant. d. the virus integrates into the host genome and remains dormant

b. Independent assortment

Linkage is an exception to which of Mendel's laws? a. Equal segregation b. Independent assortment c. Both of the above d. None of the above

a. 46 b. 46 b. 23 d. 92 e. 92 f. 46

Match each stage of mitosis or meiosis with the number of chromosomes found in each human cell: a. Prophase b. Prophase I c. Prophase II d. Anaphase e. Anaphase I f. Anaphase II

a. S phase b. G0 c. mitosis d. cytokinesis

Match each stage of of the cell cycle with the cellular events that occur during it. a. Chromosomes are replicated b. Cell is terminally differentiated c. Chromosomes get divided d. Cell divides into two new cells

d. chiasma

The physical structure that is formed when two chromatids cross over is called a(n) _______. a. synaptonemal complex b. bivalent c. karyotype d. chiasma

c. Pachytene

The process of crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis? a. Diakinesis b. Diplotene c. Pachytene d. Zygotene e. Leptotene

c. gene duplications

The production of gene families, such as the globin genes is the result of ________. a. inversions b. deficiencies c. gene duplications d. simple translocations e. None of the answers are correct

a. posttranslational regulation

The regulation of protein function is a type of______. a. posttranslational regulation b. transcriptional regulation c. translational regulation d. posttranscriptional regulation

c. No, this would likely kill the cells that were drug treated, because they couldn't appropriately incorporate lysine into their proteins.

The reverse transcription of HIV RNA utilizes host cell tRNA as a primer. Specifically, a tRNA for lysine is utilized. Would a drug that blocked the host cell synthesis of the tRNA for lysine be a good drug to prevent the HIV life cycle? a. Yes, it should stop the reverse transcription of the HIV genome with few side effects. b. No, the virus would just use a different tRNA for priming. c. No, this would likely kill the cells that were drug treated, because they couldn't appropriately incorporate lysine into their proteins. d. No, the priming function of the tRNA is not essential for the HIV life cycle.

b. copy number variation.

The salivary amylase gene (AMY1) is present in two diploid copies in chimpanzees. Humans are known to have between 6-15 copies, an adaptation that is thought to be related to the high-starch diet of humans. This difference among humans is an example of ______________. a. G banding. b. copy number variation. c. a simple translocation. d. a reciprocal translocation

a. p, q

The short arm of a chromosome is denoted by the letter _______ and the long arm by the letter _______. a. p, q b. s, l c. q, p d. c, d

a. To count the number of chromosomes.

What is the purpose of a karyotype? a. To count the number of chromosomes. b. To identify polymorphisms in DNA. c. To determine someone's genotype. d. All of the above.

c. TrxG complex proteins activate gene expression by methylating histone H3. e. PcG complexes repress transcription by methylating histone H3

What is true about the trithorax (TrxG) and polycomb (PcG) complexes of proteins? Select all that apply a. TrxG proteins methylate DNA while PcG complexes methylate histone H3 b. Methylation of histone H3 by TrxG results in silencing of gene expression c. TrxG complex proteins activate gene expression by methylating histone H3. d. TrxG and PcG complexes both methylate histones to repress transcription e. PcG complexes repress transcription by methylating histone H3

b. Transcription factors influencing one gene's expression may abnormally influence a neighboring gene's expression.

What might happen if the insulator between two genes is missing? a. Without the insulator, neither gene can be transcribed. b. Transcription factors influencing one gene's expression may abnormally influence a neighboring gene's expression. c. Transcription factors will not be able to influence the expression of either gene. d. Without insulation, both genes will be expressed at maximal levels. e. Transcription factors will not be able to bind to the insulator

c. Triploid

What type of plants are usually seedless? a. Aneuploid b. Diploid c. Triploid d. Tetraploid

c. Attenuation would not occur if tryptophan was high

What would be the result if the U-rich sequence in the trp operon was replaced by a UG-rich sequence? a. Attenuation would occur if tryptophan was high b. Attenuation would occur if tryptophan is low c. Attenuation would not occur if tryptophan was high d. The stem-loop structure could no longer form

a. The presence of a molecule changes the conformation (shape) of the RNA. b. The conformation of the RNA can inhibit translation by blocking the Shine-Dalgarno site. c. The conformation of the RNA can promote transcription by blocking attenuation. d. The conformation of the RNA can prevent transcription by promoting rho-independent termination.

Which of the following accurately describes the function of a riboswitch? Select all that apply. a. The presence of a molecule changes the conformation (shape) of the RNA. b. The conformation of the RNA can inhibit translation by blocking the Shine-Dalgarno site. c. The conformation of the RNA can promote transcription by blocking attenuation. d. The conformation of the RNA can prevent transcription by promoting rho-independent termination. e. The conformation of the RNA can reduce the stability of the mRNA

e. Both two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome and genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.

Which of the following defines the principle of linkage? a. Two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome. b. Genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group. c. The process by which genetic information is exchanged between homologous chromosomes. d. All of the answers are correct. e. Both two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome and genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.

a. The spindle only forms during meiosis.

Which of the following is not true about the mitotic spindle? a. The spindle only forms during meiosis. b. The spindle attaches to chromosomes at the kinetochore. c. The spindle is made of microtubules. d. The spindle has two poles

d. Answers B and C are correct

Which of the following is part of the mechanism for epigenetic regulation of the Igf-2 gene? a. Binding of CTC factors to methylated sequences b. Methylation of the ICR and DMR domains c. Binding of CTC factors to non-methylated sequences d. Answers B and C are correct e. Answers A and B are correct

b. Binding of multiple Xist transcripts to Xic on the X chromosome that will be inactivated

Which of the following is part of the process of X chromosome inactivation a. Expression of Xist from both chromosomes at the start of the process b. Binding of multiple Xist transcripts to Xic on the X chromosome that will be inactivated c. Compaction of the active X chromosome into a Barr body d. Binding of Tsix transcripts to the X chromosome to be inactivated after the Xist transcripts binds to Xic

c. Anaphase I

Which stage of the cell cycle is illustrated by the picture below? a. Telophase II b. Anaphase c. Anaphase I d. Anaphase II e. Telophase

b. Metacentric

Which type of chromosome has the longest p arm of the chromosome? a. Acrocentric b. Metacentric c. Telocentric d. Submetacentric

d. Because their gametes are contained within a spore.

Why are fungi so useful for mapping and linkage? a. Because they are unicellular. b. Because they do not do meiosis. c. Because their gametes do not have linkage. d. Because their gametes are contained within a spore.